Prasanna

Odisha State Board CHSE Odisha Class 12 Biology Important Questions Chapter 6 Sex Determination Important Questions and Answers.

CHSE Odisha 12th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 6 Sex Determination

Sex Determination Class 12 Important Questions CHSE Odisha

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Choose the correct option

Question 1.
Non-homologous segment of Y-chromosome carries
(a) dominant genes
(b) recessive genes
(c) holandric genes
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) holandric genes

Question 2.
Which type of sex determination is found in humans?
(a) XX – XY
(b) Z\V – ZZ
(c) XX – XO
(d) ZZ – ZO
Answer:
(a) XX – XY

Question 3.
In XO-type of sex-determination
(a) females produce two different types of gametes
(b) males produce two different types of gametes
(c) females produce gametes with Y-chromosome
(d) males produce single type of gametes
Answer:
(b) males produce two different types of gametes

Question 4.
Which of the following types of sex-determination is found in grasshopper?
(a) XX female and XY male
(b) ZW female and ZZ male
(c) XX female and XO male
(d) XX male and XO female
Answer:
(c) XX female and XO male

Question 5.
Sex chromosomes of a female bird are represented by
(a) XO
(b) XX
(c) ZW
(d) ZZ
Answer:
(c) ZW

Question 6.
ZZ/ZW type of sex-determination is seen in
(a) snails
(b) peacock
(c) platypus
(d) cockroach
Answer:
(b) peacock

Question 7.
In gynandromorph
(a) all cells have XX genotype
(b) all cells have XY genotype
(c) all cells with XXY genotype
(d) some cells of the body contain XX and some cells with XY genotype
Answer:
(d) some cells of the body contain XX and some cells with XY genotype

Question 8.
In which chromosome is the gene for haemophilia located?
(a) X-chromosome
(b) Y-chromosome
(c) Autosome
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Answer:
(a) X-chromosome

Question 9.
A colourblind person cannot distinguish
(a) all colours
(b) green
(c) red
(d) red and green
Answer:
(d) red and green

Question 10.
Which chromosome-linked genes do cause the genetic metabolic Phenylketonuria (PKU)?
(a) Somatic dominant gene
(b) Somatic recessive gene
(c) Y-linked gene
(d) X-linked gene
Answer:
(b) Somatic recessive gene

Question 11.
Down’s syndrome is an example of
(a) triploidy
(b) polyteny
(c) polyploidy
(d) aneuploidy
Answer:
(d) aneuploidy

Question 12.
What is the diploid chromosome number in a person suffering from Down syndrome?
(a) 45
(b) 46
(c) 47
(d) 48
Answer:
(c) 47

Question 13.
Which is the genotype of Turner’s syndrome?
(a) XO
(b) XXY
(c) XYY
(d) XXX
Answer:
(a) XO

Question 14.
Number of Barr bodies present in Turner’s syndrome is
(a) 0
(b) 1
(c) 2
(d) Both (b) and (c)
Answer:
(a) 0

Question 15.
In which of the following diseases, the man has an extra X-chromosome?
(a) Bleeder’s disease
(b) Turner’s syndrome
(c) Klinefelter’s syndrome
(d) Down’s syndrome
Answer:
(c) Klinefelter’s syndrome

Question 16.
A colour blind person cannot distinguish colour/colours.
(a) all
(b) red
(c) green
(d) red and green
Answer:
(d) red and green

Question 17.
The extra inactive X-chromosome in karyotype of Klinefelter syndrome is called
(a) Barr body
(b) barr chromosome
(c) dosage body
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Barr body

Correct the sentences, if required, by changing the underlined word(s)

Question 1.
Heterogametic individual produces similar type of gametes.
Answer:
Homogametic individual produces similar type of gametes.

Question 2.
D. melanogaster with 2A +XX chromosome complement is female.
Answer:
Correct statement.

Question 3.
Gynandromorphs die due to failure of segregation.
Answer:
Correct statement.

Question 4.
Mary F lyon discovered X-chromosome in male bug and described it as X-bodv.
Answer:
Barr body

Question 5.
The genotype of a carrier haemophila is XhXh.
Answer:
XXh

Question 6.
Cystic fibrosis is a sex-linked recessive disease, which is transmitted from an unaffected carrier female to some of the male offsprings.
Answer:
Haemophilia

Question 7.
Down syndrome is an inherited blood disorder, in which the body makes an abnormal form of haemoglobin.
Answer:
Thalassemia

Question 8.
Klinefelter syndrome is an abnormal condition caused by the presence of an extra Y chromosome.
Answer:
X

Fill in the blanks

Question 1.
In humans, males are heterogametic, whereas females are
Answer:
homogametic.

Question 2.
According to genic balance theory, the sex index of 1.0 is a ………….. .
Answer:
Female

Question 3.
The unfertilised egg of honeybee develops into …………….. .
Answer:
drones

Question 4.
In grasshopper, female is ……………. and the male is …………. .
Answer:
XX and XO

Question 5.
…….. is also known as bleeder’s disease.
Answer:
Haemophilia

Question 6.
Down’s syndrome is due to ………….. of chromosome 21.
Answer:
trisomy

Question 7.
Turner’s syndrome is caused due to of one of the X-chromosome.
Answer:
the absence

Question 8.
………….. is an inherited disorder which results in the failure to distinguish red and green colours.
Answer:
Colour Blindness

Express in one or two word(s)

Question 1.
The sex of the child developed from 44A+XX zygote.
Answer:
Female

Question 2.
At high temperature, what sex of turtle is produced?
Answer:
Female

Question 3.
Name the environmental factor that determines the sex in Bonellia.
Answer:
Temperature

Question 4.
Name any one autosomal recessive disease.
Answer:
Thalassemia.

Question 5.
Name the scientist who discovered Down’s syndrome.
Answer:
Langdon Down.

Question 6.
A heritable disorder linked to genes on the non-sex chromosomes.
Answer:
Down’s syndrone

Question 7.
A heritable disease caused by the presence of one defective allele.
Answer:
Thalassemia

Question 8.
Chromosomes fail to sort properly during meiosis.
Answer:
Down’s syndrome

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is Barr body?
Answer:
A Barr body is a small darkly stained mass of X-chromosome, which in inactive and are found only in the female cells. Out of the two X-chromosomes in feamales only one is functional and the other remain as Barr body.

Question 2.
How the sex is determined in humans?
Or Write a short note on sex-determination in human.
Answer:
The male and female individuals normally differ in their chromosomal constituents. There are two types of chromosomes, i.e.

1. Sex chromosomes or Allosomes The chromosomes responsible for sex determination, e.g. X and Y-chromosomes.
2. Autosomes The chromosomes which determines the somatic characters.

X-chromosome was first discovered by Henking (1891). He named this structure as X-body. Scientists further explained that X-body was a chromosome and called it as X-chromosome. The concept of autosomes and allosomes was proposed by Wilson and Stevens (1902-1905) in chromosomal theory of sex-determination.

There are various types of chromosomal sex-determination mechanism observed in different animals as follows

Mechanism of sex-determination

Question 3.
What is male heterozygosity?
Answer:
Male heterozygosity is a type of mechanism of sex-determination in organisms. XX and XY type of sex-determination shows the phenomenon of male heterogamety or heterozygosity because in both these cases, males produce two different types of gametes such as • Either with or without X-chromosome.

• Some gametes with X-chromosome and some with Y-chromosome.

Question 4.
Describe sex-determination in grasshoppers.
Answer:
Grasshoppers have XX-XO method of sex-determination. In this, female has XX and produces homogametic eggs, while male has only one chromosome and produces two types of sperms, e.g. gymnosperms (with X) and angiosperms (without X).

Question 5.
(i) why grasshopper and Drosophila show male heterogamety? Explain.
(ii) Explain female heterogamety with the help of examples.
Answer:
(i) Male heterogamety is shown by male grasshopper and Drosophila, as they both produce two types of gametes having 50% X-chromosomes and other with 50% Y-chromosomes.

(ii) In this case, the total number of chromosomes are same in both males and females. But two different types of gametes having different sex chromosomes are produced by females.

1. ZZ-ZW Mechanism
This mechanism of sex-determination is seen in birds, fowls and fishes. Females have one Z and one W-chromosome (i.e. heterogametic) along with autosomes whereas males have a pair of Z-chromosomes (i.e. homogametic). Thus, the sex of an organism is determined by the type of ovum that is fertilised to produce an offspring.

Determination of sex (ZZ-ZW) in fowl and birds

2. ZZ-ZO
In this mechanism of sex-determination, the female is heterogametic (ZO) and male is homogametic (ZZ). It occurs in lepidoptera, e.g. certain butterflies and moths.

Determination of heterogametic and homogametic female and male

Question 6.
Write the types of sex-determination mechanisms of the following crosses. Give an example of each type.
(i) Female XX with male XO
(ii) Female ZW with male ZZ
Answer:
(i) The type of sex-determination mechanism shown in female XX with male XO is male heterogamety, e.g. grasshoppeer.
(ii) The type of sex-determination mechanism shown in female ZW with male ZZ is female heterogamety, e.g. birds.

Question 7.
Write short note on sex-determination in Bonellia viridis.
Answer:
In Bonellia viridis (worm), the environment determines the sex differentiation. In these, when the young ones are reared alone they develop into females, but when the newly hatched eggs are reared in close proximity to an adult female (i.e. attached to female proboscis) they become male.
This is due to the hormones released by female proboscis which induces larvae to differentiate into males.

Question 8.
What is criss-cross inheritance?
Answer:
Criss-cross inheritance is defined as the inheritance of sex-linked characters transmitted from father to daughter, who pass it on to the grandsons. The trait is expressed only in males in alternate generations, e.g. red-green colours blindness, haemophilia, etc.

Question 9.
What is sex-linked inheritance? Discuss the inheritance of haemophilia in man.
Answer:
Inheritance of Haemophilia:
It is a sex-linked recessive disease, which is transmitted from an unaffected carrier female to some of the male offsprings. Due to this, patient continues to bleed even during a minor injury because of defective blood coagulation and hence, it is also called as bleeders disease. The gene for haemophilia is located on X-chromosome and it is recessive to its normal allele. In this disease, a single protein that is part of cascade of proteins involved in blood clotting is affected.

The possibility of a female becoming a haemophilic is extremely rare because mother of such a female has to be atleast carrier and father should be haemophilic, e.g. females suffer from this disease only in homozygous condition, i.e. XCXC. The haemophilic alleles shows criss-cross inheritance and they follow Mendelian pattern of inheritance. The family pedigree of Queen Victoria (who was a carrier of haemophilia) shows a number of haemophilic individual.
The inheritance is explained below


Four crosses explaining the inheritance of haemophilia allele in human ; (a) Normal mother and haemophilic father, (b) Haemophilic mother and normal father, (c) Carrier mother and normal father and (d) Carrier mother and haemophilic father

Question 10.
Haemophilia is a sex-linked inheritance condition in humans where a simple cut causes non-stop bleeding. Study the pedigree chart showing the inheritance of haemophilia in a family. Give reasons, which explain that haemophilia is (i) sex-linked and (ii) caused by X-linked gene.

Answer:
(i) Haemophilia is sex-linked because

• It is transmitted from an unaffected carrier female to some of the male offsprings.
• Female rarely becomes haemophilic as her mother has to be atleast a carrier and father should be haemophilic.

(ii) Gene for haemophilia is present on X-chromosome because the heterozygous female for haemophilia may transmit the disease to sons.

Question 11.
What is sex-linked inheritance? Discuss this taking colour blindness as an example.
Answer:
Sex chromosomes contain genes primarily concerned with the determination the sex of the organism. In addition to sex genes, they also contain the genes to control other body characters, thus are called sex-linked genes. The somatic characters whose genes are located on sex chromosomes are known as sex-linked characters. The inheritance of a trait (phenotype) that is determined by a gene located on one of the sex chromosome is called sex-linked inheritance.

Inheritance of Red-Green Colour Blindness
It is a sex-linked recessive disorder, which results in defect in either red or green cone of eye. It does not mean the incapability to see any colour at all, infact it leads to the failure in discrimination between red and green colour. The gene for colour blindness is present on X-chromosome.
It is present mostly in males (X^CY) because of the presence of only one X-chromosome as compared to two chromosomes in females. A heterozygous female has normal vision, but is a carrier and passes on the disorder to some of her sons. Its inheritance pattern is similar to that of haemophilia.

Question 12.
Write short note on inheritance of colour blindness in man.
Answer:
Sex chromosomes contain genes primarily concerned with the determination the sex of the organism. In addition to sex genes, they also contain the genes to control other body characters, thus are called sex-linked genes. The somatic characters whose genes are located on sex chromosomes are known as sex-linked characters. The inheritance of a trait (phenotype) that is determined by a gene located on one of the sex chromosome is called sex-linked inheritance.

Inheritance of Red-Green Colour Blindness
It is a sex-linked recessive disorder, which results in defect in either red or green cone of eye. It does not mean the incapability to see any colour at all, infact it leads to the failure in discrimination between red and green colour. The gene for colour blindness is present on X-chromosome.

It is present mostly in males (X^CY) because of the presence of only one X-chromosome as compared to two chromosomes in females. A heterozygous female has normal vision, but is a carrier and passes on the disorder to some of her sons. Its inheritance pattern is similar to that of haemophilia.

Question 13.
If a father and son are both defective in red-green colour vision, is it likely that the son inherited the trait from his father. Comment.
Answer:
No, defective gene for red-green colour vision cannot be inherited from father to his son. Gene for colour blindness is X-chromosome linked and sons receive their sole X-chromosome from their mother, not from their father. Male to male inheritance is not possible for X-linked traits in humans.
In the given case, the mother of the son must be a carrier (heterozygous) for colour blindness gene, thus transmitting the gene to her son.

Question 14.
A colourblind child is born to a normal couple. Work out a cross to show how it is possible. Mention the sex of this child.
Answer:
It is a sex-linked recessive disorder, which results in defect in either red or green cone of eye. It does not mean the incapability to see any colour at all, infact it leads to the failure in discrimination between red and green colour. The gene for colour blindness is present on X-chromosome.

It is present mostly in males (X^CY) because of the presence of only one X-chromosome as compared to two chromosomes in females. A heterozygous female has normal vision, but is a carrier and passes on the disorder to some of her sons. Its inheritance pattern is similar to that of haemophilia.

Question 15.
Write the symptoms of Down’s syndrome.
Answer:
The symptoms of Down’s syndrome are

1. Broad forehead
2. Short and broad neck
3. Short and stubby fingers
4. Partially open mouth, furrowed tongue
5. Mental retardation.

Question 16.
How is the child affected, if it has grown from the zygote formed by an XX-egg fertilised by a Y-carrying sperm? What do you call this abnormality?
Answer:

• The zygote will be XXY. It means the zygote is male with feminine characters.
• This abnormality is called Klinefelter’s syndrome.

Question 17.
Name a disorder, give the karyotype and write the symptoms, where a human male suffers as a result of an additional X-chromosome.
Answer:
The disorder is Klinefelter’s syndrome. It is a chromosomal disorder, which occurs in males. The presence of an additional copy of X-chromosome results in karyotype 44 + XXY.

HF Klinefelter first described this condition in 1942.
This genetic disorder occurs due to the presence of an additional copy of the X-chromosome. It is also known as trisomy of X-chromosome. Its estimated birth frequency is 1/500 live male births.

Genetic Basis
The union of an abnormal XX-egg with a normal Y-sperm or a normal X-egg with an abnormal XY-sperms results in the karyotype of 47, XXY in males or 47, XXX in females.

The abnormal eggs and sperms are formed due to the v primary non-disjunction of X and Y chromosomes during the maturation phase of gametogenesis. Although the usual karyotype of this condition is 47 + XXY but sometimes more complex karyotypes also occurs, e.g. XXXY, XXXXY, XXXXXY, XXXXYY, etc.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Explain the chromosomal basis of sex-determination in animals.
Or Give an account of chromosomal theory of sex-determination.
Or Explain the chromosomal theory of sex-determination in animals.
Or Discuss the chromosomal theory of sex-determination in animal’s.
Or Describe the chromosomal basis of sex-determination in human, honeybee and birds.
Or Discuss sex-determination in birds and honey bees.
Answer:
Chromosomal Mechanism of Sex-Determination:
The male and female individuals normally differ in their chromosomal constituents. There are two types of chromosomes, i.e.

1. Sex chromosomes or Allosomes The chromosomes responsible for sex determination, e.g. X and Y-chromosomes.
2. Autosomes The chromosomes which determines the somatic characters.

X-chromosome was first discovered by Henking (1891). He named this structure as X-body. Scientists further explained that X-body was a chromosome and called it as X-chromosome. The concept of autosomes and allosomes was proposed by Wilson and Stevens (1902-1905) in chromosomal theory of sex-determination.

There are various types of chromosomal sex-determination mechanism observed in different animals as follows

Mechanism of sex-determination

Sex-Determination involving Heterogametic Males:
It is the mechanism in which male produces two different types of gametes. The two conditions that can occur in males are

• Only one X chromosome containing gamete is present.
• Some gametes with X-chromosome and some with Y-chromosome.

(i) XX-XY Type or Lygaeus Mechanism:
This mechanism was first studied by Wilson and Stevens in the milkweed bug called Lygaeus turcicus.
It is present in certain insects like Drosophila melanogaster and mammals including human.
In males, an X-chromosome is present but its other part is very small called as Y-chromosome, whereas, females have a pair of only X-chromosome, i.e. XX.

Both males and females bear same number of chromosomes. The males have autosomes plus XY-chromosomes and females have autosomes plus XX-chromosomes. The males produce two types of gametes containing X or Y sex chromosome (heterogametic) and females produce only one type of gametes with an X-chromosome (homogametic).

(a) Determination of sex in Drosophila
(b) Pattern of sex chromosomal inheritance in human

Thus, in this type of sex-determination, the presence of Y-chromosomes determines the maleness.

(ii) XX-XO Mechanism
In this pattern, the female has two X-chromosomes (called XX), while male has only one X-chromosome (called XO). The Y-chromosome is completely absent here and it is denoted by the letter O. Thus, the presence of unpaired X-chromosome determines the masculine sex. The female just like the previous method produces, only one type of eggs and male produces two types of sperms, i.e. 50% with one X-chromosome and 50% without any sex chromosome. The sex of offspring depends upon the type of sperm, which fertilises the egg.

Determination of sex in grasshopper (XX-XO type)

Eggs fertilised by sperms having an X-chromosome become females and those fertilised by sperms that do not have X-chromosome become males, e.g. grasshopper and bugs.

Sex-Determination involving Heterogametic Female:
In this case, the total number of chromosomes are same in both males and females. But two different types of gametes having different sex chromosomes are produced by females.

(i) ZZ-ZW Mechanism
This mechanism of sex-determination is seen in birds, fowls and fishes. Females have one Z and one W-chromosome (i.e. heterogametic) along with autosomes whereas males have a pair of Z-chromosomes (i.e. homogametic). Thus, the sex of an organism is determined by the type of ovum that is fertilised to produce an offspring.

Determination of sex (ZZ-ZW) in fowl and birds

(ii) ZZ-ZO
In this mechanism of sex-determination, the female is heterogametic (ZO) and male is homogametic (ZZ). It occurs in lepidoptera, e.g. certain butterflies and moths.

Determination of heterogametic and homogametic female and male

Question 2.
(i) Also describe as to, who determines the sex of an unborn child?
(ii) Mention whether temperature has a role in sex-determination.
Answer:
(i) As a rule, the heterogametic organism determines the sex of the unborn child. In case of humans, since males are heterogametic it is the father and not the mother who decides the sex of the child.
(ii) In some animals like crocodiles, lower temperature favours the hatching of female offsprings and higher temperature leads to hatching of male offsprings.
This pattern is reversed in Bonellia worm where females are produces in high temperature and males are produced in lower temperature.

Question 3.
Describe various environmental factors that help in sex-determination.
Answer:
Environmental Factors in Sex-Determination:
In some lower animals, sex-determination is non-genetic and depends on the factors present in the external environment.
Different environmental factors responsible for sex-determination are given below

Chemotactic Sex-Determination:
It is seen in males of the marine worm Bonellia. These are small, degenerate and live within the reproductive tract of the larger female. All organs of male worm’s body are degenerate except those of the reproductive system.

In Bonellia, the larvae of male and female are genetically and cytolosically similar, i.e. it is hermaphrodite. A newly hatched worm if reared from a single cell kept in isolation, it develops into a female. If the larvae are reared with mature females in water, they adhere to the proboscis.
Later they transform into males who eventually migrate into the female reproductive tract, where they become parasitic.

It has been found that a chemotactic substance secreted by the proboscis of a mature female Bonellia induces the differentiation of larva into males.

Sex-determination in Bonellia

Temperature Dependent Sex-Determination:
In some reptiles, the temperature at which the fertilised eggs are incubated prior to hatching plays a major role in determining the sex of the offspring. Surprisingly high temperature during incubation have opposite effect on sex-determination in different species.

In turtles, high incubation temperature (above 30°C) of eggs results in the production of female progeny whereas in the lizard and crocodiles, high incubation temperature results in the production of male offspring. At the lower temperature range between 22.5-27°C, male turtles are produced. This pattern is reversed in lizards and crocodiles.

Question 4.
What is sex-linked inheritance? Discuss how sex-linked gene inheritance occurs in human, giving two examples.
Or What is sex-linked inheritance? Discuss the mechanism with reference to haemophilia.
Answer:
Inheritance of Haemophilia
It is a sex-linked recessive disease, which is transmitted from an unaffected carrier female to some of the male offsprings. Due to this, patient continues to bleed even during a minor injury because of defective blood coagulation and hence, it is also called as bleeders disease. The gene for haemophilia is located on X-chromosome and it is recessive to its normal allele. In this disease, a single protein that is part of cascade of proteins involved in blood clotting is affected.

The possibility of a female becoming a haemophilic is extremely rare because mother of such a female has to be atleast carrier and father should be haemophilic, e.g. females suffer from this disease only in homozygous condition, i.e. X^CX^C. The haemophilic alleles shows criss-cross inheritance and they follow Mendelian pattern of inheritance. The family pedigree of Queen Victoria (who was a carrier of haemophilia) shows a number of haemophilic individual.
The inheritance is explained below


Four crosses explaining the inheritance of haemophilia allele in human ; (a) Normal mother and haemophilic father, (b) Haemophilic mother and normal father, (c) Carrier mother and normal father and (d) Carrier mother and haemophilic father

Inheritance of Red-Green Colour Blindness:
It is a sex-linked recessive disorder, which results in defect in either red or green cone of eye. It does not mean the incapability to see any colour at all, infact it leads to the failure in discrimination between red and green colour. The gene for colour blindness is present on X-chromosome.

It is present mostly in males (X^CY) because of the presence of only one X-chromosome as compared to two chromosomes in females. A heterozygous female has normal vision, but is a carrier and passes on the disorder to some of her sons. Its inheritance pattern is similar to that of haemophilia

Question 5.
(i) Why are thalassemia and haemophilia categorised as Mendelian disorders? Write the symptoms of these diseases. Explain their pattern of inheritance in humans.
(ii) Write the genotypes of the normal parents producing a haemophilic son.
Answer:
(i) Thalassemia and haemophilia are categorised as
Mendelian disorders because these disorders are due to alteration in a single gene. Also, they are transmitted to offsprings through Mendelian principles of inheritance. Symptoms and pattern of inheritance are given below

(a) Thalassemia It is an autosomal linked recessive blood disorder characterised by defect in a, (3 and 8 chain resulting in abnormal Hb molecule. Symptom Anaemia.
Inheritance Two mutant alleles (one from each parent) must be inherited for an individual to be affected, i.e. homozygous. Heterozygous are carriers and may pass the mutant allele to children.

(b) Haemophilia It is a sex-linked recessive disorder whose gene is located on X-chromosome. Symptom Prolonged clotting time and internal bleeding, even in a minor injury.
Inheritance The gene is present on X-chromosome, so it is inherited by males as they have a single X-chromosome. Affected males are said to be hemizygous. Females have two X-chromosomes, thus possibility of them being affected is rare as the mother of such female has to be atleast carrier and father should be haemophilic.

(ii) Genotypes of the normal parents producing a haemophilic son are X CX (carrier mother) and XY (father).

Carrier Haemophilic Normal Normal daughter son daughter son

Question 6.
Answer the following questions related to Down’s syndrome.

1. When was Down’s syndrome first described?
2. What is its frequency in human and does it also occur in other animals?
3. How does Down’s syndrome arise?
4. Relate it with chromosome dysfunctions.

Answer:

1. It was first described in 1866 by J Langdon Down, so it is called Down’s syndrome.
2. About 1 in every 750 children exhibits Down’s syndrome throughout the world. It is also seen in chimpanzees and other related primates.
3. In humans, it occurs as a result of non-disjunction of chromosome 21 during egg formation. The cause of this primary non-disjunction is not known.
4. The defect is associated with a particular small portion of chromosome 21. When this particular chromosome segment is present in three copies, instead of two, due to translocation Down’s syndrome occurs.

Odisha State Board CHSE Odisha Class 12 Biology Important Questions Chapter 5 Heredity and Variation Important Questions and Answers.

CHSE Odisha 12th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 5 Heredity and Variation

Heredity and Variation Class 12 Important Questions CHSE Odisha

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Choose the correct option

Question 1.
The process of physical removal of anthers is called …………
(a) emasculation
(b) mass selection
(c) introduction
(d) mutation
Answer:
(a) emasculation

Question 2.
Which term did Mendel use to denote something in germ cells responsible for transmission of characters?
(a) Chromosome
(b) Element
(c) Factor
(d) Gene
Answer:
(c) Factor

Question 3.
The character that is expressed in the F₁ is called ……….
(a) recessive character
(b) dominant character
(c) codominant
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) dominant character

Question 4.
An individual who has two different alleles of a gene is called ……………..
(a) allelopathic
(b) homozygous
(c) heterozygous
(d) codominant
Answer:
(c) heterogyzous

Question 5.
A cross of F₁ with the recessive parent is known as
(a) back cross
(b) hybrid cross
(c) test cross
(d) double cross
Answer:
(c) test cross

Question 6.
The crose between F₁ hybrid and the double recessive parent is called
(a) test cross
(b) double cross
(c) reciprocal cross
(d) complementary cross
Answer:
(c) test cross

Question 7.
If tallness (TT) is dominant and dwarfness (tt) is recessive, then a cross between ……….. will yield offspring of which 50% are dwarf.
(a) TT × tt
(b) Tt × tt
(c) tt × tt
(d) Tt × Tt
Answer:
(b) Tt × tt

Question 8.
The work of Mendel was published in 1866 before the Natural Science Society of Brunn in a paper named
(a) hybridisation on pea plant
(b) inheritance pattern in pea plant
(c) experiments in plant hybridisation
(d) Mendelian experiments on pea plant
Answer:
(c) experiments in plant hybridisation

Question 9.
The scientist not associated with the rediscovery of Mendel’s work is
(a) Hugo de Vries
(b) Carl Correns
(c) Erich von Tschermak
(d) William Bateson
Answer:
(d) William Bateson

Question 10.
Which one is not the reason for the success of Mendel?
(a) Made statistial analysis of the offsprings
(b) Kept accurate records
(c) Select pea plant
(d) Only did self-pollination in plants
Answer:
(d) Only did self-pollination in plants

Question 11.
Which one is a heterozygous condition?
(a) RR
(b) rr
(c) Rr
(d) RRrr
Answer:
(c) Rr

Question 12.
Phenotype is
(a) the genetic make up of an individual
(b) the same for parent and offspring
(c) the account of physiological activities
(d) the appearance of an individual
Answer:
(d) the appearance of an individual

Question 13.
To determine the heterozygosity of a cross, one has to perform
(a) back cross
(b) test cross
(c) reciprocal cross
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(b) test cross

Question 14.
The genetic ratio of 9 :3: 3:1 is due to
(a) segregation of characters
(b) crossing over of characters
(c) independent assortment of genes
(d) homologous pairing between chromosomes
Answer:
(c) independent assortment of genes

Question 15.
Organisms phenotypically similar but genotypically different are said to be
(a) heterozygous
(b) monozygous
(c) multizygous
(d) homozygous
Answer:
(a) heterozygous

Question 16.
Lack of independent assortment of two genes A and B in fruitfly is due to
(a) repulsion
(b) recombination
(c) linkage
(d) crossing over
Answer:
(c) linkage

Question 17.
The gene which controls many characters is called
(a) codominant gene
(b) polygene
(c) pleiotropic gene
(d) multiple gene
Answer:
(c) pleiotropic gene

Question 18.
A linkage group is explained as
(a) different groups of genes located on the same chromosome
(b) all the linked genes of a chromosome
(c) all genes of a chromosome
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) all the linked genes of a chromosome

Question 19.
Crossing over brings about
(a) recombination of genes
(b) no significant change
(c) sturdy offspring
(d) cytoplasmic reorganisation
Answer:
(a) recombination of genes

Question 20.
Different mutations referrable to the same locus of a chromosome gives rise to
(a) multiple alleles
(b) pseudoalleles
(c) polygenes
(d) oncogenes
Answer:
(a) multiple alleles

Question 21.
ABO blood group is an example of
(a) pseudoalleles
(b) isoalleles
(c) multiple alleles
(d) cytoplasmic inheritance
Answer:
(c) multiple alleles

Question 22.
Sutton gave chromosomal theory of inheritance, he united the knowledge of chromosomal segregation with
(a) recombination
(b) crossing over
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Mendelian principle of segregation
Answer:
(d) Mendelian principle of segregation

Question 23.
The phenomenon of single gene contributing to multiple phenotypic traits is called
(a) pleiotropy
(b) codominance
(c) incomplete dominance
(d) polygenic inheritance
Answer:
(a) pleiotropy

Question 24.
Multiple alleles control the inheritance of in man.
(a) phenylketonuria
(b) colour blindness
(c) sickle-cell anaemia
(d) blood groups
Answer:
(d) blood groups

Question 25.
An incomplete dominance is shown by
(a) Pisum sativum
(b) Neurospora
(c) Mirabilis jalapa
(d) Lathyrus odoratus
Answer:
(c) Mirabilis jalapa

Question 26.
Pleiotropy occurs when a gene has
(a) a complementary gene elsewhere
(b) a small effect on one trait
(c) reversible effects on the phenotype, depending on age
(d) many effects on the phenotype
Answer:
(d) many effects on the phenotype

Question 27.
Crossing over occurs at
(a) 2 strand stage
(b) 4 strand stage
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) 4 strand stage

Question 28.
The number of linkage group found in Drosophila is
(a) 1
(b) 3
(c) 2
(d) 4
Answer:
(d) 4

Fill in the blanks

Question 1.
The basic unit of heredity is …………… .
Answer:
gene

Question 2.
An organism in which two alleles of a trait are unlike is called …………….. .
Answer:
heterozygous

Question 3.
An allele of T is …………
Answer:
t

Question 4.
Test cross is a cross between and ……….. .
Answer:
Tt, tt

Question 5.
A man with blood group ‘AB’ marries a woman with ‘O’ blood group. The blood group of offsprings will be ……………. .
Answer:
either ‘A’ or ‘B’ blood group

Question 6.
Phenylketonuria is an example of …………….. .
Answer:
pleiotropy

Question 7.
During incomplete dominance, phenotypic ratio is ………….. .
Answer:
1:2:1

Question 8.
Skin colour inheritance in humans is an example of …………..
Answer:
Polygenic inheritance

Correct the sentences, if required, by changing the underlined word(s)

Question 1.
Griffith coined the term ‘gene’ for Mendelian factor.
Answer:
Wilhelm Johannsen.

Question 2.
Inheritance is the degree by which progeny differs from their parents.
Answer:
Variation

Question 3.
Monohybrid cross yields two numbers of genotype.
Answer:
one

Question 4.
The genetic ratio in F₂-generation of Mendel’s monohybrid cross is 9:3 : 3:1.
Answer:
1:2:1

Question 5.
A cross in which parents differ in a single pair of contrasting character is called dihybrid cross.
Answer:
monohybrid cross

Question 6.
Allelomorphs or alleles indicate identical characters of an individual.
Answer:
contrasting

Question 7.
The number of phenotypic classes is same as to the genotype in complete dominance.
Answer:
incomplete

Question 8.
In a cross between red and white flowered plants, F₁-hybrids are pink. This is called quantitative dominance.
Answer:
incomplete

Question 9.
When two or more genes equally express themselves, they are called dominant genes.
Answer:
codominant

Question 10.
Inheritance of skin colour in man is monogenic.
Answer:
polygenic

Question 11.
Inheritance of skin colour in man is monogenic.
Answer:
polygenic

Question 12.
Multiple allelism is the phenomenon in which a single gene regulates several phenotypes.
Answer:
Pleiotropy

Express in one or two word(s)

Question 1.
These express contrasting characters of an individual.
Answer:
Alleles

Question 2.
Sum total of heredity or genetic makeup.
Answer:
Genome

Question 3.
Represent the genetic make up or gene complement of an organism.
Answer:
Genotype.

Question 4.
It is a simple square-shaped diagram which is drawn to show the possible combinations of male and female gametes of F₁-parents.
Answer:
Punnett square.

Question 5.
Genes located in the same chromosome and being inherited together.
Answer:
Linked genes.

Question 6.
Skin colour inheritance in humans is an example of
Answer:
polygenic inheritance

Question 7.
In this phenomenon, the number of phenotypic classes is same as to the genotype.
Answer:
Incomplete dominance

Question 8.
In this phenomenon, both the genes of allelomorphic pair express themselves equally in the F₁-hybrids.
Answer:
Codominance

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Mention the advantages of selecting pea plant for experiment by Mendel.
Answer:
Mendel’s Experimental Material
He selected garden pea plant as a sample due to the following reasons

1. Pea plants are readily available on large scale and has bisexual cleistogamous flowers.
2. Peas are self-pollinated and can be cross-pollinacd also.
3. These are annual plants with short life cycle. So, several generations can be studied within a short period.
4. Pea plants could be easily raised, maintained and handled.
5. Pea plants differ in distinct/contrasting characteristics, which provide many easily detectable contrasting characters.

Question 2.
Write a note on emasculation.
Answer:
Mendel conducted artificial/cross-pollination experiments by performing emasculation (removal of anthers) on several true-breeding pea lines. A true-breeding line refers to one that have undergone continuous self-pollination and show stable trait inheritance and expression for several generations.
Mendel selected 14 true-breeding pea plant varieties as pairs, which were similar except for one character with contrasting traits.

Question 3.
Write short note with 2-3 important points on law of segregation.
Answer:
Principle of Segregation:
This principle states that, though the parents contain two alleles during gamete formation, the factors or alleles of a pair segregate from each other, such that a gamete receives only one of the two factors. Hence, the alleles do not show any blending and both the characters are recovered as such in the F₂-generation though one of these is not seen in the F₁ -generation.

Question 4.
A cross was carried out between two pea plants showing contrasting traits of height of the plants. The result of the cross showed 50% parental characters.
(i) Work out the cross with the help of a Punnett square.
(ii) Name the type of the cross carried out.
Answer:
Following inferences were made by Mendel based on his observations

1. He proposed that some ‘factors’ passed down from parent to offsprings through the gametes over successive generations. Now-a-days, these factors are known as genes. Genes are hence, the units of inheritance. Genes which code for a pair of contrasting traits are known as alleles or allelomorphs, i.e. they are slightly different forms of the same gene.
2. Genes occur in pairs in which, one dominates the other called as the dominant factor or the gene which expresses itself, while the other remains hidden and is called recessive factor.
3. Allele can be similar in case of homozygous (TT or tt) and dissimilar in case of heterozygous (Tt).
4. In a true-breeding tall or dwarf pea variety, the allelic pair of genes for height are identical or homozygous.
5. TT and tt are called genotype (sum total of heredity or genetic make up) of the plant, while the term tall and dwarf are the phenotype.
6. When tall and dwarf plants produce gametes by process of meiosis, the alleles of the parental pair segregate and only one of the alleles gets transmitted to a gamete. Thus, there is only 50% chance of a gamete containing either allele, as the segregation is a random process.
7. During fertilisation, the two alleles, ‘T’ from one parent and V from other parent are united to produce a zygote, that has one ‘T’ and one ‘t’ allele or the hybrids have Tt.
8. Since, these hybrids contain alleles which express contrasting traits, the plants are heterozygous.

Question 5.
Using a Punnett square, work out the
distribution of phenotypic features in the first (F₁) filial generation after a cross between a homozygous female and a heterozygous male for a single locus.
Answer:
Homozygous female – WW
Hetrozygous – Ww

In this case, all F₁ -generation is with dominant trait, i.e. 50% with homozygous and 50% with heterozygous nature.

Question 6.
When a cross is made between tall plant with yellow seeds (TtYy) and tall plant with green seeds (Ttyy), what proportions of phenotype in the offsprings could expected to be?
(i) Tall and green
(ii) Dwarf and green
Answer:

Tall green – 3/8 or 6/16
Dwarf green – 1/8 or 2/16
phenotypic ratio = 3 : 1

Question 7.
How are alleles of particular gene differ from each other? Explain its significance.
Answer:
Alleles are polymorphs that differ in their nucleotide sequence resulting in contrasting phenotypic expression. Alleles are the alternative forms of a same gene, e.g. genes for height have two alleles, one for dwarfness (t) and one for tallness (T). Significance of alleles are
(i) A character may have two or more contrasting phenotypic expressions, thus resulting in variation in a population.
(ii) These are used in the studies of inheritance and in understanding their behaviour.

Question 8.
During a monohybrid cross involving a tall pea plant with a dwarf pea plant, the offspring populations were tall and dwarf in equal ratio. Workout a cross to show how it is possible.
Answer:
In a monohybrid test cross, involving a heterozygous tall plant (Tt) and a pure dwarf plant, the progeny consists of tall and dwarf plants in the ratio of 1:1.
This can be shown as given below

Question 9.
Write a short note on Mendel’s principle of dominance.
Answer:
Principle of Dominance:
It states that when two contrasting alleles for a character come together in an organism, only one is expressed completely and shows visible effect. This allele is called dominant and the other allele of the pair which does not express and remains hidden is called recessive.
For example, in the monohybrid cross when dwarf plant is crossed with tall plant, the Frgeneration are all tall plants. This shows that allele for tallness is dominant.

Question 10.
Define and design a test cross.
Answer:
Back Cross and Test Cross
Back cross is a cross of F₁ -progeny back to one of their parents. In back cross, there can be two possibilities, i.e. F₁ -hybrid to be crossed with homozygous dominant parent or with homozygous recessive parent.

(a), (b): Diagrammatic representation of back cross

A special back cross to the recessive parent is known as test cross. This method was devised by Mendel to determine whether the dominant phenotype is homozygous or heterozygous.
For example, in a monohybrid cross between violet colour flower (W) and white colour flower (w), the F₁-hybrid was a violet colour flower. If all the F₁-progenies are of violet colour, then the dominant flower is homozygous and if the progenies are in 1:1 ratio, then the dominant flower is heterozygous.

Diagrammatic representation of a test cross

Question 11.
A teacher wants his/her students to find the genotype of pea plants bearing purple coloured flowers in their school garden. Name and explain the cross that will make it possible.
Answer:
Test cross is a method devised by Mendel to determine the genotype of plant with dominant phenotype (purple flower in this case).
In a test cross, the unknown dominant genotype is crossed with recessive parent (white, WW in the given case).
(i) If the progeny consists of purple and white flowers in ratio of 1 : 1, the purple flower is a hybrid with – PW genotype. It can be seen from the given cross.

(ii) If the progeny obtained have all purple flowers, both parents are homozygous, i.e. genotype of purple flower; is PP. It can be seen from the cross that follows

Question 12.
When tall pea plants were selfed, some of the offsprings were dwarf. Explain with the help of a Punnett square.
Answer:
Punnett Square
The production of gametes by the parents, the formation of zygotes, the F₁ and F₂-generations can be explained by a diagram called Punnett square. It was developed by British geneticist Reginald C Punnett.
It is a graphical representation to calculate the probability of all possible genotypes of offsprings in a genetic cross, as shown in the figure (5.2).
The 1/4 : 1/2 : 1/4 ratio of TT : Tt : tt is mathematically condensable in the form of the binomial expression (ax+ by)², that has the gametes bearing genes T or t in equal frequency of 1/2. The expression is expanded as
(1/2T + 1/2t)² = (1/2T + 1/2t) x (1/2T + 1/2t)
= \(\frac{1}{4}\) TT + 1/2T t + 1/4tt
Though the genotypic ratios can be calculated using mathematical probability, but it is not possible to know the genotypic composition by looking at the phenotype of a dominant trait.
Therefore, to solve this problem Mendel devised test cross.

A Punnett square used to understand a typical monohybrid cross conducted by Mendel between true breeding tall plant and true-breeding dwarf plant

Question 13.
A pea plant with purple flowers was crossed with white flowers producing 50 plants with only purple flowers. On selfing, these plants produced 482 plants with purple flowers and 162 with white flowers. What genetic mechanism accounts for these results? Explain.
Answer:

Phenotypic ratio is
Purple flowered plants : White flowered plants
3(482) : 1(162)
Mechanism is as follows
(i) Factors segregate from each other that remained together in a hybrid during gamete formation.
(ii) A homozygous parent produces all gametes that are similar while heterozygous parent produces two kinds of gametes in equal ratio.

Question 14.
Write a short note on law of independent assortment.
Answer:
Law of Independent Assortment
It states that when two pairs of traits are combined in a hybrid, segregation of one pair of traits is independent to the other pair of traits. As in the dihybrid cross of Mendel the presence of new combinations, i.e. round-green and wrinkled-yellow suggests that the genes for shape of seed and colour of seed are assorted independently. The results (9:3:3:1), indicate that yellow and green seeds appear in the ratio of 9+3 : 3+1 = 3:1. Similarly, the round and wrinkled seeds appear in the ratio of 9+3 : 3+1 = 3:1.

This indicates that each of the two pairs of alternative characters viz yellow-green cotyledon colour is inherited independent of the round-wrinkled characters of the cotyledons. It means that at the time of gamete formation the factor for yellow colour enters the gametes independent of R or r, i.e. gene Y can be passed on to the gametes either with gene R or r.

Question 15.
With the help of one example, explain the phenomenon of codominance and multiple allelism in human population.
Answer:
Codominance
It is the phenomenon in which two alleles express themselves independently when present together in an organism. In other words, it is the phenomenon in which offspring shows resemblance to both the parents, e.g.
ABO blood grouping in humans.
ABO blood groups are controlled by the gene-I.

The plasma membrane of the red blood cells has sugar polymers that protrude from its surface and the kind of sugar is controlled by the gene. The gene I has three alleles I^A, I^B and i. The alleles I^A and I^B produce a slightly different form of the sugar while, allele i does not produce any sugar. In humans, each person possesses any two of the three I gene alleles. I^A and I^B are completely dominant over i. When I^B and i are present, only I^B expresses (because i does not have any sugar), same is the case with I^A and i.

But when I^A and I^B are present together, they both express their own types of sugars, this is due to codominance. Therefore, the red blood cells have both A and B-types of sugars. Since, there are three different types of alleles, there can be six different combinations. More information about blood type is discussed under multiple alleles.

In case of plants, when a red and white flowered plants are crossed, the progeny bears flowers that have red and white spots. When these plants are self-pollinated,
F₂-generation will have genotypic ratio of 1 : 2 : 1 (Red : Spotted : White).

Multiple Allelism and Inheritance of Blood Groups:
Each gene has alternative forms or allelomorphs. For example, the genes for tall and dwarf characters of pea plant are alleles or allelomorphs. Here, former is called normal or wild type and later as mutant type. Sometimes, there may not be any alternative form such mutation that results in complete elimination of a gene is known as null mutation. Sometimes silent mutation occurs in which mutation does not have any effect of all.

These mutations occur in wild gene in any direction with a possibility of formation of many alternative alleles. Some genes may occur in more than two allelic forms, i.e. a gene can mutate several times to produce several alternative expressions such genes are called multiple alleles.

The multiple alleles can be defined as set of 3, 4 or more allelomorphic genes or allele, which have arises as a result of mutation of the normal gene and which occupy the same locus in the homologous chromosomes.
A mutant gene series is said to be multiple alleles only if they possess following characteristics

(i) Occupy same locus in homologous chromosome pair.
(ii) Since, only rwo chromosomes (homologous pair) of each type present in each diploid cell hence, only two alleles of a gene are found in a cell or in a given individual.
(iii) Gametes normally contain only one chromosome out of the pair. Hence, only one allele of a gene is found in one gamete.
(iv) Due to their presence on same locus, they do not exhibit the phenomenon of crossing over in themselves.
(v) They always regulate same characteristic, but with a variable degree of efficiency.
(vi) Within a multiple series, a wild type is always dominant over normal genes and others may be dominant or intermediate.

Question 16.
How does the gene T control ABO blood groups in humans? Write the effect the gene has on the structure of red blood cells.
Answer:
ABO Blood Group
ABO blood group in humans serves as a very good example of multiple alleles. It shows the phenomenon of both complete dominance and codominance. In humans, group-A, B, AB and O types of blood groups are discovered. A set of three multiple alleles on the chromosome-9 is responsible for the four blood types.

These different types of blood groups are due to the occurrence of different types of antigens present on the surface of RBC. The genes which are responsible for the production of these antigens is being called as I. This gene is present in the form of three alleles which are I^A, I^B and VI i. I^A codes for enzyme that adds galactosamine on the surface of RBC. So, blood group-A individuals have only galactosamine added on the cell surface of RBC.

IB codes for the enzyme that add galactose on the surface of RBC and so blood group-B individuals have only galactose added to the cell surface of RBC.
Individuals belonging to AB blood group possess both the sugars added on the surface of RBC and individuals with blood group-O do not have any sugar added on the surface of RBC. People homozygous for the recessive i allele belong to blood group-O.

The Relationship Between ABO Genotype and Blood type (group)

Both I^A and IB are dominant to i. Thus, you will express blood group-A, if you are either I^A/Aor I^Ai and you will express blood group-B, if you are either I^B / I^B or I^B/i. Heterozygous I^A/I^B individuals express blood group-AB.

Question 17.
Briefly mention the contribution of TH Morgan in genetics.
Answer:
Morgan and his group also found that even when genes were grouped on the same chromosome, some genes were tightly linked, i.e. linkage is stronger between two genes, if the frequency of recombination is low (cross-A). Whereas, the frequency of recombination is higher, if genes are loosely linked, i.e. linkage is weak between two genes (cross-B) as given in below.

Linkage : Results of two dihybrid crosses conducted by Morgan. Cross ‘A’ shows crossing between genes y and w ; Cross ‘B’ shows crossing between genes w and m. Here, dominant wild type alleles are represented with ( + ) sign in superscript

Those traits present on same chromosome, which do not show any production of recombinants are completely linked which is known as complete linkage and it is very rare.

Question 18.
Linkage and crossing over of genes are alternatives of each other. Justify with the help of an example.
Answer:
Linkage is the tendency of certain loci or alleles (genes) to be inherited together while, crossing over is the segregation of genes, e.g. the genes on a chromosome either follow linkage path or cross over, to form the gametes during gametogenesis in human.

Question 19.
Two heterozygous parents are crossed. If the two loci are linked, what would be the distribution of phenotypic features in F₁-generation for a dihybrid cross?
Answer:
If the two loci in parents are completely linked, there would be no segregation. The F₁-generation will exhibit parental characters only. But, if the two loci are incompletely linked, then segregation would occur partly and the F₁-generation will exhibit both parental and recombinant characteristics, but the recombinants will be in a very small proportion.

Question 20.
Explain two situations, when independent assortment of genes occurs, resulting in 50% recombinants.
Answer:
Two situations are
(i) When the genes of different traits are located on the same chromosome and must be distantly located to enhance the recombination frequency.
(ii) When the genes of different traits may be located on different chromosomes.

Question 21.
In a dihybrid cross, white-eyed, yellow-bodied female Drosophila was crossed with red-eyed, brown-bodied male Drosophila, produced in F₂-generation are 1.3% recombinants and 98.7% progeny with parental type combinations. This observation of Morgan deviated from Mendelian F₁-phenotypic .dihybrid ratio. Explain giving reasons, Morgan’s observations.
Answer:
Morgan saw that when the two genes in dihybrid cross were situated on same chromosome, the proportion of parental gene combinations were higher than non-parental type.

This is due to physical association of genes on a chromosome or linkage. In Morgan’s experiment, the genes for eye and body colour show linkage and do not always allow crossing to over during gamete formation. Hence, parental type progeny is in greater ratio than that of recombinants.

Question 22.
How do biologists use cross over frequencies to map genes on chromosomes?
Answer:
The farther the genes are on a chromosome, the more frequently they will cross over. By comparison, genes that are close together on a chromosome, are less likely to be separated. The analysis of how often the traits appear together, helps to establish linkage map, which shows the relative positions of genes on chromosomes.

Question 23.
(i) Explain the phenomenon of multiple allelism and codominance taking ABO blood group system as an example.
(ii) What is the phenotype of the following
(a) I^Ai (b) ii
Answer:
(i)
These mutations occur in wild gene in any direction with a possibility of formation of many alternative alleles. Some genes may occur in more than two allelic forms, i.e. a gene can mutate several times to produce several alternative expressions such genes are called multiple alleles.

It is the phenomenon in which two alleles express themselves independently when present together in an organism. In other words, it is the phenomenon in which offspring shows resemblance to both the parents, e.g.
ABO blood grouping in humans.
ABO blood groups are controlled by the gene-I.

The plasma membrane of the red blood cells has sugar polymers that protrude from its surface and the kind of sugar is controlled by the gene. The gene I has three alleles IA, IB and i. The alleles IAand IB produce a slightly different form of the sugar while, allele i does not produce any sugar. In humans, each person possesses any two of the three I gene alleles. IA and IB are completely dominant over i. When IB and i are present, only IB expresses (because i does not have any sugar), same is the case with IA and i.

But when IA and IB are present together, they both express their own types of sugars, this is due to codominance. Therefore, the red blood cells have both A and B-types of sugars. Since, there are three different types of alleles, there can be six different combinations. More information about blood type is discussed under multiple alleles.

(ii) (a) I^Ai – ‘A’ blood group
(b) ii – ‘O’ blood group

Question 24.
A child has blood group ‘O’. If the father has blood group ‘A’ and mother’s blood group is B, workout the genotypes of the parents and the possible genotypes of the other offsprings. .
Answer:
The child with blood group ‘O’ will have homozygous recessive alleles. Therefore, both the parents should be heterozygous, i.e. the genotype of father will be I^Ai afid the mother will be I^Bi.

The other possible genotypes of offsprings will be ‘A’, ‘B’ and ‘AB’ blood groups.

Question 25.
Explain the following
(i) What is the most common example of pleiotropy in humans?
(ii) How are the pleiotropic genes useful?
Answer:
(i) In humans, the phenylketonuria, a disorder caused by mutation in the gene coding the enzyme phenylalanine hydroxylase serves as the best example. In this disorder, phenylalanine hydroxylase enzyme is deficient and is needed to convert essential amino acid phenylalanine to tyrosine.

Thus, tyrosine is not present which is being required for normal functioning of the body. Phenylalanine gets converted to phenylpyruvate which also creates problems. Tyrosine is required for protein biosynthesis and also as a precursor for neurotransmitters like norepinephrine, for pigment melanin and for hormone thyroxine. Thus, it leads to hair and skin pigmentation and mental retardation.

(ii) The pleiotropic genes provide us valuable information regarding the evolution of different genes and gene families. The pleiotropy reflects the fact that most proteins have multiple roles in distinct cell types.
Thus, any genetic change that alters gene expression or function can potentially have wide ranging effects in a variety of tissues.

Question 26.
State the significance of crossing over.
Answer:
The significance of crossing over are as follows
(i) Crossing over produced recombinations or new gene combinations which form variations which are the raw material in the formation of new species and evolution.
(ii) Useful recombination produced by crossing over are used in producing new varieties of plants and animals in breeding programme.
(iii) It is used for preparing linkage maps or determining location of genes in chromosomes.

Question 27.
What is chiasma?
Answer:
Crossing over takes place in the pachytene stage of meiosis-I, where there is exchange of segments between two non-sister chromatids. It occurs at several points all along their length and the point of contact between these non-sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes is called chiasma.

Question 28.
What is linkage? Mention its significance.
Answer:
The physical association of two genes on a chromosome is called linkage. It is the tendency of genes on a chromosome to remain together and is passed as such in the next generation. It is significant as it brings more parental gene combination types.

Question 29.
Write a short note on crossing over.
Answer:
Crossing over is the combination of genes due to the exchange of genetic material resulting from interchange of corresponding segments or parts of homologous chromosomes. This takes place in the pachytene stage of meiosis-I. It brings out new combination or recombination of genes.

Question 30.
Define multiple allelism.
Answer:
More than two alternative forms (allele) of a gene occupying the same locus on a chromosome in a population are known as multiple alleles. The ABO blood grouping is a good example of multiple alleles. In this case, more than two, i.e. three alleles are present governing the same character. Multiple alleles can be found only when population studies are made.

Question 31.
During his studies on genes in Drosophila that were sex-linked, TH Morgan found F₂-population phenotypic ratio to be deviated from expected 9: 3: 3:1. Explain the conclusion he arrived at.
Answer:
Conclusion of Morgans experiments are
(i) Genes were located on the X-chromosome.
(ii) When the two genes in a dihybrid cross were studied on the same chromosome, the proportion of parental gene combinations were much higher than the non-parental type. Morgan stated this association as ‘linkage’ to describe the physical association of genes on a chromosome.
(iii) Morgan and his group also found that even when genes were grouped on the same chromosome, some genes were tightly linked (low recombination) and others were loosely linked (high recombination).

Question 32.
A woman with blood group ‘A’ marries a man with blood group ‘O’. Discuss the possibilities of the inheritance of the blood group in the following starting with ‘Yes’ or ‘No’ for each.
(a) They produce children with blood group ‘A’ only.
(b) They produce children some with ‘O’ blood group and some with ‘A’ blood group.
Answer:
(a) No, it is not necessary as mother could have a genotype I^AI^A or I^Ai. If the genotype is I^A, all the offsprings would have ‘A’ blood group, but in the second case, offsprings can have either ‘A’ or ‘O’ blood group as their father has ‘O’ blood group.
(b) Yes, if the mother is A (genotype I^Ai) and father has ‘O’ (genotype ii) blood group, then the blood group of some children can be ‘O’ and some can be with blood group ‘A’.

Question 33.
Persons of which blood group are universal recipient?
Answer:
ABO blood group in humans serves as a very good example of multiple alleles. It shows the phenomenon of both complete dominance and codominance. In humans, group-A, B, AB and O types of blood groups are discovered. A set of three multiple alleles on the chromosome-9 is responsible for the four blood types.

These different types of blood groups are due to the occurrence of different types of antigens present on the surface of RBC. The genes which are responsible for the production of these antigens is being called as I. This gene is present in the form of three alleles which are I^A, I^B and I⁰/i. I^A codes for enzyme that adds galactosamine on the surface of RBC. So, blood group-A individuals have only galactosamine added on the cell surface of RBC.

Question 34.
Explain ‘ABO blood group’.
Answer:
ABO blood group in humans serves as a very good example of multiple alleles. It shows the phenomenon of both complete dominance and codominance. In humans, group-A, B, AB and O types of blood groups are discovered. A set of three multiple alleles on the chromosome-9 is responsible for the four blood types.

These different types of blood groups are due to the occurrence of different types of antigens present on the surface of RBC. The genes which are responsible for the production of these antigens is being called as I. This gene is present in the form of three alleles which are I^A, I^B and I⁰ / i. I^A codes for enzyme that adds galactosamine on the surface of RBC. So, blood group-A individuals have only galactosamine added on the cell surface of RBC.

I^B codes for the enzyme that add galactose on the surface of RBC and so blood group-B individuals have only galactose added to the cell surface of RBC.

Individuals belonging to AB blood group possess both the sugars added on the surface of RBC and individuals with blood group-O do not have any sugar added on the surface of RBC. People homozygous for the recessive i allele belong to blood group-O.

Question 35.
Inheritance pattern of flower colour in garden pea plant and snapdragon differs. Why is this difference observed? Explain showing the crosses upto F₂-generation.
Answer:
(i) Inheritance pattern of flower colour in garden pea plant

Phenotypic Ratio Purple : White
3 : 1
Genotypic Ratio PP : Pp : pp
1 : 2 : 1
Inheritance of flower colour in garden pea shows true dominance. In F₁ -generation, dominant colour purple is expressed and in F₂-generation both dominant (purple) and recessive (white) colour are expressed in the ratio of 3:1.
(ii) Inheritance pattern of flower colour in snapdragon is given below

Phenotypic Ratio Red : Pink : White
1 : 2 : 1
Genotypic Ratio RR : Rr : rr
1 : 2 : 1
Inheritance in snapdragon flower colour shows incomplete dominance. In this phenomenon, neither of the two alleles are completely dominant over the other and the hybrid is-intermediate between the two. Hence, red is a homozygous dominant, white is a homozygous recessive, while hybrid is an intermediate, i.e. pink.

Question 36.
Explain the genetic basis of blood grouping in human population.
Answer:
‘ABO’ blood grouping in human shows the phenomenon of codominance (alleles are able to express themselves independently when present together) and multiple allelism (more than two alleles govern the same character).

ABO blood group in humans serves as a very good example of multiple alleles. It shows the phenomenon of both complete dominance and codominance. In humans, group-A, B, AB and O types of blood groups are discovered. A set of three multiple alleles on the chromosome-9 is responsible for the four blood types.

These different types of blood groups are due to the occurrence of different types of antigens present on the surface of RBC. The genes which are responsible for the production of these antigens is being called as I. This gene is present in the form of three alleles which are I^A, I^B and I⁰ / i. I^A codes for enzyme that adds galactosamine on the surface of RBC. So, blood group-A individuals have only galactosamine added on the cell surface of RBC.

I^B codes for the enzyme that add galactose on the surface of RBC and so blood group-B individuals have only galactose added to the cell surface of RBC.

Individuals belonging to AB blood group possess both the sugars added on the surface of RBC and individuals with blood group-O do not have any sugar added on the surface of RBC. People homozygous for the recessive i allele belong to blood group-O.

Question 37.
Can a child have blood group ‘O’ if his/her parents have blood group ‘A’ and ‘B’? Explain.
Answer:
The child with blood group ‘O’ will have homozygous recessive alleles. Therefore, both the parents should be heterozygous, i.e. genotype of father will be I^A i or I^B i and of mother will be I^A i or I^B i. A child have blood group ‘O’ in the following two cases
Case I When father is I^A i and mother is I^B

The offsprings will have the above possible blood groups, i.e. AB, A, B and O.
Case II When father is I^B i and mother is I^A i.

Question 38.
How do genes and chromosomes share similarity from the point of view of genetical studies?
Answer:
By 1902, the chromosome movement during meiosis had been worked out. Walter Sutton and Theodore Boveri (1902) noted that the behaviour of chromosomes was parallel to the behaviour of genes and used chromosome movement to explain Mendel’s laws. They studied the behaviour of chromosomes during mitosis (equational division) and during meiosis (reduction division). The chromosomes as well as genes occur in pairs and the two alleles of a gene pair are located on homologous sites of homologous chromosomes.
Chromosomes segregate when germ cells are formed.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
(i) Explain monohybrid cross taking seed coat colour as a trait in Pisum sativum. Workout the cross upto F₂-generation.
(ii) State the laws of inheritance that can be derived from such a cross.
(iii) How is the phenotypic ratio of F₂-generation different in a dihybrid cross?
Answer:
(i) In a monohybrid cross, when homozygous dominant and homozygous recessive parents are crossed, F₁ -hybrid would be heterozygous for the trait and would express the dominant allele.

(ii) The hybrid is heterozygous containing both alternative alleles (Y and y) but only one trait,
i.e. yellow colour appeared and green colour trait is suppressed in F₁ -generation. This shows that yellow seed colour is dominant over the green seed colour trait. This explains Mendel’s law of dominance.
(iii) Phenotypic ratio in F₂-generation, Yellow seeds : Green seeds (3 : 1) in monohybrid cross and in dihybrid cross 9 : 3 : 3 : 1.

Question 2.
Workout a typical Mendelian dihybrid cross and state the law that he derived from it.
Answer:
Dihybrid Cross:
When two or more than two characters are taken in a cross it is called as polyhybrid cross, e.g. dihybrid cross, trihybrid cross, etc. A dihybrid cross is a cross involving two pairs of contrasting characters. For example, when a cross is made between yellow-round and wrinkled green seeds (both pureline homozygous), plants with only yellow round seeds are seen in F₁-generation but in F₂-generation, four types of combinations are observed.

Two of these combinations are similar to the parental combinations and others are new combinations. These are round green and wrinkled yellow.
The cross can be seen as shown in the figure

Phenotypic Ratio
Round yellow : Round green : Wrinkled yellow : Wrinkled green = 9 : 3 : 3 : 1
Genotypic Ratio 1 :2:2:4:1 :2:1 :2:1
Dihybrid cross between the two parents differed in two pairs of contrasting traits, i.e. seed colour and seed shape

The ratio of four combinations in F₂-generation comes out to be 9 (round, yellow) : 3 (round, green) : 3 (wrinkled, yellow) : 1 (wrinkled, green). This ratio is called phenotypic dihybrid ratio. Phenotypic ratio of dihybrid test cross is 1 : 1 : 1 : 1.

Mendel’s Postulate Based on Dihybrid Cross:
Based on the result obtained from dihybrid crosses or two gene interaction, Mendel proposed the fourth postulate, i.e. law of independent assortment.

Question 3.
You are given tall pea plants with yellow seeds, whose genotypes are unknown. How would you find the genotype of these plants? Explain with the help of cross.
Answer:
The given tall pea plant with yellow seeds need to be crossed with a dwarf plant with green seeds.
(i) The dominant traits are tallness and yellow colour of seeds. The recessive traits are dwarfness and green colour of seeds.
(ii) Cross between tall plant/yellow seeds and dwarf plant/green seeds.
Cross showing heterozygous nature for both traits.

In this cross, the F₁ -generation shows four phenotypes in the ratio of 1 : 1 : 1 : 1. So, the given plant is heterozygous for both the traits.

Question 4.
Explain Mendel’s dihybrid cross with a checker board.
Or Describe Mendel’s dihybrid cross with checker board.
Answer:
Dihybrid Cross:
When two or more than two characters are taken in a cross it is called as polyhybrid cross, e.g. dihybrid cross, trihybrid cross, etc. A dihybrid cross is a cross involving two pairs of contrasting characters. For example, when a cross is made between yellow-round and wrinkled green seeds (both pureline homozygous), plants with only yellow round seeds are seen in F₁-generation but in F₂-generation, four types of combinations are observed.

Two of these combinations are similar to the parental combinations and others are new combinations. These are round green and wrinkled yellow.
The cross can be seen as shown in the figure

Phenotypic Ratio
Round yellow : Round green : Wrinkled yellow : Wrinkled green = 9 : 3 : 3 : 1
Genotypic Ratio 1 :2:2:4:1 :2:1 :2:1
Dihybrid cross between the two parents differed in two pairs of contrasting traits, i.e. seed colour and seed shape

The ratio of four combinations in F₂-generation comes out to be 9 (round, yellow) : 3 (round, green) : 3 (wrinkled, yellow) : 1 (wrinkled, green). This ratio is called phenotypic dihybrid ratio. Phenotypic ratio of dihybrid test cross is 1 : 1 : 1 : 1.

Mendel’s Postulate Based on Dihybrid Cross:
Based on the result obtained from dihybrid crosses or two gene interaction, Mendel proposed the fourth postulate, i.e. law of independent assortment.

Question 5.
Give an account of Mendel’s law of inheritance.
Or State and explain Mendel’s low of dominance.
Answer:
Dihybrid Cross:
When two or more than two characters are taken in a cross it is called as polyhybrid cross, e.g. dihybrid cross, trihybrid cross, etc. A dihybrid cross is a cross involving two pairs of contrasting characters. For example, when a cross is made between yellow-round and wrinkled green seeds (both pureline homozygous), plants with only yellow round seeds are seen in F₁-generation but in F₂-generation, four types of combinations are observed.

Two of these combinations are similar to the parental combinations and others are new combinations. These are round green and wrinkled yellow.
The cross can be seen as shown in the figure

Phenotypic Ratio
Round yellow : Round green : Wrinkled yellow : Wrinkled green = 9 : 3 : 3 : 1
Genotypic Ratio 1 :2:2:4:1 :2:1 :2:1
Dihybrid cross between the two parents differed in two pairs of contrasting traits, i.e. seed colour and seed shape

The ratio of four combinations in F₂-generation comes out to be 9 (round, yellow) : 3 (round, green) : 3 (wrinkled, yellow) : 1 (wrinkled, green). This ratio is called phenotypic dihybrid ratio. Phenotypic ratio of dihybrid test cross is 1 : 1 : 1 : 1.

Mendel’s Postulate Based on Dihybrid Cross:
Based on the result obtained from dihybrid crosses or two gene interaction, Mendel proposed the fourth postulate, i.e. law of independent assortment.

Law of Independent Assortment:
It states that when two pairs of traits are combined in a hybrid, segregation of one pair of traits is independent to the other pair of traits. As in the dihybrid cross of Mendel the presence of new combinations, i.e. round-green and wrinkled-yellow suggests that the genes for shape of seed and colour of seed are assorted independently. The results (9:3:3:1), indicate that yellow and green seeds appear in the ratio of 9+3 : 3+1 = 3:1. Similarly, the round and wrinkled seeds appear in the ratio of 9+3 : 3+1 = 3:1.

This indicates that each of the two pairs of alternative characters viz yellow-green cotyledon colour is inherited independent of the round-wrinkled characters of the cotyledons. It means that at the time of gamete formation the factor for yellow colour enters the gametes independent of R or r, i.e. gene Y can be passed on to the gametes either with gene R or r.

Odisha State Board CHSE Odisha Class 12 Biology Important Questions Chapter 4 Reproductive Health Important Questions and Answers.

CHSE Odisha 12th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 4 Reproductive Health

Reproductive Health Class 12 Important Questions CHSE Odisha

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Choose the correct option

Question 1.
A sexually transmitted disease symptomised by the development of chancre on the genitals is caused by
(a) Hepatitis -B virus
(b) Treponema pallidum
(c) HIV
(d) Neisseria
Answer:
(b) Treponema pallidum

Question 2.
The preventive measures of sexually transmitted diseases include
(a) sex hygiene
(b) avoiding multiple sex partners
(c) use of condom
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

Question 3.
Which of the following is the component of oral pills?
(a) Progesterone
(b) Oxytocin
(c) Relaxin
(d) FSH
Answer:
(a) Progesterone

Question 4.
Oral contraceptives check ovulation by inhibiting the secretion of
(a) follicle stimulating hormone
(b) luteinizing hormone
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(c) Both (a) and (b)

Question 5.
Which one is not a terminal birth control method?
(a) Vasectomy
(b) Tubectomy
(c) Hysterectomy
(d) Copper-T
Answer:
(d) Copper-T

Question 6.
What is the surgical method for preventing pregnancy in which vas deferens is incised?
(a) Tubectomy
(b) Vasectomy
(c) Sterilisation
(d) Hysterectomy
Answer:
(b) Vasectomy

Question 7.
AIDS cannot be spread from one person to other through
(a) sexual contacts
(b) blood transfusion
(c) placental contacts
(d) kissing each other
Answer:
(d) kissing each other

Question 8.
One of the legal methods of birth control is
(a) by having coitus at the time of day break
(b) by a premature ejaculation during coitus
(c) abortion by taking an appropriate medicine
(d) by abstaining from coitus from day 10-17 of the menstrual cycle
Answer:
(d) by abstaining from coitus from day 10-17 of the menstrual cycle

Question 9.
What is a safe period?
(a) A week before and after menses
(b) A week before menses
(c) Two weeks after menses
(d) Two weeks before menses
Answer:
(b) A week before menses

Question 10.
The ovulation time during menstrual cycle is marked by
(a) changes in cervical mucous
(b) changes in body temperature
(c) changes in eating habit
(d) changes in behavioural habits
Answer:
(d) changes in behavioural habits

Question 11.
GIFT was first attempted by
(a) Steptoe
(b) Edwards
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) Both (a) and (b)

Question 12.
ZIFT is a spin-off of
(a) GIFT
(b) ICSI
(c) IVF
(d) IUI
Answer:
(a) GIFT

Question 13.
Blockage of Fallopian tube can be identified using
(a) blood test
(b) hysterosalpingography
(c) ovarian reserve testing
(d) general physical testing
Answer:
(b) hysterosalpingography

Correct the statements, if required, by changing the underlined word (s)

Question 1.
Oral pills are very popular contraceptives among the rural women.
Answer:
Oral pills are very popular contraceptives among the urban women.

Question 2.
Surgical methods of contraception prevent gamete formation.
Answer:
The surgical methods of contraception prevent gamete transfer from the organs of production to the site of fertilisation.

Question 3.
Vaults are hormone releasing IUDs.
Answer:
LNG-20

Question 4.
The mixing of the sperm and egg is called ICSI.
Answer:
insemination

Question 5.
Follicular atresia is done to remove eggs from woman’s body
Answer:
Follicular aspiration

Question 6.
The first Indian test tube baby was Rahul.
Answer:
Kumari Harsha

Fill in the blanks

Question 1.
A contraceptive device consisting of a small thimble-shaped cup that is placed over the uterus to prevent the entrance of spermatozoa …………… .
Answer:
cervical cap

Question 2.
A surgical procedure performed on males in which the vas deferens are cut and tied is known as …………… .
Answer:
vasectomy

Question 3.
Removal of gonads, often referring to the removal of male testes is called ……………… .
Answer:
castration

Question 4.
Conventional vasectomy is called ……….. surgery.
Answer:
scalpel

Question 5.
Surgical removal of both the testes is called ………….. .
Answer:
vasectomy

Question 6.
The ejaculatory duct obstruction in males is confirmed by ………….. .
Answer:
ultrasound

Question 7.
Fertility treatment with donor eggs is usually done using …………….. .
Answer:
IVF

Question 8.
Success rate of ZIFT is …………. .
Answer:
64.8%

Question 9.
In …………….. egg is fertilised outside the body and then inserted into oviduct.
Answer:
in vitro technique

Express in one or two word(s)

Question 1.
Give the name of STD, which can be transmitted through contaminated blood.
Answer:
AIDS.

Question 2.
Name the IUD that promotes the cervix hostility to sperms.
Answer:
Progestasert

Question 3.
Name the technique other than amniocentesis which is used to determine genetic disorder in foetus.
Answer:
Chorionic villi sampling.

Question 4.
Name the causative agent of AIDS.
Answer:
HIV

Question 5.
Name the organisation that developed Saheli pill.
Answer:
CDRI

Question 6.
Enlist two possible causes of fertility in relation to ovulation.
Answer:
Polycystic ovarian syndrome and hyperprolactinemia.

Question 7.
Give the full form of ZIFT.
Answer:
ZIFT stands for Zygote Intra Fallopian Transfer.

Question 8.
Name the test performed to find out how effective the eggs are after ovulation.
Answer:
Ovarian reserve testing

Short AnswerType Questions

Question 1.
Write note on sexually transmitted diseases.
Answer:
Sexually Transmitted Diseases (STDs) spread from one person to other through intimate contact. STDs can affect male or female of any age and background. These diseases are also known as Venereal Diseases (VDs) or Reproductive Tract Infections (RTIs) or Sexually Transmitted Infections (STIs). STDs are major threat to a healthy society as these are reported to be high among youths of age 15-24 years. Except HIV, hepatitis-B and genital herpes, all other diseases are completely curable.

Question 2.
Why STDs are considered as self-invited diseases?
Answer:
Sexually Transmitted Diseases (STDs) can be considered self-invited diseases because one could be free of these infections, by following the simple principles given below

1. Avoid sex with unknown partners/multiple partners.
2. Always use condoms during coitus.
3. In case of doubt one should go to a qualified doctor for early detection and get complete treatment if diagnosed with disease.

If all the above said precautions are not strictly adopted by people, they are inviting STDs to infect them.

Question 3.
All Reproductive Tract Infections (RTIs) are STDs, but all STDs are not RTIs. Justify with example.
Answer:
Among the common STDs, hepatitis-B and AIDS are not infections of the reproductive organs though their mode of transmission could be through sexual contact also.

All other diseases like gonorrhoea, syphilis, genital herpes, hepatitis-B are transmitted through sexual contact and are also infections of the reproductive tract so, these are STDs as well as RTIs, whereas, AIDS and hepatitis are STDs, but not RTIs.

Question 4.
Write a note on barrier and surgical method of birth control.
Answer:
Barrier methods These methods prevent sperms and ovum, from physically meeting in order to prevent fertilisation. These methods are available for both males and females. These are as follows

1. Condoms These are made of thin rubber or latex sheath used to cover the penis in males and vagina and cervix in females.
2. Cervical caps These are also made of rubber and are inserted into the female reproductive system to cover the cervix during intercourse.

Surgical (sterilisation) methods These are the terminal methods used by male/female partner to prevent any more pregnancies.
These are the permament methods, which block the transport of gametes and thereby contraception. It is available in the form of vasectomy in men and tubectomy in womem.

Question 5.
Removal of gonads cannot be considered as a contraceptive option. Why?
Answer:
Removal of gonads cannot be considered as a contraceptive option because it not only stops the production of gametes, but also stops the secretion of many other-hormones which are required for normal body function. This is also an irreversible method that means once these are removed, then these cannot be replaced and the person will remain infertile for whole life.

Question 6.
Is the use of contraceptives justified? Give reasons.
Answer:
Use of contraceptives is justified due to the following reasons

1. In the absence of contraceptives, the population growth rate will rise at explosive rate and there will be scarcity of even the basic necessities.
2. Contraceptives provide an option for planning the family by spacing the pregnancies and avoiding unwanted pregnancies.
3. Contraceptives also guard against STDs to some extent.

Question 7.
Define spermicides. Also, mention their use and mode of contraceptive action.
Answer:
The chemicals that are used to kill the sperms to prevent physical meeting of sperms and eggs are called spermicides. They are available in the form of creams, jellies and foams and are applied to the uterine lining to kill the sperms.

Question 8.
Why intensely lactating mothers do not generally conceive? Explain.
Answer:
Yes, breastfeeding is one of the natural contraceptive methods. It reduces fertility by affecting the production of certain reproductive hormones. It is known to suppress the production of Gonadotropin Releasing Hormone (GnRH) and Follicle Stimulating Hormone (FSH). The release of these hormones triggers ovulation. Breast feeding also leads to increase level of prolactin, a hormone that inhibits ovulation.
So, even when a woman ovulates, her likelihood of conceiving is low if she is breast feeding.

Question 9.
Mention three advantages of lactational amenorrhea as a contraceptive method.
Answer:
The three advantages of lactational amenorrhea as a contraceptive method are mentioned as below

• If the mother is breast feeding completely, she would not ovulate, so chances of conception would be low.
• It does not require the use of any pill or devices for birth control.
• It does not have any side effects.

Question 10.
How is tubectomy effective in birth control?
Or What is tubectomy?
Answer:
Tubectomy is a surgical method of female fertilisation, where small part of Fallopian tubes is removed or tied up through a small incision in the abdomen or vagina in female. This process is irreversible and do not allow the reunion of both the ends to block the passage of ova through them. Thus, tubectomy is an effective method of birth control.

Question 11.
Classify the following contraceptive measures into different methods of birth control.
(i) Saheli
(ii) Tubectomy
(iii) Vasectomy
(iv) Diaphragm
(v) Cervical caps
Answer:
(i) Oral pills
(ii) Surgical method
(iii) Surgical method
(iv) Barrier method
(v) Barrier method

Question 12.
Write note on amniocentesis.
Or What is amniocentesis? How is it misused?
Answer:
Amniocentesis is a prenatal diagnostic test to detect the chromosomal pattern of the cells in the amniodc fluid that surrounds the developing foetus in the womb.
It is misused to determine the sex of pre-born child that leads to female foeticide of an unborn girl child.

This ban is necessary as this sex determination technique has been misused to kill girl child before birth.
The ban is justified to prevent female foeticide which could lead to change in sex ratio of the population.

Question 13.
If implementation of better techniques and new strategies are required to provide more efficient care and assistance to people, then why is there a statutory ban on amniocentesis? Write the use of this technique and give reason to justify the ban.
Answer:
Amniocentesis is one such technique that helps to determine any chromosomal abnormalities or genetic disorder and sex as well as foetal infections, by using minute amount of amniotic fluid, surrounding the foetus. Though implementation of better techniques and new strategies are required to provide more efficient care and assistance to people, but there is a statutory ban on amniocentesis to legally check female foeticide. This ban is necessary as this sex determination technique has been misused to kill girl child before birth.
The ban is justified to prevent female foeticide which could lead to change in sex ratio of the population.

Question 14.
Describe sexually transmitted diseases.
Answer:
Sexually Transmitted Diseases

• Chlamydia
• Ganital herpes [Caused by Herpes Simplex Virus (HSV)]
• Genital warts
• Gonorrhoea
• Hepatitis-B [caused by Hepatitis-B Virus (HBV)]
• HIV and AIDS
• Pelvic Inflammatory Disease (PID)
• Public lice infection (caused by crabs)
• Syphilis
• Trichomoniasis

Question 15.
What will happen, if gametes are directly transferred to the uterus?
Answer:
The procedure of GIFT involves the transfer of female gamete to the Fallopian tube. Gametes cannot be transferred to the uterus to achieve the same result because the uterine environment is not congenital for the survival of the gamete. If directly transferred to the uterus, they will undergo degeneration or could be phagocytosed and hence, viable zygote would not be formed.

Question 16.
Explain, how surrogacy is helpful in case of an infertile woman?
Or What is surrogate mother?
Answer:
Surrogacy is a practice in which a woman (a surrogate mother) bears a child for a couple unable to produce children, usually because the wife is infertile or unable to carry a pregnancy to full term.
The surrogate mother is impregnated with the use of artificial insemination or through the implantation of the embryo produced by in vitro fertilisation.

Question 17.
Why is ZIFT a boon to childless couples? Explain the procedure of ZIFT.
Or Write a note on ZIFT.
Answer:
Zygote Intra Fallopian Transfer (ZIFT) is a boon to the couple where the female cannot conceive naturally.
In this method, fertilisation is carried out in vitro (in the laboratory conditions) and the zygote nearly embryo so, formed (with upto 8-blastomeres) is transferred into the Fallopian tube.

Question 18.
Enlist five reasons that may cause semen to be abnormal.
Answer:
The following reasons may cause the semen to be abnormal

• Testicular infection, cancer or surgery
• Diseases like-anaemia, diabetes, thyroid malfunctioning
• Overheating of the testicles
• Ejaculation disorders
• Genetic abnormality

Question 19.
How is sperm donation helpful to infertile couples? Explain.
Answer:
Due to change in life style and eating habits, many couples are suffering from infertility, now-a-days, i. e. they are not able to conceive. Infertility may occur in both men and women.
In order to solve the problems related to infertility, the advancement in technologies has come to the rescue. Sperm donation has become boon for the couple, who suffer from infertility and want their own child.
Sperm donation is helpful in following cases in males

• When sperms are blocked by an abnormality in the epididymis and in the testis.
• Sexual dysfunction.
• The absence of sperms in males.

Question 20.
Males in whom testes fail to descend to th*e scrotum are generally infertile. Why?
Answer:
Testes are very sensitive to temperature. If they do not descend into the scrotum prior to adolescence, then they would stop producing sperms and will lead to infertility in males, a condition known as cryptochoridism.

Question 21.
Mention the primary aim of the ‘Assisted Reproductive Technology’ (ART) programme.
Answer:
‘Assisted Reproductive Technology’ (ART) is the collection of certain special techniques. The primary aim of the ART programmes is to assist infertile couples to have children through certain special techniques (like ZIFT, IUT, GIFT, ICSI, AI, etc.) when corrective treatment for infertility problems is not possible.

Question 22.
What is IVF?
Answer:
In Vitro Fertilisation (IVF)
It is a technique in which fertilisation occurs outside the female body. It is followed by the embryo transfer in which embryo is placed inside the uterus. This method is also called as test tube baby technique because sperms are placed with unfertilised eggs in petridish for fertilisation. Donated sperms or eggs can be used in this purpose. IVF techinque can also be employed in gestational surrogacy.

Question 23.
Shyam Lai and his wife have been advised by the gynaecologist to go for artificial insemination. What may have been the reason for the doctor to give such an advice? Explain.
Answer:
It signifies in the case of male infertility, where the sperm count is low. That’s why the couple has been advised to undergo artificial insemination.

Differentiate between the following (for complete chapter)

Question 1.
In vitro and In vivo fertilisation.
Answer:
Differences between in vitro and in vivo fertilisation are as follows

In vitro fertilisation	In vivo fertilisation
Fertilisation of egg with sperm occurs in lab under controlled conditions.	Fertilisation occurs inside human body.
It is performed by collecting the contents from a woman’s Fallopian tubes or uterus to mix with sperm.	The mixing of ova and sperm for fertilisation occurs in uterus of woman only.
It is an artificial process.	It is a natural process.

Question 2.
Syphilis and Gonorrhoea.
Answer:
Differences between syphilis and gonorrhoea are as follows

Syphilis	Gonorrhoea
It is a STD caused by pathogen Treponema pallidum.	It is a STD caused by bacterium Neisseria gonorrhoeae.
It generally affects external genital organs, penis of male and vagina of female.	It causes infection in urethra in males and Bartholin’s gland in females.
Penicillin may control the disease at primary and secondary stages.	For treatment of disease spectinomycin and tetracycline are given.

Question 3.
GIFT and ZIFT
Answer:
Differences between GIFT and ZIFT are as follows

GIFT	ZIFT
In this technique eggs are removed from woman’s ovaries and placed in one of the Fallopian tubes, along with man’s semen.	In this technique eggs are removed from ovulating woman’s ovaries and in vitro fertilised.
Fertilisation take place in woman’s uterus.	Fertilisation take place outside the uterus.
After fertilisation in uterus resulting zygote then implants and women become pregnant.	After invitro fertilisation, resulting zygote placed in the Fallopian tube by the use of laproscopy.

Odisha State Board CHSE Odisha Class 12 Biology Important Questions Chapter 3 Human Reproduction Important Questions and Answers.

CHSE Odisha 12th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 3 Human Reproduction

Human Reproduction Class 12 Important Questions CHSE Odisha

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Choose the correct option

Question 1.
Which organ’s outer covering is tunica albuginea?
(a) Testis
(b) Ovary
(c) Kidney
(d) Brain
Answer:
(a) Testis

Question 2.
Testicular descent to the inguinal region is effected by
(a) Testosterone
(b) LH
(c) AMH
(d) FSH
Answer:
(c) AMH

Question 3.
The temperature of scrotum is maintained by
(a) perspiration
(b) evaporation
(c) counter-current heat exchange
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

Question 4.
Prostate gland in males lies
(a) inferior to bladder
(b) posterior to bladder
(c) anterior to bladder
(d) for away from bladder
Answer:
(a) inferior to bladder

Question 5.
Graafian follicle is observed in the ovary of
(a) rohu
(b) Amphioxus
(c) salamander
(d) human
Answer:
(d) human

Question 6.
If fertilisation does not occur. Graafian follicle is converted to which endocrine gland?
(a) Corpus luteum
(b) Corpus albicans
(c) Corpus spongiosum
(d) Corpora cavernosa
Answer:
(b) Corpus albicans

Question 7.
Glands of skene in females are
(a) greater vestibular
(b) paraurethral
(c) Bartholin
(d) homologous to male’s Cowper’s gland
Answer:
(b) paraurethral

Question 8.
Seminal plasma is rich is
(a) fructose
(b) calcium
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) Both (a) and (b)

Question 9.
Corpus luteum secrete
(a) oestrogen
(b) progesterone
(c) relaxin
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

Question 10.
Spermatids are
(a) motile
(b) immotile
(c) non-dividing
(d) dead
Answer:
(b) immotile

Question 11.
The part of sperm that gets embedded in seminiferous tubules after spermiogenesis is
(a) tail
(b) middle piece
(c) neck
(d) head
Answer:
(d) head

Question 12.
Egg mother cells are formed by
(a) meiosis
(b) mitosis
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) mitosis

Question 13.
Human egg is
(a) centrolecithal
(b) telolecithal
(c) alecithal
(d) macrolecithal
Answer:
(c) alecithal

Question 14.
From which part of spermatid is acrosome formed?
(a) Nucleus
(b) Mitochondria
(c) Golgi bodies
(d) Ribosome
Answer:
(c) Golgi bodies

Question 15.
Which type / types of cell division occur (s) in cells of testis at different phases of spermatogenesis?
(a) Only meiotic
(b) Only mitotic
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Amitotic
Answer:
(c) Both (a) and (b)

Question 16.
During which stage of oogenesis the number of chromosomes is reduced to half?
(a) Formation of second polar body
(b) Meiosis-II
(c) Division of secondary oocyte
(d) Formation of first polar body
Answer:
(d) Formation of first polar body

Question 17.
On which day of normal menstrual cycle, ovulation occurs?
(a) 10 th
(b) 13 th
(c) 14 th
(d) 15 th
Answer:
(c) 14th

Question 18.
Generally, what is the site-of fertilisation in humans? (2022)
(a) Ovary
(b) Uterus
(c) Vagina
(d) Fallopian tube
Answer:
(d) Fallopian tube

Question 19.
During fertilisation through which path the male pronucleus moves to meet the female pronucleus?
(a) Penetration path
(b) Copulation path
(c) Migration path
(d)
Answer:
(b) Copulation path

Question 20.
Name the cells formed by the division of zygote,
(a) Blastula
(b) Blastomeres
(c) Blastocoel
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Blastomeres

Question 21.
What is the correct sequence of embryo development?
(a) Gamete → Zygote → Morula → Blastula → Gastrula
(b) Gamete → Zygote → Blastula → Morula → Gastrula
(c) Gamete → Neurula → Gastrula
(d) Gamete → Neurula → Morula
Answer:
(a) Gamete → Zygote → Morula → Blastula → Gastrula

Question 22.
Human embryo is protected by which cavity?
(a) Am’niotic cavity
(b) Pleural cavity
(c) Peritoneal cavity
(d) Neural cavity
Answer:
(a) Amniotic cavity

Question 23.
What is the term used to represent the birth of a human foetus?
(a) Ovulation
(b) Abortion
(c) Conception
(d) Parturition
Answer:
(d) Parturition

Question 24.
Cleavage pattern is influenced by …………
(a) cytoplasm
(b) yolk
(c) nucleus
(d) centrosome
Answer:
(b) yolk

Question 25.
Embryo at 16-celled stage and without cavity is called …………..
(a) morula
(b) blastomere
(c) blastula
(d) gastrula
Answer:
(a) morula

Question 26.
What do you call the embryo at 16 celled stage?
(a) Blastocyst
(b) Morula
(c) Blastula
(d) Gastrula
Answer:
(a) Morual

Question 27.
LH surge is seen during
(a) menstrual phase
(b) follicular phase
(c) ovulatory phase
(d) luteal phase
Answer:
(c) ovulatory phase

Question 28.
Slow block to polyspermy is induced by
(a) vitelline membrane
(b) corona radiata
(c) zona pellucida
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(b) corona radiata

Question 29.
Pineal gland is derived from
(a) ectoderm
(b) mesoderm
(c) endoderm
(d) Both (a) and (c)
Answer:
(a) ectoderm

Correct the statements, if required, by changing the underlined words

Question 1.
Secretion of prostate contains fructose.
Answer:
Secretion of seminal vesicle contains fructose.

Question 2.
The primordial follicles are situated in the medulla of ovary.
Answer:
The primordial follicles are situated in the cortex of ovary.

Question 3.
Corpus albicans is an endocrine structure.
Answer:
Corpus luteum

Question 4.
Efferent ductules in males are 15 in number.
Answer:
12

Question 5.
Process by which sperms are released from seminiferous tubules is called spermiogenesis.
Answer:
Process by which sperms are released from seminiferous tubules is called spermiation.

Question 6.
Degenerated follicles are called Graafian follicles.
Answer:
Degenerated follicles are called atretic follicles.

Question 7.
Mitochondria in tail of sperms provide it motility.
Answer:
Microtubules

Question 8.
Corona radiata is the primary egg membrane. Fill in the blanks
Answer:
Zona pellucida

Question 9.
Three primary germ layers are formed during morula stage of embryonic development.
Answer:
gastrula

Question 10.
Intestine is derived from mesoderm.
Answer:
endoderm

Question 11.
The yellow coloured milk secreted by mother just after childbirth is called neonatal milk.
Answer:
colostrum

Question 12.
Fertilisation occurs in uterus.
Answer:
Fallopian tube

Question 13.
Gonads are derived from endoderm.
Answer:
Mesoderm

Fill in the blanks

Question 1.
Humans reproduce …………….. . (asexually/sexually)
Answer:
sexually

Question 2.
Humans are ………… (oviparous, viviparous, ovoviviparous)
Answer:
viviparous

Question 3.
Fertilisation is ………… in humans. (external/internal)
Answer:
internal

Question 4.
A thin ……….. separates the granulosa cells from theca interna.
Answer:
basement membrane

Question 5.
Rupture of Graafian follicle releases …….
Answer:
secondary oocyte

Question 6.
Each spermatogonium contains …………. chromosomes.
Answer:
46

Question 7.
Oogonia project into stroma of ovary as a chord called ………… .
Answer:
egg tube or Pfluger

Question 8.
FSH and LH are secreted by ……………. gland.
Answer:
pituitary

Question 9.
The sperm’s head gets embedded into ………. after spermiogenesis.
Answer:
Sertoli cells

Question 10.
Primary oocyte gets arrested at …………. stage of meiosis-I.
Answer:
diplotene

Question 11.
The fusion of male and female pronuclei is called …………. .
Answer:
fertilisation

Question 12.
During fertilisation, the sperm’s acrosome releases ……………..
Answer:
hyaluronidase

Question 13.
The covering of egg is called …………… membrane.
Answer:
vitelline

Question 14.
The primitive gut that forms during gastrulation is called ……………. .
Answer:
archenteron

Question 15.
The hormone …………. stimulates the secretion of milk.
Answer:
oxytocin

Question 16.
Zygote is ………….
Answer:
diploid

Question 17.
The process of release of ovum from a mature follicle is called ………….. .
Answer:
ovulation

Question 18.
Ovulation is induced by a hormone ………….. .
Answer:
LH

Question 19.
Zygote divides to form ………… which is implanted in uterus.
Answer:
blastocyst

Express the following in one or two word(s)

Question 1.
Give the name of structures by which testes are suspended in the scrotum.
Answer:
Spermatic cords

Question 2.
Name the cells that nourish the germ cells in the testes. Where are these cells located in the testes?
Answer:
Sertoli cells. They are found on the inner lining of seminiferous tubule.

Question 3.
Name the type of cells found in the secondary follicle.
Answer:
Cuboidal-shaped granulosa cells.

Question 4.
Name the structure formed after the degeneration of corpus luteum.
Answer:
Corpus albicans.

Question 5.
Which hormone is secreted by Leydig cells?
Answer:
Testosterone

Question 6.
Somatic chromosome number is 40.
What shall be the chromosome number in the cells of seminiferous tubules?
Answer:
40 chromosomes

Question 7.
From which part of spermatid is acrosome formed?
Answer:
Head

Question 8.
How many spermatids are produced from a single primary spermatocyte?
Answer:
4

Question 9.
State the stage at which oogonia reach their maximum number.
Answer:
Before birth at five months of foetal life.

Question 10.
When are polar bodies formed in female ovary?
Answer:
During the production of secondary oocyte and ovum.

Question 11.
How many sperms will be produced from 10 primary spermatocytes?
Answer:
40

Question 12.
Name the process of release of spermatozoa from Sertoli cells into cavity of seminiferous tubule.
Answer
Spermiation

Question 13.
Generally, what is the site of.fertilisation in human being?
(Vagina, Uterus, Fallopian tube and Ovary)
Answer:
Fallopian tube

Question 14.
During fertilisation through which path the male pronucleus moves to meet the female pronucleus?
(Penetration path, Copulation path, Migration path and Zygotic path)
Answer:
Migration path

Question 15.
In which stage of development are the three germinal layers formed ?
Answer:
Gastrula

Question 16.
Which germ layer forms the nervous system?
Answer:
Ectoderm

Question 17.
From which germ layer does the coelom arise in vertebrates?
Answer:
Mesoderm

Question 18.
When does ovulation occur?
Answer:
Day 14 of menstrual cycle

Question 19.
What do you call the layer of cells forming the outer wall of the blastocyst?
Answer:
Trophoblast

Question 20.
Name the thin clear coat surrounding mammalian egg.
Answer:
Plasma membrane

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Write a note on human male reproductive system.
Answer:
Human Male reproductive system It consists of various glands, ducts and supporting structures. The structures present in this system are either paired or unpaired.
Testes are primary sex organs, posterior to the penis within the scrotum, produce spermatozoa and testosterone.

Seminal vesicles are club-shaped glands posterior to prostate, secrete alkaline fluid containing nutrients, fructose and prostaglandins.Scrotum is the pouch of skin, posterior to the penis, encloses and protects testes.

Penis is the unpaired organ, anterior to the scrotum and attached to pubis, conveys urine to outside of body.
Prostate gland and Cowper s gland secrete fluids which neutralise acidic environment of vagina and lubricate urethra and penis, respectively.

Question 2.
Draw a labelled diagram of male reproductive system.
Answer:

Question 3.
Why are the human testes located outside the abdominal cavity? Name the pouch in which they are present.
Or
Why are testes extra-abdominal in human males?
Answer:
Human testes are responsible for the synthesis of male gametes (sperms) and they need slightly lower temperature than the normal body temperature for this function. Thus, testes are located outside the abdominal cavity in sac-like structure called scrotum. Its temperature is about 2-3° lower than the normal body temperature.

Question 4.
Describe the structure of a seminiferous tubule.
Or Write a note on seminiferous tubules.
Answer:
Each testicular lobule contains 1-3 highly coiled seminiferous tubules. Each tubule is lined on its inside by two types of cells.

The cuboidal cells are called male germ (spermatogenic) cells and few large pyramidal (supporting cells-Sertoli or Nurse cells).
The former gets divided to form sperms while the latter provides nutrition to the germ cells.

Question 5.
Write the location and function of the following in human testes
(i) Sertoli cells
(ii) Leydig cells
Answer:
(i) Sertoli cells are found in the seminiferous tubules and they help to support and nourish the male gametes.
(ii) Leydig cells are found at interstitial region between seminiferous tubules and secrete androgens.

Question 6.
What is the significance of epididymis in male fertility?
Answer:
The epididymis helps sperm in attaining maturity, acquiring increased motility and fertilising capacity. It also stores sperms for a short period before they enter the vasa deferens.

Question 7.
How the spermatozoa are moved through the vasa efferentia and the epididymis?
Answer:
Spermatozoa or sperm formed in the seminiferous tubules reaches the vasa efferentia through rete testis. Several vasa efferentia open into the epididymis and carry sperm outside the body.

Question 8.
What are the major components of the seminal plasma?
Answer:
Seminal fluid is a cumulative secretion of accessory sex glands of male that is seminal vesicles, prostate gland and Cowper’s glands. It is rich in fructose, calcium and certain enzymes.

Question 9.
What are the major functions of male accessory ducts and glands?
Answer:
The male accessory ducts are rete testis, vasa efferentia, epididymis and vas deferens. These ducts store and transport the sperms from the testes to the outside through the urethra. The male accessory glands are paired seminal vesicles, prostate gland and paired bulbourethral glands.

The secretion of these glands form seminal plasma, which is rich in fructose, calcium and certain enzymes. The secretion of bulbourethral glands lubricate the penis.

Question 10.
How would a test confirm sexual intercourse by analysing vaginal swab?
Answer:
In this test, vagina is analysed for the presence of fructose, which is not produced anywhere in the human body . except semen (contributed by seminal vesicles). Therefore, its presence in the vagina indicates coitus/sexual intercourse.

Question 11.
Enlist the disorders of male reproductive system.
Answer:

Disorder	Description
Cryptorchidism	Failure of lestes to descend into the scrotum.
Benign prostatic hypertrophy	Enlargement of the prostate, often occurs in old age. Causes difficulty in urinating, dribbling and nocturia.
Htydrocoele	Accumulation of fluids around a testicle.
Erectile dysfunction (impotance)	Inability to develop or maintain an erection of the penis during sexual activity. Causes are drugs, ageing, diabetes, etc.
Inguinal hernia	Protrusion of the abdominal cavity contents through the inguinal canal.

Question 12.
Draw a labelled diagram of female reproductive system.
Answer:

Question 13.
Write a note on human ovary.
Answer:
Ovaries
Ovaries are the primary sex organs of female that is situated in the pelvic cavity.
They produce female gametes (ovum) and several steroid hormones (ovarian hormones). The ovaries are almond-shaped, lying in the lower part of the abdomen and held to the broad ligament by double folds of peritoneum called mesovarium. Each ovary is about 2-4 cm in length and is connected by an ovarian ligament to the uterus and by a suspensory ligament to the lateral pelvic wall. Each ovary is covered by a thin epithelium layer called germinal epithelium.

Question 14.
What is the difference between a primary oocyte and a secondary oocyte?
Answer:
Primary oocyte is a diploid cell formed in foetal ovary when the gamete mother cell, oogonia is arrested at prophase-I of meiosis. Secondary oocyte is the haploid cell formed from primary oocyte that completes its first meiotic division, during puberty and produces the female gamete ova (n).

Question 15.
What are the changes in the oogonia during the transition of a primary follicle to Graafian follicle?
Answer:

1. The germinal epithelial cells divide repeatedly until many diploid oogonia are formed.
2. The oogonia grow to form primary oocytes. Each primary oocyte then gets surrounded by a layer of granulosa cells and is called the primary follicle.
3. These get surrounded by more layers of granulosa cells and called secondary follicles.
4. The latter soon transforms into a tertiary follicle, which is characterised by a fluid-filled cavity called antrum.
5. The primary oocyte within the tertiary follicle undergoes meiotic division to become a secondary oocyte and a first polar body (haploid).
6. The tertiary follicle further changes into the mature follicle or Graafian follicle that ruptures to release the secondary oocyte (ovum) from the ovary by the process called ovulation.

Question 16.
Name and explain the role of the inner and middle walls of the human uterus.
Answer:
Uteus has a thick, highly vascular wall composed of three layers of tissues

1. Outer perimetrium A thin single-layered membranous covering of uterus wall that is composed of squamous epitbelial cells.
2. Middle myometrium A thick layer of smooth muscle fibres, which contracts strongly during the delivery of the baby.
3. Inner endometrium A glandular layer with many blood vessels. It consists of simple cuboidal or columnar epithelium. It undergoes cyclic changes during the menstrual cycle.

Question 17.
The diagram shows the side view of the female reproductive system

(i) Label the parts A to D.
(ii) In which region are sperms released during intercourse?
Answer:
(i) A-Uterus, B-Fallopian tube, C-Ovary, D-Vagina.
(ii) During intercourse, the penis reaches into the vaginal area and thus, the sperms are released in vagina.

Question 18.
What is spermatogenesis? Briefly describe the process of spermatogenesis.
Answer:
It is the formation of spermatozoa (sperms) in the testes, which originate from the cuboidal cells called Primordial Germ Cells (PGCs). The process of spermatogenesis starts at puberty.
It is completed in two steps

• Formation of spermatids (spermatocytogenesis)
• Transformation of spermatids to sperms (spermiogenesis)

Question 19.
Define spermiogenesis and spermiation.
Or Write a note on spermiogenesis.
Answer:
Spermiogenesis:
It is the formation of spermatozoa (sperms) in the testes, which originate from the cuboidal cells called Primordial Germ Cells (PGCs). The process of spermatogenesis starts at puberty.
It is completed in two steps

• Formation of spermatids (spermatocytogenesis)
• Transformation of spermatids to sperms (spermiogenesis)

Spermiogenesis:
The spermatids (immotile) transform into motile spermatozoa by the process called spermiogenesis. It is also called differentiation phase during which sperm heads get embedded in the Sertoli cells and are finally released from the seminiferous tubules by the process of spermiation.

Question 19.
Draw and label the various parts of human sperm.
Answer:

Question 20.
Spermatogenesis in human males is a hormone regulated process. Justify.
Answer:
Spermatogenesis initiates due to a significant increase in the secretion of Gonadotropin Releasing Hormone (GnRH) by the hypothalamus at the age of puberty. The increased level of GnRH acts on the anterior pituitary and stimulates the secretion of two gonadotropins, i.e. Luteinizing Hormone (LH) and Follicle Stimulating Hormone (FSH). LH acts on the Leydig cells thus, stimulating the synthesis and secretion of androgens. This in turn stimulate the process of spermatogenesis. FSH acts on Sertoli cells and stimulates the secretion of some factors like inhibins, activins and transferrins which help in spermiogenesis.
Note Androgens are testicular hormones which function to maintain the accessory ducts and glands in males.

Question 21.
State the function of the following
(i) Acrosome
(ii) Sperm tail
Answer:
Their functions are
(i) Acrosome It contains hydrolytic enzymes that are required to dissolve the membranes of the ovum for fertilisation.
(ii) Sperm tail It helps in the sperm movement in the female genital tract for fertilisation.

Question 22.
What is the number of chromosomes in the following cells of a human male?
(i) Spermatogonial cells
(ii) Spermatids
(iii) Primary spermatocytes
(iv) Sertoli cells
Answer:
(i) 46
(ii) 23
(iii) 46
(iv) 46

Question 23.
Identify A, B, C and D with reference to gametogenesis in humans in the flow chart given below.

Answer:
A – GnRH,
B – FSH,
C – Spermatogenesis,
D – Spermiogenesis

Question 24.
Write the steps in the formation of an ovum from an oogonium in human.
Answer:
This process involves following phases
(i) Multiplication phase Cells of germinal epithelium undergo mitotic division to produce undifferentiated germ cells called oogonia or egg mother cells within each foetal ovary.

1. The oogonia further divides by mitosis and projects as a chord into the stroma of the ovary. This chord is known as egg tube or pfluger, which later become a round mass called egg nest.
2. In the egg nest, one cell grows, enters into prophase-I of meiosis and gets arrested at diplotene stage temporarily. This cell becomes the primary oocyte.
3. Other oogonia in the nest surround this primary ooctye to form primary follicle. These follicles protects and nourish the primary oocyte.
4. About 2 million of primary follicles exist in females before birth. A large number of these follicles degenerate during the phase from birth to puberty by the process called follicular atresia. Therefore, at puberty only 60000- 80000 primary follicles are left in each ovary.

(ii) Growth phase

1. The primary follicles get surrounded by more layers of granulosa cells and a new theca to form secondary follicles.
2. This follicle then gets converted into a tertiary follicle that possesses a fluid-filled cavity called antrum surrounded by theca interna and theca externa.

(iii) Maturation phase The primary oocyte within this tertiary follicle grows in size. The fully grown primary oocyte completes its first meiotic division producing two daughter nuclei in which larger haploid cell is called secondary oocyte and the tiny one is called first polar body or polocyte. The secondary oocyte contains bulk of the nutrient rich cytoplasm of primary oocyte and becomes tertiary follicle.

Question 25.
Why are polar bodies formed during oogenesis, but not in spermatogenesis?
Answer:
Polar bodies are formed during maturation phase of oogenesis. Two small polar bodies are formed during I and II meiotic divisions. Due to unequal cytokinesis, the cytoplasmic content of polar bodies is negligible as compared to ovum. They help to get rid of haploid set of chromosomes during oogenesis. But, during spermatogenesis equal cytokinesis occurs thus, polar bodies are not formed in this.

Question 26.
How many eggs do you think were released by the ovary of a female dog, which gave birth to six puppies?
Answer:
The ovaries of a female dog must have released 6 eggs, each of which was fertilised.
So, six zygotes were formed, that developed into six puppies.

Question 27.
Identify the statements as True/False. Correct each false statement to make it true.
(i) Oogenesis takes place in corpus luteum.
(ii) Spermatozoa get nutrition from Sertoli cells.
Answer:
(i) False-Oogenesis takes place in ovaries.
(ii) True.

Question 28.
What is menstrual cycle? Which hormones regulate menstrual cycle?
Answer:
The hormones that regulate menstrual cycle along with their functions are

1. Pituitary gonadotropins (LH, FSH and Oestrogen) These help in the proliferation of Graafian follicle and endometrium of uterus.
   1. FSH Stimulates the growth of ovarian follicle and secretion of oestrogen.
   2. Oestrogen Increased level of oestrogen gives positive feedback and stimulates more LH production.
   3. LH Stimulates ovulation.
2. Progesterone Essential for the maintenance of endometrium.

The hormones involved in the process are

• FSH, LH stimulate growth of follicle and maturation of ovum.
• Oestrogen is involved in endometrial repair and growth.
• Oestrogen and progesterone together prepare endometrium and other parts of the body for pregnancy.

Question 29.
Write the source and effect of the high concentration of LH on a mature Graafian follicle.
Answer:
The changes in the ovary during follicular phase stimulates anterior pituitary to release more LH. In the middle of cycle, i.e. during ovulatory phase, LH attains a peak level and it is known as LH surge. High level of LH ruptures the Graafian follicles and thereby releases the ovum.

Question 30.
Draw a labelled diagram of a Graafian follicle.
Answer:

Question 31.
Describe, how the changing levels of FSH, LH and progesterone during menstrual cycle induce changes in the ovary and the uterus in human female.
Answer:
Both LH and FSH attain a peak level in the middle of cycle (about 14th day).

1. Rapid secretion of LH leading to its maximum level during the midcycle is called LH surge. It induces rupture of Graafian follicle and thereby, the release of ovum, i.e. ovulation.
2. The ovulation (ovulatory phase) is followed by the luteal phase.

Question 32.
Given alongside is a flowchart showing ovarian change during menstrual cycle. Fill in the spaces with the hormonal factor(s) responsible for the events shown.

Answer:
A – FSH and oestrogen, B – LH and C – Progesterone.

Question 33.
Corpus luteum in pregnancy has a long life. However, if fertilisation does not take place, it remains active only for 10-12 days. Why?
Answer:
During pregnancy, there is no menstruation. The corpus luteum secretes large amount of progesterone in case the fertilisation occurs.
This is to maintain the corpus luteum as long as the embryo remains there. In the absence of fertilisation, the corpus luteum cannot be maintained for more than 10-12 days and hence, it degenerates.

Question 34.
Write the function of following
(i) Corpus luteum
(ii) Endometrium
Answer:
(i) Corpus luteum It secretes progesterone required for the maintenance of endometrium.
(ii) Endometrium It is the innermost layer of uterus.
It provides nutrition for the development of foetus. Implantation of blastocyst occurs in endometrium.

Question 35.
Write short note on fertilisation.
Or What is fertilisation? In man, where does it take place?
Answer:
Fertilisation:
The process of fusion of a sperm with an ovum is called fertilisation. It involves discharge of semen by the penis into the female’s vagina close to the cervix during coitus is called insemination.
The motile sperms move through the cervix, enter the uterus and reach the junction of the isthmus and ampulla (ampullary-isthmus junction) of the Fallopian tube.

The ovum released from the ovary also reaches the ampullary-isthmic junction, where the two gametic nuclei fuse. This process is called amphimixis or syngamy. Fertilisation can only occur if the ovum and sperms are transported simultaneously to this junction. This explains why all copulations do not lead to fertilisation and pregnancy.

Question 36.
In our society the women are often blamed for giving birth to daughters. Can you explain why this is not correct?
Answer:
Women are blamed for giving birth to daughters. This is wrong because sex of the baby is determined by the sperm that can have either X or Y-chromosomes.
Women have only one type of chromosome (X) in all the ova.

If the sperm having X-chromosome fertilises the ovum (X), the resulting zygote (XX) will become a female.
If the sperm having Y-chromosome fertilises the ovum (X), the resulting zygote (XY) will become a male.

Question 37.
A sperm has just fertilised a human egg in the Fallopian tube. Trace the events that the fertilised egg will undergo upto the implantation of the blastocyst in the uterus.
Answer:
Fertilisation
The process of fusion of a sperm with an ovum is called fertilisation. It involves discharge of semen by the penis into the female’s vagina close to the cervix during coitus is called insemination.
The motile sperms move through the cervix, enter the uterus and reach the junction of the isthmus and ampulla (ampullary-isthmus junction) of the Fallopian tube.

The ovum released from the ovary also reaches the ampullary-isthmic junction, where the two gametic nuclei
fuse. This process is called amphimixis or syngamy. Fertilisation can only occur if the ovum and sperms are transported simultaneously to this junction. This explains why all copulations do not lead to fertilisation and pregnancy.
In humans, fertilisation occurs in following steps

(i) The sperm comes in contact with ovum. The sperm secrete a chemical called anti-fertilizin which react with the chemical called fertilizin secreted by the ovum. This reaction is called agglutination reaction. The fertilizin and anti-fertilizin are complementary only when they belong to same species. This reaction helps to prevent the progress of multiple sperms towards the egg.

(ii) The sperm undergoes capacitadon and acrosomal reacdon. The latter reaction involves the release of sperm lysins which include-hyaluronidase, Corona Penetrating Enzyme (CPE) and Zonalysins (acrosin). These enzymes help in the digestion of primary, secondary egg membranes so that the sperm can penetrate the egg.

(iii) While penetrating the egg, contact between sperm and zona pellucida depolarise the membrane (fast block) so as to block the entry of additional sperms. Similarly, the contact between sperm and corona radiata induces cortical reaction (slow block and results in the formation of a fertilisation membrane.

(iv) Simultaneously, secondary oocyte restart cell cycle by the breakdown of MPF to APC (Anaphase Promoting Complex) due to the entry of sperm.

(v) After the completion of second meiotic division, ovum is formed. Its nucleus condenses to form female pronucleus. Simultaneously, male pronucleus is formed by the separation of sperm head from middle piece.

(vi) The fusion of male and female pronuclei results in the formation of zygote (2n – 46).

Ovum surrounded by sperms

Question 38.
Name the embryonic stage that gets implanted in the uterine wall of the human female. Also draw its diagram.
Answer:
The blastocyst gets embedded in the endometrium of the uterus.
This is called implantation and it leads to pregnancy.

Question 39.
When and where do chorionic villi appear in humans? State their function.
Answer:
Chorionic villi appear just after implantation. They appear as finger-like projections on the trophoblast and become interdigitated with the surrounding uterine tissues and form the placenta.

Question 40.
A woman passes out hCG in the urine during the pregnancy. Why?
Answer:
The presence of human Chorionic Gonadotropin (hCG) is the basis of pregnancy test. Placenta formed during pregnancy releases hCG, which comes in urine of pregnant woman.

Question 41.
Mention the name of hormones and their source organs produced only during pregnancy.
Answer:
The hormones are
(i) human Chorionic Gonadotropin (hCG) It is secreted by the placenta.
(ii) Relaxin It is secreted by the ovary.

Question 42.
Placenta acts as an endocrine gland. Explain.
Or
Write the function of placenta.
Or
Write a note on placenta.
Answer:
The placenta secretes hormones like human gonadotropins, human placental lactogen, oestrogen and progesterone that are necessary to maintain pregnancy. Due to the secretion of these hormones, it is called an endocrine gland.

Question 43.
When and how does placenta develop in human female?
Answer:
Soon after implantation, finger-like projections appear on k the trophoblast. These are known as chorionic villi and surrounded by the uterine tissue and maternal blood.

The chorionic villi and the uterine tissue become inter-digitated with each other. Together, they form a structural and functional unit between foetus and maternal body called placenta. In humans the placenta is of haemochorial metadiscoidal and deciduous type. After the sixth week of pregnancy, placenta take over the function of corpus luteum and produce oestrogen and progesterone.

Question 44.
Where is morula formed in humans? Explain the process of its development from zygote.
Answer:
The development of embryo from fertilised ovum involves the following events. The mitotic division starts as the zygote (fertilised ovum) moves through the isthmus of the oviduct towards the uterus, forming 2, 4, 8, 16 daughter cells called blastomeres. This process is called cleavage. During holoblastic cleavage in humans, the young embryo is slowly moving down the Fallopian tube towards the uterus and following events take place

1. The embryo with 8-16 blastomeres is called morula, But, it is not larger than a zygote.
2. The morula continues to divide and transforms into blastocyst as it moves further into the uterus. The cavity of the blastocyst is called blastocoel. This process of transformation is called blastulation.
3. The blastomeres in the blastocyst are arranged into an outer layer called trophoblast and the inner group of cells attached to trophoblast called the inner cell mass.
4. The trophoblast layer then gets attached to the endometrium and the inner cell mass differentiates into the embryo. After attachment, the uterine cells divide rapidly and cover the blastocyst.
5. As a result, the blastocyst becomes embedded in the endometrium of the uterus. This is called implantation and it leads to pregnancy (i.e. the time from conception to birth).
   

Question 45.
State the function of yolk.
Answer:
The function of yolk are

• It provides nutrition to the developing embryo.
• Cleavage, i.e. the division of cells in the early embryo mostly depends on the amount of yolk in the egg.
• The cleavage can be holoblastic (total cleavage) or meroblastic (partial cleavage).

Question 46.
What is the effect of yolk on cleavage?
Answer:

1. The zyogte undergoes mitotic divisions called cleavage and develops into an embryo.
2. The pattern of cleavage is determined by the amount of yolk and its distribution in the egg.
3. If the egg is having moderate to sparse amounts of yolk then the egg divides completely and this type of cleavage is called holoblastic cleavage.
4. If the egg contains a large amount of yolk then the egg cannot divide completely as the cleavage furrow cannot penetrate the yolk. This type of cleavage is called meroblastic cleavage.

Question 47.
Draw the following diagrams related to human reproduction and label them.
(i) The zygote after first cleavage division
(ii) Morula stage
(iii) Blastocyst stage (sectional view)
Answer:
(i) The zygote after first cleavage division

(ii) Morula stage

(iii) Blastocyst stage (sectional view)

Question 48.
Study the figure given below and answer the questions that follows.

(i) Name the stage of human embryo the figure represents.
(ii) Identify ‘A’ in the figure and mention its function,
(iii) Mention the fate of the inner cell mass after implantation in the uterus.
Answer:
(i) Blastocyst.
(ii) ‘A’ is trophoblast. The trophoblast layer gets attached to endometrium and later forms chorionic villi.
(iii) The inner cell mass gets differentiated into an embryo.

Question 49.
What is parturition? Which hormones are involved in induction of parturition?
Or
Why parturition is called a neuroendocrine mechanism? Explain.
Or
What are gestation and parturition?
Answer:
Parturition
The time period during which the embryo remains in the uterus, i.e. after the last day of menstruation to the day of parturition is called gestation. The gestation period of humans is about 9 months.
Vigorous contraction of the uterus at the end of pregnancy causes expulsion/delivery of the foetus. This process of delivery of the foetus (childbirth) is called parturition. It is induced by a complex neuroendocrine mechanism.
The signals of parturition originate from the fully developed foetus and the placenta, which induce mild uterine contractions. It is called foetal-ejection reflex.

1. This triggers the release of oxytocin from the maternal pituitary. It promotes contractions of uterine muscles, which in turn stimulate further secretion of oxytocin.
2. The stimulatory reflex between the uterine contraction and oxytocin secretion continues resulting in stronger contractions. This leads to the expulsion of the baby out of the uterus through the birth canal.
3. Soon after the birth of baby, placenta is also expelled out of the uterus. Relaxin hormone relaxes the pelvic ligaments of mother to prepare for the childbirth.

Question 50.
What is lactation? Mention its significance.
Answer:
Lactation:
The mammary glands in females undergo differentiation during pregnancy. The production and release of milk by the mammary glands of female after birth of a young one is called lactation. The first milk, which comes out from the mother’s mammary glands just after childbirth is called colostrum. It is rich in proteins and energy along with the Antibodies (IgA) that provide passive ‘ immunity to the newborn. Breast feeding during the initial period of infant growth is highly recommended by the doctors for bringing up a healthy baby.

Differentiate between the following (for complete chapter)

Question 1.
Graafian follicle and Corpus luteum.
Answer:
Differences between Graafian follicle and corpus luteum are as follows

Graafian follicle	Corpus luteum
It consists of an oocyte, zona pellucida, cellular membranous granulosa surrounded by the theca interna and the externa.	It consists of luteum cells, fibrin and blood clot.
It contains follicular antrum (follicular cavity) filled with follicular fluid.	It contains blood clot.
It is formed by the germinal epithelium of the ovary.	It is formed after the release of secondary oocyte from the Graafian follicle.
Its granular cells secrete oestrogens.	It secretes progesterone.

Question 2.
Corpus luteum and Corpus albicans.
Answer:
Differences between corpus luteum and corpus albicans are as follows

Corpus luteum	Corpus albicans
Graafian follicle changes into corpus luteum after ovulation in ovary.	Corpus luteum degenerates and forms corpus albicans if there is no pregnancy.
It is made of luteal cells.	It is made of scar tissues.
Secretes progesterone.	Do not secrete any hormone.

Question 3.
Menarche and Menopause.
Answer:
Differences between menarche and menopause are as follows

Menarche	Menopause
It is the first menstrual period in human female.	It is the end of menstrual period in human female.
It occurs at around 11-16 years of age.	It occurs at around 45-50 years of age.
It marks the beginning of reproductive phase of a female.	It marks the end of reproductive phase of a female
There is elevated level of oestrogen.	There is decline in the level of oestrogen.

Question 4.
Endometrium and Myometrium.
Answer:
Differences between endometrium and myometrium are as follows

Endometrium	Myometrium
It is inner glandular layer of the wall of the uterus.	It is thick muscular middle layer of the wall of the uterus.
It undergoes cyclic changes during menstrual cycle. Implantation of blastocyst takes place on endometrium.	It is involved in the uterine movements.

Question 5.
Spermatocytes and Oocytes.
Answer:
Differences between spermatocytes and oocytes are as follows

Spermatocytes	Oocytes
Primary spermatocytes are formed from the spermatogonia in the seminiferous tubules of testes by mitosis.	Primary oocytes are formed from the oogonia in the ovary of the foetus.
Each primary spermatocyte undergoes meiosis-i and forms the two haploid secondary spermatocytes.	Each primary oocyte undergoes meiosis-l and forms haploid secondary oocytes and haploid first polar body.
Each secondary spermatocyte undergoes meiosis-ll and forms two haploid spermatids.	The secondary oocyte undergoes meiosis-ll and forms one ovum and one second polar body.
Each primary spermatocyte forms four haploid spermatids.	Each primary oocyte forms one ovum and three polar bodies.

Question 6.
Cleavage and Typical mitosis.
Answer:
Differences between cleavage and typical mitosis are as follows

Cleavage	Typical mitosis
It occurs in zygote or parthenogenetic egg,	It occurs in most of body cells.
Interphase is short.	Interphase is of long duration.
Growth does not occur.	Growth occurs during interphase.
Oxygen consumption is high as it is very rapid process.	Oxygen consumption is low as it is slow process.
Size of blastomeres decreases.	Size of daughter cells remains same after growth.
DNA synthesis is faster.	DNA synthesis is slower.
Nuclear cytoplasmic ratio increases.	Nuclear cytoplasmic ratio remains same.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Give an account of the human male reproductive system.
Answer:
Human Reproductive System
Human beings show prominent sexual dimorphism in which male and female differ from each other by a number of primary and secondary sex characters. Primary sex characters are those which are present since birth in both males and females, e.g. external genitalia.
The secondary sex characters appear after puberty and include a number of traits like the presence of thick facial hairs, low pitch voice, etc., in males and well-developed mammary glands, high pitch voice, etc., in females.
On the basis of their functions, reproductive organs can be divided into the following types

1. Primary sex organs These produce gametes and sex hormones, e.g. ovary in females and testes in males.
2. Secondary sex organs These do not produce gametes or sex hormones, but help in morphological discrimination among two sexes, e.g. breast in females, penis in males, etc.
3. Accessory organs These do not form gametes, but are essential for reproduction, e.g. prostate gland in males, Fallopian tube in females,

Male Reproductive System:
The male reproductive system is located in the pelvis region. It consists of scrotum a pair of testes, excurrent ducts and accessory glands.

The male reproductive system : (a) Anterior view (b) Sagittal view

Scrotum:
It is a pouch-like structure of pigmented skin arising from the lower abdominal wall and hanging between the leg. It is divided internally into right and left scrotal sacs by a muscular partition called septum scrota. The testis originates in the abdominal cavity, but later during the seventh month of development, it descend into the respective scrotal sacs through the passages called inguinal canals.

Testicular descent to inguinal region during gestation period is affected by Antimullerin Hormone (AMH) secreted by Sertoli cells. 90% of babies have completely descended testes, when they are born. In 10% of new-borns, testes fail to descend and retained in the abdominal cavity. This condition is called cryptochidism. It can be treated by gonadotropins or surgery.

In cold weather, the testes are elevated by the contraction of a band of muscle, known as cremasteric muscle to get the warmth of the trunk. This effect is known as cremasteric reflex.

The same effect occurs when the thigh of a man is stroked. In the baby, this stimulus causes the testes to ascend up into the abdominal cavity through the inguinal canal.

Functions of Scrotum:
Scrotum keeps the temperature of testes about 2-2.5°C lower than the internal body temperature, which is essential for the production of sperms, i.e. spermatogenesis. This temperature is maintained by perspiration and evaporation from the scrotal surface. These processes occur due to the presence of pampiniform plexus that surround testiculae arteries which ascend from the testis. Venous blood returning from testis through pampiniform plexus is cooler than the blood in testicular arteries. The countercurrent heat exchange mechanism between the arterial and venous blood cools down the arterial blood.

Testes: Microscopic Anatomy:
Testes are the primary sex organs in men. These are the male gonads, i.e. the site where the male gametes or sperms are made. A pair of testis is situated outside the abdominal cavity within the scrotum. Each testis is oval in shape and measures about 4-5 cm in length and 2-3 cm in width. These are suspended in the scrotum by spermatic cords.

Microscopic Anatomy:
The outermost covering of the testis is formed by a dense connective tissue called tunica albuginea. It thickens and extends inwardly into each testis as mediastinum testis which further forms thin connective tissue septum. The latter divides each testis into 200-300 compartments called testicular lobules. Each lobule contains 1-3 highly convoluted seminiferous tubules that is lined by stratified cuboidal epithelium.

Seminiferous Tubule:
It is the structural and functional unit of testis in which sperms are produced. Each seminiferous tubule is present in the mass of loose connective tissue that contain fibroblast, epithelial cells, nerves, blood and lymphatic vessels, etc. Inside these tubules, two types of highly specialised cells are present namely Sertoli cells (nurse cells) and spermatogenic cells.

Transverse section through human testis : (a) A single seminiferous tubule with cells of Leydig in the interstitial tissue, (b) A magnified part of the seminiferous tubule showing the blood-testis barrier, Sertoli cells and its relationship to the differentiating spermatogenic cells and (c) A Sertoli cell with spermatogenic cells in different stages of development

1. Spermatogenic cells These are majority of dividing cells or male germ cells (cuboidal cells) which produce spermatogonia by mitotic division. The spermatogonia further grows into primary spermatocytes and undergo meiosis producing haploid cells, first secondary spermatocytes and then spermatids.

2. Sertoli or Sustentacular cells They are tall, pyramidal, non-dividing somatic cells. They serve the supporting and nourishing function for the spermatogenic cells in different stages of their differentiation. The basal lamina of the germinal epithelium, muscle-like myoid cells at the base of the basal lamina and tight junctions between adjacent Sertoli cells constitute a blood testis barrier which performs the following functions

Prevents many macromolecules from moving into the tubular lumen.
Prevents the blood borne noxious chemical agents from entering into the tubule.
Prevents the passage of antigenic agents from the tubule into the blood, which are likely to generate an autoimmune response.
The region outside the seminiferous tubules called interstitial spaces contain small blood vessels and masses of cells called interstitial cells or Leydig cells. These cells synthesise and secrete the testicular hormones called androgens. Leydig cells are endocrine in function and thus, regulate and maintain male sex characteristics. Other immunologically competent cells are also present in this region.

Accessory or Excurrent Duct System:
These ducts store and transport the sperms along with other glandular secretions from the testis to the outside through urethra. The male’s sex accessory ducts include-tubuli recti, rete testis, vasa efferentia (intratesticular ducts), epididymis, vas deferens and urethra (extratesticular ducts). The ends of seminiferous tubules converge and join to form short straight tubules called tubuli recti.

Duct system in human testis

The tubuli recti open into a network of wider, irregular tubules called rete testis, that further open into 12 short efferent ductules or ductuli efferentes.

The latter open into the epididymis and carry sperms outside the testis. Epididymis is a long tube, which is greatly coiled and tightly packed to form an elongated flattened body. It is located along the posterior surface of each testis.

Sperms undergo physiological maturation, acquiring increased motility and fertilising capacity (i.e. capacitation) in epididymis. After that, they pass down to the tail of epididymis, where they stay for a very short period before entering the two vas deferens or ductus deferens.

The vas deferens ascends to the abdomen and lopps over urinary bladder. It receives a duct from seminal vesicle to form ejaculatory duct. The ejaculatory duct enters the prostate gland and opens into the prostatic urethra.

The prostatic urethra extends through the penis to its external opening called urethral meatus or penile urethra. The urethra carries urine from bladder as well . as spermatozoa and secretions from the Cowper’s and prostate glands.

Accessory Glands:
The accessory glands or the secondary glands in males are described below
1. Prostate gland It is a single gland that lies inferior to the bladder. It receives two ejaculatory ducts that joins to form prostatic urethra. The latter receives ductules from prostate. It secretes a milky, slightly alkaline fluid, that contains lipids, enzymes, citric acid, etc.

It is released during ejaculation and helps to neutralise the acidic medium of vagina, making sperms more active to swim. Prostatic fluid accounts for nearly 20-30% of semen volume.

2. Seminal vesicles This paired gland is present posterior to the bladder above prostate. Its ducts empties in the ampulla of ductus deferens.
They secrete mucus and a watery alkaline fluid that contains fructose (acts as an energy source for the sperms). Prostaglandins (stimulate uterine contractions for sperm movement) and a clotting protein form a temporary clot after ejaculation. Later, fibrolysins dissolves the coagulate or clot so that it assume a liquid form. Calcium and certain other enzymes are also a part of seminal plasma.

Fructose, produced by seminal vesicles, is not present elsewhere in the body. Therefore, during forensic test for rape, its presence in females genital tract confirms sexual intercourse. The seminal vesicles and prostrate degenerates or atrophy after the removal of testes because they are androgen dependent glands.

3. Bulbourethral or Cowper’s gland These are situated beneath the bladder and behind the urethra. There ductules discharge into the prostatic urethra. They secrete mucus and an alkaline fluid into the urethra. The mucus helps in the lubrication of penis and neutralises any urinary acids in urethra

Semen
The secretions of accessory sex glands (seminal plasma) and mucus are added to the sperms to form seminal fluid or semen. The main constituent of the semen is live spermatozoa present in an alkaline viscous medium. It is maintained at a pH range of 7.2-7.8. Another main constituent is fructose contributed by the seminal vesicles. It is the chief energy source for the spermatozoa.

The semen is forcibly expelled through the urethra by the process known as ejaculation. The volume of ejaculate is 1.5-5.0 mL. The normal count of sperm is 40-250 million/mL. The secretions have many functions

• Provide medium for transport of sperms.
• Nourish and activate sperms to keep them viable and motile.

Question 2.
Study the given figure.

(i) Pick out and name the cells that undergo spermiogenesis.
(ii) Name ‘A’ and ‘B ’ cells. What is the difference between them with reference to the number of chromosome?
(iii) Pick out and name the motile cells.
(iv) What is ‘F’ cell? Mention its function.
(v) Name the structure of which the given diagram is a part.
Answer:
(i) A-Spermatids, undergo spermiogenesis.
(ii) A-Spermatids, B-Spermatogonium.
Spermatogonium (B) are diploid and have 46-chromosomes in humans while, spermatids (A) are haploid and have 23-chromosomes in case of human male.
(iii) E-Spermatozoa, are motile cells.
(iv) F-Sertoli cell, it provides nutrition to the germ cells.
(v) Seminiferous tubule.

Question 3.
Give an account of the human female reproductive system.
Answer:
Female Reproductive System:
It consists of a pair of ovaries, glands, a duct system and many supporting structures. Its components are found in both paired and unpaired condition.

The female reproductive system consists of the following organs

Ovaries:
Ovaries are the primary sex organs of female that is situated in the pelvic cavity.
They produce female gametes (ovum) and several steroid hormones (ovarian hormones). The ovaries are almond-shaped, lying in the lower part of the abdomen and held to the broad ligament by double folds of peritoneum called mesovarium. Each ovary is about 2-4 cm in length and is connected by an ovarian ligament to the uterus and by a suspensory ligament to the lateral pelvic wall. Each ovary is covered by a thin epithelium layer called germinal epithelium.

Next to this layer, dense irregular connective tissue mass called tunica albuginea is present. Inner to this, cortex is present which is followed by highly vascularised connective tissue called cortex or stroma ovarian stroma, which contains connective tissues, blood vessels and mature follicles. The stroma is divided into two parts, i.e. a peripheral cortex and an inner medulla or stroma. There is no distinct boundary between the cortex and medulla.

Microscopic Anatomy of Ovary:
The production of eggs in females begins before birth, i.e. during the embryonic development stage, but is completed only after fertilisation. It takes place in ovaries. Cells of germinal epithelium undergo mitotic or equational division during multiplication phase, producing undifferentiated germ cells called oogonia or egg mother cells within each foetal ovary.

These cells enter into the phase of maturation and start two meiotic divisions to enter prophase-I of meiotic division as primary oocytes. They get temporarily arrested at diplotene state and remains as such until the onset of puberty.

Primordial and primary follicles in the cortex of the ovary

Each primary oocyte then gets surrounded by a single layer of squamous follicle cells and is called the primordial follicle. About 2 million of these follicles exist in ovarian cortex of females before birth. A large number of these follicles degenerate during the phase from birth to puberty. Therefore, at puberty only 60000-80000 primary follicles are left in each ovary.

The primordial follicles get surrounded by more layers of cuboidal granulosa cells and a new theca. This process is stimulated by the pituitary gonadotropins-FSH and LH. Later the squamous follicular cells of primordial follicle changes to cuboidal or low columnar cells. This follicle is called primary follicle.

The follicular cells of primary follicle divide by mitosis and forms the new cuboidal-shaped granulosa cells. At this stage follicle is called secondary follicle.

The innermost layer of granulosa cells is corona radiata that surrounds the oocyte. Between the oocyte and eorona radiata, a glycoprotein layer called zona pellucida appears. The stromal cells that surround granulosa cells differentiate to form thecal cells. These cells differentiate as an outer theca externa and inner theca interna.

A thin basement membrane separates granulosa cells from the theca interna. This follicular stage is known as mature or Graafian follicle stage.

Structure of a Graafian (mature) follicle : A part(inset) is magnified to show the elaborate structure of the egg with the associated follicle cells

Development of Ovarian Follicle:

1. The primary follicle grow in size and a fluid called liquor folliculi or follicular fluid accumulates in a cavity called antrum of granulosa cells. These follicles with an antrum are called antral or secondary follicles.
2. The synthesis of liquor folliculi continues, antrum grows in volume and further segregation of granulosa cells occur. Due to this, few cells surround the oocytes and some other are displaced to periphery.
3. Theca externa cells form multiple layers around theca interna cells which leads to the formation of mature or Graafian follicle. At this stage, the first meiosis of primary oocyte gets completed to form a secondary oocyte.
4. The Graafian follicle, ruptures to release the secondary oocyte from the ovary.
5. The secondary ooctye is captured by the fimbriae of Fallopian tube which transport it to the uterus.
6. The remaining portion of Graafian follicle gets filled with blood to form corpus haemorrhagicum.
7. The theca and granulosa cells proliferate and become glandular to form theca lutein and granulosa lutein cell, respectively. These lutein cells are the source of oestrogen and progesterone. This post ovulatory follicle is called corpus luteum (endocrine structure) which secrete estradiol, progesterone and relaxin (peptide hormone).

Fate of Corpus Luteum:

1. If fertilisation occurs Corpus luteum persist and no mensuration occurs, zygote undergoes embryonic development and implants in the endometrium of uterus.
2. If fertilisation does not occur Corpus luteum degenerates to form corpus albicans and menstruation occurs.
   

Not all ovarian follicles reach maturity. Only one dominant follicle gets matured and ovulated. Rest of them degenerates by the process called follicular atresia and the resultant follicles are known as atretic follicles which are replaced by connective tissue.

Fallopian Tube (Uterine Ducts):
These are two small accessory tubes of 10-12 cm length, lying on either sides of uterus near the kidney. These tubes carry the egg from the ovary to the uterus and also provides the appropriate environment for its fertilisation.

The Fallopian tubes or oviducts show four regions, i.e. infundibulum, ampulla, isthmus and interstitial region,

1. Infundibulum is broad and funnel-shaped with its edges bearing motile, finger-like projections called fimbriae. It helps in the collection of ovum after ovulation.
   
   Female reproductive system
2. Ampulla is the long, wide, thin-walled part of the Fallopian tube next to the infundibulum where fertilisation takes place.
3. Isthmus is a short narrow lumen that follows ampulla and joins the uterus.
4. Interstitial region passes through the uterine wall and communicates with the uterine cavity.

Uterus (Womb):
It is about 7.5 cm long, 5 cm wide, like an inverted pear in shape. It is supported by ligaments attached to the pelvic wall. It lies between the urinary bladder and rectum.

Uterus has a thick, highly vascular wall, composed of three layers of tissues

1. Outer perimetrium A thin single-layered membranous covering of uterus wall that is composed of squamous epithelial cells.
2. Middle myometrium A thick layer of smooth muscle fibres, which contracts strongly during the delivery of the baby.
3. Inner endometrium A glandular layer with many blood vessels. It consists of simple cuboidal or columnar epithelium. It undergoes cyclic changes during the menstrual cycle.

Blood Supply to Uterus:
The arteries that supply blood to uterus gets divided into arcuate arteries and spreads in the myometrium. The arcuate arteries further gets divided into parts so as to supply blood to endometrium.
These include

• Straight arteries These are short, supply blood to basalis layer.
• Spiral arteries These are long and coiled, supply blood to functionalis layer. Decreased supply to this layer during menstruation causes it to degenerate and cast off.

The endometrium descends into the lamina propria and form numerous uterine glands. Functionally, the layer is divided into two layers

• Luminal stratum functionalis During menstruation, this layer cast off along with blood vessels and uterine glands.
• Stratum basalis It helps to form a new functionalis layer.

Functions of Utreus:
Uterus receives the ovum from the Fallopian tube, forms placenta for the development of foetus and also expels the young one at the time of birth.

Cervix:
It is the narrow entrance of the uterus into the vagina. It has strongest sphincter in its wall and is normally blocked by a plug of mucus. The cavity of cervix is called cervical canal which along with vagina forms the birth canal.

Vagina:
It is about 10 cm long and acts as a receptacle for the penis during copulation, for allowing menstrual flow and for serving as a birth canal during parturition. It opens to the exterior by an aperture called vaginal orifice situated posterior to the opening of urethra.

Accessory Glands:
1. A pair of greater vestibular or Bartholin’s gland occurs on each side of the vaginal orifice. They are small rounded bodies.
These glands correspond-to the Cowper’s gland of the male and secrete a clear, viscid fluid under sexual excitement. This fluid serves as a lubricant during copulation.

2. Numerous glands of skene are present on either sides of urethral orifice. They are homologous to male’s prostate and secrete mucus. These are also called lesser vestibular or paraurethral glands.

External Genitalia (Vulva):
The external genitalia of females consists of the following parts
1. Mons pubis It is the anteriormost structure of vulva and is covered with skin and pubic hairs.

2. Two longitudinal folds of tissue called labia majora form the boundary of the vulva. It also covers two additional folds of tissue called the labia minora.
Both labia majora and labia minora protect the vaginal and urethral openings.

3. Clitoris It is the small erectile organ, which lies at the upper junction of the labia minora above the urethral opening. It is a homologous structure to glans penis of males.

Frontal view of vagina with its associated structures

4. Hymen The vaginal orifice is normally covered by a membrane, called hymen. It is a thin mucous membrane, which covers the vaginal opening either partly or completely. It is often torn during the first coitus (intercourse), but may be present in some women even after coitus. Hymen may also get stretched or torn by normal activities such as horseback riding and therefore, the presence or absence is not an accurate indicator of a woman’s virginity or sexual experience.

Question 4.
Illustrate in detail the process of spermatogenesis in human.
Or Describe the process of spermatogenesis.
Answer:
Spermatogenesis:
It is the formation of spermatozoa (sperms) in the testes, which originate from the cuboidal cells called Primordial Germ Cells (PGCs). The process of spermatogenesis starts at puberty.
It is completed in two steps

• Formation of spermatids (spermatocytogenesis)
• Transformation of spermatids to sperms (spermiogenesis)

Spermatocytogenesis
It includes the following stages

1. Multiplication phase The undifferentiated germ cells present on the inside wall of seminiferous tubules of the testes are called spermatogonia (sing : spermatogonium) or sperm mother cells. They increase in number by repeated mitotic divisions so that the newly formed spermatogonium possesses the same number of chromosomes.
Each spermatogonium is diploid and contains 46-chromosomes.

2. Growth phase Some of the spermatogonia grow by obtaining nourishment from Sertoli cells and differentiate to primary spermatocytes.

3. Maturation phase or Formation of spermatids Each of these primary spermatocytes undergoes first meiotic division (reductional) and produces two secondary spermatocytes (23-chromosomes) each which further undergoes second meiotic division (equational) to produce four haploid spermatids.

Spermiogenesis:
The spermatids (immotile) transform into motile spermatozoa by the process called spermiogenesis. It is also called differentiation phase during which sperm heads get embedded in the Sertoli cells and are finally released from the seminiferous tubules by the process of spermiation.

Hormones Essential for Spermatogenesis
Spermatogenesis initiates due to a significant increase in the secretion of Gonadotropin Releasing Hormone (GnRH) by the hypothalamus at the age of puberty. The increased level of GnRH acts on the anterior pituitary and stimulates the secretion of two gonadotropins, i.e. Luteinizing Hormone (LH) and Follicle Stimulating Hormone (FSH). LH acts on the Leydig cells thus, stimulating the synthesis and secretion of androgens. This in turn stimulate the process of spermatogenesis. FSH acts on Sertoli cells and stimulates the secretion of some factors like inhibins, activins and transferrins which help in spermiogenesis.

Question 5.
(i) When and where does spermatogenesis occur in a human male?
(ii) Draw the diagram of a mature human male gamete. Label the following parts: acrosome, nucleus, middle piece and tail.
(iii) Mention the functions of acrosome and middle piece.
Answer:
(i) Spermatogenesis occurs at the age of puberty in testes.

(ii)

(iii) Head It is flat, oval and composed of a large haploid nucleus and a small anterior cap-like structure, called acrosome. The acrosome lies at the tip of the nucleus and is formed from the Golgi complex. It contains hydrolytic enzymes and is used to contact and penetrate the egg (ovum) during fertilisation.

(ii) Middle piece It is cylindrical and known as the , powerhouse of the sperm. It possesses many mitochondria to produce energy for the movement of the tail that facilitates sperm motility essential for fertilisation.

Question 6.
What is oogenesis? Give a brief account of oogenesis.
Or Write a note on oogenesis.
Or Describe the process of oogenesis.
Answer:
Oogenesis:
It is the process of formation of a mature female gamete called egg or ova. The production of eggs in females begins before birth, i.e. during the embryonic development stage, but is completed only after fertilisation. It takes place in ovaries.
This process involves following phases

(i) Multiplication phase Cells of germinal epithelium undergo mitotic division to produce undifferentiated germ cells called oogonia or egg mother cells within each foetal ovary.

1. The oogonia further divides by mitosis and projects as a chord into the stroma of the ovary. This chord is known as egg tube or pfluger, which later become a round mass called egg nest.
2. In the egg nest, one cell grows, enters into prophase-I of meiosis and gets arrested at diplotene stage temporarily. This cell becomes the primary oocyte.
3. Other oogonia in the nest surround this primary ooctye to form primary follicle. These follicles protects and nourish the primary oocyte.
4. About 2 million of primary follicles exist in females before birth. A large number of these follicles degenerate during the phase from birth to puberty by the process called follicular atresia. Therefore, at puberty only 60000- 80000 primary follicles are left in each ovary.

(ii) Growth phase

1. The primary follicles get surrounded by more layers of granulosa cells and a new theca to form secondary follicles.
   This follicle then gets converted into a tertiary follicle that possesses a fluid-filled cavity called antrum surrounded by theca interna and theca externa.

(iii) Maturation phase The primary oocyte within this tertiary follicle grows in size. The fully grown primary oocyte completes its first meiotic division producing two daughter nuclei in which larger haploid cell is called secondary oocyte and the tiny one is called first polar body or polocyte. The secondary oocyte contains bulk of the nutrient rich cytoplasm of primary oocyte and becomes tertiary follicle.

1. Tertiary follicle changes into mature Graafian follicle. Zona pellucida that is formed by secondary oocyte, surrounds it.
2. Graafian follicle ruptures to release secondary oocyte. This process is called ovulation.
3. The secondary oocyte completes its maturation in Fallopian tube by second maturation division (unequal division), which is triggered by sperm penetration (egg activation) and leads to the formation of ootid and a second polar body. First polar body usually degenerates during this division.

The ootid undergoes few changes and gets transformed into mature ovum or egg, which is ready to be fertilised.

Odisha State Board CHSE Odisha Class 12 Biology Important Questions Chapter 2 Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants Important Questions and Answers.

CHSE Odisha 12th Class Biology Important Questions Chapter 2 Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants

Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants Class 12 Important Questions CHSE Odisha

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Choose the correct option

Question 1.
The cushion of parenchymatous cells that joins ovary and ovule is known as
(a) nucellus
(b) placenta
(c) hilum
(d) funiculus
Answer:
(b) placenta

Question 2.
The narrow pore at one end of the ovule is called as
(a) funiculus
(b) chalaza
(c) micropyle
(d) hilum
Answer:
(c) micropyle

Question 3.
Megagametogenesis is the process of formation of embryo sac from
(a) pollen grain
(b) microspore
(c) ovule
(d) megaspore
Answer:
(d) megaspore

Question 4.
Antipodal cells are three in number and occur towards
(a) chalazal pole
(b) micropylar pole
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(a) chalazal pole

Question 5.
Filiform apparatus is a characteristic feature of
(a) egg
(b) synergid
(c) zygote
(d) suspensor
Answer:
(b) synergid

Question 6.
Of the three cells in the micropylar end of the embryo sac, the central one is the egg cell and the other two are called ……..
(a) synergids
(b) antipodals
(c) generative cells
(d) vegetative cells
Answer:
(a) synergids

Question 7.
Wind pollination is common in
(a) lilies
(b) grasses
(c) orchids
(d) legumes
Ans.
(b) grasses

Question 8.
Nocturnal flowers like Nyctanthes attract insects by their …….. .
(a) colour
(b) nectar
(c) scent
(d) edible sap
Answer:
(c) scent

Question 9.
Adaptation of some floral parts, which acts as barriers to self-pollination is called …….. .
(a) dichogamy
(b) herkogamy
(c) homogamy
(d) cleistogamy
Answer:
(c) homogamy

Question 10.
In …….. pollen tube enters through micropyle into the ovule.
Or Entry of pollen tube through micropyle during fertilisation is called …….. .
(a) porogamy
(b) chalazogamy
(c) mesogamy
(d) herkogamy
Answer:
(a) porogamy

Question 11.
Fusion of the male gamete with …….. in the embryo sac of angiosperms forms the primary endosperm nucleus.
(a) antipodals
(b) synergids
(c) polar nuclei
(d) egg cells
Answer:
(c) polar nuclei

Question 12.
Individual part or segment of calyx is called
(a) sepal
(b) petal
(c) tepal
(d) corolla
Answer:
(a) sepal

Question 13.
Chalazal pole is present
(a) opposite to micropyle
(b) at the origin of integuments
(c) opposite to nucellus
(d) near the embryo sac
Answer:
(a) opposite to micropyle

Question 14.
In angiosperms, triple fusion is required for the formation of
(a) embryo
(b) endosperm
(c) seed coat
(d) fruit wall
Answer:
(b) endosperm

Question 15.
Zygote divides by an asymmetric mitotic division to form two cells. Out of these, the cells towards chalazal side is known as
(a) apical cell
(b) basal cell
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) apical cell

Question 16.
Basal cell divides to produce
(a) haustorium
(b) suspensor
(c) hypobasal cell
(d) epibasal cell
Answwer:
(b) suspensor

Question 17.
The part of embryonal axis above the level of cotyledons is called
(a) epicotyl
(b) hypocotyl
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) epicotyl

Question 18.
Root cap enclosed in an undifferentiated sheath is called
(a) epicotyl
(b) coleorhiza
(c) coleoptile
(d) scutellum
Answer:
(b) coleorhiza

Question 19.
Which type of endosperm is found in Asphodelusl
(a) Helobial
(b) Cellular
(c) Nuclear
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Answer:
(a) Helobial

Question 20.
True polyembryony occurs in
(a) Citrus
(b) Mangifera
(c) Opuntia
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these

Question 21.
Adventive embryony in Citrus is due to
(a) nucellus
(b) integuments
(c) zygotic embryo
(d) fertilised egg
Answer:
(a) nucellus

Question 22.
Formation of gametophyte directly from sporophyte without meiosis is
(a) apospory
(b) apogamy
(c) parthenogenesis
(d) amphimixis
Answer:
(a) apospory

Question 23.
Albuminous seed
(a) has no endosperm
(b) has thick cotyledons
(c) have food storage in cotyledons
(d) Both (a) and (c)
Answer:
(c) have food storage in cotyledons

Correct the sentences, if required, by changing the underlined word

Question 1.
Plants with male and female reproductive structures present on the same plant is called dioecious.
Answer:
monoecious

Question 2.
Stamen helps in production of megaspores, fruits and seeds.
Answer:
Gynoecium

Question 3.
Potential pollen mother cell gives rise to megaspores.
Answer:
microspore tetrad

Question 4.
The inner sterile tissue that provides nourishment to the developing microspores in microsporogenesis is called endothecium.
Answer:
tapetum

Question 5.
The mode of arrangement of ovule along the placenta in the cavity of the ovary is known as style.
Answer:
placentation

Question 6.
In protandrous flower, carpels mature earlier than stamens.
Answer:
protogynous

Question 7.
An ovule is a differentiated megasporangium.
Answer:
integumented

Question 8.
Megaspore mother cell is found near the region of nucellus.
Answer:
nucellus

Question 9.
The tegmen marks the point of attachment to the stalk.
Answer:
The hilum marks the point of atta’chment to the stalk.

Question 10.
Perisperm is remnents of embryo.
Answer:
Perisperm is remnents of nucellus.

Question 12.
Apomixis is the development of seeds with fertilisation.
Answer:
Apomixis is the development of seeds without fertilisation.

Question 13.
Thalamus contributes in the fruit formation in apple.
Answer:
True

Fill in the blanks

Question 1.
The stalk of ovule by which it is connected to placenta is called …………. .
Answer:
funiculus

Question 2.
A mass of parenchyma cells, surrounded by integuments and encloses embryo sac is called ………. .
Answer:
nucellus

Question 3.
………. is formed of a chemical called sporopollenin.
Answer:
Exine

Question 4.
A flower is said to ………. when either of the two
sexes is missing.
Ans. imperfect

Question 5.
Aquatic plants like water hyacinth and water lily are pollinated by ……….. .
Answer:
entomophily (insects)

Question 6.
Intine is made up of ………….. .
Answer:
cellulose and pectin

Question 7.
In a zygote, the terminal cell situated towards chalazal pole is called ………….. .
Answer:
apical cell or embryonal cell.

Question 8.
The position of plumule in monocot embryo is ………… .
Answer:
lateral

Question 9.
The part of pistil which develops into fruits is …………. .
Answer:
ovary

Question 10.
The thick swollen embryonal leaf filled with reserve food is called …………… .
Answer:
cotyledon

Express in one or two word(s)

Question 1.
Name the pollination preferred by snails.
Answer:
Malacophily

Question 2.
The flowers which are bisexual and never open.
Answer:
Cleistogamous flowers.

Question 3.
Stigma of a flower matures earlier than the anther.
Answer:
Protogyny.

Question 4.
The individual members of a corolla.
Answer:
Petals.

Question 5.
Give the name of the type of ovule in which the hilum, chalaza and the micropyle lie in the same longitudinal axis.
Answer:
Orthotropous

Question 6.
Name the type of pollination as a result of which genetically different types of pollen grains of same species land on the stigma.
Answer:
Xenogamy

Question 7.
A type of endosperm, which is an intermediate between cellular and nuclear type.
Answer:
Helobial endosperm.

Question 8.
The portion of the embryonal axis above the level of attachment of scutellum.
Answer:
Epicotyl

Question 9.
An embryo sac directly produced from a nucellar cell.
Answer:
Aposporous embryo sac.

Question 10.
Embryonal axis above the level of cotyledons.
Answer:
Plumule

Question 11.
Embryonal axis below the level of cotyledons.
Answer:
Radicle

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is microsporogenesis? Where does it occur in angiosperms? What is its significance?
Answer:
Microsporogenesis:
Each cell of the sporogenous tissue is a potential Pollen Mother Cell (PMC) or microspore mother cell and can give rise to microspore tetrad. This process of formation of microspore from a pollen mother cell through the process of meiosis is called microsporogenesis.

As the anthers mature and dehydrate, the microspores dissociate from one another and form tetrad and develop into pollen grains. Inside each microsporangium, several thousands of microspores or pollen grains are formed that are released with the dehiscence of anther. In general, dehiscence of anther occurs through the rupture of anther lobe walls which causes release of several thousands of pollen grains at a time.

Question 2.
What is triple fusion? Where and how does it take place? Give the name of nuclei involved in triple fusion.
Answer:
The diploid zygote finally develops into’the embryo. The second male gamete fuses with the two polar nuclei or secondary nucleus in the central cell to form the triploid Primary Endosperm Nucleus (PEN). The process is called triple fusion as three haploid nuclei are involved in the fusion.

After triple fusion, the central cell becomes the Primary Endosperm Cell (PEC) which gives rise to the endosperm, while the zygote develops into the embryo. As both the fusions, syngamy and triple * fusion, occur in an embryo sac, the phenomenon is termed as double fertilisation.

Question 3.
Name all the haploid cells present in an unfertilised mature embryo sac of a flowering plant. Write the total number of cells in it.
Answer:
An unfertilised embryo sac of angiosperm is composed of 8-nuclei and 7 cells. Among 8 nuclei, 6 are enclosed by cell walls and organised into cell, while the remaining 2 nuclei (called polar nuclei) are situated above the egg apparatus.
Out of 6 cells, 3 ate grouped at micropylar end and constitute the egg apparatus, made up of 2 synergids and 1 egg cell. The other 3 are located at chalazal end and are called antipodals.

Question 4.
Explain the role of tapetum in the formation of pollen grain wall.
Answer:
Tapetum is the innermost layer of the microsporangium. It produces the exine layer of the pollen grains, which is composed of the sporopollenin, the most resistant fatty substance.
During microsporogenesis, the cells of tapetum produce various enzymes, hormones, amino acids and other nutritious materials required for the development of pollen grains.

Question 5.
How does the pollen grow through the style? Explain briefly.
Answer:
Growth of a Pollen Tube:
The pollen grains reach the receptive stigma of the carpel by the act of pollination. Pollen grains after getting attached to the stigma absorb water and swell. After compatible pollination, the pollen grain germinates on the stigma to produce a pollen tube through one of the germ pores. The contents of the pollen grain then move into this tube.

The pollen tube grows through the tissues of stigma and style by secreting the enzymes that digest them. In some plants that shed pollen at two-celled condition, the generative cell divides and forms the two male gametes during the growth of pollen tube in the stigma.
In plants which shed pollen in the three-celled condition, pollen carries the two male gametes from the beginning.

Question 6.
Make a list of any three outbreeding devices that flowering plants have developed and explain how they help to encourage cross-pollination.
Answer:
Adaptations (Contrivances) for Cross-Pollination or Outbreeding Devices
Continued self-pollination leads to chances of inbreeding depression. Thus, flowering plants have developed many devices to discourage self-pollination and to encourage cross-pollination. These include
1. Dichogamy In some plant species, receptivity of stigma and pollen release is not synchronised, i.e. often the pollen is released before the stigma becomes receptive (protandry) or stigma becomes receptive before the release of pollen (protogyny). This condition is called dichogamy.

2. Heterostyly In some other species, the anther and stigma are placed at different positions, so that the pollen cannot come in contact with the stigma of same flower. This condition is called heterostyly.
Both the above mentioned methods will prevent autogamy.

3. Self-incompatibility or Self-sterility is the third device to prevent inbreeding. It is a genetic phenomenon of preventing the pollen from fertilising ovules by the same flower by inhibiting pollen germination or pollen tube growth in the pistil. Self-incompatibility may be due to genotype of sporophyte known as sporophytic incompatibility, whereas if it is due to genotype of pollen, it is known as gametophytic incompatibility.

4. Dicliny or Unisexuality effectively prevents self-pollination. It is the presence of unisexual flowers in plants that prevents autogamy but not geitonogamy, e.g. castor, maize, etc.

5. Herkogamy is seen in orchids where male or female sex organs themselves prove as a barrier to prevent self-pollination by some structural abnormalities.

6. Dioecy Both autogamy and geitonogamy is prevented in several species like papaya, where male and female flowers are present on different plants, i.e. each plant is either male or female (dioecy).

Question 7.
What is significance of pollination?
Answer:

1. Pollination is essential for fertilisation and production of seeds and fruits, which is necessary for continuity of plant life.
2. Cross-pollination results in the production of plants with variations having new combination of characters of two different plants of the same species.

Question 8.
What is hydrophily? Name any hydrophilous plant and give its three important characters which help in pollination.
Answer:
It is the transfer of pollen grains from anthers to the stigma through the agency of water.
Vallisneria is a hydrophilous plant. It is a dioecious plant in which male flowers and female flowers are borne on separate plants. The important characteristics are pollination are .

• Flowers are small, colourless, nectarlless.
• Calyx and corolla and other floral parts are the unwettable. Mature male flowers abscise and float on water.
• Stigmas are well-exposed, long and sticky.
• Pollen grains and stigmas are unwettable.

After pollination female flowers are pulled inside the water.

Question 9.
Geitonogamous flowering plants are genetically autogamous but functionally cross-pollinated. Justify.
Answer:
Geitonogamous flowering plants have open bisexual flowers in which pollen grains from the anther are transferred to the stigma of another flower of same plant (genetically similar to autogamy) involving different

• pollination agent like the cross-pollination (functionally similar to cross-pollination).

Question 10.
Explain the function of each of the following
(i) Coleorhiza
(ii) Germ pores
Answer:
(i) Coleorhiza is a cap-like structure present over the radicle in case of monocot seed, e.g. maize grain. During germination, it grows to form a small tubular structure, which protects the enclosed growing radicle, in early stages of development.
(ii) Germ pores are the areas on the wall of pollen grains where the exine is thin or absent. The areas may have thickened intine or deposition of callose. The pollen tube comes out through one of the germ pores.

Question 11.
Where is sporopollenin present in plants? State its significance with reference to its chemical nature.
Answer:
Sporopollenin is a chemical substance which forms the hard outer layer, the exine of the pollen grains. It is one of the most resistant organic material. It can withstand high temperatures, strong acids and alkali.
No enzyme can degrade sporopollenin. Pollen grains are preserved as fossils because of the presence of sporopollenin.

Question 12.
What is pollen kit? Write a note on pollen viability.
Answer:
Pollen kit is a yellow, oily, sticky layer present on the surface of pollen grains of entomophilous plants. It protects the pollen from atmospheric harmful radiations. Pollen viability is the period for which pollen grains retain the ability to germinate and produce pollen tubes. It varies from few minutes (rice, wheat) to several months (Rosaceae, Leguminoseae).
It however depends upon temperature and humidity. Pollen can be stored for years in liquid nitrogen in pollen banks for future plant breeding programmes.

Question 13.
Write the mode of pollination in Vallisneria and water lily. Explain the mechanism of pollination in Vallisneria.
Answer:
Mode of pollination in (i) Vallisneria- epihydrophily (ii) water lily-entomophily.
In Vallisneria, a dioecious plant male flower abscises from the submerged spadix and rises to surface of water.
The female plant produces long stalked solitary flowers which are also brought to the surface of water. They have large sticky trifid stigmas.
The male flowers come in contact with stigma of female flowers. The anther bursts and pollination is performed.
After pollination, female flowers are pulled inside water by coiling of stalk.

Question 14.
Trace the development of microsporophyte in the anther to a mature pollen grain.
Answer:
Microsporophyte or microspore mother cells / pollen mother cells are polygonal and closely packed in microsporangia initially. Pollen grains develop from them in pollen sacs of anthers. As anther enlarges, pollen mother cells lose cytoplasmic connections and become loosely arranged.

A few microsporocytes become non-functional and are absorbed by developing microspores. Each microsporocyte becomes rounded, undergoes meiosis and forms four haploid cells microspores or pollen grains. They are arranged in tetrahedral manner.
Later on from each tetrad, microspores separate and develop into a mature pollen grain.

Question 15.
What are chasmogamous flowers? Can cross-pollination occur in cleistogamous flowers? Give reasons for your answer.
Answer:
Chasmogamous flowers are the bisexual flowers that are open with exposed anther and stigma.
Cross-pollination cannot occur in cleistogamous flowers because they remain in bud form throughout their life and form seeds via self-pollination.

Question 16.
Why do some plants have both chasmogamous and cleistogamous flowers?
Answer:
Viola (common pansy) and Commelina can produce both chasmogamous and cleistogamous flowers on the same plant. These flowers produce seeds by outcrossing and selfing respectively and the mixed breeding system is considered a successful reproductive strategy.

Question 17.
Why is geitonogamy also referred to as genetical autogamy?
Answer:
Geitonogamy is functionally cross-pollination, involving a pollinating agent. But genetically, it is similar to autogamy since, the pollen grains come from the same plant. So, it is also referred to as genetical autogamy.

Question 18.
Some plants have a mechanism of shedding of pollen before maturation of stigma. Why?
Answer:
The strategy of shedding of pollen before maturation of stigma is to prevent self-fertilisation and reduce inbreeding depression. Such mechanisms facilitate cross-pollination and produce genetically better yielding crops.

Question 19.
What is self-incompatibility? Why does self-pollination not lead to seed formation in self-incompatible species?
Answer:
Self-incompatibility is a genetic mechanism to prevent self-pollination from fertilising the ovules by inhibiting pollen germination or pollen tube growth in the pistil.
Due to the inhibition of self-fertilisation, self-pollination does not lead to seed formation.

Question 20.
Mention two strategies evolved to prevent self-pollination in flowers.
Or
Explain any two devices by which autogamy is prevented in flowering plants.
Answer:
(1) Dichogamy In some plant species, receptivity of stigma and pollen release is not synchronised, i.e. often the pollcn is released before the stigma becomes receptive (protandry) or stigma becomes receptive before the release of pollen (protogyny). This condition is called dichogamy.

(2) Self-incompatibility or Self-sterility is the third device to prevent inbreeding. ft is a genetic phenomenon of preventing the pollen from fertilising ovules by che same flower by inhibiting pollen germination or pollen tube growth in the pistil Self-incompatibility may be duc co genotype of sporophyte known as sporophytic incompatibility, whereas if it is due to genotype of pollen, t is known as gametophytic incompatibility.

Question 21.
Write short note on out breeding devices.
Answer:
1. Dichogamy In some plant species, receptivity of stigma and pollen release is not synchronised, i.e. often the pollen is released before the stigma becomes receptive (protandry) or stigma becomes receptive before the release of pollen (protogyny). This condition is called dichogamy.

2. Heterostyly In some other species, the anther and stigma are placed at different positions, so that the pollen cannot come in contact with the stigma of same flower. This condition is called heterostyly.
Both the above mentioned methods will prevent autogamy.

3. Self-incompatibility or Self-sterility is the third device to prevent inbreeding. It is a genetic phenomenon of preventing the pollen from fertilising ovules by the same flower by inhibiting pollen germination or pollen tube growth in the pistil. Self-incompatibility may be due to genotype of sporophyte known as sporophytic incompatibility, whereas if it is due to genotype of pollen, it is known as gametophytic incompatibility.

4. Dicliny or Unisexuality effectively prevents self-pollination. It is the presence of unisexual flowers in plants that prevents autogamy but not geitonogamy, e.g. castor, maize, etc.

5. Herkogamy is seen in orchids where male or female sex organs themselves prove as a barrier to prevent self-pollination by some structural abnormalities.

6. Dioecy Both autogamy and geitonogamy is prevented in several species like papaya, where male and female flowers are present on different plants, i.e. each plant is either male or female (dioecy).

Question 22.
“Not all hydrophytes are pollinated by water.”  Justify by giving two examples.
Answer:
All hydrophytes are not pollinated by water.
Those hydrophytes whose flowers emerge above the surface of water are pollinated by insects or wind, e.g. water hyacinth and water lily are pollinated by insects.

Question 23.
Write short note on endosperm.
Answer:
Endosperm development precedes embryo development. The process takes place by following steps
Primary endosperm cell divides repeatedly and forms a triploid endosperm tissue. The cells of this tissue are filled with reserve food materials and are used for the nutrition of the developing embryo.

Types of Endosperm:
On the basis of its development, endosperm is classified into three main groups
(i) Cellular endosperm It is found in 25% of the angiosperm families particularly in dicotyledons. In this type, the primary endosperm mother cell divides by mitotic divisions and each division is followed by a cell wall formation, e.g. Adoxa, Verbascum, Cetranthus, Scutellaria, Datura, Myostis arvensis, Impatiens, Magnolia, etc.

(ii) Nuclear endosperm It is a more common type of endosperm and occurs in about 56% of the angiosperm families. In this type, PEM cell divides by free-nuclear divisions, which are not followed by the cell wall formation.

Thus, free nuclei remain in the cytoplasm of embryo sac. Later on, cell wall formation takes place from periphery to the centre (centripetal) leading to the formation of a cellular type of embryo sac, e.g. Acer, Arachis, Gravillea, Lomatia, Phoenix, Calotropis, Primula, Citrus, Malva, Acalypha, etc.

In coconut, Primary Endosperm Nucleus (PEN) undergoes a number of free nuclear divisions. Hence, the embryo sac gets filled with a clear fluid, this fluid is known as coconut water.

Question 24.
Why do you think that the zygote is dormant for sometime in a fertilised ovule?
Answer:
Zygote is dormant for some time because the outer conditions like high temperature, humidity, improper light, etc., are not favourable for germination.

Question 25.
In angiosperms, zygote is diploid while primary endosperm cell is triploid. Explain.
Answer:
Zygote is a product of fusion of haploid male gamete and haploid female gamete, i.e. egg cell. Thus, it is diploid.

Whereas, primary endosperm cell is a product of fusion of secondary nucleus (2n) and a haploid male gamete so, it is triploid.

Question 26.
Why do the integuments of an ovule harden and the water content gets highly reduced as the seed matures?
Answer:
Integuments of ovule harden to form tough protective seed coats. The micropyle remains as a small pore in the seed coat. This facilitates the entry of oxygen and water into the seed during germination.

Question 27.
Strawberry is sweet and eaten raw just like any other fruit. Why do botanists call it a false fruit?
Answer:
In most of the plants, by the time fruit develops from ‘ the ovary, other floral parts degenerate and fall off.
However, in case of strawberry, thalamus also contributes in fruit formation. So, it is called false fruit.

Question 28.
Are pollination and fertilisation necessary in apomixis?
Answer:
No, pollination and fertilisation are not necessary in apomixis. Apomixis is a form of asexual reproduction that mimics sexual reproduction, it is the formation of seeds without fertilisation.

Question 29.
Give reasons why hybrid seeds are to be produced year after year.
Answer:
If the seeds are collected from the hybrid variety and are sown the plants in the progeny will segregate and would not maintain the hybrid characters. So, hybrid seeds are to be produced year after year.

Question 30.
Starting with the zygote, draw the diagrams of the different stages of embryo development in a dicot.
Answer:
The lowermost cell of the suspensor is called hypophysis (h). The hypophysis cell divides to form 8-cells which are arranged in 2 times. The lower tier gives rise w root cap and epidermis whereas che other tier forms initials which finally develop into root corta.

Successive stages of the development of proembryo in Capsella bursa-pastons

Question 31.
(i) Describe the endosperm development in coconut.
(ii) Why is tender coconut considered a healthy source of nutrition?
Answer:
(i) In coconut, endosperm formation is nuclear type.
The primary endosperm nucleus undergoes nuclear division without cell wall formation.
(ii) Soft coconut is an endosperm. It is rich in nutrients like fats, proteins, carbohydrates, minerals, vitamins, etc. Hence, it is considered as a healthy source of nutrition.

Question 32.
Double fertilisation is reported in plants of both, castor and groundnut. However, the. mature seeds of groundnut are non-albuminous and castor are albuminous. Explain the post-fertilisation events that are responsible for it.
Answer:
Double fertilisation is reported in both castor and groundnut but their mature seeds are different in terms of endosperm. The primary endosperm nucleus formed after fertilisation divides mitotically without cytokinesis ‘ to initiate the formation of endosperm. At this stage, the endosperm is called free nuclear endosperm.

Then, cell wall formation occurs and the endosperm becomes cellular type. The number of free nuclei formed before cellularisation varies gready. Endosperm ‘ may be completely utilised by the developing embryo before the maturation of seeds as in groundnut. Such seeds are called non-albuminous or non-endospermic seeds. When a portion of endosperm remains in seeds and is used up during seed germination, such seeds are called albuminous or endospermic seeds, e.g. castor.

Question 33.
Write short note on parthenocarpy.
Answer:
Parthenocarpy
The formation of fruits without fertilisation is termed as parthcnocarpy. The term parthenocarpy was coined by Noll (1902). The parthenocarpic development of fruit may require the pollination stimulus (stimulative parthenocarpy) or it may occur in unpollinated flowers (vegetative parthenocarpy).

Seedless fruits should not be considered synonymous to parthenocarpic fruits because in a seedless fruit the ovules may have been fertilised and later aborted, e.g. Vizir vinifrra.
There may be parthenocarpic fruits with seeds in them. Auxin treatments arc known o produce seeded parthenocarpic fruits in Citrus, grapes, etc.

Question 34.
What is apomixis? Comment on its significance. How can it be commercially used?
Or Write short note on apomixis.
Answer:
Apomixis is a type of asexual reproduction that mimics sexual reproduction, i.e. in which seeds are produced without fertilisation. Here, the embryos can develop directly from the nucellus, integuments, synergid or egg of a diploid embryo sac. The plants produced by apomixis are genetically similar to the parent plant. They maintain and exhibit all the good characteristics of the parent plant without any risk of segregation of hybrid characters as in case of sexually reproducing plants. The information gained from genetics of apomixis can be commercially used in transfer of apomictic genes into hybrid varieties. The production of hybrid seeds by sexual reproduction every year, is too expensive for farmers.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Give an account of the development of male gametophyte in angiosperms.
Answer:
Development of a Male Gametophyte

Microspore is the first cell of male gametophyte. It involves formation of microsporangium and development of male gametophyte at pre-pollination and post-pollination events. The structures are stages which lead to development of male gametophyte are as follows

Stamen:
It is the male reproductive unit of angiosperm.
It consists of two parts
(i) The long and slender stalk called the filament.
(ii) The terminal generally bilobed structure called the anther.
The anther and filament are connected by a connective.

Stamen (a) Ventral view, (b) Dorsal view, (c) TS of anther (enlarged)

Structure of an Anther:
A typical angiosperm anther is bilobed structure with each lobe having two theca (dithecous) and separated by a longitudinal groove running lengthwise.
In a cross-section, the anther is a four-sided (tetragonal) structure consisting of four microsporangia located at the corners, two in each lobe. Later, the microsporangia develop and become pollen sacs, which are packed with the pollen grains.

Formation of Microsporangium (Pollen Sacs):
A typical microsporangium is surrounded by four wall layers, i.e. the epidermis, endothecium, middle layer and the tapetum. The outer three wall layers are protective in function and help in dehiscence of anther to release pollen grains. Tapetum (innermost layer) nourishes the developing microspores or pollen grains and the cells of tapetum possess dense cytoplasm and generally have more than one nucleus. When the anther is young, a group of compactly arranged homogenous cells called the sporogenous tissue occupies the centre of each microsporangium.

Transverse section of a mature anther

A young anther possesses a homogenous mass of hypodermal cells bounded by epidermis. After some time, this homogenous mass appears like a tetra-angular mass. Inner to this epidermis, some cells at each angle contain a prominent nucleus and abundant protoplasm, they are . called archesporial cells.

Development of microsporangium (a-e) successive stages of the development of microsporangium, (f) A mature pollen sac in a

These cells undergo periclinal division (parallel to the outerwall of the epidermal cells) to form outer parietal cells and inner sporogenous cells. The parietal cells divide by anticlinal and periclinal divisions to form 2-5 layered microsporangial wall. The sporogenous cells either directly function as microspore mother cells or go through some mitotic divisions and then junction as Microspore Mother Cells (MMCs).

Microsporogenesis:
Each cell of the sporogenous tissue is a potential Pollen Mother Cell (PMC) or microspore mother cell and can give rise to microspore tetrad. This process of formation of microspore from a pollen mother cell through the process of meiosis is called microsporogenesis.

As the anthers mature and dehydrate, the microspores dissociate from one another and form tetrad and develop into pollen grains. Inside each microsporangium, several thousands of microspores or pollen grains are formed that are released with the dehiscence of anther. In general, dehiscence of anther occurs through the rupture of anther lobe walls which causes release of several thousands of pollen grains at a time.

The Microspore or Pollen Grain:
It is a haploid, uninucleate and minute spore produced in large numbers by meiosis in the microspore mother cell. They vary in their size, shape, colour, design, etc., from species to species.

Structure of pollen grain

Pollen grains are generally spherical measuring about 25-50 micrometer in diameter. It has a two layered wall (also called sporoderm), outer hard layer exine is made up of sporopollenin. It is the most resistant organic material as it can withstand high temperature and strong acids and alkali.

No known enzyme can degrade it. Thus, pollens are well preserved as fossils. Pollen grains have prominent distal aperture for germination called germ pore, where sporopollenin is absent. The inner intine layer is thin and chiefly composed of cellulose and pectin.

In insect pollinated pollen grains, the exine is covered by a yellowish viscous and sticky substance called pollenkitt which emits smell. The definite function of pollenkitt is not known but it is believed that it helps in attracting insects and protects the pollen from ultraviolet radiation.
Study of pollen grains is known as palynology. The pollen grain on further development forms a male gametophyte.

Formation of Male Gametophyte:
(i) Pre-pollination development Development of male gametophyte starts in pollen grains while still present in the microsporangium or pollen sact The nucleus of pollen grain grows in size, moves to one side near the wall and divides mitotically to form a vegetative cell and a generative-cell. A layer of callose develops around the generative cell. Later on, the callose dissolves and the naked generative cell comes to lie freely in the cytoplasm of the tube cell. The cytoplasm of generative cell does not ‘ contain much of stored food. The shape of generative cell is elongated which helps in its passage through pollen tube.

The vegetative cell contains stored food and also contains protein granules. The microspore containing the two cells, i.e. vegetative and generative cell, is shed at this stage from microsporangia. Pollen grains are generally shed at this 2-celled stage in over 60% of angiosperms. In the remaining species, the generative cell divides mitotically and gives rise to 2 male gametes before pollen grains are shed.

(ii) Post-pollination development On reaching the stigma, pollen grain absorbs water and nutrients from the stigmatic secretion through its germ pores and the tube (vegetative) cell enlarges. The intine of the pollen grain protrudes out through one of the germ pores and a pollen tube is formed. The pollen tube pierces the stigmatic surface and moves down through the style of the pistil.

Now in the generative cell, the nucleus divides mitotically to form two male nuclei which become surrounded by a thin cytoplasmic sheath and appear as distinct non-motile male gametes. The nucleus of the generative cell, migrates to pollen tube. As the pollen tube elongates, the distal part becomes highly vacuolated and becomes separated from the anterior part containing the three nuclei, by formation of callose plug.

(a-b) Mature pollen grain, (c) Pollen germination

Question 2.
Gives the structure of a typical pollen grain and its pre and post-pollination changes.
Answer:
Formation of Male Gametophyte:
(i) Pre-pollination development Development of male gametophyte starts in pollen grains while still present in the microsporangium or pollen sact The nucleus of pollen grain grows in size, moves to one side near the wall and divides mitotically to form a vegetative cell and a generative-cell. A layer of callose develops around the generative cell. Later on, the callose dissolves and the naked generative cell comes to lie freely in the cytoplasm of the tube cell. The cytoplasm of generative cell does not ‘ contain much of stored food. The shape of generative cell is elongated which helps in its passage through pollen tube.

The vegetative cell contains stored food and also contains protein granules. The microspore containing the two cells, i.e. vegetative and generative cell, is shed at this stage from microsporangia. Pollen grains are generally shed at this 2-celled stage in over 60% of angiosperms. In the remaining species, the generative cell divides mitotically and gives rise to 2 male gametes before pollen grains are shed.

(ii) Post-pollination development On reaching the stigma, pollen grain absorbs water and nutrients from the stigmatic secretion through its germ pores and the tube (vegetative) cell enlarges. The intine of the pollen grain protrudes out through one of the germ pores and a pollen tube is formed. The pollen tube pierces the stigmatic surface and moves down through the style of the pistil.

Now in the generative cell, the nucleus divides mitotically to form two male nuclei which become surrounded by a thin cytoplasmic sheath and appear as distinct non-motile male gametes. The nucleus of the generative cell, migrates to pollen tube. As the pollen tube elongates, the distal part becomes highly vacuolated and becomes separated from the anterior part containing the three nuclei, by formation of callose plug.

(a-b) Mature pollen grain, (c) Pollen germination

Question 3.
Give an account of the development of female gametophyte in angiosperms.
Answer:
Female Gametophyte (Embryo Sac)
In general, the development of embryo sac is monosporic, e.g. in Polygonum. In this type of development, only one megaspore situated towards chalazal end remains functional, while the remaining three megaspores gradually degenerate and finally disappear. Following are the different stages in development of female gametophyte
1. The functional haploid megaspore is the first cell of female gametophyte of angiosperm.
2. It enlarges in size to form the female gametophyte, also called embryo sac.
3. Its nucleus undergoes mitotic division to form 2-nuclei that move to opposite poles forming 2-nucIeate embryo sac.
4. The 2-nucleate embryo sac undergoes two more sequential mitotic divisions giving rise to the 4-nucleate stage and later 8-nucleate stage of embryo sac. This stage comprises of a micropylar end and a chalazal end with four nuclei at each end.
5. Six of the eight nuclei are surrounded by cell walls and get organised into cells. Three cells present towards the micropylar end grouped together, constitute the egg apparatus, i.e. two synergids and one egg cell.
6. Three cells of the chalazal end are called the antipodals. The large central cell is formed by the fusion of 2-polar nuclei. Thus, a typical angiospermic embryo sac or female gametophyte at maturity consists of 8-nuclei and 7-cells.
The egg cell combines with a male gamete to form zygote which becomes the embryo. The pollen tube makes its way through the synergids releasing the male gametes.

One male gamete fuses with female gamete(egg) called syngamy. The two polar nuclei which have fused to form secondary nucleus combine with second male gamete and form primary endosperm cell. This primary endosperm cell develops into endosperm which provides nutrition to the developing embryo. The antipodal cells degenerate.

Odisha State Board CHSE Odisha Class 12 Biology Solutions Chapter 17 Environmental Issues Textbook Questions and Answers.

CHSE Odisha 12th Class Biology Chapter 17 Question Answer Environmental Issues

Environmental Issues Class 12 Questions and Answers CHSE Odisha

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Multiple choice questions

Question 1.
Which gas leaked from Union Carbide’s Pesticide Plant in December 1984 is responsible for Bhopal Gas Tragedy?
(a) Methyl salicylate
(b) Methyl isocyanate
(c) Ammonia
(d) Hydrogen sulphide
Answer:
(b) Methyl isocyanate

Question 2.
Minamata disease is caused by the consumption of fish contaminated with
(a) lead
(b) copper
(c) zinc
(d) mercury
Answer:
(d) mercury

Question 3.
The toxic metal used as an anti-knocking agent in petrol for automobiles is
(a) chelated copper
(b) tetraethyl lead
(c) iron sulphide
(d) lead chloride
Answer:
(b) tetraethyl lead

Question 4.
Bharat Stage Emission standards came into force from the year
(a) 1998
(b) 2000
(c) 2008
(d) 2010
Answer:
(b) 2000

Question 5.
Bone and tooth decay disease is caused by drinking water contaminated with
(a) fluoride
(b) borate
(c) silicate
(d) aluminium
Answer:
(a) fluoride

Express in one or two word(s)

Question 1.
Removal of toxic substances from water by using living organisms.
Answer:
Bioremediation

Question 2.
Toxic compound formed by the reaction of carbon monoxide with haemoglobin in blood.
Answer:
Carboxyhaemoglobin

Question 3.
Enrichment of water bodies with excess amount of nutrients as a result of runoff from surrounding land leading to overgrowth of plants and algae.
Answer:
Eutrophication

Question 4.
A kind of air pollutant named for the mixture of smoke and fog in the air.
Answer:
Smog

Correct the statements, if required, by changing the underlined word (s)

Question 1.
Fifth June of each year is usually observed as Word Food security Day.
Answer:
Environment

Question 2.
The process of nutrient enrichment in water bodies is called as biomagnification.
Answer:
Eutrophication

Question 3.
Particulate matter formed by the combination of gas and water vapour is called as smog.
Answer:
Statement is correct

Question 4.
Chipko Movement was organised for the protection of water bodies.
Answer:
Forest

Fill in the blanks

Question 1.
The Environment Protection Act was enacted in
the year
Answer:
1986

Question 2.
The common refrigerant responsible for the , depletion of ozone layer of the atmosphere is ……………. .
Answer:
chlorofluorocarbon

Question 3.
Carbon monoxide binds with haemoglobin forming …………….. .
Answer:
carboxyhaemoglobin

Question 4.
Depletion of ozone layer is speeded up by the …………. atom present in CFC.
Answer:
chlorine

Short Answer Type Questions

Write within three valid points

Question 1.
Aerosol.
Answer:

• Aerosol is a colloid of fine solid particles or liquid droplets in air or another gas.
• Aerosols can be natural or anthropogenic. Examples of natural aerosols are fog and geyser steam.
  Examples of artificial aerosols are haze, dust, particulate, air pollutant and smoke.
• These are emitted through jet and supersonic aeroplanes. It causes depletion of ozone layer.

Question 2.
Greenhouse effect.
Answer:
Greenhouse Effect
The term, ‘greenhouse effect’ has been derived from a phenomenon, which occurs inside a greenhouse. In a greenhouse, the glass panel lets the light in, but does not allow heat to escape. This results in warming up of the greenhouse.

The greenhouse effect is a naturally occurring phenomenon that is responsible for heating of earth’s surface and its atmosphere. Without greenhouse effect, the average temperature at surface of earth would have been chilly, i.e. approximately -18°C rather than the present average of 15°C.

Question 3.
Eutrophication.
Answer:
Eutrophication The process of eutrophication occurs in young lake where water is cold and clear to support life. It is the accelerated ageing of lakes due to the sewage, agricultural and industrial wastes.
The water body gets enriched with excess of nutrients such as nitrates and phosphorous promoting the overgrowth of microbes and algae. The algae release toxins in water and gradually cause deficiency of dissolved oxygen in water.

Question 4.
Acid rain.
Answer:

1. The term acid rain was given by Robert August. It is rainfall with a pH of less than 5.65.
2. Acid rain is a mixture of H₂SO₄ and HN₃ and the ratio of the two may vary depending on the relative quantities of oxides of sulphur and nitrogen emitted on an average 60-70% of acidity is ascribed to H₂SO₄ and 30-40 % to HNO₃.
3. It damages foliage and growing points of plant. Causes leaching of essential minerals of soil like Ca, Mg, NO₃^– and SO₄^-2

Question 5.
Photochemical smog.
Answer:
Photochemical Smog:
Smog refers to a combination of smoke and fog formed during winter. Its formation takes place when water vapour surrounds the smoke, dust or soot particles resulting in the formation of secondary particles. These particles remain suspended in the air.

The vehicular emissions consisting of oxides of nitrogen, sulphur and hydrocarbons undergo a series of photochemical reactions forming many photochemical oxidants. This process takes place during warmer sunny days photochemical oxidants react with troposphere ozone resulting in the formation of a brownish hozy fume which is known as photochemical smog.

Question 6.
Global warming.
Answer:
Global Warming
The gradual and continuous increase in average temperature of surface of the earth has resulted in global warming.
Climate Earth temperature has increased by 0.6°C during past century, most of it in last three decades. This increased temperature caused changes in precipitation patterns.

Differentiate between the following

Question 1.
Aerosol and Smog.
Answer:
Differences between aerosol and smog are as follows

Aerosol	Smog
These are present in the vapour form. Refrigerators and air conditioners use aerosol as refrigerant.	It is an opaque or dark fog having condensed water vapours, dust, smoke and gases.
It causes depletion of ozone layer.	It causes silvering / glazing and necrosis in plants, allergies and asthma/bronchitis in humans.

Question 2.
Renewable resources and Non-renewable resources.
Answer:
Differences between renewable resources and non-renewable resources are as follows

Renewable resources	Non-renewable resources
These resources have an ability to renew themselves in a given period of time.	These resources connot be renewed after exhaustion.
These are the energy resources which cannot be exhausted.	They are the energy resources which can be exhausted one day.
It has low carbon emission and hence environment friendly.	It causes high carbon emission and hence not environment friendly.
Solar energy, wind energy, tidal energy etc., are the examples of renewable resources.	Goal, petroleum, natural gases are the examples of non-renewable resources.

Question 3.
Bioremediation and Eutrophication.
Answer:
Differences between bioremediation and eutrophication are as follows

Bioremediation	Eutrophication
It is a waste management technique that involves the use of biological organisms to neutralize pollutants from a contaminated site.	It is the enrichment of a water body with nutrients.
Microorganisms used to perform the function of bioremediation are known as bioremediators.	This process induces growth of plants and algae and due to the biomass load may result oxygen depletion of the water body
It is of two types, i.e., in-situ and ex situ.	It is also of two types, i.e. accelerated and natural eutrophication.
It reduces pollution.	It occurs as a result of water pollution.

Question 4.
Primary pollutants and Secondary pollutants.
Answer:
Differences between primary pollutants and secondary pollutants are as follows

Primary pollutants	Secondary pollutants
These pollutants enter the environment directly from the source.	These pollutants are produced by the interaction of primary pollutants with other constituents.
They are less harmful.	They are more harmful.
They are of various categories such as particulate matter, aerosols and gases, which remain in their original form.	They generally undergo wide range of photochemical reactions and get modified.
e.g. CO, CO2, arsenic.	e.g. ozone, sulphuric and nitric acids.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Give an account of secondary air pollutants.
Answer:
Secondary Pollutants:
These are not directly emitted but are formed when primary pollutants react in atmosphere, e.g. ozone, sulphuric acid, nitric acid, Peroxyacetyl Nitrate (PAN), etc.

1. Tropospheric Ozone:
Under the influence of UV-radiation, the nitrogen dioxide released in atmosphere undergoes dissociation. This results in the formation of nitric oxide (NO) and nascent oxygen (O). This nascent oxygen undergoes reaction with molecule oxygen and forms ozone in the troposphere. Ozone traps heat causing greenhouse effect and also causes formation of photochemical smog.

Chemical reactions in the troposphere generating ozone.

2. Peroxyacetylnitrate (PAN):
The emission from vehicles contains a lot of primary pollutants.
The precursors of PAN are methyl glyoxyl, acetaldehyde and several byproducts of oxidation of aromatic compounds. The sunlight undergoes reaction with non-methane hydrocarbons and nitrogen oxides resulting in the formation of PAN. PAN is one of the important component of photochemical smog.

3. Photochemical Smog:
Smog refers to a combination of smoke and fog formed during winter. Its formation takes place when water vapour surrounds the smoke, dust or soot particles resulting in the formation of secondary particles. These particles remain suspended in the air.

The vehicular emissions consisting of oxides of nitrogen, sulphur and hydrocarbons undergo a series of photochemical reactions forming many photochemical oxidants. This process takes place during warmer sunny days photochemical oxidants react with troposphere ozone resulting in the formation of a brownish hozy fume which is known as photochemical smog. This photochemical smog causes damage to vegetation, rubber goods and irritation in eyes and lungs.

4. Acid Rain:
Primary pollutants like oxides of nitrogen, sulphur dioxide and chlorine are released in atmosphere from the fossij fuel burning, vehicular exhaust, forest fire, etc. These primary pollutants react with water vapour present in atpiosphere resulting in the formation of acids such as nitrip acid and sulphuric acid. Their acids fall on the surface of earth in the form of rain known as acid rain. The acid present in rain has harmful effects on living organisms. Acid rain causes deterioration of historical monuments. One of the examples of deterioration of monuments include Taj Mahal in Agra.

Question 2.
How can the industrial and vehicular emissions be controlled? Describe.
Answer:
Control of Industrial Emission
Industrial emission can be controlled by two practices either by confining the pollutants of gaseous nature at the source or by diluting them in the atmosphere. The first practice involves two methods.

It can be done by modifying the process of formation of pollutants so that their formation does not occur beyond the permissible level. The second method involves reducing the concentration of pollutants before they are released into the environment. These practises takes place via the following steps

(a) Combustion It is performed when the pollutants are of organic nature. It comprises of flame combustion and catalytic combustion. It is involved in the conversion of pollutants to water vapour and less harmful carbon dioxide. Catalytic combustion makes use of catalytic converters and flame combustion uses incinerator.
(b) Absorption A scrubber is used to remove or modify emitted gas. It contains a liquid absorbent through which emitted gas is passed.
(c) Adsorption In this process, the gas is passed through a porous solid adsorbent, like activated carbon silica gel and lime stone. The pollutants are held at the interface of the adsorbent.

The working of a scrubber can be described as follows Scrubber is used to remove harmful gases like SO₂ from the industrial exhausts. The exhaust is passed through a spray of lime or water. Water dissolves the gases and lime reacts with SO₂ to form a precipitate of calcium sulphate and sulphide.

Scrubber

Control of Vehicular Emission:
Catalytic converters are fitted into automobiles (major cause of air pollution in metro cities) for reducing emissions of poisonous gases like CO and NO₂. They are made with expensive metals like- platinum-palladium and rhodium as catalysts. As the exhaust passes through catalytic converter, following changes occur
(i) Unburnt hydrocarbons get burnt completely into CO₂ and H₂O.
(ii) Carbon monoxide and nitric oxide are converted into CO₂ and N₂ gases, respectively.
Motor vehicles equipped with catalytic converter should use unleaded petrol, as lead present in petrol inactivates the catalyst.

Question 3.
Write the causes of ground water pollution and state how this can be controlled.
Answer:
Ground water pollution occurs when pollutants are released to the ground and make their way down into groundwater contaminants found in groundwater cover a broad range of physical, inorganic chemical, organic chemical, bacteriological and radioactive material.

Ground water pollutants Arsenic and fluoride have been the major pollutant of ground water. The metalloid arsenic can occur naturally in groundwater. Arsenic in groundwater can also be present where mining operations or mine waste dumps that will leach arsenic. Pathogens contained in faeces can lead to ground water pollution. Viruses and protozoans commonly found in polluted groundwater. Ground water that is contaminated with pathogens can lead to fatal faecal-oral transmission of diseases.

Nitrate is the most common chemical contaminant in the world’s groundwater and aquifers. Nitrate levels above 10 mg/L in ground water can cause Blue baby syndrome.

Organic compounds are a dangerous contaminant of groundwater. They are generally introduced to the environment through careless industrial practices.

Causes of Ground Water Pollution % Natural causes The natural arsenic pollution occurs because aquifer sediments contain organic matter that generates anaerobic conditions in the aquifer. These conditions generate arsenic.
Sanitation system Ground water pollution with pathogens and nitrate can also occur from the liquids infiltrating into the ground from on site sanitation system such as pit latrines and septic tanks.

Fertilisers and pesticides Nitrate can also enter the groundwater via excessive use of fertilisers, including manure spreading. High application rates of nitrogen- containing fertilisers combined with the high water- solubility of nitrate leads to increased runoff into surface water well as leaching into groundwater.

Commercial and industrial leaks A wide variety of both inorganic and organic pollutants have been found in aquifers underlying commercial and industrial activities.

Prevention of Ground Water Pollution:

• Landfills should be properly designed, maintained and operated, located away from sensitive groundwater areas.
• Underground storage tanks should be able to meet regulatory compliance policies on their installation and maintenance.

Deep groundwater should be regularly tested and inspected.

• Fertilisers should be used in minimum amount

Question 4.
Write about the different classes of solid wastes.
Answer:
Classes of Solid Wastes:
The various classes are

1. Domestic wastes These include wastes from homes, offices, schools, etc. It generally consists of paper, leather, textile, rubber, glass, waste food materials, etc.

2. Industrial wastes These include wastes like scraps, toxic heavy metals, flyash (oxides of iron, silica and aluminium), etc., generated by industries.

3. Biomedical wastes These include disinfectants and other harmful chemicals generated by the hospitals.

4. Electronic wastes (e-wastes) comprise the damaged electronic goods and irreparable computers. It contains harmful chemicals like copper, zinc, aluminium, etc.

5. Defunct ships Old defunct ships are broken down in developing countries like India, Bangladesh and Pakistan because of cheap labour and demand for scrap metal. These ships however, possess a number of toxic materials like asbestos, lead, mercury and polychlorinated biphenyls. The people involved in ship breaking are exposed to these toxic materials and thus suffer from various diseases. The coastal areas where ship breaking is undertaken also become polluted.

6. Agricultural wastes Solid organic wastes from agricultural practice during the growing and harvesting seasons are dumped on the soil, which decompose and are washed away into nearby water bodies. These bring about eutrophication of water bodies, which affects the local biotic potential.

7. Radioactive waste Radioactive waste is generated from nuclear power plants, nuclear weapon manufacturing facilities, cancer treating hospitals and research laboratories using radioisotopes in investigations. This waste is to be disposed off safely by observing the standard guideline because if it remains for a very long period and continues to emit ionising radiation, it will be extremely hazardous to health of all forms of life.

8. Construction waste Due to demolition or construction of buildings a large amount of waste material in different forms is produced in urbon areas.

9. Extraction and processings industry waste mining and quarrying operations also produce solid wastes. Food processing industries produce a large amount of organic waste.

10. Plastic It is non-biodegradable and also increase the volume of municipal waste. Plastic has an adverse effect on animals and birds who consume it.
Burning of these results in the generation of toxic fumes which add to air pollution.

11. Waste from natural disasters Disasters like flood, earthquake, volcanic eruption and cyclone generate a lot of ash, slag, dust, smoke and organic silt.

Question 5.
What are greenhouse gases? Write about their effects on the environment.
Answer:
Greenhouse Gases
These are the gases which trap the heat causing greenhouse effect. The carbon dioxide is the most prominent one. The various greenhouse gases are
(i) Carbon Dioxide:
It is most common and abundant greenhouse gas. Its rise has been due to the large scale deforestation, change in land use and large scale combustion of fossil fuels.
Burning of petrol and diesel contributes 36%, coal contributes 35% and natural gas contributes 20% of the carbon dioxide. The carbon dioxide level has increased from 315 ppm (parts per million) in 1958 to 355 ppm in 1992 4nd then to 389 ppm in 2010. The countries which are major contributors of carbon dioxide are USA, Russia, European countries and China.

(ii) Methane
Its concentration was 700 ppb in pre-industrial times and 1750 ppb in 2000. Methane is produced by incomplete biomass combustion and incomplete decomposition mostly by anaerobic methanogens.

(iii) Nitrous Oxide
It is produced by combustion of nitrogen rich fuels, livestock wastes, breakdown of nitrogen fertilisers in soil, nitrate contaminated water, etc.

(iv) Chlorofluorocarbons(CFCs)
It is used as a common refrigerant and aerosol propellant. Bromine atom from halon used in fire extinguishers has a similar effect. These two are potent greenhouse gases.

Relative contribution of various greenhouse gases to total global warming

(v) Water Vapour:
It has the capacity to trap heat radiating from the surface of the earth. Rain along with the presence of sunshine causes increase in temperature. Such climate is referred to as hot and humid.

(vi) Fluorinated Gases
These include perfluorocarbons and sulphur hexafluoride. They are industrial byproducts. They are also used as substitutes for CFCs.

(vii) Tropospheric Ozone
Nitrogen dioxide dissociates into nitric oxide and nascent oxygen in presence of UV-radiation. The nascent oxygen produced reacts with molecular oxygen forming ozone which acts as a greenhouse gas.

Question 6.
Write the causes and consequences of global warming.
Answer:
Global Warming
The gradual and continuous increase in average temperature of surface of the earth has resulted in global warming.

Effects of Global Warming:
It has been estimated by computer application studies that there may be a rise of 3°C by the year 2100 on an average.
The major effects of global warming include
1. Climate Earth temperature has increased by 0.6°C during past century, most of it in last three decades. This increased temperature caused changes in precipitation patterns.
2. Glaciers and ice caps Scientists have proposed that this rise in temperature causes deleterious changes in the environment, resulting in odd climatic changes. Thus, leading to melting of the polar ice caps and Himalayan snow caps.
3. Animals and humans The new warmer temperature conditions lead to eruption of diseases in animals and thousands of species will become extinct in a very short period of time. People from coastal areas will start migrating due to climate change.
4. Ocean and coasts The increase in temperature causes melting of polar ice caps and glaciers. This will result in the rise of ocean water level. The increased level of ocean water will cause the submerging of many island nations and coastal cities. The high temperature will cause accelerated vanishing of coral reefs.
5. Water and agriculture The increased temperature will cause decreased productivity in agricultural practice.

Reducing Greenhouse Gases
Due to the harmful effets of global warming, there was a need to control it. For this following steps were taken
1. World Meterological Organisation and United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) jointly set up the Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC) in 1988.
2. At Earth Summit (1992), there was created the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCC) which came into force in 1994.
3. Kyoto Protocol (1997) was signed by 160 countries to reduce the emission of CO 2 NO, CH4 by 5% and also to reduce CFCs emission.
4. Copenhagen conference was held in 2009 under UNFCC. However, it failed as there was no unanimity in agreement among the participating countries.

Odisha State Board CHSE Odisha Class 12 Biology Solutions Chapter 16 Biodiversity and its Conservation Textbook Questions and Answers.

CHSE Odisha 12th Class Biology Chapter 16 Question Answer Biodiversity and its Conservation

Biodiversity and its Conservation Class 12 Questions and Answers CHSE Odisha

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Multiple choice questions

Question 1.
Genetic diversity refers to
(a) variation in the genetic material
(b) variation in the populations
(c) variation in the number of species
(d) variation in the animal distribution
Answer:
(a) variation in the genetic material

Question 2.
Species diversity means
(a) number of species
(b) relative abundance of species
(c) pecies composition
(d) genetic diversities
Answer:
(b) relative abundance of species

Question 3.
The Forest Conservation Act was enacted in
(a) 1972
(b) 1952
(c) 1980
(d) 1991
Answer:
(c) 1980

Question 4.
Conservation of wild animals and plants in sanctuaries and national parks is
(a) ex situ conservation
(b) in vivo conservation
(c) in vitro conservation
(d) in situ conservation
Answer:
(d) in situ conservation

Question 5.
Corbett national park is situated in
(a) Uttarakhand
(b) Jharkhand
(c) Uttar Pradesh
(d) Himachal Pradesh
Answer:
(a) Uttarakhand

Question 6.
Following mass extinctions, recovery to the same level of biodiversity has taken
(a) hundreds of years
(b) millions of years
(c) thousand of years
(d) billions of years
Answer:
(b) millions of years

Express in one or two words

Question 1.
A species originated in one place and found no where else.
Answer:
Endemic species

Question 2.
Organism whose no living representative is seen.
Answer:
Extinct

Question 3.
Biogeographic region with high endemism and habitat destruction.
Answer:
Biodiversity hotspot.

Question 4.
Conservation of biodiversity in its natural site.
Answer:
In situ conservation.

Question 5.
Diversity of all life forms in the earth.
Answer:
Biodiversity.

Correct the statement by changing the underlined word(s)

Question 1.
Hybrid plants of a species are the source of disease resistant genes.
Answer:
Disease resistant

Question 2.
Bhitarkanika is a hotspot.
Answer:
national park of India.

Question 3.
Hotspots are characterised by low endemism and habitat destruction.
Answer:
high

Question 4.
Botanical gardens are meant for in situ conservation of biodiversity.
Answer:
ex situ

Question 5.
WWF has enlisted endangered species in Red Data Book.
Answer:
IUCN

Fill in the blanks

Question 1.
The term ‘biodiversity’ was coined by ……….. .
Answer:
Thomas E. Lovejoy

Question 2.
The three levels of biodiversity are ………… diversity, species diversity and ……….. diversity.
Answer:
genetic, ecological

Question 3.
There are ……….. numbers of megabiodiversity countries in the world.
Answer:
17

Question 4.
India had ………….. numbers of biodiversity hotspots.
Answer:
three

Question 5.
The Wildlife Protection Act was enacted in …………… .
Answer:
1972

Question 6.
The UN conference of human environment was held in ……………. in 1972.
Answer:
Stockholm

Question 7.
The expanded form of IUCN is …………….. .
Answer:
International Union of Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources.

Question 8.
The first national park of India is …………. national park.
Answer:
Hailey (Jim Corbett)

Question 9.
Odisha has ……….. numbers of national park.
Answer:
two

Question 10.
There are ………… numbers of wildlife sanctuaries in Odisha.
Answer:
19

Question 11.
India has …………. numbers of biosphere reserves.
Answer:
18

Question 12.
The concept of biosphere reserve made a beginning under ……….. programme instituted by a UN body, namely ……….. .
Answer:
Man and Biosphere (MAB), UNESCO

Short Answer Type Questions

Write short note on each of the following

Question 1.
Ecological diversity
Answer:
Ecological Diversity (Diversity among Communities):
It explains about the variety of ecosystems present in the biosphere. The community composition, i.e., assemblage of several interacting populations in a given space at a particular time is affected directly by the environment. Thus, it is the diversity at the level of communities and ecosystems of a region.

Question 2.
Wildlife Protection Act (1972).
Answer:
Wildlife Protection Act (1972) It was enacted to provide protection to wild flora and fauna and other natural resources. This act offers protection based on two approaches that are
(a) Species based approach for specific endangered species which are protected by special projects such as Project Tiger.
(b) Habitat based approach which is conservation of endangered wild flora and fauna in National Parks and Wildlife Sanctuaries.

Question 3.
In situ conservation.
Answer:
It involves the to protection of plants, animals and microorganisms within their natural ecosystems. The i in situ conservation is the most effective way of protecting the species and improving the quality of the habitat they live in. The in situ approach is preferable because of the fact that not much diversity can be conserved outside the centres of diversity.

Biodiversity at all its levels can be conserved in situ by comprehensive system of protected areas such as the national parks, wildlife sanctuaries, natural reserves, natural monuments, cultural landscapes, biosphere reserves, wetlands, etc. So far, in situ practice is considered most effective method of protecting and propagating the species and improving the quality of their habitats.

Question 4.
Ex situ conservation
Answer:
Ex situ (Off-site) Conservation:
It refers to conservation of biological diversity outside the boundaries of their natural habitats by perpetuating sample population in genetic resource centres, e.g. zoos, botanical gardens, culture collections, etc., or in the form of gene pools and gametes storage for fish, germplasm banks for seeds, pollen, semen, ova, cell, etc. Zoos also help in captive breeding of organisms which are endangered, whereas botanical gardens have seed gene banks, tissue culture labs and other technologies for storing and growing germplasm.

Question 5.
Biosphere reserve
Answer:
These are large tracts of protected land used for preserving the genetic diversity of an ecosystem by preserving wildlife. The creation of biosphere reserves was initiated in 1975 under the Man and Biosphere (MAB) programme of UNESCO. It is category V protected area designated by IUCN.

Each biosphere reserve integrates human activities and has following zonation

• Core zone Strictly protected.
• Buffer zone Sustainable and recreation activities allowed.
• Transition zone Anthropogenic activities like research and sustainable development allowed.
• Zone of human encroachment Normal anthropogenic activities allowed.

Differentiate between the following

Question 1.
In situ and Ex situ conservations.
Answer:
Differences between in situ conservation and ex situ conservation are as follows

In situ conservation	Ex situ conservation
It is the conservation of species in their natural habitats.	It is the conservation of species outside their natural habitats.
The endangered species are protected from predators.	The endangered species are protected from all adverse factors.
Augmentation of depleted resources is done.	Animals or plants are kept under human supervision and provided with all the essential necessities for survival.
e.g. national parks, sanctuaries and biosphere reserves.	e.g. zoos, botanical gardens, cultural collections, etc.

Question 2.
Genetic diversity and Species diversity.
Answer:
Differences between genetic diversity and species diversity are as follows

Genetic diversity	Species diversity
It is related to the number and type of genes and their alleles found in organisms.	It is related to the number, type and distribution of species found in given area.
It is the trait of the species.	It is the trait of the community.
It influences adaptability and distribution of a species in diverse habitat.	it influences biotic interaction and stability of the community.

Question 3.
National park and Sanctuary.
Answer:
Differences between national park and sanctuary are as follows

National park	Sanctuary
It is meant for protection of flora and fauna of the area.	It is meant for protection of one or more group of wild animals.
Cultivation of land, grazing and forestry are not allowed.	Cultivation of land, grazing and forestry are allowed.
Private ownership is not permitted.	Private ownership is permitted.
Boundary is well demarcated.	Boundary is not well demarcated.
e.g. Corbett National Park (Uttarakhand)	e.g. Bird Sanctuary Chilika (Odisha).

Question 4.
Extinct species and Endangered species
Answer:
Differences between extinct species and endangered species is as follows

Extinct species	Endangered species
A taxon is extinct when there is no reasonable doubt that the last individual has died, e.g. Indian cheetah.	A species is endangered when it is facing a very high risk of extinction in the wild in the near future, e.g. giant panda, polar bear.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is meant by biodiversity? Write the causes of loss of biodiversity.
Answer:
The term ‘biodiversity’ was first used by Thomas E. Lovejoy (1980) to refer the number of species of a region. It is the degree of variation of life occurring at different levels like genetic, organismal and ecological. These levels forms a hierarchy of biodiversity

Loss of Biodiversity:
The loss of biodiversity is a global crisis. Extinction of species is a natural phenomenon aided by the physical changes in the environment. However, the accelerated rates of species extinctions, that the world is facing now are largely due to human activities.
Till now, five episodes of mass extinction of species have occured in the history of biological evolution. The sixth episode of extinction of species however, is credited to human activities, which otherwise would not have occurred.

According to IUCN estimates, 12259 species have become extinct since the time of origin of life on the earth. The major cause of the biodiversity losses are called drivers, which belong to two classes namely, direct and indirect.

Direct Drivers Factors
The directly influence the ecosystem processes which bring about the mass extinction of species.
The various processes associated with direct drivers includes

1. Habitat destruction and fragmentation Conversion of forest land for agriculture, development projects, mining operation, etc., leads to the destruction of the natural habitats of the organisms.
Indiscriminate agricultural practices involving use of chemical fertilisers and pesticides are potent factors for the destruction of habitats. When a large population fragments into smaller ones there is more inbreeding and inbreeding pressure leading to population decline.

2. Overexploitation of natural resources Humans are dependent on nature for food and shelter, but when ‘need’ turns to ‘greed’, it leads to overexploitation.

To meet the need for increased housing, the natural habitats of animals and plants are being destroyed. This results in habitat loss and extinction of species. It has caused extinction of many species in last 500 years. In addition, indiscriminate hunting of wild animals has made their status in Red book as endangered or critically endangered.

3. Introduction of alien invasive species When alien species are intentionally or unintentionally introduced in a particular area, they might turn invasive and cause decline or extinction of endogenous species, e.g., Eichhornia is known as the ‘Terror of Bengal’. It was introduced as ornamental plants but it became wild in India because of invasiveness.
Similarly, Lantana and Parthenium were important due to their ornamental and food values, respectively but, they become wide spread due to favourable environmental conditions.

4. Climate change The global climate is changing, due to the anthropogenic activities like greenhouse gases and it has led to global warming. This is causing melting of glaciers, polar ice caps, etc. This may submerge low lying coastal habitats and also plants and animals are unable to adapt themselves to this change which is causing their elimination.

5. Environmental pollution It is another major factor for species extinction. Pollution may reduce and eliminate populations of sensitive species. Environmental pollution is most commonly caused by accumulation of non-biodegradeble wastes like plastics. Agricultural chemicals like pesticides enters the food chain and get deposited in the body of higher organisms. This effects the population of fish eating birds and falcons by disturbing their reproductive process.

Question 2.
How can the biodiversity be conserved? Add a note on importance of biodiversity.
Answer:
Biodiversity is directly or indirectly involved in maintaining the well-being of human society. Thus, scientists have classified the values of diversity as ecosystem goods, i.e., natural products harvested from ecosystems and directly used by humans and ecosystem services, involving different ecosystem processes which indirectly benefit human life.

Biodiversity Conservation:

The protection, uplift and scientific management of biodiversity at its optimum level for present and future generations is known as biodiversity conservation.
The International Union for Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources (IUCN) or World Conservation Union, World Wide Fund for Nature (WWF), Food and Agricultural Organisation (FAO) and United Nations Educational Scientific and Cultural_Organisation (UNESCO) formed the world conservation strategy in 1980 for the conservation and sustainable use of biological resources. For this, two major types of conservation strategies were framed. These are

1. In situ (On-site) Conservation:
It involves the to protection of plants, animals and microorganisms within their natural ecosystems. The i in situ conservation is the most effective way of protecting the species and improving the quality of the habitat they live in. The in situ approach is preferable because of the fact that not much diversity can be conserved outside the centres of diversity.

Biodiversity at all its levels can be conserved in situ by comprehensive system of protected areas such as the national parks, wildlife sanctuaries, natural reserves, natural monuments, cultural landscapes, biosphere reserves, wetlands, etc. So far, in situ practice is considered most effective method of protecting and propagating the species and improving the quality of their habitats.

2. Ex situ (Off-site) Conservation:
It refers to conservation of biological diversity outside the boundaries of their natural habitats by perpetuating sample population in genetic resource centres, e.g. zoos, botanical gardens, culture collections, etc., or in the form of gene pools and gametes storage for fish, germplasm banks for seeds, pollen, semen, ova, cell, etc. Zoos also help in captive breeding of organisms which are endangered, whereas botanical gardens have seed gene banks, tissue culture labs and other technologies for storing and growing germplasm.

Biodiversity Preservation Methods and Sites

A protected area, as defined by IUCN, is an area (either land or sea) especially dedicated for the protection and maintenance of biological diversity through legal and ‘ other effective ways. IUCN has classified protected area into six different types. Some of these protected areas are, discussed below

National Parks:
India’s first National Park (IUCN category-II protected area) was Hailey National Park, now known as Jim Corbett National Park, established in 1935. According to National Wildlife Database, there were 103 National parks in India as in April, 2015. A national park is an area maintained by government and dedicated to conserve the environment, natural and historical objects and the wildlife therein. Operations such as plantation, cultivation, grazing forestry are not allowed in national parks. Private ownership rights and habitat manipulation are also prohibited. IUCN (1975) has adopted following keypoints to define a national park.

1. A national park is a relatively large area reserved for the betterment of the wildlife. The habitats of native plant and animals becomes the site of scientific, educational and recreative interests along with maintenance of its aesthetic values.
   Since, human intervention is nil or limited, the operating ecosystem remains unaltered and conserved.
2. It is also defined as an area where the highest authority take measures to prevent exploitation and enforce conservation measures.
3. A place where visitors are permitted to enter only in special conditions like inspirational, cultural and recreative purposes.
   

Hotspots of Biodiversity:
The concept of hotspot was given by Norman Myers in 1988. Hotspots are areas that are extremely rich in species diversity, have high endemism and are under constant threat. There are 34 hotspots which cover less than 2% of earth land area of the world. In these sites nearly 75% population of world’s most threatened mammals, birds and amphibians, approximately 50% plants and 42% land vertebrates are conserved (Conservation International, 2003).

According to Myers, the key criteria for an area to be assigned as biodiversity hotspot are

• It must contain atleast 0.5% or 1,500 of the world’s 3,00,000 species of vascular plants as endemics.
• It should have lost atleast 70% of its primary vegetation.

Tropical forests appear in 15 hotspots, Mediterranean – type zones in 5, 9 hotspots are mainly or completely made up of islands and 16 hotspots are in the tropics. About 20 % of the human population lives in the hotspot regions.

Tropical Andes hotspot has 20,000 endemic plants and 1567 vertebrates and it is at the top of the list. Four regions of India that fulfills the criteria of hotspots are The Western Ghats and Sri Lanka, The Eastern Himalayas, Indo-Burma (North-Eastern India South of Brahmaputra river)and Sundarland (Nicobar Islands). These sites are also known as Gade of speciation.

The Western Ghats are a chain of hills that lies parallel to the Western coast of peninsular India. These regions have moist deciduous forest and rain forest and have high species diversity and high levels of endemism. Nearly 77% of the amphibians and 62% of the reptile species found here are found nowhere else. Over 6000 vascular plants of over 2500 genera are found in this hotspot, of which over 3000 are endemic.

Much of the world’s species like black pepper and cardamom have their origins in the Western Ghats. It also harbors over 450 bird species, about 140 mammalian species, 260 reptiles and 175 amphibians. Over 60% of the reptiles and amphibians are completely endemic to this hotspot.

The Eastern Himalayan hotspot has approximately 163 globally threatened species including the one-horned rhinoceros, the Wild Asian Water buffalo and in all 45 mammals, 50 birds, 17 reptiles, 12 amphibians, 3 invertebrate and 36 plant species.
Thus, hotspots are the most precious sites for biodiversity conservation and should be protected from exploitation.

Wildlife Sanctuary:
It is IUCN category IV of protected area. A wildlife sanctuary can be established by a gazette notification from the State Forest Department, where protection is provided to vulnerable, endangered and critically endangered wild animals life. Operations such as procuring timber and minor forest products and private ownership are allowed provided they do not cause any adverse effects on the animals. Till 2015, there were 520 wildlife sanctuaries in India, covering 122867.34 km2 (3.74%) of land in India. The state of Odisha has 19 wildlife sanctuaries, which are listed below

Biosphere Reserve:
These are large tracts of protected land used for preserving the genetic diversity of an ecosystem by preserving wildlife. The creation of biosphere reserves was initiated in 1975 under the Man and Biosphere (MAB) programme of UNESCO. It is category V protected area designated by IUCN. Today, India has 18 biosphere reserves, some of which are also included under National Parks and Odisha has a share of one in Simlipal.

Each biosphere reserve integrates human activities and has following zonation

1. Core zone Strictly protected.
2. Buffer zone Sustainable and recreation activities allowed.
3. Transition zone Anthropogenic activities like research and sustainable development allowed.
4. Zone of human encroachment Normal anthropogenic activities allowed.

Out of 18 biosphere reserves, 8 of them are a part of world network of Biosphere Reserves based on MAB Programme of UNESCO.

The objectives of this programme are

• Conserving representative samples of ecosystems.
• In situ conservation of genetic diversity.
• Facilitating basic and applied research in ecology and environmental biology on site.
• Create opportunities for environmental education k and training.
• Promoting and creating awareness about sustainable management of living resources.
• Promoting international cooperation.

Therefore, the biosphere reserves have three junctions, that includes

• Conservation of ecosystems and genetic variations.
• Promotion of sustainable economic and human development.
• They serve as examples of education and training local, regional, national and international issues of sustainable development.

A protected area to be declared as a biosphere reserve should have the following essential features

• Abundant genetic diversity should be present.
• It should be unique in itself.
• The area should be legally protected for long term.
• Appropriate size for effective maintenance of natural populations so that there is no genetic drift.
• Sufficient natural resource available for ecological research, education and training. It should be a natural home for the endangered species of plants and animals.

Question 3.
Give an account of biodiversity and its conservation measures.
Or
Give an account of the concept of biodiversity.
Answer:
The term ‘biodiversity’ was first used by Thomas E. Lovejoy (1980) to refer the number of species of a region. It is the degree of variation of life occurring at different levels like genetic, organismal and ecological. These levels forms a hierarchy of biodiversity. The integration of several sciences such as ecology and genetics to sustain biological diversity at all its levels is called conservation biology.

Levels of Biodiversity

In 1986, Norse and Me Manus explained the three levels of biodiversity. These include

1 Genetic Diversity:
It involves variations in genetic composition among the individuals of a species. This variations could be in the nucleotides, genes, entire genome or chromosomes. This type of diversity arises due to genetic recombination during sexual reproduction and mutation.

Variations in the genes of a species increases with the increase in size and environmental parameters of the habitat. Genetic diversity is useful as it helps an individual to adapt to changing environmental condition, natural selection and is essential for healthy breeding. It also helps in speciation or evolution of new species.

2. Organismal or Species Diversity (Diversity among Species):
It is the variety in the number and richness of a species of a region. Sometimes, a species remains confined to a particular area and is found only in that area. Such species are said to be endemic, e.g., Indian giant squirrel is endemic to Panchmarhi hills in Madhya Pradesh.

The IUCN (International Union for Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources) recognises three types of species diversity, i.e.

• Alpha (α) diversity It refers to the variety of species within a community. It is also referred to as species richness, i.e., the number of species per unit area.
• Beta (β) diversity It refers to the diversity of species among communities.
• Gamma (γ) diversity It refers to the diversity of species across a wide geographical range.

The important features of species diversity to the ecosystem are as follows

• Increased biodiversity provides resistance to the ecosystem against natural disasters.
• Ecosystem with more species shows more yields and greater productivity with variation of biomass.
• Community with more species generally tends to be more stable than those with less species.

3. Ecological Diversity (Diversity among Communities):
It explains about the variety of ecosystems present in the biosphere. The community composition, i.e., assemblage of several interacting populations in a given space at a particular time is affected directly by the environment. Thus, it is the diversity at the level of communities and ecosystems of a region.

Patterns of Biodiversity

Biodiversity is not uniform throughout the world. It varies with the changes in latitude and altitude. For many groups of animals and plants, there are specific patterns in diversity based on the favourable environmental conditions.
The pattern of biodiversity among different regions is discussed below

Latitudinal Gradients:
Species diversity decreases as we move away from the equator towards the poles. It means biodiversity is more at lower latitude (equator) than the higher latitude (poles). The biodiversity gradient is steep in Northern hemisphere than the Southern hemisphere.

Biodiversity in Tropics
Tropics (latitudinal range of 23.5°N to 23.5°S) harbour more species than temperate or polar areas, e.g., Colombia located near the equator, has 1,400 species of birds.

New York located at 41°N has 105 species of birds, while Greenland at 71°N has only 56 species of birds. India, with most of its area in tropical latitude has more than 1200 species of birds. A forest of equal area in tropical region (like equator) has 10 times more species of vascular plants than in temperate region (like Mid-West of USA). Amazonian rainforest in South America has the greatest biodiversity on the earth with more than 40,000 species of plants, 3,000 of fishes, 1,300 of birds, 427 of mammals and amphibians, 378 of reptiles and more than 1,25000 of invertebrates.

Reasons for Greater Biodiversity in Tropics
The factors making tropical rainforests rich in biodiversity are

1. Tropical latitudes have remained undisturbed for million of years allowing speciation.
2. Tropical environments are relatively constant throught the year which promotes niche specialisation and greater diversity.
3. High productivity leads to greater diversity. It is also found that species diversity increases with area (species area curves), how it peaks in areas with intermediate productivity or intermediate rates of disturbance. The more variable the habitat, the greater the species diversity within it. This pattern was offered as one of the reasons why there are more species in bigger area as more area covers a greater variety of habitat.

Importance of Biodiversity

Biodiversity is directly or indirectly involved in maintaining the well-being of human society. Thus, scientists have classified the values of diversity as ecosystem goods, i.e., natural products harvested from ecosystems and directly used by humans and ecosystem services, involving different ecosystem processes which indirectly benefit human life.

Direct Value

1. Food It includes all the plant and animal products used as food by humans, e.g., cereals, pulses, vegetables, fruits, milk, beverages, etc.
2. Clothing It includes natural fabric made out of cotton, jute and natural silk (harvested from silk moth).
3. Shelter It includes raw material obtained from ecosystem for making houses, e.g., wood, etc.
4. Medicines Large number of substances with therapeutic properties are obtained from variety of plant species and animals, e.g.
   1. Quinine Antimalarial drug, obtained from the bark of Cinchona plant.
   2. Anticoagulants Antihemorrhagic drugs, extracted from blood sucking animals.
   3. Snake venom and toxins Drugs for neural and muscular disorders.
   4. Penicillin, tetracyclins and streptomycins Antibiotics extracted from microorganisms.
   5. Biocidal compounds Used in manufacturing antibiotics, extracted from beetles, millipedes, snails and ants.
5. Industrial products A variety of industrial products are directly made out of biological resources, e.g. timber, fuel, dyes, oil, etc., from plants and leather, etc., from animals skin.

Indirect Value:

1. Biological control It is the use of microorganisms for the manufacture of antibiotics, oral contraceptives, etc., and management of pests, increasing soil fertility, cleaning oil spill (super bug), treatment of sewage and solid waste, recovery of metals (bioleaching), monitoring pollution generating biofuel, etc.

2. Environmental modulation. It includes some animals and plants which influence and modulate the environment directly and indirectly. Such animals and plants are known as ecosystem engineers. One of these are keystone species whose extinction reduces abundance of other species in the community.

A well known example of ecosystem engineer is beaver (a mammal). It influence plant and animal communities and the entire biodiversity of watershed area by
(a) Creating dams using logs in river channels
(b) Modifying nutrient cycling
(c) Influencing decomposition dynamics.

3. Ecosystem functions and services Biodiversity plays a major role in many ecosystem services and functions such as replenishing oxygen through photosynthesis, pollination through bees, regulation of global climate, retention of rainwater in aquifers and reservoir, control of floods, etc.
Nature always key a check on these activities to maintain a state of equilibrium (homeostasis), which further helps in the sustainable development of resources. However, overexploitation of biolgical resources by humans leads to destabilisation of ecosystem balance.
For example,

• Decreased flora of an area leads to CO₂ increase in the atmosphere which causes temperature elevation of that area.
• Increased carnivore population decreases the herbivore population by predation which then increase the vegetation.
• Declined population of microflora prevents the recycling between complex organic matter and simple inorganic matter.

4. Ecotourism The diverse biological resource of a country motivates people from around the world to undertake recreational activities like tours to enjoy the diverse wildlife and charismatic landscape. In return the host country earns a large sum of foreign exchange as revenue.

Loss of Biodiversity

The loss of biodiversity is a global crisis. Extinction of species is a natural phenomenon aided by the physical changes in the environment. However, the accelerated rates of species extinctions, that the world is facing now are largely due to human activities.

Till now, five episodes of mass extinction of species have occured in the history of biological evolution. The sixth episode of extinction of species however, is credited to human activities, which otherwise would not have occurred.

According to IUCN estimates, 12259 species have become extinct since the time of origin of life on the earth. The major cause of the biodiversity losses are called drivers, which belong to two classes namely, direct and indirect.

Direct Drivers Factors

The directly influence the ecosystem processes which bring about the mass extinction of species.
The various processes associated with direct drivers includes

1. Habitat destruction and fragmentation Conversion of forest land for agriculture, development projects, mining operation, etc., leads to the destruction of the natural habitats of the organisms.
Indiscriminate agricultural practices involving use of chemical fertilisers and pesticides are potent factors
for the destruction of habitats. When a large population fragments into smaller ones there is more inbreeding and inbreeding pressure leading to population decline.

2. Overexploitation of natural resources Humans are dependent on nature for food and shelter, but when ‘need’ turns to ‘greed’, it leads to overexploitation.
To meet the need for increased housing, the natural habitats of animals and plants are being destroyed. This results in habitat loss and extinction of species. It has caused extinction of many species in last 500 years. In addition, indiscriminate hunting of wild animals has made their status in Red book as endangered or critically endangered.

3. Introduction of alien invasive species When alien species are intentionally or unintentionally introduced in a particular area, they might turn invasive and cause decline or extinction of endogenous species, e.g., Eichhornia is known as the ‘Terror of Bengal’. It was introduced as ornamental plants but it became wild in India because of invasiveness.

Similarly, Lantana and Parthenium were important due to their ornamental and food values, respectively but, they become wide spread due to favourable environmental conditions.

4. Climate change The global climate is changing, due to the anthropogenic activities like greenhouse gases and it has led to global warming. This is causing melting of glaciers, polar ice caps, etc. This may submerge low lying coastal habitats and also plants and animals are unable to adapt themselves to this change which is causing their elimination.

5. Environmental pollution It is another major factor for species extinction. Pollution may reduce and eliminate populations of sensitive species. Environmental pollution is most commonly caused by accumulation of non-biodegradeble wastes like plastics. Agricultural chemicals like pesticides enters the food chain and get deposited in the body of higher organisms. This effects the population of fish eating birds and falcons by disturbing their reproductive process.

Indirect Drivers
These influences or changes one or more the direct driver. They include

1. Population growth Rapid increase in human population causes loss of biodiversity becatise population explosion results in rapid growth of exploitation of natural resources such as water, food and minerals. If this trend of population growth continue, the resources will be depleted faster and most species will face the risk of extinction.
2. Income and lifestyle Today people’s income has increased tremendously which has led to more luxurious lifestyle of people. For leading this, they tend to use more and more of natural resources which causes pollution, degradation of environment and biodiversity loss.

Extinction of Species

In the history of earth many species have disappeared and new ones got evolved over million of years. The major threat to biodiversity is extinction of species Extinction is the total elimination or dying out of species (fossilisation) form the earth. As, we already know, the extinction of species is a natural process which accelerates due to human activities.

There are generally three types of extinction
1. Natural extinction It is a slow process of replacement of existing species with the better adapted species due to alternate evolution, changes in environmental condition, predation and diseases. Extinction of species occurs due to combination of genetic and demographic factors.

2. Mass extinction It occur due to catastrophes, which struck the earth several times. A mass extinction occurred about 225 million years ago in Permian period when 90% of shallow marine invertebrates disappeared.
Another mass extinction occurred between cretaceous and tertiary period over 60 million years ago when dinosaurs and a number of other organisms disappeared.

3.  Anthropogenic extinction These are extinction of organisms due to human activities like hunting, overexploitation and habitat destruction, e.g. dodo (Raphus cucullatus), Tasmanian wolf, etc. Anthropogenic extinction is causing a sixth extinction of species. It is 100-1000 times more faster than the rate of natural extinctions.

IUCN and Red List
IUCN is International Union of Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources which is now called World Conservation Union (WCU). It has its headquarters at Morges, Switzerland. IUCN maintains a Red Data Book (RDB) or Red List which is a catalogue of taxa facing risk of extinction. Red Data Book was initiated in 1963.
The purpose of red list is to

(i) Provide awareness to the degree of threat to biodiversity.
(ii) Provide global index about already declined of biodiversity.
(iii) Identification and documentation of species at high risk of extinction.
(iv) Preparing conservation priorities and help in conservation plan.
(v) Information about international agreements like conservation on biological diversity and CITES (Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species) of Wild Fauna and Flora.

The IUCN Red List 2004 has recorded a total loss of 784 species in the last 500 years. These include 733 animals (mostly vertebrates and molluscs), 110 plants and one red alga. The extinction of dodo in Mauritius, quagga in Africa were notable extinctions in the recent years.

The species that became extinct in 2003 was the plant Nesiota elliptica, St. Helena Olive (a small tree in Saint Helena Island) in the South Atlantic Ocean. The IUCN red list of threatened species founded in 1964, is the worlds most comprehensive inventory of global conservation status of biological species.The IUCN Red List has listed 132 species of plants and animals from India as ‘Critically Endangered’.

Red List assign categories to each species. These are as follows

1. Extinct A taxon is extinct when there is no reasonable doubt that its last individual has died, e.g. dodo, Indian cheetah.
2. Extinct in the Wild (EW) A number of domesticated animals and plants have become extinct in the wild. A taxon is extinct in the wild when it is known to survive only under cultivation.
3. Critically Endangered (CR) A taxon is critically , endangered when it is facing an extremely high risk of extinction in the wild in immediate future (925 animals and 1014 plants), e.g, One horned rhinoceros.
4. Endangered (EN) A taxon is endangered when it is not critically endangered, but facing a very high risk of extinction in the wild in near future, e.g, Giant panda and polar bear.
5. Vulnerable (VU) A taxon is vulnerable when it is not critically endangered or endangered, but it is facing a high risk of extinction in the wild in the medium term future, e.g. sparrow.
6. Threatened Species is the one which is liable to become extinct if not allowed to realise its full biotic potential by providing protection from the exotic species, e.g. in black buck.
7. Low Risk (LR) A taxon is at low risk when evaluated, it does not qualify for any of the categories like critically endangered, endangered or vulnerable.
8. Data Deficient (DD) A taxon is data deficient when there is inadequate information to make a direct or indirect assessment of its risk of extinction based on its distribution or population status.
9. Not Evaluated (NE) A taxon is under the category of not evaluated, when it has not yet been assessed against above criteria.

Biodiversity is directly or indirectly involved in maintaining the well-being of human society. Thus, scientists have classified the values of diversity as ecosystem goods, i.e., natural products harvested from ecosystems and directly used by humans and ecosystem services, involving different ecosystem processes which indirectly benefit human life.

Biodiversity Conservation:

The protection, uplift and scientific management of biodiversity at its optimum level for present and future generations is known as biodiversity conservation.
The International Union for Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources (IUCN) or World Conservation Union, World Wide Fund for Nature (WWF), Food and Agricultural Organisation (FAO) and United Nations Educational Scientific and Cultural_Organisation (UNESCO) formed the world conservation strategy in 1980 for the conservation and sustainable use of biological resources. For this, two major types of conservation strategies were framed. These are

1. In situ (On-site) Conservation:
It involves the to protection of plants, animals and microorganisms within their natural ecosystems. The i in situ conservation is the most effective way of protecting the species and improving the quality of the habitat they live in. The in situ approach is preferable because of the fact that not much diversity can be conserved outside the centres of diversity.

Biodiversity at all its levels can be conserved in situ by comprehensive system of protected areas such as the national parks, wildlife sanctuaries, natural reserves, natural monuments, cultural landscapes, biosphere reserves, wetlands, etc. So far, in situ practice is considered most effective method of protecting and propagating the species and improving the quality of their habitats.

2. Ex situ (Off-site) Conservation:
It refers to conservation of biological diversity outside the boundaries of their natural habitats by perpetuating sample population in genetic resource centres, e.g. zoos, botanical gardens, culture collections, etc., or in the form of gene pools and gametes storage for fish, germplasm banks for seeds, pollen, semen, ova, cell, etc. Zoos also help in captive breeding of organisms which are endangered, whereas botanical gardens have seed gene banks, tissue culture labs and other technologies for storing and growing germplasm.

Biodiversity Preservation Methods and Sites

A protected area, as defined by IUCN, is an area (either land or sea) especially dedicated for the protection and maintenance of biological diversity through legal and ‘ other effective ways. IUCN has classified protected area into six different types. Some of these protected areas are, discussed below

National Parks:
India’s first National Park (IUCN category-II protected area) was Hailey National Park, now known as Jim Corbett National Park, established in 1935. According to National Wildlife Database, there were 103 National parks in India as in April, 2015. A national park is an area maintained by government and dedicated to conserve the environment, natural and historical objects and the wildlife therein. Operations such as plantation, cultivation, grazing forestry are not allowed in national parks. Private ownership rights and habitat manipulation are also prohibited. IUCN (1975) has adopted following keypoints to define a national park.

1. A national park is a relatively large area reserved for the betterment of the wildlife. The habitats of native plant and animals becomes the site of scientific, educational and recreative interests along with maintenance of its aesthetic values.
   Since, human intervention is nil or limited, the operating ecosystem remains unaltered and conserved.
2. It is also defined as an area where the highest authority take measures to prevent exploitation and enforce conservation measures.
3. A place where visitors are permitted to enter only in special conditions like inspirational, cultural and recreative purposes.
   

Hotspots of Biodiversity:
The concept of hotspot was given by Norman Myers in 1988. Hotspots are areas that are extremely rich in species diversity, have high endemism and are under constant threat. There are 34 hotspots which cover less than 2% of earth land area of the world. In these sites nearly 75% population of world’s most threatened mammals, birds and amphibians, approximately 50% plants and 42% land vertebrates are conserved (Conservation International, 2003).

According to Myers, the key criteria for an area to be assigned as biodiversity hotspot are

• It must contain atleast 0.5% or 1,500 of the world’s 3,00,000 species of vascular plants as endemics.
• It should have lost atleast 70% of its primary vegetation.

Tropical forests appear in 15 hotspots, Mediterranean – type zones in 5, 9 hotspots are mainly or completely made up of islands and 16 hotspots are in the tropics. About 20 % of the human population lives in the hotspot regions.

Tropical Andes hotspot has 20,000 endemic plants and 1567 vertebrates and it is at the top of the list. Four regions of India that fulfills the criteria of hotspots are The Western Ghats and Sri Lanka, The Eastern Himalayas, Indo-Burma (North-Eastern India South of Brahmaputra river)and Sundarland (Nicobar Islands). These sites are also known as Gade of speciation.

The Western Ghats are a chain of hills that lies parallel to the Western coast of peninsular India. These regions have moist deciduous forest and rain forest and have high species diversity and high levels of endemism. Nearly 77% of the amphibians and 62% of the reptile species found here are found nowhere else. Over 6000 vascular plants of over 2500 genera are found in this hotspot, of which over 3000 are endemic.

Much of the world’s species like black pepper and cardamom have their origins in the Western Ghats. It also harbors over 450 bird species, about 140 mammalian species, 260 reptiles and 175 amphibians. Over 60% of the reptiles and amphibians are completely endemic to this hotspot.

The Eastern Himalayan hotspot has approximately 163 globally threatened species including the one-horned rhinoceros, the Wild Asian Water buffalo and in all 45 mammals, 50 birds, 17 reptiles, 12 amphibians, 3 invertebrate and 36 plant species.
Thus, hotspots are the most precious sites for biodiversity conservation and should be protected from exploitation.

Wildlife Sanctuary:
It is IUCN category IV of protected area. A wildlife sanctuary can be established by a gazette notification from the State Forest Department, where protection is provided to vulnerable, endangered and critically endangered wild animals life. Operations such as procuring timber and minor forest products and private ownership are allowed provided they do not cause any adverse effects on the animals. Till 2015, there were 520 wildlife sanctuaries in India, covering 122867.34 km2 (3.74%) of land in India. The state of Odisha has 19 wildlife sanctuaries, which are listed below

Biosphere Reserve:
These are large tracts of protected land used for preserving the genetic diversity of an ecosystem by preserving wildlife. The creation of biosphere reserves was initiated in 1975 under the Man and Biosphere (MAB) programme of UNESCO. It is category V protected area designated by IUCN. Today, India has 18 biosphere reserves, some of which are also included under National Parks and Odisha has a share of one in Simlipal.

Each biosphere reserve integrates human activities and has following zonation

1. Core zone Strictly protected.
2. Buffer zone Sustainable and recreation activities allowed.
3. Transition zone Anthropogenic activities like research and sustainable development allowed.
4. Zone of human encroachment Normal anthropogenic activities allowed.

Out of 18 biosphere reserves, 8 of them are a part of world network of Biosphere Reserves based on MAB Programme of UNESCO.

The objectives of this programme are

• Conserving representative samples of ecosystems.
• In situ conservation of genetic diversity.
• Facilitating basic and applied research in ecology and environmental biology on site.
• Create opportunities for environmental education k and training.
• Promoting and creating awareness about sustainable management of living resources.
• Promoting international cooperation.

Therefore, the biosphere reserves have three junctions, that includes

• Conservation of ecosystems and genetic variations.
• Promotion of sustainable economic and human development.
• They serve as examples of education and training local, regional, national and international issues of sustainable development.

A protected area to be declared as a biosphere reserve should have the following essential features

• Abundant genetic diversity should be present.
• It should be unique in itself.
• The area should be legally protected for long term.
• Appropriate size for effective maintenance of natural populations so that there is no genetic drift.
• Sufficient natural resource available for ecological research, education and training. It should be a natural home for the endangered species of plants and animals.

Odisha State Board CHSE Odisha Class 12 Biology Solutions Chapter 5 Heredity and Variation Textbook Questions and Answers.

CHSE Odisha 12th Class Biology Chapter 4 Question Answer Heredity and Variation

Heredity and Variation Class 12 Questions and Answers CHSE Odisha

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Multiple choice questions

Question 1.
The experimental plant material used by Mendel was
(a) cowpea
(b) garden pea
(c) wild pea
(d) sweet pea
Answer:
(b) garden pea

Question 2.
Which of the following characters is not among the seven characters considered by Mendel for his hybridisation experiments?
(a) Seed colour
(b) Pod shape
(c) Flower position
(d) Flower shape
Answer:
(d) Flower shape

Question 3.
Which law Mendel would not have proposed, if the phenomenon of linkage was known to him?
(a) Law of unit character
(b) Law of dominance
(c) Law of segregation
(d) Law of independent assortment
Answer:
(d) Law of independent assortment

Question 4.
The number of genotypes produced in F2-generation in Mendel’s monohybrid cross was
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
Answer:
(c) 3

Question 5.
In which of the crosses, half of the offsprings show dominant phenotype?
(a) Tt × Tt
(b) TT × tt
(c) Tt × tt
(d) TT × TT
Answer:
(c) Tt × tt

Question 6.
Two allelic genes are located on the
(a) same chromosome
(b) two homologous chromosomes
(c) two non-homologous chromosomes
(d) any two different chromosomes
Answer:
(b) two homologous chromosomes

Question 7.
Red (RR) Antirrhinum is crossed with white (rr) one. The F₁-hybrid is pink. This is an example of
(a) complete dominance
(b) codominance
(c) incomplete dominance
(d) complete recessive
Answer:
(c) incomplete dominance

Question 8.
In a dihybrid cross in F₂-generation, the parental types are far greater in number than the recombinants. This is due to
(a) linkage
(b) incomplete dominance
(c) multiple allelism
(d) complete dominance
Answer:
(a) linkage

Express in one or two word(s)

1. A pair of Mendelian factors (genes) that appear at a particular location on a particular chromosome and control the same characteristic.
Answer:
Alleles

2. Phenomenon where in the heterozygous condition an intermediate phenotype is observed.
Answer:
Incomplete dominance

3. The phenomenon of a single gene contributing to multiple phenotypic traits.
Answer:
Pleiotropy .

4. Genes which move together and do not show independent assortment.
Answer:
Linked gene

5. A cross between the F₁-hybrids with any one of the homozygous parents.
Answer:
Back cross

Correct the sentences, if required, by changing the underlined word (s) only

1. The process of transmission of characters through generations is known as variation.
Answer:
inheritance

2. In Mendel’s monohybrid cross, the dwarf phenotype is always homozygous.
Answer:
Correct statement

3. In Mendel’s dihybrid cross in F₂-generation, nine phenotypes are produced.
Answer:
four

4. The phenomenon of linkage disproved the principle of independent assortment.
Answer:
Correct statement

5. In a test cross, always dominant parent is used.
Answer:
recessive

6. The distance between genes in a constructed gene map is expressed as Mendel unit.
Answer:
Morgan

Fill in the blanks

1. Monohybrid cross in Regeneration yields ____ number of phenotypes.
Answer:
two

2. Monohybrid cross in Regeneration yields ____ number of genotypes.
Answer:
three

3. The name of scientist often coined with linkage is ____ .
Answer:
TH Morgan

4. Genotype of a plant showing the dominant phenotype can be determined by ____ cross.
Answer:
test

5. In a cross between AaBB and aaBB, the genotypic ratio in Ft-generation will be ____ .
Answer:
1 : 1

Short Answer Type Questions

Write notes on the following

Question 1.
Law of independent assortment
Answer:
It states that when two pairs of traits are combined in a hybrid, segregation of one pair of traits is independent to the other pair of traits. As in the dihybrid cross of Mendel the presence of new combinations, i.e. round-green and wrinkled-yellow suggests that the genes for shape of seed and colour of seed are assorted independently. The results (9:3:3:1), indicate that yellow and green seeds appear in the ratio of 9+3 : 3+1 = 3:1.
Similarly, the round and wrinkled seeds appear in the ratio of9 + 3:3+1 = 3:1.

This indicates that each of the two pairs of alternative characters viz yellow-green cotyledon colour is inherited independent of the round-wrinkled characters of the cotyledons. It means that at the time of gamete formation the factor for yellow colour enters the gametes ” independent of R or r, i.e. gene Y can be passed on to the gametes either with gene R or r.

Question 2.
Multiple alleles
Answer:
Multiple allelism and Inheritance of Blood Groups:
Each gene has alternative forms or allelomorphs. For example, the genes for rail and dwarf characters of pea plant arc ailcics or allelomorphs. Here, former is called normal or wild type and Iatcr as mutant type.
Sometimes, there may no be any aiternative form such mutation that results in complete elimination of a gene is known as null mutation. Sometimes silent mutation occurs in which mutation does not have any effect of all.

These mutations occur in wild gene in any direction with a possibility of formation of many alternative alleles. Some genes may occur in more than two allelic forms, i.e. a gene can mutate several times to produce several alternative expressions such genes are called multiple alleles.

Question 3.
Chromosomal basis of inheritance
Answer:
It was proposed independently by Walter Sutton and Theodore Boyen in 1902. They united the knowledge of chromosomal segregation with Mendelian principles and called it chromosornal theory of inheritance.
According to this theory

• All hereditary characters must be with sperms and egg cells as they provide bridge from one generation to the other.
• The hereditary factors must be carried by the nuclear material.
• Chromosomes are also found in pairs like the Mendelian alleles.
• The two alleles of a gene pair are located on homologous sites on the homologous chromosomes.

Question 4.
Codominance
Answer:
Codominance:
It is the phenomenon in which two alleles express themselves independently when present together in an organism. In other words, it is the phenomenon in which offspring shows resemblance to both the parents,
e.g. ABO blood grouping in humans.

Question 5.
Incomplete dominance
Answer:
Incomplete Dominance:
It is a phenomenon in which phenotype of the F₁-hybrid offsprings does not resemble any of the parent, but is an intermediate between the expression of two alleles in their homozygous state. Carl Correns was the one who reported incomplete dominance in plant Mirabilis jalapa. He showed the petal colour inheritance in this plant. Here, the phenotypic ratio deviates from Mendel’s monohybrid ratio but the parental characters reappear in F₂-generation.

Question 6.
Law of segregation
Answer:
This principle states that, though the parents contain two alleles during gamete formation, the factors or alleles of a pair segregate from each other, such that a gamete receives only one of the two factors. Hence, the alleles do not show any blending and both the characters are recovered as such in the F₂-generation though one of these is not seen in the F₁-generation.

Question 7.
Linkage
Answer:
The genes of a particular chromosome show the tendency to inherit together. This phenomenon of genic inheritance in which genes of a particular chromosome show their tendency to inherit together, i.e tendency to retain their parental combination even in the offsprings is known as linkage.

Question 8.
Recombination
Answer:
They attributed this due to physical association of the two genes and coined the term ‘linkage’ to describe this physical association of genes on a chromosome and the term ‘recombination’ to describe the generation of non-parental gene combinations. Morgan performed a test cross by crossing heterozygous grey-bodied and long-winged with homozygous recessive black-bodied and vestigial-winged fly

Question 9.
Test cross
Answer:
A special back cross to the recessive parent is known as test cross. This method was devised by Mendel to determine whether the dominant phenotype is homozygous or heterozygous.

For example, in a monohybrid cross between violet colour flower (W) and white colour flower (w), the F₁-hybrid was a violet colour flower. If all the F₁-progenies are of violet colour, then the dominant flower is homozygous and if the progenies are in 1:1 ratio, then the dominant flower is heterozygous.

Question 10.
Back cross
Answer:
Back cross is a cross of F₁ -progeny back to one of their parents. In back cross, there can be two possibilities, i.e. F₁ -hybrid to be crossed with homozygous dominant parent or with homozygous recessive parent.

Differentiate between the following

Question 1.
Homozygous and Heterozygous
Answer:
Differences between homozygous and heterozygous are as follows

Homozygous	Heterozygous
It is a condition when both alleles of a gene are similar.	It is a condition when both alleles of a gene are dissimilar.
The genotype is expressed as TT or tt.	The genotype expressed as Tt.
They are true breeding to purelines.	They are not true breeding.
The gametes produced by them are similar in genotype.	The gametes produced by them are of two types, one with dominant allele and other with recessive allele.

Question 2.
Genotype and Phenotype.
Differences between phenotype and genotype are as follows
Answer:

Phenotype	Genotype
It refers to observable traits or characters.	It refers to the genetic constitution of an individual.
It results from expression of genes.	It constitutes single gene pair or sum total of all the genes.
The phenotypic ratio of Mendel’s monohybrid cross is 3 : 1.	The genotypic ratio of Mendel’s monohybrid cross is 1:2:1.
It may change with age and environment.	It remains the same throughout the life of an individual.

Question 3.
Dominant genes and Recessive genes.
Answer:
Differences between dominant genes and recessive genes are as follows

Dominant genes	Recessive genes
When an allele expresses itself in the presence of its recessive allele, it is called dominant trait.	It can only express in the absence of its dominant allele and remain masked in its presence.
Dominant allele forms a complete functional enzyme due to which complete polyeptide is formed to express.	Recessive allele forms incomplete polypeptide enzyme due to which non-functionai polypetide is formed and fails to express completely.

Question 4.
Back cross and Test cross.
Answer:
Differences between back cross and test cross are as follows

Back cross	Test cross
It is a cross involving F1-progeny and either of the parents.	It is a cross involving
It is used by scientists to improve a breed or variety of plant or animal.	F1-individual and its recessive parent.

Question 5.
Qualitative inheritance and Quantitative inheritance.
Answer:
Differences between qualitative inheritance and quantitative inheritance are as follows

Qualitative inheritance	Quantitative inheritance
It deals with the inheritance of qualitative characters.	It deals with the inheritance of quantitative characters.
Each character is controlled by one pair of contrasting alleles.	Each character is controlled by more than one pair of non-allelic genes (Polygenes).
Each character has two distinct expressions, i.e. exhibits two distinct phenotypes.	Each character has an intergrading range of phenotypes.
The degree of expression remains the same whether the character is controlled by one or both the dominant genes.	The degree of expression depends on the number of the dominant genes.
Phenotypic expression is not affected by the environment.	Phenotypic expression is influenced by environmental factors.
Monogenic inheritance exhibits discontinuous pattern of inheritance.	Polygenic inheritance represents continuous pattern of inheritance.
F1-individuals resemble the dominant parent.	F1-individuals exhibit intermediate expression between the two parents.
F2-individuals exhibit 3:1 ratio. Intermediate expressions are not found.	In F2-generation, individuals with intermediate genotype and phenotype are maximum.
Examples of monogenic or qualitative inheritance are yellow or green coat color or round or wrinkled seed character in pea seeds.	Examples of polygenic or quantitative inheritance are height, weight, intelligence and skin color in human beings, milk yield in cattle and egg production in poultry.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Give an account of Mendel’s monohybrid cross. What inference did Mendel draw from this experiment?
Answer:
Monohybrid Cross
The study of inheritance of a single pair of alleles or factors of a trait at a time (monohybrid cross) is called one gene inheritance. When a cross is made between pure tall and pure dwarf plant (for purity, the pureline is taken into consideration) in F₁-generation, all plants will be tall.

When F₁ -plants are self-pollinated, then in F₂-generation both tall and dwarf plants are found in approximate ratio of 3 : 1.

The dwarf plants of F₂ on self-pollination, produce dwarf plants generation after generation, while among tall plants, only 1 /3rd show this character generation after generation (pureline) and rest 2/3rd produce tall and dwarf in 3 : 1 ratio again (F₃ -generation).

Explanation Mendel’s monohybrid cross explained that in each main pair of alternative character one is expressed and other is masked.
The character which is expressed in F₁-generation is called dominant and the one which is not expressed is called recessive.

The monohybrid cross between tail and dwarf

In F₂-generation, the genotypic ratio is 1 : 2 : 1 and phenotypic ratio is 3 : 1. Mendel came to the conclusion that progeny possessing similar factors is called homozygous and the one which is hybrid is called heterozygous.

Mendel used english letters to record his observations of breeding experiments. He assigned capital letters for dominant characters and small letters for recessive characters which tabulated in the given below table

Characters	Dominant	Recessive
Seed shape	Round (R)	Wrinkled (r)
Seed colour	Yellow (Y)	Green (y)
Pod shape	Full (F)	Constricted (f)
Pod colour	Green (G)	Yellow (g)
Flower/Pod position	Axial (A)	Terminal (a)
Seed coat colour/Flower colour	Red/Violet (R/V)	White (r/v)
Plant height	Tall (T)	Dwarf (t)

Based on his observations on monohybrid crosses, Mendel proposed two general rules in order to consolidate his understanding of inheritance in monohybrid crosses.

Based on the Mendel’s observations, the German scientist Carl Correns formulated certain principles of heredity. These now known as Mendel’s laws of inheritance or the principles or laws of inheritance.
These are
Principle of Dominance:
It states that when two contrasting alleles for a character come together in an organism, only one is expressed completely and shows visible effect. This allele is called dominant and the other allele of the pair which does not express and remains hidden is called recessive.

For example, in the monohybrid cross when dwarf plant is crossed with tall plant, the Frgeneration are all tall plants. This shows that allele for tallness is dominant.

Question 2.
State and explain Mendel’s laws of inheritance.
Answer:
Following inferences were made by Mendel based on his observations
1. He proposed that some ‘factors’ passed down from parent to offsprings through the gametes over successive generations. Now-a-days, these factors are known as genes. Genes are hence, the units of inheritance. Genes which code for a pair of contrasting traits are known as alleles or allelomorphs, i.e. they are slightly different forms of the same gene.

2. Genes occur in pairs in which, one dominates the other called as the dominant factor or the gene which expresses itself, while the other remains hidden and is called recessive factor.

3. Allele can be similar in case of homozygous (TT or tt) and dissimilar in case of heterozygous (Tt).

4. In a true-breeding tall or dwarf pea variety, the allelic pair of genes for height are identical or homozygous.

5. TT and tt are called genotype (sum total of heredity or genetic make up) of the plant, while the term tall and dwarf are the phenotype.

6. When tall and dwarf plants produce gametes by process of meiosis, the alleles of the parental pair segregate and only one of the alleles gets transmitted to a gamete. Thus, there is only 50% chance of a gamete containing either allele, as the segregation is a random process.

7. During fertilisation, the two alleles, ‘T’ from one parent and V from other parent are united to produce a zygote, that has one ‘T’ and one allele or the hybrids have Tt.

8. Since, these hybrids contain alleles which express contrasting traits, the plants are heterozygous.

Question 3.
What do you mean by back cross and test cross? Explain test cross through an example.
Answer:
Back cross is a cross of F₁ -progeny back to one of their parents. In back cross, there can be two possibilities, i.e. F₁ -hybrid to be crossed with homozygous dominant parent or with homozygous recessive parent.

A special back cross to the recessive parent is known as test cross. This method was devised by Mendel to determine whether the dominant phenotype is homozygous or heterozygous.

For example, in a monohybrid cross between violet colour flower (W) and white colour flower (w), the F₁-hybrid was a violet colour flower. If all the F₁-progenies are of violet colour, then the dominant flower is homozygous and if the progenies are in 1:1 ratio, then the dominant flower is heterozygous.

Question 4.
Describe Mendel’s dihybrid cross.
Answer:
When two or more than two characters are taken in a cross it is called as polyhybrid cross, e.g. dihybrid cross, trihybrid cross, etc. A dihybrid cross is a cross involving two pairs of contrasting characters. For example, when a cross is made between yellow-round and wrinkled green seeds (both pureline homozygous), plants with only yellow round seeds are seen in F₁-generation but in F₁-generation, four types of combinations are observed.

Two of these combinations are similar to the parental combinations and others are new combinations. These are round green and wrinkled yellow.
The cross can be seen as shown in the figure

Phenotypic Ratio Round yellow : Round green : Wrinkled yellow : Wrinkled green = 9 : 3 : 3 : 1
Genotypic Ratio 1 : 2 :2 : 4 : 1 : 2 : 1 : 2 : 1

The ratio of four combinations in F₂-generation comes out to be 9 (round, yellow) : 3 (round, green) : 3 (wrinkled, yellow) : 1 (wrinkled, green). This ratio is called phenotypic dihybrid ratio. Phenotypic ratio of dihybrid test cross is 1 : 1 : 1 : 1.

Mendel’s Postulate Based on Dihybrid Cross:
Based on the result obtained from dihybrid crosses or two gene interaction, Mendel proposed the fourth postulate, i.e. law of independent assortment.

Question 5.
Give an account of linkage and recombination.
Answer:
Linkage, Crossing Over and Recombination:
According to ‘chromosomal theory of inheritance’, the chromosomes are vehicles of inheritance. Hence, the number of genes per individual for exceed the number of chromosomal pairs, i.e. each chromosome bears many genes. These genes are arranged in linear fashion over the chromosome and cannot show independent assortment.

In other words, we can say that the genes of a particular chromosome show the tendency to inherit together. This phenomenon of genic inheritance in which genes of a particular chromosome show their tendency to inherit together, i.e tendency to retain their parental combination even in the offsprings is known as linkage.

Morgan and his group observed in Drosophila that when the two genes in a dihybrid cross were situated on the same chromosome, the proportion of parental gene combinations were much higher than the non-parental type.

They attributed this due to physical association of the two genes and coined the term ‘linkage’ to describe this physical association of genes on a chromosome and the term ‘recombination’ to describe the generation of non-parental gene combinations. Morgan performed a test cross by crossing heterozygous grey-bodied and long-winged with homozygous recessive black-bodied and vestigial-winged fly. They obtained the following results

Phenotype	Per cent of occurrence
Grey body long wing	41.5
Black body vestigial wing	41.5
Grey body vestigial wing	8.5
Black body long wing	8.5

This result was not in accordance with Mendel’s law of inheritance. Now suppose in order to explain, we assume the alphabets G and g for grey and black body colours and L and 1 for long and vestigial wings, respectively.

Thus, linkage is a phenomenon of genic inheritance in which genes of a particular chromosome show their tendency to inherit together.
Morgan and his group also found that even when genes were grouped on the same chromosome, some genes were tightly linked, i.e. linkage is stronger between two genes, if the frequency of recombination is low (cross-A). Whereas, the frequency of recombination is higher, if genes are loosely linked, i.e. linkage is weak between two genes (cross-B) as given in figure


Linkage : Results of two dihybrid crosses conducted by Morgan. Cross ‘A’ shows crossing between genes y and w ; Cross ‘B’ shows crossing between genes w and m. Here, dominant wild type alleles are represented with (+) sign in superscript

Those traits present on same chromosome, which do not show any production of recombinants are completely linked which is known as complete linkage and it is very rare.

Linkage Groups:
All the genes linked together in a single chromosome constitute a linkage group. The number of linkage group in an organism is equal to their haploid number of chromosomes. This hypothesis was proved by TH Morgan by his experiments on Drosophila.

Morgan and his group hybridised yellow-bodied and white-eyed females with brown-bodied and red-eyed males (wild type) and intercrossed their F₁-progeny (cross A). It was observed that the two genes did not segregate independently of each other and the F₂-ratios deviated significantly from 9:3:3 :1 ratio.

In F₂-generation, parental combinations were 98.7% and the recombinants were 1.3%. In another cross (cross-B), between white-bodied female fly with miniature wing and a male fly with yellow body and normal wing, parental combinations were 62.8% and recombinants were 37.2% in F₂-generation. Thus, it was proved from the crosses that the linkage between genes for yellow body and white eyes is stronger than the linkage between the white body and miniature wing.

Chromosome Maps or Linkage Maps:
Alfred Sturtevant (Morgan’s student) used the frequency of recombination between gene pairs on the same chromosome as a measure of the .distance between genes and ‘mapped’ their position on the chromosome. Genetic maps are now used as a starting point in the sequencing of whole genomes as done in case of human genome sequencing project.

The frequency of recombination Cross Over Value (COV) is calculated by using the formula

A linkage or genetic chromosome map is a linear graphic representation of the sequence and relative distances of the various genes present in a chromosome. 1% crossing over between two linked genes is known as 1 map unit or Morgan (after TH Morgan, who is considered as ‘Father of Experimental Genetics’).

Odisha State Board CHSE Odisha Class 12 Biology Solutions Chapter 15 Ecosystem Textbook Questions and Answers.

CHSE Odisha 12th Class Biology Chapter 15 Question Answer Ecosystem

Ecosystem Class 12 Questions and Answers CHSE Odisha

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Multiple choice questions

Question 1.
Forests represent …………. ecosystem.
(a) aquatic
(b) terrestrial
(c) estuarian
(d) grassland
Answer:
(b) terrestrial

Question 2.
Decomposers are generally ……………..
(a) green plants
(b) microorganisms
(c) phytoplanktons
(d) insects
Answer:
(b) microorganisms

Question 3.
Man is a ……………..
(a) herbivore
(b) carnivore
(c) omnivore
(d) producer
Answer:
(c) omnivore

Question 4.
Ecological efficiency is less than …………….. per cent.
(a) 1
(b) 10
(c) 5
(d) 0.5
Answer:
(d) 0.5

Question 5.
The efficiency for energy transfer from one trophic level to another is nearly …………….. per cent.
(a) 1
(b) 10
(c) 5
(d) 20
Answer:
(b) 10

Question 6.
Pyramid of …………….. cannot be inverted.
(a) energy
(b) biomass
(c) number
(d) ecosystems
Answer:
(a) energy

Question 7.
Succession that starts at …………….. habitat is called hydrosere.
(a) sandy
(b) rocky
(c) aquatic
(d) xeric
Answer:
(c) aquatic

Question 8.
Succession that starts at sandy habitat is called …………….. .
(a) halosere
(b) lithosere
(c) psammosere
(d) hydrosere
Answer:
(c) psammosere

Express in one or two words

Question 1.
What can be called primary consumers?
Answer:
Herbivores

Question 2.
What is called to decomposers living on dead, decaying substratum?
Answer:
Saprophytes

Question 3.
Through which process is energy lost from living organisms?
Answer:
Respiration

Question 4.
Which type of ecological pyramid is never inverted?
Answer:
Pyramid of energy

Question 5.
What is called to the process of creation of bare area?
Answer:
Nudation

Question 6.
What is the form of climax forest called?
Answer:
Dense climax forest

Correct the statement, in each bit without changing the underlined words

Question 1.
Pond represents a forest ecosystem.
Answer:
Pond represents an aquatic ecosystem.

Question 2.
Ecosystem has structural and energy aspects.
Answer:
Ecosystem has structural and functional aspects.

Question 3.
Biogeochemical cycle may be otherwise called energy cycle.
Answer:
Biogeochemical cycle may be otherwise called nutrient cycle.

Question 4.
All heterotrophs are capable of photosynthesis.
Answer:
All autotrophs are capable of photosynthesis.

Question 5.
Animals are responsible for utilising dead, decaying substances, thereby cycling of materials becomes feasible.
Answer:
Microbes are responsible for utilising dead, decaying substances, thereby degrade detritus into smaller particles.

Question 6.
Flow of nutrients is unidirectional.
Answer:
Flow of energy is unidirectional.

Question 7.
Net primary productivity is calculated by taking into consideration gross primary productivity and photosynthesis.
Answer:
Net primary productivity is calculated by taking into consideration gross primary productivity and respiration loses.

Question 8.
Food-chain shows a complicated net-like inter-relationship in trophic levels.
Answer:
Food web shows a complicated net-like inter-relationship in trophic levels.

Question 9.
Pyramid of biomass takes into consideration the number of organisms in each trophic level.
Answer:
Pyramid of biomass takes into consideration total weight of organisms in each trophic level.

Question 10.
Pyramid of energy is always inverted.
Answer:
Pyramid of energy can never be inverted.

Question 11.
A stable community shows high species dominance.
Answer:
A stable community shows less species dominance.

Question 12.
Primary succession starts where there was living matter previously.
Answer:
Primary succession starts on a substratum where there was no living matter previously.

Fill in the blanks

Question 1.
Green plants are called …………… as they fix CO₂.
Answer:
autotrophs

Question 2.
In forest ecosystem, pyramid of number is ………….. type.
Answer:
inverted

Question 3.
Common decomposers form ………… ecosystem.
Answer:
Detritivorous

Question 4.
Secondary products are called ………… in a food chain.
Answer:
Detritus

Question 5.
The second trophic level in pond is …………….
Answer:
herbivores

Short Answer Type Questions

Write short notes on each of the following

Question 1.
Ecosystem
Answer:
An ecosystem is a basic functional unit that includes the whole community in a given area (biotic component) interacting with the abiotic factors.
Ecosystem is normally an open system because there is a continuous gain and loss of energy and materials from this system.
The term ecosystem’ was first used by AG Tansley in 1935 to describe the whole complex of organisms living together as sociological units and their habitats.
The ecosystem is also called as biocoenosis (Mobius; 1877), microcosm (Forbes; 1887) and biogeocoenosis (Sukachey). It is also known as ecocosm or biosystem.

Question 2.
Ecesis
Answer:
Ecesis It is successful germination of propagules into the bare area. The germination of seeds and spores produces new seedlings or new plants. As a result, some individuals of a species successfully get established in the bare area.

Question 3.
Ecological pyramid
Answer:
These are the diagrammatic illustrations of connection between different trophic levels in terms of energy, biomass and number of organisms. They represent the standing crops at each trophic level.

The base of each pyramid represents the producers or the first trophic Level and its apex represents tertiary or top level consumers. There are three ecological pyramids that are usually studied.

Question 4.
Food web
Answer:
Food web is the network of food chains which become interconnected at various trophic levels. In any complex food web, one can recognise several different trophic levels. In a food web, a given species may occupy more than one trophic level.
The complexity of food web is in direct relation with the stability of the ecosystem. Such type of ecosystem is not destroyed naturally and is sustained for a long time.

Question 5.
Plant succession
Answer:
Plant Succession
The process of changes in the habitat accompanied by the change of vegetation, one after the another is called plant succession. Its basic concept lies in the fact that the interaction between the habitat and the plants colonising the habitat results in some changes in the climate which may not be suitable for the existing plant community.
Thus, new plant community evolves which can survive the changed environment and replace the old ones.

Question 6.
Phytoplankton
Answer:
Phytoplanktons are small aquatic plants that form first stage of hydrosere. They include green flagellates, green algae, blue-green algae, etc. Their death in water bodies build up the amount of organic matter. They contribute about 50% available oxygen in atmosphere.

Question 7.
Nudation
Answer:
This is a process by which a bare area is created. The reasons behind the creation of a bare area may be topographic (soil erosion, land slide, volcanic activity); – climatic (glaciers, storms, frost, fire, etc.) or biotic (anthropogenic activities like industrialisation, agriculture, etc.).

Question 8.
Food chain
Answer:
Types of Food Chain:
There are mainly two types of food chain
(i) Grazing Food Chain (GFC) It begins with the producers, which capture the solar energy and feed the energy into the food chain through
photosynthesis, e.g.

• Grass → Grasshopper → Frog → Snake → Eagle
• Grass (Producer) → Goat (Prirnazy consumer) → Man (Secondary consumer)

In an aquatic ecosystem, the GFC is the major channel for energy flow, e.g.
Phytoplanktons → Crustaceans → Fishes

(ii) Detritus Food Chain (DFC) It begins with dead organic matter and is made up of decomposers which are heterotrophic organisms, mainly fungi and bacteria.
Dead leaves (Producer) → Woodlouse (Primary consumer) → Black bird (Secondary consumer)

Question 9.
Climax forest
Answer:
Forest (climax) stage The climax vegetation of trees depends on the climate of the region. If the climate is dry, trees like Acacia grow. In relatively moist and wet climate, mesophytic trees grow and a dense climax forest is formed. Along with the changes in the plant life in a xerosere (as also in a hydrosere), there is also a change in the animal life. The colonisation starts with ants and spiders and goes upto a variety of arthropods, birds and mammals by the fime the climax community is formed.

Question 10.
Species diversity
Answer:
It is the measure of the diversity within an ecological community that incorporates both species richness that is, the number of species in a community and the evenness of the species abundance. A community is more stable when its species diversity is high.

Differentiate the following with at least 3 valid points

Question 1.
Parasite and Saprophyte
Answer:
Differences between parasites and saprophytes are as follows

Parasites	Saprophyte
They derive nutrition from the host body.	They derive nutrition from dead-decaying materials.
Their body is not well-developed with complete-lack of sense organs.	Their body is well-developed.

Question 2.
Producers and Consumers
Answer:
Differences between producers and consumers are as follows

Producers	Consumers
These are green plants who prepare food material in the presence of sunlight.	They are mostly animals who depend on plants or other animals for food.
They are called autotrophs.	They are called heterotrophs.
They form the first trophic level, e.g. green plants.	They form second or third trophic level, e.g. animals.

Question 3.
Food chain and Food web
Answer:
Differences between food chain and food web are as follows

Food chain	Food web
It is a single straight pathway through which food energy travels in the ecosystem.	It consists of number of interconnected food chains through which food energy passes in the ecosystem.
Members of higher trophic level feed upon a single type of organisms of lower trophic level.	Members of higher trophic level can feed upon a number of alternative organisms of the lower trophic levels.
The presence of separate or isolated food chains adds to the instability of the ecosystem.	The presence of food webs increases the stability of the ecosystem.
It does not add to adaptability and competitiveness of the organisms.	Food webs increase the adaptability and competitiveness of the organisms.
Only the members of one trophic level compete for obtaining the same food.	Competition is among members of different species. It is less severe as a number of alternate foods are available.

Question 4.
Herbivores and Predators
Answer:
Differences between herbivores and predators are as follows

Herbivores	Predators
They eat plants.	They eat flesh.
Body is comparatively weak.	Body is strong.
Canine teeth are absent, primolars are well-developed, e.g. cow.	Canines are well-developed for flesh cutting, e.g. lion.

Question 5.
Primary succession and Secondary succession
Answer:
Differences between primary succession and secondary succession are as follows

Primary succession	Secondary succession
It occurs in an area which has been bare from the beginning.	It occurs in an area which has been denuded recently.
Soil is absent at the time of beginning of primary succession.	Soil is present in the area where secondary succession begins.
There is no humus in the beginning.	Humus is present from the very beginning.
Reproductive structures of any previous community are absent.	Reproductive structures of the previous occupants are present in the area.
In the beginning the environment is very hostile.	The environment is favourable from the beginning.
Serai communities are many.	Serai communities are.a few.
It takes a long time for completion, 1000 years or more.	It takes less time for completion, 50-200 years.

Question 6.
Gross primary productivity and Net primary productivity
Answer:
Differences between gross primary productivity and net primary productivity are as follows

Gross primary productivity	Net primary productivity
It is the amount of organic matter synthesised by producers per unit area in unit time.	It is the amount of organic matter stored by producers per unit area in unit time.
It refers to the total productivity including the energy utilised for respiration by the producers.	It refers to the net productivity that is converted to organic matter excluding the energy utilised for respiration by the producers.
GPP=Rate of increase in body weight or rate of organic matter synthesised by producers + the rate of respiration and other damages.	NPP=Rate of organic matter synthesised by photosynthesis by producers= the rate of energy utilised for respiration and other damages.

Question 7.
Pyramid of biomass and Pyramid of numbers
Answer:
Differences between pyramid of biomass and pyramid of numbers are as follows

Pyramid of biomass	Pyramid of numbers
It represents the biomass of producers, consumers, first level carnivores, etc.	It helps to tell about the relative numbers of organisms at each of the 4 trophic levels-producers, consumers and two levels of predators in a forest or lake ecosystem.
It is generally pyramidal in shape, but appears inverted like in a pond ecosystem where phytoplanktons support a large number of zooplankton.	It may become inverted due to existence of parasites or when a single tree supports much smaller organisms.
Difficult to determine because it would be a time consuming job.	It is easy to determine.

Question 8.
Abiotic components and Biotic components
Answer:
Differences between biotic components and abiotic components are as follows

Biotic components	Abiotic components
They represent the living organisms present in an ecosystem.	They represent non-living structures and factors of the ecosystem.
Biotic components include producers, consumers and decomposers.	Abiotic components include inorganic nutrients, organic remains and physical factors.
They build up and utilise chemical energy for their functioning.	Species diversity and Species dominance Differences between species diversity and species dominance are as follows
For their body building, they obtain inorganic nutrients and energy from abiotic components.	They are influenced by physical form of energy as light and heat.

Question 9.
Species diversity and Species dominance
Answer:
Differences between species diversity and species dominance are as follows

Species diversity	Species dominance
It is the presence of different species in an area, hence, species richness is abundant.	It is the presence of single species in an area, hence species richness is negligible.
It forms a stable community.	It forms an unstable community.
Resources of community do not deplete due to the absence or very less competition among different species	Community resources deplete very fast due to competition with same species.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is ecosystem? Describe the different components of ecosystem.
Answer:
Ecosystem is considered as an interactive system, where biotic and abiotic components interact with each other via energy exchange and flow of nutrients. An ecosystem can be either natural or artificial. Natural ecosystems These are capable of maintaining and operating themselves, without the interference of man. They are further classified as

Artificial ecosystems These are maintained and manipulated by man for different purposes, e.g. cropland, aquarium, etc.

Ecosystem Components:
An ecosystem has two major components, abiotic (non-living) and biotic (living), which can be further classified as follows

Biotic Components
In order to survive and maintain themselves, living organisms require various nutrients. On the basis of nutritional requirement of an organism, they can be divided into three types of organisation as follows
(i) Producers
The self-productive (autotrophic) living components that manufacture organic molecules and living protoplasm by using the inorganic compounds from the surrounding are called producers.

These can be further divided into two types

1. Photoautotrophs They obtain energy from the sunlight by the process called photosynthesis, e.g. green plants, photosynthetic bacteria, etc.
2. Chemoautotrophs These are chemosynthetic organisms that utilise hydrogen sulphide (H₂S) and bond energy derived from inorganic components, e.g sulphur oxidizing bacteria (Beggiatoa).

(ii) Consumers
The heterotrophic organisms that directly or indirectly organic materials manufactured by autotrophs are called consumers. These can be further categorised as

1. Primary consumers They directly consume the organic compounds synthesised by autotrophs, e.g. mammalian herbivores (predators), insect herbivores (parasites), etc.
2. Secondary consumers They derive organic compounds by feeding upon herbivores and small carnivores, e.g. mammalian carnivores (predators).

(iii) Decomposers
The saprophytic organisms that breakdown organic waste products into inorganic substances are called decomposers. They play a vital role in nature as they convert complex chemicals to simpler forms, e.g. microorganisms found in rotten and decaying organic materials.

Abiotic Components :
These are the non-living components that are mostly found in the utilisable form. They can be further ‘divided as follows

• Inorganic nutrients They form physical environment, e.g. carbon (C), nitrogen (N), hydrogen (H), etc.
• Organic compounds They provide nutrients, e.g. soil.
• Environmental factors They provide energy, e.g. air, temperature, etc.

Interaction of biotic and abiotic components results in the formation of a functional structure that is an exclusive characteristic of each type of ecosystem.
The two important structural features of an ecosystem are

1. Species composition It is calculated by the identification and enumeration of plant and animal species of an ecosystem.
2. Stratification It is the vertical distribution of different species occupying different levels in an ecosystem, e.g. trees occupy top vertical strata or layer of a forest, shrubs the second and herbs and grasses occupy the bottom (third) layers.

Question 2.
Give an account of energy flow in an ecosystem.
Answer:
Energy Flow Efficiency in an Ecosystem:
Energy transfer from one trophic level to next is governed by Lindemann’s law of trophic efficiency.
Tindeman in 1942 stated that in each step of food chain when food energy is transferred from one trophic level to the next higher trophic level, some energy is lost as heat and only 10% energy of net primary productivity is transferred to the next level.

Energy flow through different trophic levels

Lindemann demonstrated that plants convert solar energy into chemical energy (i.e. carbohydrates). This conversion follows the first law of thermodynamics where one form of energy is converted into another form and it is neither created nor destroyed. But, when this fixed energy is transferred from plants to next trophic level, 90% of it gets lost and only 10% energy is transferred to every successive trophic level.

Question 3.
Write a brief note about ecosystem services.
Answer:
Ecosystem Services
Healthy ecosystems are the base for a wide range of economic, environmental and aesthetic goods and services. Ecosystem services are the products of ecosystem processes, e.g. healthy forest ecosystem purifies air and water, mitigates droughts and floods, cycles nutrients, generates fertile soils, provides wildlife habitat, maintains biodiversity, pollinates crops, provides storage site for carbon and also provides aesthetic, cultural and spiritual values.

Although it is difficult to find out the monitory value of all these services, still it is reasonable to think that biodiversity should carry a hefty price tag.

Robert Constanza and his colleagues recently have tried to put price tag on the nature’s life-support services. Researchers have put a price tag of US $ 33 trillion a year on these fundamental ecosystem services, which we utilise for free. This is almost twice the value of global Gross National Product (GNP), which is of US $ 18 trillion. Out of the total cost of various ecosystem services, soil formation accounts for 50%.

Contribution of other services like recreation and nutrient cycling are less than 10% each. The cost of climate regulation and habitat for wildlife are about 6% each.

The popular definition of ecosystem services was given by United Nation 2005 Millennium Ecosystem Assessment (MEA) after a four year long study involving more than 1300 scientists worldwide. In 2005, MEA defined ecosystem services as benefits people obtain from ecosystem and they distinguished four categories of ecosystem services.
These are described in detail below
1. Provisioning Services
It includes the products that are obtained from ecosystem, e.g. genetic resources, food, fibre and freshwater.

2. Regulating Services
It includes the benefits that are obtained from the regulation of ecosystem processes, e.g.

• Carbon sequestration and climate regulation.
• Waste decomposition and detoxification.
• Purification of water and air.
• Crop-pollination.
• Pest and disease control.

3. Supporting Services
It includes the processes that are necessary for the production of all other ecosystem services, e.g.

• Nutrient dispersal and cycling.
• Seed dispersal.
• Primary production.

4. Cultural Services
It includes non-monetary benefits that we obtain from the ecosystem, e.g.

• Cultural, intellectual and spiritual inspiration.
• Recreational experiences (including ecotourism).
• Scientific discovery.

Study of Ecosystem Services:
The study of ecosystem services includes the following steps

• Identification of Ecosystem Services Providers (ESPs).
• Determination of community structural aspects that influence house ESPs, function.
• Assessment of key environmental (abiotic) factors influencing the provision of services.
• Measurement of spatial and temporal scales ESPs and their services.

Examples of Ecosystem Services:
These include carbon cycle, pollination, oxygen release, etc.
I. Carbon-Fixation
The atmospheric carbon is fixed by the following three means

• Natural carbon-fixation It occurs through biological, chemical and physical processes.
• Artificial carbon-fixation It occurs through saline aquifers, reservoirs, ocean water, ageing oil fields, sea weed cultivation in oceans, etc.
• Biological carbon-fixation It occurs through reforestation, urban forestry, wetland restoration and agriculture.

Carbon-fixation is helpful in following ways

• The long term storge of CO₂ helps to reduce its harmful effects like global warming, climate chage, etc.
• It helps to slow down the accumulation of greenhouse gases in atmosphere and marine bodies.

II. Pollination
It is the process of pollen transfer by different agents so, that a plant can reproduce sexually.
It is helpful in following ways

1. 15-30% of crop plants are pollinated by insects like bees. For this reason, many farmers in USA import non-native bees which ensures proper pollination within 1-2 km radius.
2. In California, wild bees establish behavioural interactions with honeybees so, as to enhance the pollination service.

III. Oxygen Release
Oxygen is required by various life forms for respiration.
The major sources of oxygen include

1. Planktons and weeds in oceans About 50% of available oxygen is produced by planktons of marine ecosystem.
2. Trees Plants absorb CO₂ for photosynthesis and release oxygen. The net production of O₂ by a healthy tree depends upon its species, size, health and location.

Odisha State Board CHSE Odisha Class 12 Biology Solutions Chapter 14 Organisms and Environment Textbook Questions and Answers.

CHSE Odisha 12th Class Biology Chapter 14 Question Answer Organisms and Environment

Organisms and Environment Class 12 Questions and Answers CHSE Odisha

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Multiple choice questions

Question 1.
A population is a group of
(a) individuals in a species
(b) species’in a community
(c) individuals in a family
(d) communities in an ecosystem
Answer:
(a) individuals in a species

Question 2.
Exponential growth occurs when there is
(a) a great environmental resistance
(b) a fixed carrying capacity
(c) no biotic potential
(d) no environmental resistance
Answer:
(d) no environmental resistance

Question 3.
In a population, unrestricted reproductive capacity is called as
(a) carrying capacity
(b) birth rate
(c) biotic potential
(d) fertility rate
Answer:
(b) birth rate

Question 4.
Two opposite forces operate in the growth and development of a population. One of them is related to the ability to reproduce at a given rate. The force opposite to it is called
(a) environmental resistance
(b) mortality
(c) fecundity
(d) biotic control
Answer:
(b) mortality

Question 5.
The carrying capacity of a population is determined by its
(a) population growth rate
(b) mortality
(c) limiting resources
(d) natality
Answer:
(c) limiting resources

Question 6.
Which of the following at a conduit for energy transfer across trophic levels?
(a) mutualism
(b) parasitism
(c) protocooperation
(d) predation
Answer:
(d) predation

Question 7.
Phenomenon of inhibition of growth of one species by other species through secretion of some chemicals is termed as
(a) commensalism
(b) allelopathy
(b) mutualism
(d) predation
Answer:
(b) allelopathy

Question 8.
Predation performs all, except
(a) transfer of energy
(b) loss of sense organs
(c) keeps prey population under control
(d) maintains species diversity
Answer:
(b) loss of sense organs

Question 9.
Two important factors that influence the life of organisms are
(a) soil, temperature
(b) soil, light
(c) light, water
(d) water, temperature
Answer:
(c) light, water

Question 10.
Ecology describes
(a) interactions between living organisms only
(b) intraspecific competitions only
(c) interactions between members of single species
(d) interactions of organisms and abiotic components around
Answer:
(d) interactions of organisms and abiotic components around

Express in one or two words

Question 1.
Study of interrelationship between the environment and a plant species.
Answer:
Ecology

Question 2.
Amount of water vapours actually present in the air at any given time.
Answer:
Humidity

Question 3.
The total amount of water in the soil, except the gravitational water.
Answer:
Holard

Question 4.
Association of fungi and algae.
Answer:
Lichen

Question 5.
The study of soil.
Answer:
Pedology

Question 6.
Vegetation where the annual rainfall is more than 50 inches.
Answer:
Grassland

Correct the sentences changing the underlined word only

1. Plants those grow in soil and mud are xerophytes.
Answer:
mesophytes

2. Sunken stomata is a characteristic of hydrophytes.
Answer:
xerophytes

3. Air pockets are found in mesophytes.
Answer:
hydrophytes

4. The pre-reproductive mass is found more in urn- shaped pyramid.
Answer:
triangular

5. Population consists of different kinds of species.
Answer:
Community

Fill in the blanks

1. Shallow water region present on the edge of lakes is called …………. .
Answer:
littoral zone

2. The most relevant ecological factor is …………….. .
Answer:
light

3. Mortality and …………. contribute to a decrease in population density.
Answer:
emigration

4. J-shaped curve represents ………… growth.
Answer:
exponential

5. Geometric representation of age structure is a characteristic of ………..
Answer:
population

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Camouflage
Answer:
Camouflage It is the act of hiding the identify either by colour changes or by making animals or objects hard to see.
Some species of insects and frogs are cryptically coloured (camouflaged) to avoid being detected easily by predators.

Question 2.
Edaphic factor
Answer:
Edaphic factor An edaphic factor relating to physical or chemical composition of the soil found in a particular area, e.g. soil pH, porosity, water holding capacity, etc.

Question 3.
Habitat
Answer:
Environment is termed as sum total of all external conditions which influence the organisms in term of survival and reproduction. Habitat is a natural abode or locality where a plant/ animal grow, based on the environment, the differences in the vegetation and species of different places are observed.

Each organism plays an important role in its surrounding. Niche is the role of an organism plays in its ecosystem. In other words, we can say that niche is how an organism makes a living, interacts with other organisms and helps in cycling of nutrients.

Question 4.
Temperature
Answer:
Temperature
It is the most ecologically significant environmental factor. It varies seasonally on land and decreases progressively from the equator towards the poles and from plains to the mountain tops. It ranges from sub-zero levels in polar areas and high altitudes to > 50°C in tropical deserts in summer. There are also certain unique habitats such as thermal springs, deep sea hydrothermal vents where the average temperature exceeds 100°C.

Question 5.
Biomes
Answer:
Biomes The large unit of ecology which consist of major vegetation type and associated fauna in a particular climatic zone is called biome, e.g. sea coast, deserts. Deciduous forest are the major biomes of India.

Question 6.
Population
Answer:
The term ‘population’ can be defined as a group or assemblage of organisms of the same species living in a particular area at a given time.
For example, the lion population of the Gir forest or the peacock population of India, etc.

The population may be subdivided into demes or local populations, which are a group of interbreeding organisms. It is the smallest collective unit of a plant or animal population.
The other is metapopulation, which consists of whole set of local populations connected by dispersing individuals.

Question 7.
Competition
Answer:
It is generally believed to occur when closely related the two individuals of species compete for the same resources that are limiting. This can happen between the members of the same species, i.e., intraspecific or different species, i.e. interspecific.

Question 8.
Abiotic factors
Answer:
Abiotic factors The non-living factors which influence an ecosystem and the organisms are called abiotic factors. It can determine which species of organism will survive in an given environment.

Question 9.
Population density
Answer:
Population Density
This refers to the size of population to a unit space at a particular time. This can be measured is several ways an mentioned below

• Abundance (absolute number in population).
• Numerical density (number individuals per unit area).
• Biomass density (biomass per unit area).

Question 10.
Necessity of adaptations
Answer:
Necessity of adaptations Adaptations take a lot of time to evolve. They are necessary because they help the organism to fit in to its niches. Also, it is important for’ survival of both, the individual and the species.

Differentiate between the following

Question 1.
Habitat and Niche
Answer:
Differences between habitat and niche are as follows

Habitat	Niche
A place or part of an ecosystem, occupied by a particular organism.	A functiohal description of the role, a species plays in a community.
It can have number of niches.	It does not have any components.
A variety of environmental variables are present in a habitat.	Every niche has its own specific environment.

Question 2.
Mutualism and Parasitism
Answer:
Differences between mutualism and parasitism are as follows

Mutualism	Parasitism
It type of interaction in which both the interacting species gets benefits.	The mode of interaction in two species in which one (parasites) is dependent on another for benefits there by damaging the other one (host).
Mycorrhiza show mutual association between fungi and roots of higher plants.	Human liver-fluke depends on two intermediate hosts to complete its life cycle.

Question 3.
Hydrophytes and Xerophytes
Answer:
Differences between hydrophytes and xerophytes are as follows

Hydorphytes	Xerophytes
The plants which are adapted to live in abundance of water are called hydrophytes.	The plants which are adapted to live in condition of water scarcity and dry habitat are called xerophytes.
Root are poorly developed.	Roots are very well- developed.
Leaves are well-developed.	Leaves are modified in various structure.
Stomata are present abundantly.	Sunken stomata are present.
e.g. Hydrilla, Pistia.	e.g. Opuntia, Asparagus, etc.

Question 4.
Birth rate and Death rate
Answer:
Differences between birth rate and death rate are as follows

Birth rate	Death rate
It is the number of birth of new individuals per unit of population per unit time.	It is the number of loss of individuals per unit of population per unit time.
It increases the size of population.	It decreases the size of population.

Question 5.
Fertility and Fecundity
Answer:
Differences between fertility and fecundity are as follows

Fertility	Fecundity
Fertility is the natural ability to reproduce and is defined as the offspring per couple.	Fecundity is the actual reproductive rate of an organism or population measured by number of gametes, (seed sets or asexual propagules).

Question 6.
Logarithmic and Exponential growth
Answer:
Differences between logarithmic and exponential growth are as follows

Logarithmic growth	Exponential growth
Logistic or Logarithmic occurs rapidly and then slow down.	The kind of growth which is slow initially but, it increases as the population growth takes place.
It considers factors like competition and limited resources.	It requires specific ideal conditions to occur.
It occurs when the resources are limited.	It occurs when the resources are abundant.
It has four phases-lag, log, decelearatlon and steady.	It has two phases-lage and log.
It is more common, in human, etc.	It occurs in algal bloom, etc.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Explain, what is population? Describe the different characteristics of population.
Answer:
The term ‘population’ can be defined as a group or assemblage of organisms of the same species living in a particular area at a given time.
For example, the lion population of the Gir forest or the peacock population of India, etc.

The population may be subdivided into demes or local populations, which are a group of interbreeding organisms. It is the smallest collective unit of a plant or animal population.
The other is metapopulation, which consists of whole set of local populations connected by dispersing individuals.

Population Interactions:
In nature, living organisms such as animals, plants and microbes, cannot live in isolation and therefore, interact in various ways to form a biological community. Interspecific interactions occur between the populations of two different species living together within a community.

These interactions could be beneficial (+), detrimental (-) or neutral (0), as shown in table below
Population Interactions and their Effects

Name of interaction	Effect on species-A	Effect on species-B
Mutualism	+	+
Competition	–	–
Predation	+	–
Parasitism	+	–
Commensalism	+	0
Ammensalism	–	0

Mutualism:
It is an interaction that confers benefits to both the interacting species. Some examples of mutualism are
1. Lichens represent an intimate mutualistic relationship between a fungus (mycobiont) and photosynthesising algae (phycobiont) or cyanobacteria. Here, the fungus helps in the absorption of nutrients and provides protection, while algae prepares the food.

2. Mycorrhiza show dose mutual association between fungi and the roots of higher plants. Fungi help the plant in absorption of nutrients, while the plant provides food for the fungus, e.g. many members of genus -Glomus.

3. Plants need help from animals for pollination and dispersal of seeds. In return, plants provide nectar, pollens and fruits to them.

4. Co-evolution to safeguard the mutually beneficial system, plant-animal interactions involve co-evolution of the mutualists, i.e. the evolution of the flower and its pollinator species are tightly linked with one another, e.g.

(i) Fig and its partner wasp species, the female wasp uses the fruit not only as an oviposition (egg-laying) site, but uses the developing seeds from the fruit for nourishing its larvae. In return, the wasp pollinates the fig inflorescence, while searching for suitable egg-laying sites.

(ii) Mediterranean orchid Ophrys employs ‘sexual deceit’ to get pollinated by a species of bee. One petal of its flower bears an uncanny resemblance to the female of the bee in size, colour and markings. The male bee is attracted to what it perceives as a female and ‘pseudocopulates’ with the flower. During this process, pollen are dusted from the flower onto the male bee. When the same bee pseudocopulates with another flower, it transfers pollen to it and thus pollinates the flower.

Competition:
It is generally believed to occur when closely related the two individuals of species compete for the same resources that are limiting. This can happen between the members of the same species, i.e., intraspecific or different species, i.e. interspecific. These are as follows

(i) Intraspecific competition occur for the resources which are short in supply such as food, space or mate. There are of two types

1. Content competition Where each organism claims a part of the resource, but due to competition, some are successful to get, but some fail.
2. Scramble competition In this case, the resource gets divided to many other smaller parts to which all have access. Individual organism scramble for resources. Each individual succeeds to get some of the resource available to survive.

(ii) Interspecific competition It occurs between members of different species, e.g. competition is likely to have two outcomes. These are as follows
1. Competitive exclusion According to Gause’s competitive exclusion principle two closely related species competing for same resources cannot co-exist indefinitely and the competitively inferior species will be eliminated eventually two species of beetles (Tribolium castaneum and T. confusum) feed on stored flour, one species would survive and other will die.

2. Co-existence Species facing competition might evolve a mechanism to live in the same niche by changing the feeding time or foraging pattern. This is called resource partitioning.

Question 2.
What do you understand by population? Explain the different attributes of the population.
Answer:
The term ‘population’ can be defined as a group or assemblage of organisms of the same species living in a particular area at a given time.
For example, the lion population of the Gir forest or the peacock population of India, etc.

The population may be subdivided into demes or local populations, which are a group of interbreeding organisms. It is the smallest collective unit of a plant or animal population.
The other is metapopulation, which consists of whole set of local populations connected by dispersing individuals.

Population Attributes:
Population is a unit of ecosystem through which the energy flows and nutrients get cylced which helps in maintaining its stability. A population has some features such as birth rate, death rate, growth form, age structure, density, etc. which are discussed below

1. Growth
When a few organisms are introduced to a particular unoccupied area, the population show growth (increase in size) in sigmoid or ‘S’-shaped logistic fashion.

The few organisms are introduced to a particular unoccupied area, the growth of population initially is slow (positive acceleration phase). Then suddenly there is sharp increase and growth becomes vary rapid (logarithmic phase). At last stage it finally slow and down because of the increased environmental resistance (negative acceleration phase). It is dipicted in the given [fig. 14.19(a)], The increase of population size does not occure beyond a certain saturation limit. This is known as carrying capacity .

The sigmoid and exponential growth curves

Another kind of population curve in J-shaped this the density of organism increase rapidly, but stops suddenly due to environmental resistance. It is called exponential growth curve.

(i) Growth Rate:
The growth rate of a population can be determined by the following formula

Population size for a given species is not static parameter, but it is ever changing based on different factors including food availability, predation pressure and weather diversity. The population thickness changes because of the following four changes

• Natality It refers to the number of “births during a given period in the population that are added to the initial density.
• Mortality It is the number of deaths in the population during a given period.
  
  Factors influencing population density

2. Birth Rate and Death Rate:
The increased and decreased rate of population depends on birth and death natality is related new homes, i.e. the reproduction capacity of individuals. It is related with two aspects of reproduction.

Thus, natality or birth rate of a population can be expressed as

Where, b = Natality per unit time, d – Changing value of the entity, N = Initial number of individuals in population, Nn – Number of new individuals added and t = Unit time.

Similarly, the death rate or mortality rate is the death or loss of individuals from the population in unit time and can be expressed as

The death rate has a relation with the natality because of over crowding, predation and spread of disease.

3. Sex Ratio:
It represents the ratio of organisms of different sexes of the population. In animals, sex is either male or female which creates difference in the characteristic of the population.

4. Age Distribution:
A population at a given time is composed of individuals of different age groups such as pre-reproductive, reproductive and post-reproductive. The population age distribution is related to the growth rate of the population and this can be used to calculate whether the population is expanding or contracting.

Ordinarily, a rapidly expanding population would have a large proportion of young individuals, a stationary population with even distribution of age groups and declining population contain a large proportion of old individuals.

These age groups of the population can be portrayed through the graphical age pyramid representations.In human population, the age pyramids generally express age distribution of males and females in a combined diagram. The shapes of the pyramids reflect the growth status of the population.

The pyramids can be of three difference types as follows
(i) Expanding (Triangular) This is a type of a growing population representation is like a triangle.
The population carries a high proportion of pre-reproductive individuals followed by reproductive individuals and post-reproductive individuals. Because of the very large number of pre-reproductive individuals, more and more of them enter reproductive phases and rapidily increases the size of the population.

(ii) Stable (Bell-shaped) This type of pyramid will represent a stationary or stable population having an equal number of young and middle aged class of individiuals.

(iii) Declining (Urn-shaped) This group has a small number of pre-reproductive individuals followed by a large number of reproductive individuals. As, there is less number of individuals in pre-reproductive groups.

5. Population Density
This refers to the size of population to a unit space at a particular time. This can be measured is several ways an mentioned below

1. Abundance (absolute number in population).
2. Numerical density (number individuals per unit area).
3. Biomass density (biomass per unit area).

The density of population can be expressed in the following manner
(a) Crude density This is the density of a species population with reference is the total area. It varies according to the season, weather, food supply rate of reproduction, etc.
(b) Ecological density This is the density of a species with reference to the actual area of habitat available to the species.

Question 3.
Explain, how different organisms interact in a population emphasising on the possibilities of various relationships.
Answer:
The term ‘population’ can be defined as a group or assemblage of organisms of the same species living in a particular area at a given time.
For example, the lion population of the Gir forest or the peacock population of India, etc.

The population may be subdivided into demes or local populations, which are a group of interbreeding organisms. It is the smallest collective unit of a plant or animal population.
The other is metapopulation, which consists of whole set of local populations connected by dispersing individuals.

Predation
It is an interspecific interaction, where an animal called predator kills and consumes the other weaker animal called prey. This is a biological control method. It is the nature’s way of transferring energy to higher trophic levels, which is fixed by plants at the first trophic level, e.g. tiger (predator) and deer (prey).

Important roles of predators are as follows
1. In the absence of predators, prey species could achieve very high population densities and cause instability. So, besides acting as ‘conduits’ for energy transfer across trophic levels, predators play very important role in providing population stability.

2. They help in maintaining species diversity in a community, by reducing the intensity of competition among competing prey species, e.g. predator starfish Pisaster in the rocky intertidal communities of American Pacific Coast. In a field experiment, when all the starfish were removed from the area, more than 10 species of invertebrates became extinct within a year, because of interspecific competition.

3. When certain exotic species are introduced into a geographical area, they become invasive and start spreading fast because the invaded land does not have natural predators, e.g. prickly pear cactus introduced in Australia in early 1920s was brought under control by introducing its predator (i.e. a moth) in the country.

If a predator is too efficient and over exploits its prey, then the prey might become extinct.
Following it, the predator will also become extinct because of the lack of food. This is why predators in nature are prudent.
Prey species have evolved various defence mechanisms to lessen the impact of predation. These are as follows

In Animals:

1. Camouflage Some species of insects and frogs are cryptically coloured (camouflaged) to avoid being detected easily by the predator. Some are poisonous and therefore, avoided by the predators.
2. Chemical emission Monarch butterfly is highly distasteful to its predators (birds) because of a special chemical present in its body. The butterfly acquires this chemical during its caterpillar stage by feeding on a poisonous weed.
3. Mimicry It refers to the resemblance of an organism to their natural surroundings which hides them from eyes of predators.

In Plants
Nearly 25% of all insects are known to be phytophagous (feeding on plant sap and other parts of plants) apart from other herbivores. So, plants have evolved various defences against them, e.g., thorns of Acacia and cactus are the most common morphological means of defence.

Some plants produce highly poisonous chemicals like cardiac glycosides, e.g., weed Calotropis that makes the herbivore sick, etc.
Chemicals like nicotine, caffeine, quinine, strychnine, opium, etc., are actually defence mechanisms against grazers and browsers.

Parasitism:
It is the mode of interaction between two species in which one species (parasite) depends on the other species (host) for food and shelter and damages the host. In this process, one organism is benefitted (parasite), while the other is being harmed (host).

(i) Adaptation methods of a parasite are
Parasite is host-specific in a way that both host and parasite tend to co-evolve. According to its lifestyle, a parasite, evolved special adaptations as

• Loss of unnecessary sense organs.
• The presence of adhesive organs or suckers for clinging on to host.
• Loss of digestive system.
• High reproductive capacity.

(ii) The life cycles of parasites are often complex, involving one or two intermediate hosts or vectors to facilitate parasitisation of its primary host,, e.g.

• Human liver fluke (a trematode parasite) depends on two intermediate hosts (a snail and a fish) to complete its life cycle.
• Malarial parasite (Plasmodium) needs a vector (mosquito) to spread to other hosts.

(iii) Majority of parasites harm the host. The harm is done in the following ways

• They reduce the survival, growth and reproductive ability of the host.
• They reduce its population density.
• They might render the host more vulnerable to predation by making it physically weak.

Types of Parasites
Parasites are broadly divided into following main types

1. Ectoparasites depend on the external surface of the host organism for food and shelter, e.g., lice on humans, ticks on dogs, copepods in marine fishes and Cuscuta, a parasitic plant that grows on hedge plants.
2. Endoparasites live inside the host’s body at different sites like liver, kidney, lungs, etc., for food and shelter, e.g. tapeworm, liver fluke, Plasmodium, etc. The life cycles of endoparasites are more complex because of their extreme specialisation.
3. Brood parasitism is an example of parasitism in which one organism (parasite) lays its eggs in the nest of another organism (host) for the later to incubate them.

The eggs of parasitic birds have evolved to resemble the host’s egg to reduce the chances of host bird from detecting and ejecting the parasitic eggs from nest, e.g., cuckoo (koel, parasite) and crow (host) during breeding season (spring to summer).

Effects of Parasites on Host
There always exist some kind of host parasite relationship which has following characteristics parasites do not kill the host immediately, but they make the host to suffer, they damage their body and in extreme case they may cause their death. These reduce the growth of the host and also afffect their reproductive potential. They also reduce the size of the population of host.

Question 4.
What is habitat? Describe the different types of abiotic factors present in the habitat.
Answer:
Habitat:
Environment is termed as sum total of all external conditions which influence the organisms in term of survival and reproduction. Habitat is a natural abode or locality where a plant/ animal grow, based on the environment, the differences in the vegetation and species of different places are observed.

Abiotic Factors:
These include climatic, edaphic and topographic factors. Climatic factors are light, temperature, precipitation, humidity, wind. Edaphic factors are factors related to soil whereas topographic factors are physical factors related to slope, altitude and others concerned with earth surface. Some of the major abiotic factors are discussed below
1. Light
Sunlight is the primary source of light. It plays an important role in almost all ecosystems. The entire food chain starts with the organisms that are photosynthetic (producers).

So without sunlight, all life excluding some microbes would perish, not just the plants. The total amount of light that falls on the earth varies according to the season, latitude, altitude and conditions of the atmosphere. The significance of light lies in the fact that all autotrophs depend upon light as a source of energy for preparing their food by photosynthesis and release oxygen during the process.

Therefore, it is an important factor for life to exist on earth. Small herbs and shrubs growing in forests are adapted to photosynthesis under very low light intensities, because they are overshadowed by the tall, canopied trees. Most plants depend on sunlight to meet their photoperiodic requirement for flowering also.

The spectral quality of solar radiation as shown in figure is also important for life. The UV component of light is harmful for many organisms. Different components of the visible spectrum are available for marine plants living at different depths of the ocean.

This is why different types of algae, i.e., green, brown and red algae occur at different depths in sea in the upper, middle and deep layers of water respectively.
Plants which grow in bright light are called sun plants or heliophytes while plants growing in shade or low intensity light are called sciophytes.
Depending upon the availability of light aquatic body is divided into the following zones

1. Littoral zone ft adjoins the shore and extends to the point water body when producers (plants) show the light compensation level. The point indicate the rate of photosynthesis equalising with the rate of respiration.
2. Limnetic zone It is the major open area of waterbody next to the littoral zone. The O₂ availability to the organisms living in this area is from the photosynthetic activity of phytoplanktons and in the atmosphere immediately over the water or lake’s surface.
   In the limnetic zone, the region which gets the maximum light above the light compensation point is called euphotic zone.
   The region where light is received less and diffused and is below the light compensation point is disphotic zone.
3. Profundal zone This is the bottom area of the pond, where respiration is greater than production.
4. Benthic zone It is the zone of darkness. No light, penetrate in the deeper layers of waterbody. The organism living here in this zone have poorly developed eye sight. The producers are mainly chemosynthetic bacteria.
   
   Zonation in deep lake showing gradient of light and oxygen

2. Temperature
It is the most ecologically significant environmental factor. It varies seasonally on land and decreases progressively from the equator towards the poles and from plains to the mountain tops. It ranges from sub-zero levels in polar areas and high altitudes to > 50°C in tropical deserts in summer. There are also certain unique habitats such as thermal springs, deep sea hydrothermal vents where the average temperature exceeds 100°C.

Physiological functions as well as geographical distribution of plants and animals are governed by the temperature conditions and their thermal tolerance. Organisms which can tolerate and thrive in a wide range of temperatures are called eurythermal, e.g., most mammals and birds while organisms which can tolerate a narrow range of temperatures are called stenothermal, e.g., polar bear, amphibians.

3. Precipitation
Rainfall and hail storm are two major forms of precipitation. The only available form of water to the plant is the soil water. So, precipitation is indirect form of water which affect the plant life and water content of ‘ the soil. The vegetation of an area is directly or indirectly affected by the precipitation received by that area.

4. Soil
The nature and properties of soil in different places vary significantly. It is dependent mainly on the following factors

1. Climate
2. Weathering process
3. Whether soil is transported or sedimentary
4. Soil development process

Water holding capacity and percolation of the soil is determined by its various characteristics, such as soil composition, soil particle size and aggregation of soil particles.

These characteristics of soil along with its pH, mineral composition, topography, etc., determine the type of plants that can grow in a particular habitat and the type of animals that can feed on them. In aquatic environment also, the bottom sediments and its characteristics determine the type of benthic animals that can live there. Thus, the key abiotic factors affecting the organisms.

Besides these prominent abiotic factors, biotic factors are also forming a habitat and are the part of ecological environment.

Question 5.
What are the various adaptations different plants adapt for their survival in different habitats?
Answer:
Adaptations in Hydrophytes
Adaptations in hydrophytes can be discussed under three headings, i.e. morphological, anatomical and physiological.
1. Morphological Adaptations
Hydrophytes show various kinds of structural adaptations in their roots, stems and leaves.
(i) Root

• Roots may be entirely absent, e.g. Woljfia, Salvinia or poorly developed, e.g. Hydrilla.
• Roots are well-developed with distinct root caps, e.g. Ranunculus (emergent hydrophytes), aerenchymapresent.
• In Eichhornia root caps are replaced by root pockets.
• Some plants, i.e. Jussiaea have two types of roots, one is normal type and other is spongy and negatively geo trophic.

(ii) Stem

• In Hydrilla, Potamogeton, the stems are slender spongy flexible.
• Horizontal stems are found in floating hydrophytes like Azolla, Pistia or Eichhornia.
• In rooted hydrophytes like Sagittaria, Cyperus, Scirpus, the stem is rhizome or stolon.
  
  Stolon stems in marshy plants

(iii) Petioles
Some hydrophytes show special features in the petioles.

• Petioles in submerged plants, with free-floating leaves like Nymphaea and Nelumbium, are long, slender and spongy.
• In the free-floating hydrophyte Eichhornia, stems are long slender and spongy.
• In the free-floating hydrophyte Eichhornia, the petiole is swollen have big air spaces in side tissues and helps in floating.
  
  TS of petiole of Eichhornia

(iv) Leaves
The structural details of hydrophytes show number of variations, which can be summerised as follows

• In Vallisneria the leaves are long and narrow.
• These are finely dissected in Utricularia, Myriophyllum and Ceratophyllum. This helps aquatic plants to provide little resistance against water.
• The free-floating hydrophytes have wax coating on than, these are shiny and smooth. Wax coating present dessication of leaves in water scarce condition.
• In Nelumbium and Nymphaea the leaves remain in touch with water surface and upper layer is exposed to the air.
  

The amphibions hydrophytes exhibit the phenomenon of heterophylly (two types of leaves). The submerged leaves are dissected to go with’water currents while above water are broad, e.g. Sagittaria, Ranunculus, Limnophylla heterophylla.

2. Anatomical Adaptations
Hydrophytes show the following anatomical features
(i) Reduction in Protecting Structures

• Cuticle is absent in submerged portion.
• Epidermis has chloroplast, used as photosynthesising organ.
• Hypodermis is poorly developed.

(ii) Reduction of Mechanical Tissue

• Sclerenchyma is absent or poorly developed in submerged portions.
• Asterosclereids is present that provide mechanical support in case sclerenchyma is absent.
• Sclerenchyma present only in aerial tissues.

(iii) Reduction of Conducting Tissue

• Vascular bundles are reduced to few or even one, e.g Hydrilla.
• Xylem cells are very few.
• Phloem is usually poorly developed, but in some cases it is well-developed.
• Secondary vascular tissue is totally absent.

(iv) Increase in Aeration

• Stomata are totally absent or poorly developed in submerged parts.
• If present, stomata are confined to upper surface leaves.
• In amphibious plants, stomata are scattered on the aerial portions.
• Roots, stems and leaves of most hydrophytes have parenchymatous tissue with air chambers. These chambers store gases like CO₂ and O₂ and help in respiration and photosynthesis. These are hence, called aerenchyma. Besides, the air chambers help in buoyancy and provide mechanical support.
  
  TS of root of Typha

3. Physiological Adaptations
Besides their adaptations in the morphological and anatomical characters, hydrophytes also show physiological adaptations.

• Osmotic concentrations of cell sap is low.
• Photosynthetic and respiratory gases are retained in air chambers for further use.
• No transpiration occurs in submerged plants.
• In hydrophytes, mostly vegetative reproduction.

Xerophytes:
These are the plants which are adapted to drier regions and have high rate of transpiration than absorption of water.

Types of Xerophytes
Xeric habitats are of two types
(i) Physically dry habitats are those in which water cannot be retained (deserts, rock surface).
(ii) Physiologically dry habitats have plants of water, but the water is not available to the plant.

Based on their adaptation to water scarcity or drought conditions, xerophytes are of three types

1. Drought resistant plants are such that they can survive in extreme conditions, drought enduring plants can tolerate drought though they may hot have adaptation.
2. Drought enduring plants these do not have distinct adaptation.
3. Drought escaping plants these are short lived plants, complete the life cycle before the arrival of dry condition, e.g. Artemisia, Astragalus.
   
   Succulents xerophytes

Based on their capacity to store water, xerophytes are classified as succulents and non-succulents. Succulents like Opuntia, have their organs swollen due to accumulation of water, whereas non-succulents are considered as true xerophytes.

Adaptation in Xerophytes:
These show varied adaptions in the morphology, anatomy and physiology which are as follows
1. Morphological Adaptations
Xerophytes exhibit a number of special features in their body organs as given below

(i) Roots

• Roots are very extensive, long tap roots, with branching spread over wide areas.
• Root hairs and root caps are very well-developed.

(ii) Stem

• Stems are stunted, woody, dry, hard and covered with thick waxy cuticle.
• In Opuntia stem becomes green and fleshy (phylloclade).
• On stems and leaves, there are hairs and waxy coatings.
• Succulents have their stem modified into leaf-like structures called cladodes as in Asparagus.

(iii) Leaves
The leaves of xerophytes are reduced to spines to various structures. This helps plants to reduce rate of respiration. The following types of leaf conditions are seen

• Microphyllous when leaves are scaly (Casuarina) and needle-like Pinus.
  
• Trichophyllous when leaves are covered with hairs (.Nerium, Calotropis).
  
• Macrophyllous when leaves are soft and flesh (Begonia).
• Sclerophyllous plants showing leaves which are tough and hard.
• Cadueous when leaves fall early, i.e. plants with no leaves.
• Rolling leaves in ammophilis stomata are directed in words.

Anatomical Adaptations:
These adaptations can be conveniently discussed under the headings, i.e. epidermis, hypodermis and vascular tissue.
(i) Epidermis

• Some xerophytes have multiple epidermis, e.g. Nerium.
• It has thick cuticle and deposition of waxes, resins, etc.
• Epidermal hairs are present in grooves.
• Some leaves have bulliform cells that help in rolling.
• The stomata are present in sunken pits to reduce transpiration rate.
• Stomatal frequency is very low in xerophytes.

(ii) Hypodermis
It is thick and well-developed and is made up of parenchymatous cells.

(iii) Ground Tissue

• In stems, there is abundant mechanical tissue in the form of sclerenchyma, e.g. Casuarina.
• Since, leaves are reduced, the stems usually have chlorenchyma.
• In succulent plants, cortex is filled with water, mucilage, latex, etc.
• In plants that have leaves, palisade parenchyma is well-developed.
• In Pinus, mesophyll cells are modified.
• Intercellular spaces are greatly reduced.

(iv) Conducting Tissue
Vascular tissue (xylem and phloem) .is very well-developed in xerophytes.

3. Physiological Adaptations

• Osmotic concentration of the cell sap is very high.
• Succulents have high pentosan (chemicals derived from polysaccharides) resulting in accumulation of water.

Odisha State Board CHSE Odisha Class 11 Sociology Solutions Unit 4 ସାମାଜିକ ପ୍ରକ୍ରିୟା, ସ୍ତରୀକରଣ ଏବଂ ପରିବର୍ତ୍ତନ Questions and Answers.

CHSE Odisha 11th Class Sociology Unit 5 Question Answer ସମାଜ ସମାଜଶାସ୍ତ୍ର, ପଦ୍ଧତି ଏବଂ କୌଶଳ

‘କ’ ବିଭାଗ

ଅତି ସଂକ୍ଷିପ୍ତ ପ୍ରଶ୍ନୋତ୍ତର
ସମ୍ଭାବ୍ୟ ବିକଳ୍ପ ମଧ୍ୟରୁ ଉତ୍ତର ଚୟନ କର :

Question ୧।
ସମାଜବିଜ୍ଞାନର ଜନକ କିଏ ?
(i) ଇରବର୍ଟ ସ୍ପେନସର
(ii) ଅଗଷ୍ଟ କମ୍‌
(iii) ଇମାଇଲମ ଦୁର୍ଧୂମ
(iv) କାଇଁ ମାଙ୍କସ୍‌
Answer:
(ii) ଅଗଷ୍ଟ କମ୍

Question ୨।
ପ୍ରଥମ ଥର ପାଇଁ କିଏ ସମାଜ ବିଜ୍ଞାନ ଶବ୍ଦଟି ବ୍ୟବହାର କରିଥିଲେ ?
(i) ପି. ଏ. ସରୋନୀନ୍
(ii) ଅଗଷ୍ଟ କମ୍‌
(iii) ସୁଲ
(iv) ସିମେଲ
Answer:
(ii) ଅଗଷ୍ଟ କମ୍

Question ୩।
ପଜିଟିର ଫିଲୋସଫି ପୁସ୍ତକରେ କେଉଁ ଶବ୍ଦଟି ପ୍ରଥମେ ବ୍ୟବହାର କରିଥିଲା।
(i) ରାଜନୀତି ବିଜ୍ଞାନ
(ii) ସମାଜବିଜ୍ଞାନ
(iii) ଇତିହାସ
(iv) ନୂବିଜ୍ଞାନ
Answer:
(ii) ସମାଜବିଜ୍ଞାନ

Question ୪।
କାହା ମତରେ ସମାଜବିଜ୍ଞାନ ହେଉଛି ସମାଜ ସମ୍ପକୀୟ ବିଜ୍ଞନ ଯାହା କେତେକ ପ୍ରାକୃତିକ ଏବଂ ଅପରିବର୍ତ୍ତନୀୟ ନିୟମକୁ ଆଖୁ ଆଗରେ ରଖୁ ତା’ର ଅନୁଧ୍ୟାନ ଆରମ୍ଭ କରିଥାଏ ।
(i) ଅଗଷ୍ଟ କମ୍‌
(ii) ସ୍ପେନସର
(iii) ମ୍ୟାକ୍‌ସ ୱେବର
(iv) ଇମାଇଲ ଦୁଶ୍ଚିମ
Answer:
(i) ଅଗଷ୍ଟ କମିଟେ

Question ୩।
ନିମ୍ନୋକ୍ତ ମଧ୍ୟରୁ କେଉଁଟି ସମାଜ ବିଜ୍ଞାନ ପ୍ରତି କଷ୍ଟେଙ୍କର ଅବଦାନ ?
(i) ଆତ୍ମହତ୍ଯା
(ii) ତ୍ରିସ୍ତରୀୟ ନିୟମ
(iii) ଜୈବତତ୍ତ୍ଵ
(iv) ବୈଜ୍ଞାନିକ
Answer:
(ii) ତ୍ରିସ୍ତରୀୟ ନିୟମ

Question ୪।
ତ୍ରିସ୍ତରୀୟ ନିୟମର ପ୍ରଥମ ସ୍ତରଟିକୁ କ’ଣ କୁହାଯାଏ ?
(i) ଧର୍ମତାତ୍ତ୍ଵିକ
(ii) ଆଧ୍ୟାତ୍ମକ
(ii) ବୈଜ୍ଞାନୀକ
(iv) ସାମାଜିକ
Answer:
ଧର୍ମତାରୁ

Question ୭।
କେଉଁ ସ୍ତରରେ ବିଶ୍ଵାସ କରାଯାଏ ଯେ ସମସ୍ତ ଘଟଣା ଏକ ଅମୂର୍ଖ ଶକ୍ତି ଦ୍ବାରା ଉତ୍ପନ୍ନ ହୋଇଥାଏ ?
(i) ଧର୍ମତାତ୍ତ୍ଵିକ
(ii) ଆଧ୍ୟାମିକ
(iii) ବୈଜ୍ଞାନିକ
(iv) ରାଜନୈତିକ
Answer:
(ii) ଆଧ୍ୟାମିକ

Question ୮।
ଜଣେ ବ୍ୟକ୍ତି ନୈତିକତା ଦୃଷ୍ଟିରୁ ଆତ୍ମହତ୍ୟା କରେ ତାହାକୁ ଆତ୍ମହତ୍ୟା କୁହାଯାଏ ?
(i) ଯନ୍ତ୍ରଣା ଦାୟକ
(ii) ଇଚ୍ଛାଧୀନ
(iii) ବାଧ୍ୟତା ମୂଳକ
(iv) ପରାର୍ଥବାଦୀ
Answer:
(iii) ବାଧ୍ୟତା ମୂଳକ

Question ୯।
ଶାରୀରିକ ଯନ୍ତ୍ରଣା ଲାଭ କରି କେଉଁ ହତ୍ୟା କରାଯାଇଥାଏ ?
(i) ପରାର୍ଥବାଦୀ
(ii) ଯନ୍ତ୍ରଣା ଦାୟକ
(iii) ବାଧ୍ୟତାମୂଳକ
(iv) ଇଚ୍ଛାଧୀନ
Answer:
(ii) ଯନ୍ତ୍ରଣା ଦାୟକ

Question ୧୦।
ଯେତେବେଳେ ବ୍ୟକ୍ତି ନିଜକୁ ସମୂହ ସହ ସମ୍ପର୍ଣ୍ଣ ଭାବେ ମିଶାଇଦିଏ ସେତେବେଳେ ସେ ସମୂହ ଜୀବନଠାରୁ ତା’ର ଜୀବନକୁ ଅସହାୟ ମନେକରେ, ଫଳରେ କେଉଁ ଆତ୍ମହତ୍ୟା କରିଥାଏ ?
(i) ଅହଂବାଦୀ
(ii) ପରାର୍ଥବାଦୀ
(iii) ଯନ୍ତ୍ରଣା ଦାୟକ
(iv) ଭାଗବାଦୀ
Answer:
(ii) ପରାର୍ଥବାଦୀ

Question ୧୧।
ସମୂହଠାରୁ ସମ୍ପର୍ଣ୍ଣ ରୂପେ ସମ୍ପର୍କ ଛିନ୍ନ ହେବା ଫଳରେ ବ୍ୟକ୍ତି କେଉଁ ଆତ୍ମହତ୍ୟା କରେ ?
(i) ଅହଂବାଦୀ
(ii) ପରାର୍ଥବାଦୀ
(iii) ଯନ୍ତ୍ରଣାଦାୟକ
(iv) ଭାଗବାଦୀ
Answer:
(i) ଅହଂବାଦୀ

Question ୧୨।
ଦୁର୍ଗମଙ୍କର ସମାଜ ପ୍ରତି ଏକ ଅବଦାନ ଲେଖ ।
(i) ଆତ୍ମହତ୍ଯା
(ii) ଜୈବତତ୍ତ୍ବ
(iii) ତ୍ରିସ୍ତରୀୟ ନିୟମ
(iv) ଏ ସମସ୍ତ
Answer:
(i) ଆତ୍ମହତ୍ୟା

Question ୧୩ ।
କେଉଁ ବାଦରେ ଈଶ୍ବରଙ୍କୁ ବିଶ୍ବାସ କରାଯାଏ ?
(i) ବହୁ ଈଶ୍ଵର ବାଦ
(ii) ଏକେଶ୍ଵର ବାଦ
(iii) କଡ଼ ବାଦ
(iv) କେଉଁଠି ନୁହେଁ
Answer:
(i) ବହୁ ଈଶ୍ଵର ବାଦ

Question ୧୪।
ଖଣ୍ଡିଏ କାଠ, ପଥର ଆଦି କେଉଁ ବାଦର ଅନ୍ତର୍ଭୁକ୍ତ ?
(i) ଫେଟସ୍‌ବାଦ
(ii) ବହୁ ଈଶ୍ଵର ବାଦ
(iii) ଏକେ ଈଶ୍ଵର ବାଦ
(iv) କେଉଁଠି ନୁହେଁ
Answer:
(i) ଫେଟସ୍ ବାଦ

Question ୧୫।
ଯାହା ପ୍ରତ୍ୟକ୍ଷ ଭାବରେ ଅନୁଭବ କରାଯାଇପାରିବ, ତାହା କେଉଁ ସ୍ତର ?
(i) ବୈଜ୍ଞାନିକ
(ii) ଆଧାମକ
(iii) ଆଧାତ୍ମକ
(iv) ଅର୍ଥନୈତିକ
Answer:
(i) ବୈଜ୍ଞାନିକ

Question ୧୬।
ତ୍ରିସ୍ତରୀୟ ନିୟମର ଦ୍ବିତୀୟ ସ୍ତର କେଉଁଟି ?
(i) ଧର୍ମାତାତ୍ତ୍ଵିକ ସ୍ତର
(ii) ବୈଜ୍ଞାନିକ ସ୍ତର
(iii) ଆଧ୍ୟାମିକ ସ୍ତର ର
(iv) ଫେଟିସବାଦ
Answer:
(iv) ଫେଟିସବାଦ

Question ୧୭।
ତ୍ରିସ୍ତରୀୟ ନିମୟର ଶେଷ ସ୍ତରଟି କ’ଣ ?
(i) ବୈଜ୍ଞାନିକ ସ୍ତର
(ii) ଧର୍ମତାତ୍ତ୍ଵିକ
(iii) ଆଧ୍ୟାତ୍ମକ
(iv) କେଉଁଟି ନୁହେଁ
Answer:
(i) ବୈଜ୍ଞାନିକ ସ୍ତର

Question ୧୮।
ନିମ୍ନୋକ୍ତ ମଧ୍ଯରୁ କିଏ ଆତ୍ମହତ୍ୟା ମତବାଦ ପ୍ରଦାନ କରିଛନ୍ତି ?
(i) କମ୍‌
(ii) ଦୁର୍ଗାଇମ୍
(iii) ୱେବର
(iv) କେଉଁଟି ନୁହେଁ
Answer:
(ii) ଦୁର୍ଗାଇମ୍

Question ୧୯।
ଆତ୍ମହତ୍ୟା ମତବାଦ କେଉଁ ମସିହାରେ ପ୍ରକାଶିତ ହୋଇଥିଲା ?
(i) ୧୮୯୭
(ii) ୧୮୯୭
(iii) ୧୯୧୭
(iv) ୧୮୯୩
Answer:
(ii) ୧୮୫୮

Question ୨୦।
ଦୁର୍ଗାଇନ୍‌ଙ୍କ ମତରେ ଆତ୍ମହତ୍ୟା କେତେ ପ୍ରକାରର ?
(i) ୪
(ii) ୨
(iii) ୫
(iv) କେଉଁଟି ନୁହେଁ
Answer:
(i) ୪

Question ୨୧।
ଜଣେ ସୈନିକ ଯୁଦ୍ଧରେ ଦେଶ ପାଇଁ ଜୀବନ ଦେବା କି ପ୍ରକାରର ଆତ୍ମହତ୍ୟା
(i) ଅହଂବାଦୀ
(ii) ପରାର୍ଥବାଦୀ
(iii) ଭାଗ୍ୟବାଦୀ
(iv) ନିୟମହୀନତା
Answer:
(ii) ପରାର୍ଥବାଦୀ

Question ୨୨।
“ କାଷ୍ଟ ଆଣ୍ଡ ରେସ୍‌ଇନ୍ ଇଣ୍ଡିଆ” ପୁସ୍ତକ କିଏ ଲେଖୁଛନ୍ତି ?
(i) ହଟନ
(ii) ସି. ଏଚ୍ କୁଲେ.
(iii) ଜି.ଏସ୍. ଘୁରେ
(iv) ମର୍ଟନ
Answer:
(iii) ଜି.ଏସ୍. ଘୁରେ

Question ୨୩ ।
ଘୁରେ ଜାତିର ସୃଷ୍ଟିକୁ କାହା ସହିତ ଯୋଡ଼ିଛନ୍ତି ?
(i) ବେଦ
(ii) ଧର୍ମ
(iii) କର୍ମ
(iv) ପ୍ରଜାତି
Answer:
(iv) ପ୍ରଜାତି

Question ୨୪।
ଘୂରେ ଜାତିର କେତୋଟି ସଂରଚନାମୂଳକ ଲକ୍ଷଣ ପ୍ରଦାନ କରିଛନ୍ତି ?
(i) ୬ଟି
(ii) ୫ଟି
(iii) ୪ଟି
(iv) ୭ଟି
Answer:
(i) ୬ଟି

Question ୨୫।
ସଂସ୍କୃତିକରଣ ସଂପ୍ରତ୍ୟୟ ନିମ୍ନୋକ୍ତ ମଧ୍ଯରୁ କିଏ ପ୍ରଦାନ କରିଛନ୍ତି ?
(i) ୱାଇ
(ii) ଏମ୍. ଏନ୍ ଶ୍ରୀନିବାସ
(iii) ସି.ଏଚ୍. କୁଲେ
(iv) କେହି ନୁହଁନ୍ତି
Answer:
(ii) ଏମ୍. ଏନ୍ ଶ୍ରୀନିବାସ

Question ୨୬ ।
‘ରିଲିଜିଅନ୍ ଆଣ୍ଡ୍ ସୋସାଇଟି ଏମଙ୍ଗ୍ ଦି କୁର୍ଗସ୍’ ପୁସ୍ତକ କିଏ ଲେଖୁଛନ୍ତି ?
(i) କୁଲେ
(ii) ମର୍ଟନ
(iii) ଶ୍ରୀନିବାସ
(iv) ଜି.ଏସ୍. ୟୂରେ
Answer:
(iii) ଶ୍ରୀନିବାସ

Question ୨୭।
ବ୍ରାହ୍ମଣୀକରଣ ସଂପ୍ରତ୍ୟୟର ବ୍ୟବହାର ନିମ୍ନୋକ୍ତଙ୍କ ମଧ୍ୟରୁ କିଏ କରିଥିଲେ ?
(i) ଘୂରେ
(ii) ଦୁର୍ଗାଇମ୍
(iii) ମାକାଇଭର
(iv) ଶ୍ରୀନିବାସ
Answer:
(iv) ଶ୍ରୀନିବାସ

Question ୨୮।
“ବିଜ୍ଞାନ ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷଣରୁ ଆରମ୍ଭ ହୁଏ ଏବଂ ଶେଷ ବୈଧତା । ପୁଣି ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷଣକୁ ଫେରେ” ଏହା ନିମ୍ନୋକ୍ତଙ୍କ ମଧ୍ୟରେ କିଏ କହିଛନ୍ତି ?
(i) ପି.ଭି. ୟଙ୍ଗ୍
(ii) ଗୁଡ଼େ, ଏବଂ ହ୍ୟାଟ
(ii) କମ୍
(iv) କୁଲେ
Answer:
(ii) ଗୁଡ଼େ ଏବଂ ହ୍ୟାଟ୍

Question ୨୯।
ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷଣ କେତେ ପ୍ରକାରର ?
(i) 8
(ii) ୪
(iii) ୩
(iv) ୨
Answer:
(i) ୫

Question ୩୦।
ଡାକରେ ପ୍ରେରିତ ପ୍ରଶ୍ନର ଚିଠାକୁ କ’ଣ କହନ୍ତି ?
(i) ପ୍ରଶ୍ନବଳୀ
(ii) ପ୍ରଶ୍ନ
(iii) ଚିଠି
(iv) କୌଣସିଟି ନୁହେଁ
Answer:
(i) ପ୍ରଶ୍ନବଳୀ

Question ୩୧।
ଲୁଣ୍ଡବର୍ଗ ପ୍ରଶ୍ନବଳୀକୁ କେତେ ଭାଗରେ ବିଭକ୍ତ କରିଛନ୍ତି ?
(i) ୩
(ii) ୨
(iii) ୪
(iv) ୫
Answer:
(iii) ୪

Question ୩୨।
ପି. ଭିୟଙ୍ଗ ପ୍ରଶ୍ନବୀକୁ କେତେ ଭାଗରେ ବିଭକ୍ତ କରିଛନ୍ତି ?
(i) ୫
(ii) ୪
(iii) ୩
(iv) ୨
Answer:
(i) ୫

Question ୩୩।
ପ୍ରତ୍ୟକ୍ଷ ସାକ୍ଷତକାରରେ କ’ଣ ବ୍ୟବହାର କରାଯାଏ ?
(i) ସୂଚୀ
(ii) ପ୍ରଶ୍ନବଳୀ
(iii) ପ୍ରଶ୍ନ
(iv) କୌଣସିଟି ନୁହେଁ
Answer:
(i) ସୂଚୀ

ଗୋଟିଏ ଶବ୍ଦରେ ଉତ୍ତର ଦିଅ :

Question ୧।
ସମାଜବିଜ୍ଞାନର ଜନକ କିଏ ?
Answer:
ଅଗଷ୍ଟ କମ୍‌

Question ୨।
କମ୍‌ଟେ କେଉଁ ଦେଶର ସମାଜବିଜ୍ଞାନୀ ?
Answer:
ଫ୍ରାନସ୍

Question ୩।
ତ୍ରିସ୍ତରୀୟୟ ନିୟମ କିଏ ପ୍ରଦାନ କରିଛନ୍ତି ?
Answer:
ଅଗଷ୍ଟ କମ୍‌

Question ୪।
ସମାଜବିଜ୍ଞାନର ପୂର୍ବ ନାମ କ’ଣ ଥିଲା ?
Answer:
ସାମାଜିକ’ ପଦାର୍ଥବିଜ୍ଞାନ

Question ୫।
ସମାଜବିଜ୍ଞାନ କେଉଁ ମସିହାରେ ସୃଷ୍ଟି ହୋଇଥିଲା ?
Answer:
୧୮୩୯

Question ୬।
ତ୍ରିସ୍ତରୀୟ ନିୟମର କେତୋଟି ସ୍ତର ଅଛି ?
Answer:
୩ଟି

Question ୭।
କଙ୍କ ତ୍ରିସ୍ତରୀୟ ନିୟମ କେଉଁ ତତ୍ତ୍ବ ଉପରେ ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେସିତ ?
Answer:
ବିବର୍ତ୍ତନ

Question ୮।
ଧର୍ମତାତ୍ତ୍ଵିକ ସ୍ତରର କେତୋଟି ଉପସ୍ତର ଅଛି ?
Answer:
୪ଟି

Question ୯।
ତ୍ରିସ୍ତରୀୟ ନିୟମର ପ୍ରଥମ ସ୍ତରର ନାମ କ’ଣ ?
Answer:
ଧର୍ମତାତ୍ତ୍ଵିକ ସ୍ତର

Question ୧୦।
ତ୍ରିସ୍ତରୀୟ ନିୟମର ଶେଷ ସ୍ତରର ନାମ କ’ଣ ?
Answer:
ବୈଜ୍ଞାନିକ ସ୍ତର

Question ୧୧।
ତ୍ରିସ୍ତରୀୟ ନିୟମର ମଧ୍ୟମ ସ୍ତରର ନାମ କ’ଣ ?
Answer:
ଆଧ୍ୟାମ୍ବିକ ସ୍ତର

Question ୧୨।
ଗୋଟିଏ ଈଶ୍ଵରରେ ବିଶ୍ବାସକୁ କ’ଣ କହନ୍ତି ?
Answer:
ଏକେଶ୍ବରବାଦ

Question ୧୩ ।
ଏକାଧିକ ଈଶ୍ବରରେ ବିଶ୍ବାସକୁ କ’ଣ କୁହନ୍ତି ?
Answer:
ବହୁ ଈଶ୍ବରବାଦ

Question ୧୪।
ଆତ୍ମା ବା ସ୍ପିରିଟ୍‌ରେ ବିଶ୍ବାସକୁ କ’ଣ କହନ୍ତି ?
Answer:
ଫେଟିସ୍‌ବାଦ

Question ୧୫।
୧୧୩୦ ଖ୍ରୀଷ୍ଟାବ୍ଦରୁ ୧୮୦୦ ଖ୍ରୀଷ୍ଟାବ୍ଦ ମଧ୍ୟରେ କେଉଁସ୍ତର ଦେଖାଦେଇଥିଲା ?
Answer:
ଆଧ୍ୟାତ୍ମିକ ବା ଅରୂପ ସ୍ତର

Question ୧୬।
“ଲି ସୁଇସାଇଡ୍” ପୁସ୍ତକ କିଏ ରଚନା କରିଛନ୍ତି ?
Answer:
ଇମାଇଲ୍ ଦୁର୍ଖାଇମ୍

Question ୧୭।
ଦୁର୍ଗାଇମ୍ ଆତ୍ମହତ୍ୟାକୁ କେତେ ଭାଗରେ ବିଭକ୍ତ କରିଛନ୍ତି ?
Answer:
୪ ଭାଗରେ

Question ୧୮।
ଦେଶ ପାଇଁ ଜୀବନ ବଳି ଦେବା କି ପ୍ରକାର ଆତ୍ମହାତ୍ୟା ?
Answer:
ପରାର୍ଥବାଦୀ

Question ୧୯।
ନିୟମହୀନତା ଯୋଗୁଁ କି ପ୍ରକାର ଆତ୍ମହତ୍ୟା ଦେଖାଯାଏ ?
Answer:
ଅନୋମିକ ସୁଇସାଇଡ୍

Question ୨୦।
କାଷ୍ଟ ଆଣ୍ଡ ରେସ୍ ପୁସ୍ତକର ରଚୟିତା କିଏ ?
Answer:
ଜି. ଏସ୍ . ଘୂରେ

Question ୨୧।
ଘୂରେ ଜାତିର କେତୋଟି ଲକ୍ଷଣ ଦର୍ଶାଇଛନ୍ତି ?
Answer:
୬ଟି

Question ୨୨।
ସଂସ୍କୃତିକରଣ ସଂପ୍ରତ୍ୟୟ କିଏ ଦେଇଛନ୍ତି ?
Answer:
ଏମ୍. ଏନ୍. ଶ୍ରୀନିବାସ

Question ୨୩।
ବ୍ରାହ୍ମଣୀକରଣ ସଂପ୍ରତ୍ୟୟ କିଏ ପ୍ରଦାନ କରିଥିଲେ ?
Answer:
ଏମ୍. ଏନ୍. ଶ୍ରୀନିବାସ

Question ୨୪।
ପରିବର୍ତ୍ତନ ଏକ ଦେଶର ଉତ୍ସର ନାମ ଲେଖ।
Answer:
ସଂସ୍କୃତିକରଣ

Question ୨୫।
‘ରିଲିଜିଅନ ଆଣ୍ଡ ସୋସାଇଟି ଏମଙ୍ଗ ଦି ଦୁର୍ଗସ୍” ପୁସ୍ତକ କିଏ ଲେଖୁଛନ୍ତି ?
Answer:
ଏମ୍. ଏନ୍, ଶ୍ରୀନିବାସ

Question ୨୬।
ତଥ୍ୟ ସଂଗ୍ରହର ଯେକୌଣସି ଗୋଟିଏ କୌଶଳର ନାମ ଲେଖ।
Answer:
ପ୍ରଶାବଳୀ

Question ୨୭।
ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷଣ କେତେ ପ୍ରକାରର ?
Answer:
୫ ପ୍ରକାରର

Question ୨୮।
ଡାକଦ୍ବାରା ପ୍ରେରିତ ତଥ୍ୟ ସଂଗ୍ରହ ପାଇଁ ପ୍ରଶ୍ନର ଚିଠାକୁ କ’ଣ କୁହନ୍ତି ?
Answer:
ପ୍ରଶାବଳୀ

Question ୨୯।
ପ୍ରତ୍ୟକ୍ଷ ସାକ୍ଷାତକାର ସମୟରେ କ’ଣ ବ୍ୟବହାର କରାଯାଏ ?
Answer:
ସାକ୍ଷାତକାର ସୂଚୀ ଲେଖ

Question ୩୦।
ସୂଚୀର ଏକ ଅପକାର ଲେଖ।
Answer:
ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷଣ ସୂଚୀ

Question ୩୧।
ସୂଚୀର ଏକ ଅପକାର ଲେଖ।
Answer:
ସୁଦୀର୍ଘ ଅଞ୍ଚଳ ଅଧ୍ୟୟନ କ୍ଷେତ୍ରରେ ଏହାର ବ୍ୟବହାର ସମ୍ଭବ ନୁହେଁ।

Question ୩୨।
ପି. ଭି. ୟଙ୍ଗ ପ୍ରଦାନ କରିଥିବା ସୂଚୀର ଏକ ଲକ୍ଷ୍ୟ ଉଲ୍ଲେଖ କର।
Answer:
ବସ୍ତୁନିଷ୍ଠ ଭାବେ ତଥ୍ୟ ସଂଗ୍ରହ କରିବା

Question ୩୩।
ସୂଚୀର ଏକ ପ୍ରକାରର ନାମ ଲେଖ।
Answer:
ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷଣ ସୂଚୀ

Question ୩୪।
ସୂଚୀ କେତେ ପ୍ରକାରର ?
Answer:
୫ ପ୍ରକାରର

Question ୩୫।
ପ୍ରଶାବଳୀ କେତେ ପ୍ରକାରର ?
Answer:
୫ ପ୍ରକାରର

‘ଖ’ ବିଭାଗ

ସଂକ୍ଷିପ୍ତ ପ୍ରଶ୍ନୋତ୍ତର ଦୁଇଟି କିମ୍ବା ତିନୋଟି ବାକ୍ୟରେ ଉତ୍ତର ଦିଅ :

Question ୧।
ତ୍ରିସ୍ତରୀୟ ନିୟମ କ’ଣ ?
Answer:
ଫରାସୀ ସମାଜବିଜ୍ଞାନୀ କମ୍‌ ତ୍ରିସ୍ତରୀୟ ନିୟମ ପ୍ରଦାନ କରିଥିଲେ ଯାହାକି ବିବର୍ତ୍ତନ ଉପରେ ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେସିତ ତାଙ୍କ ମତରେ ମାନବ ସମାଜ ବା ମାନବୀୟ ଚିନ୍ତା ବା ଜ୍ଞାନ ଧର୍ମତାତ୍ତ୍ଵିକ, ଆଧ୍ୟାତ୍ମିକ ଓ ବୈଜ୍ଞାନିକ ସ୍ତର ଦେଇ ବିକାଶ ଲାଭ କରିଥାଏ। ତିନୋଟି ସତର ଦେଇ ଗତି କରୁଥିବାରୁ ଏହାର ନାମ ତ୍ରିସ୍ତରୀୟ ନିୟମ।

Question ୨।
ଧର୍ମତାତ୍ତ୍ଵିକ ସ୍ତର କ’ଣ ?
Answer:
କମ୍‌ଙ୍କ ପ୍ରଦତ୍ତ ତ୍ରିସ୍ତରୀୟ ନିୟମର ପ୍ରଥମ ସ୍ତର ହେଉଛି ଧର୍ମତାତ୍ତ୍ଵିକ ସ୍ତର। ଏହି ସମୟରେ ମନୁଷ୍ୟର ସମସ୍ତ କାର୍ଯ୍ୟକଳାପ ଅତି ମାନବୀୟ ଶକ୍ତି ଦ୍ଵାରା ପରିଚାଳିତ ୧୩୦୦ ଖ୍ରୀଷ୍ଟବ୍ଦର ପୂର୍ବ ସମୟରେ ଏହି ସ୍ତର ତିଷ୍ଠି ରହିଥିଲା। ଏହି ସମୟରେ ମନୁଷ୍ୟ ଧର୍ମତାତ୍ତ୍ଵିକ ଅନ୍ଧବିଶ୍ବାସ ଦ୍ଵାରା ପରିଚାଳିତ ହେଉଥିଲା।

Question ୩।
ଆଧ୍ୟାମ୍ବିକ ସ୍ତର କ’ଣ ?
Answer:
କମ୍‌ ତ୍ରିସ୍ତରୀୟ ନିୟମର ଦ୍ଵିତୀୟ ସ୍ତରକୁ ଆଧାତ୍ମକ ସ୍ତର କହନ୍ତି। ଏହି ସ୍ତର ୧୩୦୦ ଖ୍ରୀଷ୍ଟବ୍ଦ ମଧ୍ଯରେ ପ୍ରଚଳିତ ଥିଲା। ଏହି ସ୍ତର ଧର୍ମତାତ୍ତ୍ଵିକ ସ୍ତର ଠାରୁ ଉନ୍ନତ ଥିଲା। ଏହି ସ୍ତରରେ ବିଶ୍ଵର ସମସ୍ତ କାର୍ଯ୍ୟକଳାପ ଏକ ଅମୂର୍ତ୍ତ ଶକ୍ତି ଦ୍ଵାରା ପରିଚାଳିତ ହେଉଥିଲା।

Question ୪।
ବୈଜ୍ଞାନିକ ସ୍ତର କ’ଣ ?
Answer:
କମ୍ପେଙ୍କ ତ୍ରିସ୍ତରୀୟ ନିୟମର ଶେଷସ୍ତରକୁ ବୈଜ୍ଞାନିକ ସ୍ତର କୁହାଯାଏ। ଏହା ମାନବୀୟ ଚିନ୍ତା ବା ମନର ବିକାଶର ଶେଷସ୍ତର ଯାହାର ୧୮୦୦ ଖ୍ରୀଷ୍ଟାବ୍ଦ ପରେ ସୃଷ୍ଟି ହୋଇଛି। ଏହି ସ୍ତରରେ ଲୋକମାନେ ଧର୍ମତାତ୍ତ୍ଵିକ ସ୍ତରର ଅନ୍ଧବିଶ୍ଵାସ ଓ ଆଧ୍ୟାତ୍ମିକ ସ୍ତରର ଅମୂର୍ଣ ଦ୍ଵାରା ପରିଚାଳିତ ନହୋଇ ବୈଜ୍ଞାନିକ ଚିନ୍ତାଧାର ଆଦି ଦ୍ଵାରା ପରିଚାଳିତ ହୋଇଥାନ୍ତି।

Question ୫।
ଫେଟିସ୍ଵାଦ କ’ଣ ?
Answer:
ଏହା ଧର୍ମତାତ୍ତ୍ଵିକ ସ୍ତରର ପ୍ରଥମ ଉପସ୍ତର। ଏହି ସମୟରେ ଲୋକମାନେ ବିଶ୍ଵାସ କରନ୍ତି ଯେ, ପ୍ରତ୍ୟେକ ନିର୍ଜୀବ ବସ୍ତୁରେ ମଧ୍ଯ କିଛି ଜୀବନୀ ସ୍ପିରିଟ୍ ରହିଛି। ପ୍ରତ୍ୟେକ ଦ୍ରବ୍ୟରେ ଈଶ୍ଵର ଉପନୀତ।

Question ୬।
ବହୁ ଈଶ୍ବରବାଦ କ’ଣ ?
Answer:
କଙ୍କ ତ୍ରିସ୍ତରୀୟ ନିୟମର ପ୍ରଥମ ସ୍ତର ବା ଧର୍ମତାତ୍ତ୍ଵିକ ସ୍ତରର ଉପସ୍ତର ହେଉଛି ବହୁ ଈଶ୍ବରବାଦ। ଏହି ସ୍ତରରେ ଲୋକମାନେ ଏକାଧିକ ଈଶ୍ଵରଙ୍କୁ ପୂଜା ବା ବିଶ୍ଵାସ କରୁଥିବାର ଦେଖାଯାଇଥାଏ।

Question ୭।
ଏକେଶ୍ବରବାଦ କ’ଣ ?
Answer:
କମ୍‌ଙ୍କ ତ୍ରିସ୍ତରୀୟ ନିୟମର ପ୍ରଥମ ସ୍ତର ବା ଧର୍ମ ତାତ୍ତ୍ଵିକ ସ୍ତରର ଅନ୍ୟ ଏକ ଉପସ୍ତର ହେଉଛି ଏକେଶ୍ବରବାଦ । ଏହି ସ୍ତରରେ ଲୋକମାନେ ଏକ ଈଶ୍ଵରଙ୍କଠାରେ ବିଶ୍ଵାସ ରଖୁବା ସହିତ ତାଙ୍କ ପୂଜା କରିଥାଏ। ସେହି ସର୍ବମୟ କର୍ତ୍ତା।

Question ୮।
ଆତ୍ମହାତ୍ୟା କ’ଣ ?
Answer:
ଫରାସୀ ସମାଜବିଜ୍ଞାନୀ ଦୁର୍ଖମ୍ ଆତ୍ମହତ୍ୟା ତନ୍ତ୍ର ପ୍ରଦାନ କରିଛନ୍ତି। ତାଙ୍କ ମତରେ, ଆତ୍ମହତ୍ୟା ଏକ ବ୍ୟକ୍ତିଗତ କାର୍ଯ୍ୟ ନୁହେଁ। ଏହା ନିଜକୁ କରିବାର ଏକ ସାମାଜିକ କାର୍ଯ୍ୟ । ସମାଜ ବ୍ୟକ୍ତି ଠାରେ ଏକ ଆତ୍ମହତ୍ୟାଜନିତ ପ୍ରବଣତା ସୃଷ୍ଟି କରେ, ଯାହାକି ତାଙ୍କୁ ଆତ୍ମହତ୍ୟା ପାଇଁ ପ୍ରେରିତ କରିଥାଏ।

Question ୯।
ଡ଼୍ ଦର୍ଶମୂଙ୍କ ମତରେ ଆତ୍ମହତ୍ୟା କେତେ ପ୍ରକାରର ?
Answer:
ଫରାସୀ ସମାଜବିଜ୍ଞାନୀ ଇମାଇଲ୍ ଦୁର୍ଗମ୍ ତାଙ୍କ ପୁସ୍ତକ “ଲି ସୁଇସାଇଡ୍”ରେ ଆତ୍ମହତ୍ୟାର ୪ ପ୍ରକାର ବିଷୟରେ ଉଲ୍ଲେଖ କରିଛନ୍ତି । ସେଗୁଡ଼ିକ ହେଲା! — ଅହଂବାଦୀ ଆତ୍ମହତ୍ୟା, ପରାର୍ଥବାଦୀ ଆତ୍ମହତ୍ୟା, ଆନୋମିକ୍ ଆତ୍ମହତ୍ୟା ଏବଂ ଭାଗ୍ୟବାଦୀ ଆତ୍ମହତ୍ୟା।

Question ୧୦।
ଅହଂବାଦୀ ଆତ୍ମହତ୍ୟା କ’ଣ ?
Answer:
ଯେତେବେଳେ ବ୍ୟକ୍ତି ସମୂହ ସହିତ ସଂପୂର୍ଣ୍ଣ ସମ୍ବନ୍ଧିତ

Question ୧୧।
ପରାର୍ଥବାଦୀ ଆତ୍ମହତ୍ୟା କ’ଣ ?
Answer:
ଏ ପ୍ରକାର ଆତ୍ମହତ୍ୟାରେ ସାମାଜିକ ସଂହତି ଅତ୍ୟନ୍ତ ଦୃଢ଼ ଥାଏ। ଏହି ସୁଦୃଢ଼ ସାମାଜିକ ସଂହତି ଅତ୍ୟନ୍ତ ଦୃଢ଼ ଥାଏ। ଏହି ସୁଦୃଢ଼ ସାମାଜିକ ସଂହତି ଦ୍ଵାରା ପରିଚାଳିତ ହୋଇ ବ୍ୟକ୍ତି ସମୂହ ପାଇଁ ନିଜ ଜୀବନକୁ ମଧ୍ଯ ତ୍ୟାଗ କରିଦିଏ। ଏହି ପ୍ରକାର ଆତ୍ମହତ୍ୟା ପରାର୍ଥବାଦୀ ଆତ୍ମହାତ୍ୟା କୁହାଯାଏ।

Question ୧୨।
ଆନୋମିକ୍ ଆତ୍ମହତ୍ୟା
Answer:
ରଚମ ବିଫଳତା ବା ପ୍ରତାରଣା ଯୋଗୁଁ ବ୍ୟକ୍ତି ଏ ପ୍ରକାର ଆତ୍ମହତ୍ୟା କରିଥାଏ। ଯେତେବେଳେ ସମାଜରେ ନିୟମ ହୀନତା ଦେଖାଯାଏ ବା ନୀତି ନିୟମ ଦୁର୍ବଳ ହୋଇପଡେ ସେତେବେଳେ ଯେଉଁ ଆତ୍ମହତ୍ୟା ଦେଖାଯାଏ କୁହାଯାଏ।

Question ୧୩।
ଭାଗ୍ୟବାଦୀ ଆତ୍ମହତ୍ୟା କ’ଣ ?
Answer:
ଅତ୍ୟଧ‌ିକ ନିୟନ୍ତ୍ରଣ ଯୋଗୁଁ ବ୍ୟକ୍ତି ଏ ପ୍ରକାର ଆତ୍ମହତ୍ୟା କରିଥାଏ। ଯେଉଁମାନଙ୍କର ଭବିଷ୍ୟତ ରୋକି ହୋଇଥାଏ ବା ଯେଉଁମାନଙ୍କର ଆବେଗ ବାଧାପ୍ରାପ୍ତ ହୋଇଥାଏ ସେମାନେ ଆତ୍ମହତ୍ୟା କଲେ ଭାଗ୍ୟବାଦୀ ଆତ୍ମହତ୍ୟା କୁହାଯାଏ।

Question ୧୪।
ଜାତି ସମ୍ବନ୍ଧରେ ଘୂରେଙ୍କ ମତ କ’ଣ ?
Answer:
ପ୍ରଫେସର ଘୂରେ ଜାତିଙ୍କୁ ଐତିହାସିକ, ତୁଳନାତ୍ମକ ଏବଂ ସଂହତିପୂର୍ଣ୍ଣ ଦୃଷ୍ଟିକୋଣରୁ ଆଲୋଚନା କରିଛନ୍ତି। ଘୂରେଙ୍କ ମତରେ ଜାତି ହେଉଛି ଏକ କ୍ଷୁଦ୍ର ଏବଂ ସ୍ଵୟଂସଂପୂର୍ଣ ସାମାଜିକ ବିଶ୍ବ ଯାହାକି ଅନ୍ୟମାନଙ୍କ ଠାରୁ ସ୍ଵତନ୍ତ୍ର ଯଦିଓ ସେମାନେ ଏହି ବୃହତ୍ ସମାଜ ମଧ୍ୟରେ ରହିଥାନ୍ତି। ଜାତି ପ୍ରଜାତି ମଧ୍ୟର ସୃଷ୍ଟି ବୋଲି ସେ ମତ ଦେଇଛନ୍ତି। ସେ ଏହାକୁ ବ୍ରାହ୍ମଣିକ ବ୍ୟବସ୍ଥା ସହିତ ଯୋଡ଼ିଛନ୍ତି।

Question ୧୫।
ଘୂରେ ପ୍ରଦାନ କରିଥିବା ଜାତିର ଲକ୍ଷଣ ମଧ୍ୟରୁ ତିନୋଟିକୁ ଦର୍ଶାଅ।
Answer:
ପ୍ରଫେସର ଜି. ଏସ୍. ଘୂରେ ଜାତିର ୬ଟି ସଂରଚାତ୍ମକ ଲକ୍ଷଣ ପ୍ରଦାନ କରିଛନ୍ତି। ସେଥୁମଧ୍ୟରୁ ପ୍ରମୁଖ ୩ଟି ହେଉଛି (୧) ସ୍ତ୍ରୀରୀକରଣ (୨) ସମାଜର କ୍ଷୁଦ୍ର ବିଭାଜନ (୩) ବିବାହ କ୍ଷେତ୍ରରେ ବାଧ୍ୟ।

Question ୧୬।
ସଂସ୍କୃତିକରଣ କ’ଣ ?
Answer:
ସଂସ୍କୃତିକରଣ ସଂପ୍ରତ୍ୟୟ ଏମ୍. ଏନ୍. ଶ୍ରୀନିବାସ ପ୍ରଦାନ କରିଥିଲେ। ଏକଦେଶୟ ସାମାଜିକ ପରିବର୍ତ୍ତନ ପ୍ରକ୍ରିୟା ଭାବେ ସେ ଏହାକୁ ବର୍ଣନା କରିଛନ୍ତି। ଯେତେବେଳେ ନିଜ ଜାତିର ଲୋକମାନେ ଜାତି ସ୍ତରୀକରଣ ବ୍ୟବସ୍ଥାରେ ନିଜର ସ୍ଥିତିର ଲୋକମାନେ ଜାତି ସ୍ତରୀକରଣ ବ୍ୟବସ୍ଥାରେ ନିଜର ସ୍ଥିତିରେ ଉନ୍ନତି ଆଣିବା ପାଇଁ ଉଚ୍ଚ ଜାତିର ଜୀବନଶୈଳୀ ଗ୍ରହଣ କରନ୍ତି ଏବଂ ନିଜର କେତେକ ଅପବିତ୍ର ଜୀବନଶୈଳୀକୁ ତ୍ୟାଗ କରନ୍ତି ତାହାକ ସଂସ୍କୃତିକରଣ କୁହାଯାଏ।

Question ୧୭।
ବ୍ରାହ୍ମଣୀକରଣ କ’ଣ ?
Answer:
ଭାରତୀୟ ସମାଜରେ ସାମାଜିକ ସାଂସ୍କୃତିକ ପରିବର୍ତ୍ତନ ପ୍ରକ୍ରିୟାକୁ ବ୍ୟାଖ୍ୟା କରିବାକୁ ଯାଇ ଶ୍ରୀନିବାସ ପ୍ରଥମ ବ୍ରାହ୍ମଣୀକରଣ ସଂପ୍ରତ୍ୟୟର ବ୍ୟବହାର କରିଥିଲେ। ଯେତେବେଳେ ଭାରତୀୟ ସମାଜର ନୀଚ୍ଚ ଜାତିର ଲୋକମାନେ ଜାତି ସ୍ତରୀକରଣ ବ୍ୟବସ୍ଥାରେ ନିଜର ସ୍ଥିତିରେ ଉନ୍ନତି ଆଣିବା ପାଇଁ ସେମାନଙ୍କର କେତେକ ଅପବିତ୍ର ଜୀବନ ଶୈଳୀ ତ୍ୟାଗ କରି ବ୍ରାହ୍ମଣମାନଙ୍କର ଜୀବନଶୈଳୀକୁ ଆପଣେଇ ଥାଆନ୍ତି। ତାହାକୁ ବ୍ରାହ୍ମଣୀକରଣ କୁହାଯାଏ।

Question ୧୮।
ସଂସ୍କୃତିକରଣର ୪ଟି ଲକ୍ଷଣ ଦର୍ଶାଅ।
Answer:
(୧) ସଂସ୍କୃତିକରଣ ପରିବର୍ତ୍ତନ ଏକ ଦେଶୀୟ ଉତ୍ସ।
(୨) ଏହା ଏକ ଦ୍ଵିପାକ୍ଷିକ ପ୍ରକ୍ରିୟା ଅଟେ।
(୩) ସଂସ୍କୃତିକରଣ ଭାରତୀୟ ସମାଜରେ ସାମାଜିକ ସାଂସ୍କୃତିକ ସଞ୍ଚଳନତାକୁ ବୁଝାଇଥାଏ।
(୪) ଏହା ଏକ ସାର୍ବଜନୀନ ପ୍ରକ୍ରିୟା ନୁହେଁ।

Question ୧୯।
ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷଣ କ’ର୍ଣ?
Answer:
ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷଣ ସାମାଜିକ ସମସ୍ୟା ଅଧ୍ୟୟନର ଏକ ପଦ୍ଧତି ଅଟେ। ଏହା ମୁଖ୍ୟତଃ ଆଶ୍‌ର କାର୍ଯ୍ୟ ଅଟେ। ଏହି ପଦ୍ଧତି ଦ୍ଵାରା ଜଣେ ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷକ ସାହାଯ୍ୟରେ ଗବେଷଣା କ୍ଷେତ୍ରରୁ ତଥ୍ୟ ସଂଗ୍ରହ କରାଯାଇଥାଏ। ଏହା ଏକ ଘଟଣା ବା ସମସ୍ୟାକୁ ସୁବ୍ୟବସ୍ଥିତ ଭାବେ ଅଧ୍ୟୟନ କରିବାର ଏକ ପ୍ରକ୍ରିୟା।

Question ୨୦।
ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷଣର ୪ଟି ଲକ୍ଷଣ ଉଲ୍ଲେଖ କର। ରହିଛି।
Answer:
ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷଣ ସମସ୍ୟାକୁ ଅଧ୍ୟୟନ କରିବାର ଏକ ବୈଜ୍ଞାନିକ ପଦ୍ଧତି ଅଟେ। ଏହାର ନିମ୍ନଲିଖତ ଲକ୍ଷଣମାନ
(୧) ଏକ ସୁବ୍ୟବସ୍ଥିତ ପଦ୍ଧତି।
(୨) ଏହା ମୁଖ୍ୟତଃ ଆଖୁ ଦ୍ଵାରା ସଂପାଦିତ ହୋଇଥାଏ।
(୩) ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷଣ ବସ୍ତୁନିଷ୍ଠ ଅଟେ।
(୪) ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷଣ ଦ୍ଵାରା ପ୍ରାଥମିକ ତଥ୍ୟ ସଂଗ୍ରହ କରାଯାଏ।

Question ୨୧।
ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷଣର ପ୍ରକାରଗୁଡ଼ିକୁ ଦର୍ଶାଅ।
Answer:
ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷଣ ମୁଖ୍ୟତଃ ୫ ପ୍ରକାରର ; ଯଥା-
(୧) ସହଭାଗୀ ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷଣ,
(୨) ଅଣ-ସହଭାଗୀ ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷଣ,
(୩) ମିଶ୍ରିତ ସହଭାଗୀ ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷଣ,
(୪) ନିୟନ୍ତ୍ରିତ ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷଣ,
(୫) ଅନିୟନ୍ତ୍ରିତ ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷଣ।

Question ୨୨।
ସହଭାଗୀ ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷଣ କ’ଣ ?
Answer:
ଯେତେବେଳେ ଜଣେ ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷକ ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷଣ କରୁଥିବା ସମୂହ ସହିତ ସାମିଲ ହୋଇ ବା ସେମାନଙ୍କ କାର୍ଯ୍ୟକଳାପରେ ଅଂଶଗ୍ରହଣ କରି ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷଣ କରିଥାଏ। ତାହାକୁ ସହଭାଗୀ ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷଣ କୁହାଯାଏ। ସେମାନଙ୍କ ସହିତ ମୁକ୍ତ ଭାବେ ମିଶେ।

Question ୨୩।
ସହଭାଗୀ ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷଣର ୨ଟି ଉପକାର ଲେଖ।
Answer:
(୧) ପ୍ରାକୃତିକ ଚରିତ୍ରର ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷଣ ବା ଅଧ୍ୟୟନ ସମ୍ଭବ ହୁଏ।
(୨) ସଂପୂର୍ଣ୍ଣ ଓ ସଠିକ୍ ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷଣ ବା ଅଧ୍ୟୟନ ସମ୍ଭବ ହୁଏ।

Question ୨୪।
ସହଭାଗୀ ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷଣର ୨ଟି ଅପକାର ଦର୍ଶାଅ।
Answer:
(୧) ସମସ୍ତ ଘଟଣା ସହଭାଗୀ ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷଣ ଦ୍ଵାରା ଅଧ୍ୟୟନ କରି ହେବ ନାହିଁ।
(୨) ଭାବଗତ ସହଭାଗୀତା ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷଣର ବସ୍ତୁନିଷ୍ଠତା ନଷ୍ଟ କରିଥାଏ।

Question ୨୫।
ଅଣ-ସହଭାଗୀ ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷଣ କ’ଣ ?
Answer:
ଯେତେବେଳେ ଜଣେ ବ୍ୟକ୍ତି ବାହାରୁ ବା ଦୂରରେ ରହି ବା ସମୂହ ସହିତ ଅଂଶଗ୍ରହଣ ନ କରି ତା’ର କାର୍ଯ୍ୟକଳାପକୁ ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷଣ କରେ ତାହାକୁ ଅଣ ସହଭାଗୀ ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷଣ କୁହାଯାଏ। ଏଠାରେ ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷକ ନିରପେକ୍ଷ ରହି ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷଣ କରିଥାଏ।

Question ୨୬।
ଅଣ-ସହଭାଗୀ ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷଣର ୨ଟି ଉପକାର ଦର୍ଶାଅ।
Answer:
(୧) ବସ୍ତୁନିଷ୍ଠ ଅଧ୍ୟୟନ ସମ୍ଭବ ହୋଇଥାଏ।
(୨) ଲୁକ୍‌କାୟିତ ତଥ୍ୟ ସଂଗ୍ରହ ସମ୍ଭବ ହୁଏ।

Question ୨୭।
ଅଣ-ସହଭାଗୀ ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷଣର ୨ଟି ଅପକାର ଦର୍ଶାଅ।
Answer:
(୧) ପ୍ରାକୃତି ଅବସ୍ଥାରେ ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷଣ ସମ୍ଭବ ନହେଁ।
(୨) ଏହାଦ୍ଵାରା ସଂଗୃହିତ ତଥା ବସ୍ତୁନିଷ୍ଠ ଓ ନିର୍ଭରଯୋଗ୍ୟ ନୁହେଁ।

Question ୨୮।
ମିଶ୍ରିତ ସହଭାଗୀ’ ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷଣ କ’ଣ ?
Answer:
ଏକ ସଂପୂର୍ଣ୍ଣ ସହଭାଗୀ ଓ ଅଣସହଭାଗୀ ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷଣ ଅସମ୍ଭବ ଅଟେ। ଯେଉଁ ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷଣରେ ଉଭୟ ସହଭାଗୀ ଓ ଅଣ ସହଭାଗୀ ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷଣ ମିଶ୍ରିତ ଭାବେ ପରିଲକ୍ଷିତ ହୋଇଥାଏ ତାହାକୁ ମିଶ୍ରିତ ସହଭାଗୀ ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷଣ କହନ୍ତି। ଏ ପ୍ରକାର ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷଣରେ କେତେକ କ୍ଷେତ୍ରରେ ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷକ ଅଂଶଗ୍ରହଣ କରି ତଥ୍ୟ ସଂଗ୍ରହ କରିଥିବାବେଳେ ଆଉ କେତେକରେ ଅଂଶଗ୍ରହଣ ନକରି ତଥ୍ୟ ସଂଗ୍ରହ କରିଥାଏ।

Question ୨୯।
ନିୟନ୍ତ୍ରିତ ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷଣ କ’ଣ ?
Answer:
ଯେଉଁ ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷଣରେ ଅଧୂକ ବସ୍ତୁନିଷ୍ଠତା ହାସଲ ପାଇଁ ବିଭିନ୍ନ ନିୟୟନ୍ତ୍ରଣ କୌଶଳ ଅବଲମ୍ବନ କରାଯାଏ ତାହାକୁ ନିୟନ୍ତ୍ରିତ ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷଣ କୁହାଯାଏ। ଏହି ପ୍ରକାର ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷଣରେ ନିୟନ୍ତ୍ରଣ ଉଭୟ ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷକ ଓ ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେସିତ ଘଟଣା ଉପରେ ନିୟନ୍ତ୍ରଣ ଜାରି କରାଯାଇଥାଏ।

Question ୩୦।
ଅଣ ନିୟନ୍ତ୍ରଣ ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷଣ କ’ଣ ?
Answer:
ଯେଉଁ ପ୍ରକାର ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷଣ ଏକ ପ୍ରାକୃତିକ ପରିସ୍ଥିତିରେ କରାଯାଏ ଏବଂ ଏଥିରେ କୌଣସି ପ୍ରକାର ବାହ୍ୟ ପ୍ରଭାବ ବା ନିୟନ୍ତ୍ରଣ ଜାରି କରାଯାଇ ନଥାଏ ତାହାକୁ ଅଣ ନିୟନ୍ତ୍ରଣ ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷଣ କୁହାଯାଏ।

Question ୩୧।
ପ୍ରଶାବଳୀ କ’ଣ ?
Answer:
ସାମାଜିକ ଗବେଷଣା କ୍ଷେତ୍ରରେ ପ୍ରଶାବଳୀ ତଥ୍ୟ ସଂଗ୍ରହର ଏକ ଜନପ୍ରିୟ କୌଶଳ । ଯେତେବେଳେ ତଥ୍ୟ ପ୍ରଦାନକାରୀମାନେ ଏକ ବିରାଟ ଭୂଖଣ୍ଡରେ ବିଛାଡ଼ି ହୋଇ ରହିଥାନ୍ତି ସେତେବେଳେ ଏହି କୌଶଳ ଅବଲମ୍ବନ କରାଯାଏ ! ପ୍ରଶାବଳୀ ହେଉଛି ତଥ୍ୟ ସଂଗ୍ରହ ପାଇଁ ପ୍ରସ୍ତୁତ ହୋଇଥିବା ପ୍ରଶ୍ନଗୁଡ଼ିକର ଏକ ଚିଠା।

Question ୩୨।
ପ୍ରଶ୍ନବଳୀର ୪ଟି ଲକ୍ଷଣ ଦର୍ଶାଅ।
Answer:
(୧) ଏହା କ୍ଷୁଦ୍ର ହେବା ଉଚିତ।
(୨) ଏଥରେ ବସ୍ତୁନିଷ୍ଠ ପ୍ରଶ୍ନ ରହିବା ଉଚିତ।
(୩) ପ୍ରଶ୍ନଗୁଡ଼ିକ ଠିକ୍ କ୍ରମରେ ସଜ୍ଜିତ ହେବା ଉଚିତ।
(୪) ଏଥିରେ ବ୍ୟବହୃତ ଭାଷା ସରଳ ହେବା ଉଚିତ ।

Question ୩୩।
ପ୍ରଶ୍ନବଳୀ ପ୍ରକାରଗୁଡ଼ିକ କ’ଣ ?
Answer:
(୧) ପି.ଭି. ୟଙ୍ଗ ପ୍ରଶାବଳୀକୁ ୩ ଭାଗରେ ବିଭକ୍ତ କରିଛନ୍ତି; ଯଥା
(୧) ସଂଚରିତ ପ୍ରଶ୍ନବଳୀ,
(୨) ଅଣ ସଂରଚିତ ପ୍ରଶାବଳୀ
(୩) ଛବିକ ପ୍ରଶ୍ଵାବଳୀ।

ସେହିପରି ଜି. ଏ ଲୁଣ୍ଡବର୍ଗ ଏହାର ୨ଟି ପ୍ରକାର ଦର୍ଶାଇଛନ୍ତି ।
(୧) ସତ୍ୟ ବା ବାସ୍ତୁବତାର ପ୍ରଶାବଳୀ
(୨) ମତର ପ୍ରଶାବଳୀ

Question ୩୪।
ପ୍ରଶାବଳୀର ୪ଟି ଉପକାର ଦର୍ଶାଅ।
Answer:
(୧) ପ୍ରଶାବଳୀ ମାଧ୍ୟମରେ ଗବେଷଣାରେ କମ୍ ସମୟ ଓ କମ୍ ଖର୍ଚ୍ଚ ହୋଇଥାଏ।
(୨) ସୁଦୀର୍ଘ ଅଞ୍ଚଳ ଭିତ୍ତିକ ଗବେଷଣା ଏହାଦ୍ଵାରା ସହଜ ହୁଏ ।
(୩) ଏହା ତଥ୍ୟ ସଂଗ୍ରହର ସବୁଠୁ ସହଜ ଓ ନମନୀୟ ପଦ୍ଧତି ।
(୪) ଏହା ମାଧ୍ୟମରେ ସଂଗୃହୀତ ତଥ୍ୟ ନିର୍ଭରଯୋଗ୍ୟ ହୋଇଥାଏ ।

Question ୩୫।
ପ୍ରଶାବଳୀର ୪ଟି ଅପକାରିତା ଦର୍ଶାଅ।
Answer:
(୧) ଅଣସାକ୍ଷର ବ୍ୟକ୍ତିଙ୍କଠାରୁ ଏହି ପଦ୍ଧତିରେ ତଥ୍ୟ ସଂଗ୍ରହ ସମ୍ଭବ ନୁହେଁ।
(୨) ଏହି ପଦ୍ଧତିରେ ଅନେକ ତଥ୍ୟ ଫାଙ୍କା ରହିଥାଏ, ପୂରଣ ହୋଇ ନ ଥାଏ।
(୩) ଏଥିରେ ହସ୍ତଚାଳନା କରିବାର ସମ୍ଭାବନା ରହିଥାଏ।
(୪) ସଂପ୍ରତ୍ୟୟ ଜନିତ ସନ୍ଦେହ ଦୂର କରିବାକୁ କେହି ପାଖରେ ନ ଥାନ୍ତି।

Question ୩୬।
ସୂଚୀ ବା ସିଡୁଲ କ’ଣ ?
Answer:
ସାମାଜିକ ଗବେଷଣା କ୍ଷେତ୍ରରେ ତଥ୍ୟ ସଂଗ୍ରହର ଏକ ଜନପ୍ରିୟ ପଦ୍ଧତି ହେଉଛି ସୂଚୀ ବା ସିଡୁଲ। ସାକ୍ଷାତକାର ସମୟରେ ଅନୁସନ୍ଧାନକାରୀ ବ୍ୟବହାର କରୁଥିବା ପ୍ରଶ୍ନଗୁଡ଼ିକର ଏକ ଚିଠାକୁ ସୂଚୀ କୁହାଯାଏ।

Question ୩୭।
ସୂଚୀ କେତେ ପ୍ରକାରର ଓ କ’ଣ କ’ଣ ?
Answer:
ସୂଚୀ ୫ ପ୍ରକାରର; ଯଥା – (୧) ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷଣ ସୂଚୀ, (୨) ଏହା ସନ୍ଦେହ ଦୂର କରିବାରେ ସହାୟକ ହୁଏ, (୩) କମ୍ ସମୟ ଆବଶ୍ୟକ କରେ, (୪) ନିର୍ଭୁଲ୍ ତଥ୍ୟ ମିଳେ।

Question ୩୮।
ସୂଚୀର ଅପକାରିତା ଦର୍ଶାଅ।
(୧) ବୃହତ ଅଞ୍ଚଳଭିଭିକ ଗବେଷଣା ବା ତଥ୍ୟ ସଂଗ୍ରହ ଏହାଦ୍ବାରା ସମ୍ଭବ ନୁହେଁ।
(୨) ତଥ୍ୟ ନିର୍ଭରଯୋଗ୍ୟ ନୁହେଁ।
(୩) ଏହା ଅଧିକ ସମୟ ଦରକାର କରେ।
(୪) ଏହା ଅଧିକ ଖର୍ଚାନ୍ତ କରିଥାଏ।

ବ୍ୟାଖ୍ୟା କରି ଛଅଟି ବାକ୍ୟରେ ଉତ୍ତର ଦିଅ :

Question ୧।
କମ୍‌ଙ୍କ ତ୍ରିସ୍ତରୀୟ ନିୟମ କ’ଣ ?
Answer:
କମ୍‌ ଜଣେ ବିବର୍ତ୍ତନବାଦୀ। ସେ ବିବର୍ତ୍ତନ ବାଦକୁ ତାଙ୍କ ତ୍ରିସ୍ତରୀୟ ନିୟମରେ ପ୍ରୟୋଗ କରିଛନ୍ତ।ତାଙ୍କ ମତରେ ମାନବ ସମାଜ ବା ମଣିଷର ମନ ବିବର୍ତ୍ତନ ପ୍ରକ୍ରିୟାର ତିନୋଟି ସ୍ତର; ଯଥା – ଧର୍ମତାତ୍ତ୍ଵିକ, ଆଧ୍ୟାମିକ ଓ ବୈଜ୍ଞାନିକ ଦେଇ ଗତି କରିଥାଏ। ଧର୍ମତାତ୍ତ୍ଵିକ ସ୍ତର ଦୀର୍ଘ ଦିନ ପର୍ଯ୍ୟନ୍ତ ତିଷ୍ଠି ରହିଥିଲା। ସେ ଏହି ସ୍ତରକୁ ପୁନଶ୍ଚ ୪ଟି ଉପସ୍ତରରେ ବିଭାଜିତ କରିଛନ୍ତ। ଏହି ସ୍ତରରେ ମଣିଷ ଅନ୍ଧବିଶ୍ବାସ ଓ ଈଶ୍ଵର ବିଶ୍ବାସ ଦ୍ଵାରା ପରିଚାଳିତ ହୋଇଥାଏ। ଆଧାମ୍ବିକ ବା ଅରୂପ ସ୍ତରରେ ସେ ବିଶ୍ଵାସ କରିଥାଏ ଯେ ଏକ ଅମୂର୍ଣ ସତ୍ତା ପ୍ରତ୍ୟେକ ଜିନିଷକୁ ପରିଚାଳିତ କରିଥାଏ। ବୈଜ୍ଞାନିକ ସ୍ତର ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷଣ ଉପରେ ବିଶ୍ଵାସ କରିଥାଏ।

Question ୨।
ଧର୍ମତାତ୍ତ୍ଵିକ ସ୍ତର କ’ଣ।
Answer:
କମ୍‌ଙ୍କ ତ୍ରିସ୍ତରୀୟ ନିୟମର ପ୍ରଥମ ସ୍ତରକୁ ଧର୍ମତାତ୍ତ୍ଵିକ ସ୍ତର କୁହାଯାଏ। ଏହି ସ୍ତରରେ ମନୁଷ୍ୟମାନେ ବିଶ୍ଵାସ କରନ୍ତି ଯେ, ଏକ ଅତିମାନବୀୟ ଶକ୍ତି ପ୍ରତ୍ୟେକ ଘଟଣା ପାଇଁ ଦାୟୀ ଅଟେ। ଏହି ସମୟରେ ମଣିଷର ମନ ବା ଚିନ୍ତା ଧର୍ମତାତ୍ତ୍ଵିକ ଅନ୍ଧ ବିଶ୍ଵାସ ଦ୍ଵାରା ପରିଚାଳିତ ହୋଇଥାଏ। କଷ୍ଟେ ଏହି ସ୍ତରକୁ ପୁନଶ୍ଚ ୪ ଟି ଉପସ୍ତରରେ ବିଭାଜିତ କରିଛନ୍ତି ଯଥା: ଫେଟିସ୍‌ବାଦ, ଆରୋପୋମରଫିବାଦ, ବହୁ ଈଶ୍ବରବାଦ ଏବଂ ଏକେଶ୍ବରବାଦ। ଏହିସ୍ତର ସଭ୍ୟତାର ଆରମ୍ଭରୁ ୧୩୦୦ ଖ୍ରୀଷ୍ଟାବ୍ଦ ପୂର୍ବ ପର୍ଯ୍ୟନ୍ତ ତିଷ୍ଠି ରହିଥିଲା।

Question ୩।
ଆଧ୍ୟାମ୍ବିକ ସ୍ତର କ’ଣ ?
Answer:
କମ୍‌ଙ୍କ ତ୍ରିସ୍ତରୀୟ ନିୟମର ଦ୍ଵିତୀୟ ସ୍ତର ହେଉଛି ଆଧାମ୍ବିକ ସ୍ତର। ଏହି ସ୍ତର ୧୩୦୦ ଖ୍ରୀଷ୍ଟାବ୍ଦରୁ ୧୮୦୦ ଖ୍ରୀଷ୍ଟାବ୍ଦ ମଧ୍ୟରେ ତିଷ୍ଠି ରହିଥିଲା ବୋଲି କସ୍ଟେଙ୍କ ମତ। ଏହି ସ୍ତରରେ ଲୋକମାନେ ବିଶ୍ଵାସ କରୁଥିଲେ ଯେ, ଏକ ଅମୂର୍ଖ ବା ଅରୂପ ଶକ୍ତି ବିଶ୍ବର ସମସ୍ତ ଘଟଣାର କର୍ତ୍ତା। ଏହି ସ୍ତରର ଲୋକମାନେ ପୂର୍ଣ ଈଶ୍ବରଙ୍କ ଠାରେ ବିଶ୍ଵାସ କରୁନଥିଲେ। ଏହି ସ୍ତରରେ ମାନବୀୟ ପ୍ରଜ୍ଞାର କିଛି ପରିମାଣରେ ଉନ୍ନତି ଘଟିଥିଲା। ଏହା ମଧ୍ୟ ସ୍ତର ଭାବେ ପରିଚିତ ଅଟେ।

Question ୪।
ବୈଜ୍ଞାନିକ ସ୍ତର କ’ଣ ?
Answer:
କମ୍‌ଙ୍କ ତ୍ରିସ୍ତରୀୟ ନିୟମର ଶେଷ ଓ ଓବୁଠୁ ଉନ୍ନତ ସ୍ତର ହେଉଛି ବୈଜ୍ଞାନିକ ସ୍ତର । କମ୍ପେଙ୍କ ମତରେ ମାନବୀୟ ଚିନ୍ତା ଓ ମାନବ ମନର ବିକାଶ ଏହା ଶେଷ ସ୍ତର ଅଟେ । ଏହି ସ୍ତର ୧୮୦୦ ଖ୍ରୀଷ୍ଟାବ୍ଦ ପରେ ଆରମ୍ଭ ହୋଇଛି । ଏହି ସ୍ତରରେ ବିଜ୍ଞାନରେ ବିଶ୍ଵାସ ବୃଦ୍ଧି ପାଇଥାଏ । ଏହି ସ୍ତରର ଲୋକମାନେ ଧର୍ମତାତ୍ତ୍ଵିକ ଅନ୍ଧବିଶ୍ଵାସ ଓ ଆଧ୍ୟାତ୍ମିକ ସ୍ତରର ଅମୂର୍ଖତା ଦ୍ଵାରା ପରିଚାଳିତ ନହୋଇ ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷଣ ଉପରେ ପ୍ରଧାନ୍ୟ ଦେଇଥାନ୍ତି । ଏହି ସ୍ତରରେ ବୈଜ୍ଞାନିକ ଓ ଶିଳ୍ପପତିମାନଙ୍କର ପ୍ରାଧାନ୍ୟ ଦେଖାଯାଇଥାଏ । ଆଇନ୍ ପ୍ରତିଷ୍ଠା ପାଇଁ ମନୁଷ୍ୟମାନେ ଏହି ସ୍ତରରେ ପ୍ରକୃତି ଏବଂ ମାନବୀୟତାକୁ ବସ୍ତୁନିଷ୍ଠ ଭାବେ ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷଣ କରିଥାନ୍ତି ।

Question ୫।
ଧର୍ମତାତ୍ତ୍ଵିକ ସ୍ତରର ଉପସ୍ତରଗୁଡ଼ିକ କ’ଣ ?
Answer:
କଙ୍କ ତ୍ରିସ୍ତରୀୟ ନିୟମର ପ୍ରଥମ ସ୍ତରକୁ ଧର୍ମତାତ୍ତ୍ଵିକ ସ୍ତର କୁହାଯାଏ। ଏହି ସ୍ତର ସଭ୍ୟତା ଆରମ୍ଭରୁ ୧୩୦୦ ଖ୍ରୀଷ୍ଟାବ୍ଦ ପର୍ଯ୍ୟନ୍ତ ଦୀର୍ଘ ସମୟ ଧରି ତଣ୍ଡି ରହିଥୁଲା କମ୍‌ ଏହି ସ୍ତରକୁ ୪ ଟି ଉପସ୍ତରରେ ବିଭାଜିତ କରିଥିଲେ। ଯଥା; ଫେଟିସବାଦ, ଆଟ୍ରୋପୋମାର୍ପିତବାଦ, ବହୁ ଈଶ୍ବର ବାଦ ଓ ଏକେଶ୍ବରବାଦ। ଫେଟିସବାଦ ବିଶ୍ଵାସ କରିଥାଏ ଯେ, ପ୍ରତ୍ୟେକ ନିର୍ଜୀବ ଜିନିଷରେ କୌଣସି ନା କୌଣସି ସ୍ପିରିଟ୍ ବା ଜୀବିତ ଆତ୍ମା ବା ସଭ୍ୟ ରହିଥାଏ। ଅନ୍ୟ ଅର୍ଥରେ କହିଲେ ପ୍ରତ୍ୟେକ ଜୀବିତ ଓ ନିର୍ଜୀବ ଦ୍ରବ୍ୟର ଈଶ୍ୱରୀୟ ସତ୍ତା ରହିଥାଏ। ଏହାପରେ ମାନବ ଚିନ୍ତାରେ ବିକାଶ ଘଟି ମନଷ୍ୟ ଦ୍ବିତୀୟ ସ୍ତରରେ ପହଞ୍ଚିଲା ଯାହାକି ଆଡ୍ରୋପୋମର୍ଦିବାଦ ନାମରେ ପରିଚିତ। ଏହି ସ୍ତରରେ ଈଶ୍ଵରୀୟ ସତ୍ତାର ମାନବୀୟ ଆକାର ବିଷୟରେ କଳ୍ପନା କରାଗଲା। ସମୟ କ୍ରମେ ମନୁଷ୍ୟ ଚିନ୍ତାରେ ପୁନଶ୍ଚ ବିକାଶ ଘଟି ସେ ଏକାଧିକ ଈଶ୍ଵରଙ୍କର ଅବସ୍ଥିତି ବିଶ୍ଵାସ କଲା ଯାହା ବହୁ ଈଶ୍ବରବାଦ ଅଟେ। ପୁଣି ସମୟକ୍ରମେ ତା’ର ଚିନ୍ତାର ବିକାଶ ଘଟିବାରୁ ସେ ଏକ ଈଶ୍ଵରରେ ବିଶ୍ଵାସ କଲା ଯାହା ଏକେଶ୍ଵରବାଦ।

Question ୬।
ଦୁର୍ଗାଇମ୍‌ଙ୍କ ଆତ୍ମହାତ୍ୟା ତତ୍ତ୍ୱ କ’ଣ ?
Answer:
ପ୍ରଖ୍ୟାତ ଫରାସୀ ସମାଜବିଜ୍ଞାନୀ ଇମାଇଲ୍ ଦୁର୍ଗାଇମ୍ ୧୮୯୭ ମସିହାରେ ଲି ସୁଇସାଇଡ୍ ନାମକ ଏକ ପୁସ୍ତକ ପ୍ରକାଶ କରିଥିଲେ। ତାଙ୍କ ମତରେ ଆତ୍ମହତ୍ୟା ନିଜକୁ ହତ୍ୟା କରିବାର ଏକ ସାମାଜିକ କାର୍ଯ୍ୟ। ଏହା ଏକ ସାମାଜିକ ସତ୍ୟ, ତାଙ୍କ ମତରେ ସମାଜ ବ୍ୟକ୍ତି ଠାରେ ଆତ୍ମହତ୍ୟା ଜନିତ ଏକ ପ୍ରବଣତା ସୃଷ୍ଟି କରେ ଯାହାଦ୍ଵାରା ପ୍ରଭାବିତ ହୋଇ ବ୍ୟକ୍ତି ଆତ୍ମହତ୍ୟା କରେ। ଦୁର୍ଗାଇମ୍ ଆତ୍ମହତ୍ୟାର ୪ଟି ପ୍ରକାର ସମ୍ବନ୍ଧରେ ଉଲ୍ଲେଖ କରିଛନ୍ତି। ଯଥା : ଅହଂବାଦୀ, ଆତ୍ମହତ୍ୟା, ପରାର୍ଥବାଦୀ ଆତ୍ମହତ୍ୟା, ଆନୋମିକ୍ ବା ନିୟମଶୂନ୍ୟତା ଆତ୍ମହତ୍ୟା ଏବଂ ଭାଗ୍ୟବାଦୀ ଆତ୍ମହତ୍ୟା।

Question ୬।
ଅହଂବାଦୀ ଆତ୍ମହତ୍ୟା କ’ଣ ?
Answer:
ସମାଜବିଜ୍ଞାନୀ ଇମାଇଲ୍ ଦୁର୍ଗାଇମ୍ ଆତ୍ମହତ୍ୟା ମତବାଦ ପ୍ରଦାନ କରିଛନ୍ତି। ତାଙ୍କ ମତରେ ଆତ୍ମହତ୍ୟା ଏକ ସାମାଜିକ ସତ୍ୟ। ସାମାଜିକ ସଂହତି ଓ ସାମାଜିକ ନିୟମ ଭିତ୍ତିରେ ସେ ଆତ୍ମହତ୍ୟାକୁ ଚାରି ଭାଗରେ ବର୍ଗୀକରଣ କରିଛନ୍ତି। ଏହି ବର୍ଗୀକରଣ ମଧ୍ୟରୁ ଅହଂବାଦୀ ଆତ୍ମହତ୍ୟା ଏକ ପ୍ରକାର ଅଟେ। ଯେତେବେଳେ ଜଣେ ବ୍ୟକ୍ତିର ସମାଜ ସହିତ ସଂହତି ନିମ୍ନ ବା ଦୁର୍ବଳ ହୋଇପଡ଼େ ସେ ଯେଉଁ ଆତ୍ମହତ୍ୟା କରେ ତାହାକୁ ଅହଂବାଦୀ ଆତ୍ମହତ୍ୟା କୁହାଯାଏ। ଏହି ସମୟରେ ସେ ସମୂହ ସହିତ ସଂପୂର୍ଣ ଯୋଡ଼ି ନହେବାର ଅନୁଭବ କରେ। ଏହି ପ୍ରକାର ନଯୋଡ଼ି ହେବାର ଭାବନା ତା ମଧ୍ୟରେ ହାତଶଭାବ ସୃଷ୍ଟି କରେ ଓ ସେ ଆତ୍ମହତ୍ୟା କରେ।

Question ୮।
ପରାର୍ଥବାଦୀ ଆତ୍ମହତ୍ୟା କ’ଣ ?
Answer:
ଫରାସୀ ସମାଜବିଜ୍ଞାନୀ ଦୁର୍ଗାଇମ୍ ଆତ୍ମହତ୍ୟା ତତ୍ତ୍ୱ ପ୍ରଦାନ କରିଛନ୍ତ। ତାଙ୍କ ମତରେ ଆତ୍ମହତ୍ୟା ଏକ ସାମାଜିକ ସତ୍ୟ। ସାମାଜିକ ସଂହତି ଓ ନିୟମ ଭିଭିରେ ସେ ଆତ୍ମହତ୍ୟାକୁ ୪ ଭାଗରେ ବର୍ଗୀକରଣ କରିଛନ୍ତି ଓ ସେଥିମଧ୍ୟରୁ ପରାର୍ଥବାଦୀ ଆତ୍ମହତ୍ୟା ଏକ ପ୍ରକାର। ଯେତେବେଳେ ସାମାଜିକ ସଂହତି ଅତ୍ୟଧ୍ବକ ଦୃଢ଼ ହୋଇଥାଏ. ସେତେବେଳେ ଯଦି ବ୍ୟକ୍ତି ଆତ୍ମହତ୍ୟା କରେ ତାହାକୁ ପରାର୍ଥବାଦୀ ଆତ୍ମହତ୍ୟା କୁହାଯାଏ। ଯୁଦ୍ଧ ସମୟରେ ସୈନିକ ଦେଶ ପାଇଁ ଜୀବନ ଦେବା ପରାର୍ଥବାଦୀ ଆତ୍ମହତ୍ୟାର ଏକ ଉଦାହରଣ ଅଟେ।

Question ୯।
ଆନୋମିକ୍ ଆତ୍ମହତ୍ୟା କ’ଣ ?
Answer:
ଦୁର୍ଗାଇମ ଆତ୍ମହତ୍ୟା ତନ୍ତ୍ର ପ୍ରଦାନ କରିଛନ୍ତି। ତାଙ୍କ ମତରେ ଆତ୍ମହତ୍ୟା ଏକ ସାମାଜିକ ସତ୍ୟ। ସେ ସାମାଜିକ ସଂହତି ଓ ନିୟମ ଭିତ୍ତିରେ ଆତ୍ମହତ୍ୟାକୁ ୪ ଭାଗରେ ବିଭକ୍ତ କରିଛନ୍ତି। ଏହି ୪ ପ୍ରକାର ମଧ୍ୟରୁ ଆନୋମିକ୍ ଆତ୍ମହତ୍ୟା ଏକ ପ୍ରକାର। ସମାଜରେ ନିୟମ ଶୂନ୍ୟତା ଦେଖାଦେଲେ ଏ ପ୍ରକାର ଆତ୍ମହତ୍ୟା ଦେଖାଯାଇଥାଏ। ସମାଜିକ ନିୟମ ଦୁର୍ବଳ ହୋଇ ବ୍ୟକ୍ତି ଉପରେ ନିୟନ୍ତ୍ରଣ ହରାଇଲେ ଏହି ପ୍ରକାର ଆତ୍ମହତ୍ୟା ଦେଖାଯାଏ। ଆର୍ଥିକ ଓ ଶିକଭିଭିକ ବିପଦ ସମୟରେ ଏ ପ୍ରକାର ଆତ୍ମହତ୍ୟା ଦେଖାଯାଇଥାଏ।

Question ୧୦।
ଜାତି ଉପରେ ଘୂରେଙ୍କ ମତ ସଂକ୍ଷେପରେ ଦିଅ।
Answer:
ଜାତି ବ୍ୟବସ୍ଥା ହିନ୍ଦୁ ସମାଜର ଏକ ଗୁରୁତ୍ଵପୂର୍ଣ୍ଣ ଅନୁଷ୍ଠାନ। ବିଭିନ୍ନ ଦୃଷ୍ଟିରୁ ବିଭିନ୍ନ ଚିନ୍ତାନାୟକମାନେ ଏହାର ଅଧ୍ୟୟନ କରିଛନ୍ତି। ସେମାନଙ୍କ ମଧ୍ୟରୁ ପ୍ରଫେସର ଜି.ଏସ୍. ଦୂରେ ଅନ୍ୟତମ। ସେ ଜାତି ବ୍ୟବସ୍ଥାକୁ ସମାଜତାତ୍ତ୍ଵିକ ଓ ଇଣ୍ଡୋଲୋଜିକାଲ୍ ଦୃଷ୍ଟିରୁ ଅଧ୍ୟୟନ କରିଛନ୍ତି। ସେ ତାଙ୍କ ରଚିତ ପୁସ୍ତକ “କାଷ୍ଟ ଆଣ୍ଡ ରେସ୍‌ଇନ୍ ଇଣ୍ଡିଆ”ରେ ତାଙ୍କ ମତ ପ୍ରକାଶ କରିଛନ୍ତି। ସେ ଜାତି ବ୍ୟବସ୍ଥାକୁ ଐତିହାସିକ ଓ ତୁଳନାତ୍ମକ ଦୃଷ୍ଟିରୁ ଅଧ୍ୟୟନ କରିଛନ୍ତି। ତାଙ୍କ ମତରେ ଜାତି ହେଉଛି ଏକ କ୍ଷୁଦ୍ର ସଂପର୍ଣ୍ଣ ବିଶ୍ବ ପରି। ସେ ଜାତିର ସୃଷ୍ଟି ପ୍ରଜାତିକୁ ବୋଲି ମତ ଦେଇଛନ୍ତି। ଏହି ବ୍ୟବସ୍ଥା ବ୍ରାହ୍ମଣ ବ୍ୟବସ୍ଥା ସହିତ ଜଡ଼ିତ ଆର୍ଯ୍ୟମାନଙ୍କ ବିଜୟ ଦ୍ଵାରା ଏହି ବ୍ୟବସ୍ଥା ସୃଷ୍ଟି ହୋଇଛି।

Question ୧୧।
ଘୂରେ ପ୍ରଦାନ କରିଥିବା ଜାତିର ଲକ୍ଷଣଗୁଡ଼ିକ ଦର୍ଶାଅ।
Answer:
ପ୍ରଫେସର ଘୂରେଙ୍କ ମତରେ ଜାତି ବ୍ୟବସ୍ଥାରେ ନିମ୍ନଲିଖତ ଲକ୍ଷଣମାନ ରହିଛି।
(୧) ସମାଜର କ୍ଷୁଦ୍ର ବିଭାଜନ
(୨) ସ୍ତରୀକରଣ
(୩) ଅର୍ନ୍ତବିବାହ
(୪) ପବିତ୍ରତା ଓ ଅପବିତ୍ରାର ନିୟମ
(୫) ବୃତ୍ତି ନିର୍ବାଚନରେ ବାଧା
(୬) ଭିନ୍ନ ଭିନ୍ନ ନାଗରିକ ଓ ଧାର୍ମିକ ସୁବିଧା ସୁଯୋଗ ଓ ବାଧା

Question ୧୨।
ସଂସ୍କୃତିକରଣ ଉପରେ ଏକ କ୍ଷୁଦ୍ର ଟିପ୍‌ପଣୀ ଦିଅ।
Answer:
ପ୍ରଖ୍ୟାତ ଭାରତୀୟ ସମାଜିବିଜ୍ଞାନୀ ସଂସ୍କୃତିକରଣ ସଂପ୍ରତ୍ୟୟ ପ୍ରଦାନ କରିଛନ୍ତି। ସେ ତାଙ୍କ ରଚିତ ପୁସ୍ତକ ‘ଦୁର୍ଗସମାନଙ୍କ ମଧ୍ୟରେ ଧର୍ମ ଏବଂ ସମାଜ’ ପୁସ୍ତକରେ ଏହି ସଂମ୍ପ୍ରତ୍ୟୟ ବିଷୟରେ ଉଲ୍ଲେଖ କରିଛନ୍ତି। ଭାରତୀୟ ପାରମ୍ପାରିକ ସମାଜରେ ସାମାଜିକ ସାଂସ୍କୃତିକ ସଞ୍ଚଳନତା ବା ପରିବର୍ତ୍ତନକୁ ବ୍ୟାଖ୍ୟା କରିବା ପାଇଁ ସେ ଏହି ସଂପ୍ରତ୍ୟୟର ବ୍ୟବହାର କରିଛନ୍ତି । ତାଙ୍କରେ ମତରେ ଯେଉଁ ପ୍ରକ୍ରିୟା ସମୂହମାନ ସେମାନଙ୍କ ପ୍ରଥା, କର୍ମକାଣ୍ଡ, ମତବାଦ ଓ ପରିବର୍ତ୍ତନ କରିଥାଏ। ତାହାକୁ ସଂସ୍କୃତିକରଣ କୁହାଯାଏ।” ସଦସ୍ୟ ଘୃଣ୍ୟ ଓ ଅପବିତ୍ର, ପ୍ରଥା ତ୍ୟାଗ କରି ଉଚ୍ଚ ଜାତିର ପ୍ରଥା ତା’ର ପ୍ରସ୍ଥିତିରେ ଉନ୍ନତି ଆସିବ ବୋଲି ବିଚାର କରିଥାଏ।

Question ୧୩।
ବ୍ରାହ୍ମଣୀ କରଣ କ’ଣ ?
ଦ୍ବାରା “ଜଣେ ନୀଚ ହିନ୍ଦୁ ଜାତି ବା ଜନଜାତି ବା ଅନ୍ୟ ଜୀବନ ଶୈଳୀରେ ଏକ ଦ୍ଵିଜ ଉଚ୍ଚ ଜାତିର ନିର୍ଦ୍ଦେଶରେ ଏହି ପ୍ରକ୍ରିୟା ଦ୍ଵାରା ପ୍ରଭାବିତ ହୋଇ ଜଣେ ନୀଚ୍ଚ ଜାତିର ବା ଜୀବନ ଶୈଳୀକୁ ଅବଲମ୍ବନ କରିଥାଏ ଓ ଏହାଦ୍ଵାରା ଊ. ବ୍ରାହ୍ମଣୀକରଣ ସଂପ୍ରତ୍ୟୟଟି ପ୍ରଥମେ ଏମ.ଏନ୍. ଶ୍ରୀନିବାସ ବ୍ୟବହାର କରିଥିଲେ। ଶ୍ରୀ ନିବାସୀ ତାଙ୍କ ରଚିତ ପୁସ୍ତକ ମହୀଶ୍ଵର “ କୁର୍ଗସ୍ ମାନଙ୍କ ଧର୍ମ ଓ ସାମାଜ” ପୁସ୍ତକରେ ସେ ଏହି ଶବ୍ଦର ବ୍ୟବହାର କରିଥିଲେ। ମହୀଶ୍ଵର କୁର୍ଗସ ମାନଙ୍କୁ ଅଧ୍ୟୟନ କରିବା ସମୟରେ ସେ ଦେଖିବାକୁ ପାଇଲେ ଯେ, ଏହି ଅଞ୍ଚଳର ନୀଚ୍ଚ ଜାତିର ଲୋକମାନେ ଜାତି ସ୍ତରୀକରଣରେ ସେମାନଙ୍କର ସ୍ଥିତି ବୃଦ୍ଧି କରିବା ପାଇଁ ସେମାନଙ୍କର କେତେକ ପ୍ରଥାକୁ ତ୍ୟାଗ କରି ବ୍ରାହ୍ମମଣମାନଙ୍କର କେତେକ ପ୍ରଥା ବା ଜୀବନ ଶୈଳୀକୁ ଅନୁକରଣ କରୁଛନ୍ତି। ସେମାନେ ମାଂସ ଖାଇବା, ମଦ ପିଇବାକୁ ଛାଡ଼ି ବ୍ରାହ୍ମଣମାନଙ୍କୁ ଖାଦ୍ୟ ଶୈଳୀ ଅନୁକରଣ କରୁଛନ୍ତି ଏହା କରି ଗୋଟିଏ ବା ଦୁଇ ପିଢ଼ୀରେ ସେମାନେ ଉଚ୍ଚ ପ୍ରସ୍ଥିତି ପାଇପାରିବେ। ଏହି ପ୍ରକାର ପରିବର୍ତ୍ତନ ପ୍ରକ୍ରିୟାକୁ ବୁଝାଇବା ପାଇଁ ଶ୍ରୀନିବାସ ବ୍ରାହ୍ମଣକରଣ ସଂପ୍ରତ୍ୟୟ ବ୍ୟବହାର କଲେ।

Question ୧୪।
ସଂସ୍କୃତିକରଣର ଲକ୍ଷଣ ଲେଖ।
Answer:
(୧) ସଂସ୍କୃତିକରଣ ପରିବର୍ତ୍ତନ ଏକ ଦେଶୀୟ ଉତ୍ସ।
(୨) ଏହା ଭାରତୀୟ ସମାଜର ସାମାଜିକ ଓ ସାଂସ୍କୃତିକ ସଞ୍ଚଳନତାକୁ ବୁଝାଏ।
(୩) ଏହା ଏକ ଦ୍ଵିପାକ୍ଷିକ ପ୍ରକ୍ରିୟା ଅଟେ।
(୪) ଏହା ସଂରଚନାତ୍ମକ ପରିବର୍ତ୍ତନ ଅର୍ନ୍ତଭୁକ୍ତ କରିଥାଏ।

Question ୧୫।
ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷଣର ଲକ୍ଷଣଗୁଡ଼ିକ ଦର୍ଶଅ।
Answer:
(୧) ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷଣ ଏକ ଆଖର ବିଷୟ ଅଟେ।
(୨) ଏହା ଏକ ସୁବ୍ୟବସ୍ଥିତ ପଦ୍ଧତି।
(୩) ଏହାର ନିର୍ଦ୍ଦିଷ୍ଟ ଲକ୍ଷ୍ୟ ରହିଥାଏ।
(୪) ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷଣ ବସ୍ତୁନିଷ୍ଠ ଅଟେ।
(୫) ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷଣ ସର୍ବଦା ଉପକଳ୍ପନା ଦ୍ଵାରା ପରିଚାଳିତ।
(୬) ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷଣର ଫଳକୁ ପୁନଃପରୀକ୍ଷା କରାଯାଇପାରିବ।

Question ୧୬।
ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷଣ କ’ଣ ?
Answer:
ସାମାଜିକ ଗବେଷଣ କ୍ଷେତ୍ରରେ ତଥ୍ୟ ସଂଗ୍ରହ ପାଇଁ ବ୍ୟବହୃତ ହେଉଥିବା ପଦ୍ଧତିଗୁଡ଼ିକ ମଧ୍ୟରୁ ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷଣ ଅନ୍ୟତମ। ପ୍ରାକୃତିକ ବିଜ୍ଞାନରେ ମଧ୍ୟ ଏହାର ବହୁଳ ବ୍ୟବହାର ଦେଖିବାକୁ ମିଳିଥାଏ। ସାମାଜିକ ସମସ୍ୟାଗୁଡ଼ିକୁ ଅଧ୍ୟୟନ କରିବାର ଏହା ଏକ ପଦ୍ଧତି। ଗବେଷଣା କ୍ଷେତ୍ରରୁ ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷକ. ଏହି ପଦ୍ଧତିକୁ ବ୍ୟବହାର କରି ପ୍ରାଥମିକ ତଥ୍ୟ ସଂଗ୍ରହ କରେ ଏକ ଘଟଣାକୁ ସୁବ୍ୟବସ୍ଥିତି ଭାବେ ଦେଖିବା ବା ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷଣ କରିବା ଏହାର ଲକ୍ଷ୍ୟ। କେତେକ ସଯୋଜିତ ଯୋଜନା ମାଧ୍ୟମରେ ବାସ୍ତବ ଜୀବନ ପରିସ୍ଥିତିକୁ ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷଣ କରିବାର ଏହା ଏକ ପ୍ରକ୍ରିୟା ଅଟେ। ଏହା ବ୍ୟକ୍ତିର ବାହ୍ୟ ଚରିତ୍ରକୁ ମୂଲ୍ୟାଙ୍କନ କରିବାରେ ବ୍ୟବହାର ହୋଇଥାଏ।

Question ୧୭।
ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷଣର ପ୍ରକାରଗୁଡ଼ିକୁ ଲେଖ।
Answer:
ସାମାଜିକ ଗବେଷଣ ତଥ୍ୟ ସଂଗ୍ରହର ଏଖ ପ୍ରମୁଖ ପଦ୍ଧତି ହେଉଛି ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷଣ। ଏହି ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷଣ ପଦ୍ଧତି ବିଭିନ୍ନ ପ୍ରକାରର ଅଟେ; ଯଥା-
(୧) ଅଂଶଗ୍ରହଣ ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷଣ
(୨) ଅଣ-ଅଂଶଗ୍ରହଣ ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷଣ
(୩) ମିଶ୍ରିତ ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷଣ
(୪) ନିୟନ୍ତ୍ରିତ ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷଣ ଓ
(୫) ଅଣ ନିୟନ୍ତ୍ରଣ ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷଣ

Question ୧୮।
ଅଂଶଗ୍ରହଣ ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷଣର ଉପକାରିତାଗୁଡ଼ିକୁ ଦର୍ଶାଅ।
Answer:
(୧) ପ୍ରାକୃତିକ ଚରିତ୍ର ବା ପରିସ୍ଥିତିରେ ଅଧ୍ୟୟନ ସମ୍ଭବ।
(୨) ସଠିକ୍ ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷଣ ସମ୍ଭବ ହୋଇଥାଏ।
(୩) ଅଂଶଗ୍ରହଣକାରୀ ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷକକୁ ସମୂହ ସ୍ଵାଗତ କରିଥାଏ।
(୪) ସଂପୂର୍ଣ୍ଣ ଅଧ୍ୟୟନ ସମ୍ଭବ ହୋଇଥାଏ।
(୫) ଯେଉଁ ବିଷୟଗୁଡ଼ିକ ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷଣ ପାଇଁ ମୁକ୍ତ ନୁହେଁ ତା’ର ଅଧ୍ୟୟନ ସମ୍ଭବ ହୋଇଥାଏ।

Question ୧୯।
ଅଂଶଗ୍ରହଣକାରୀ ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷଣର ଅପକାରିତା ଦର୍ଶାଅ।
Answer:
(୧) ଭାଗବତ ଅଂଶଗ୍ରହଣ ଦ୍ଵାରା ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷଣର ବସ୍ତୁନିଷ୍ଠତା ନଷ୍ଟ ହୋଇଥାଏ।
(୨) ବୃହତ୍ ସମୂହ କ୍ଷେତ୍ରରେ ଏହି ପଦ୍ଧତିର ବ୍ୟବହାର ସମ୍ଭବ ନୁହେଁ !
(୩) ସମସ୍ତ ଘଟଣା (ଯଥା ଚୋରୀ) ଏହି ପଦ୍ଧତି ମାଧ୍ୟମରେ ଅଧ୍ୟୟନ ସମ୍ଭବ ନୁହେଁ।
(୪) ନିବିଡ଼ତା ଯୋଗୁଁ ଅନେକ ଘଟଣାକୁ ଛାଡ଼ି ଦିଆଯାଇଥାଏ।
(୫) ଅଂଶଗ୍ରହଣ ଅନେକ ସମୟରେ କଳି ସୃଷ୍ଟି କରିଥାଏ।

Question ୨୦।
ଅଂଶଗ୍ରହଣକାରୀ ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷଣ କ’ଣ ?
Answer:
ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷଣ ତଥ୍ୟ ସଂଗ୍ରହର ଏକ ପଦ୍ଧତି। ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷଣର ବିଭିନ୍ନ ପ୍ରକାର ମଧ୍ୟରୁ ଅଂଶଗ୍ରହଣକାରୀ ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷଣ ଅଧ୍ୟୟନ କରିବାକୁ ଚାହୁଁଥ‌ିବା ସମୂହ ସହିତ ମିଶି କରି ବା ଅଂଶଗ୍ରହଣ କରି ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷଣ କରିଥାଏ, ତାକୁ ଅଂଶଗ୍ରହଣକାରୀ ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷଣ କହନ୍ତି ଏଥରେ ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷକ ମୁକ୍ତ ଭାବେ ସମୂହ ସହିତ ମିଶି ଉତ୍ତମ ସଂପର୍କ ସ୍ଥାପନ କରି ସେମାନଙ୍କ ଠାରୁ ସଠିକ୍ ତଥ୍ୟ ସଂଗ୍ରହ କରିଥାଏ।

Question ୨୧।
ଅଣ ଅଂଶଗ୍ରହଣକାରୀ ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷଣ କ’ଣ ?
Answer:
ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷଣର ବିଭିନ୍ନ ପ୍ରକାର ମଧ୍ୟରୁ ଅଣ-ଅଂଶଗ୍ରହଣକାରୀ ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷଣ ଏକ ପ୍ରକାର ଅଟେ। ଯେତେବେଳେ ଜଣେ ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷକ ଅଧ୍ୟୟନ କରିବାକୁ ଚାହୁଁଥିବା ସମୂହରେ ଅଂଶଗ୍ରହଣ ନକରି ଦୂରରେ ରହି ତା’ର କାର୍ଯ୍ୟକଳାପ ଓ ପ୍ରଥା ପରମ୍ପରା ଆଦିକୁ ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷଣ କରେ ସେହି ପ୍ରକାର ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷଣକୁ ଅଣ ଅଂଶଗ୍ରହଣକାରୀ ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷଣ କୁହାଯାଏ। ଏ ପ୍ରକାର ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷଣରେ ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷକ ଏକ ସଂପୂର୍ଣ୍ଣ ନିରପେକ୍ଷ ପ୍ରସ୍ଥିତି ଅବଲମ୍ବନ କରେ ଯାହାକି ତାକୁ ସେହି ସମୂହକୁ ସଂପୂର୍ଣ ସଠିକ୍ ଭାବେ ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷଣ କରିବାରେ ସହାୟକ ହୋଇଥାଏ। ଅବଶ୍ୟ ଏକ ସଂପୂର୍ଣ୍ଣ ଅଣ ଅଂଶଗ୍ରହଣକାରୀ ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷଣ ଏକ ଅସମ୍ଭବ ବିଷୟ। ଏ ପ୍ରକାର ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷଣରେ ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷକ ସମୂହରେ ଅଂଶ ଗ୍ରହଣ କରେ ନାହିଁ କି ତାକୁ କୌଣସି ଉପାୟରେ ପ୍ରଭାବିତ କରେ ନାହିଁ।

Question ୨୨।
ଅଣ-ଅଂଶଗ୍ରହଣକାରୀ ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷଣର ଉପକାରିତାଗୁଡ଼ିକ ଦର୍ଶାଅ।
Answer:
(୧) ଏଥରେ ନିରପେକ୍ଷ ଅଧ୍ୟୟନ ସମ୍ଭବ ହୋଇଥାଏ।
( ୨) ଏହି ପଦ୍ଧତିରେ ଛୋଟ ଛୋଟ ଜିନିଷର ଯତ୍ନଶୀଳ ବ୍ୟାଖ୍ୟା ସମ୍ଭବ ହୋଇଥାଏ।
(୩) ନିରପେକ୍ଷ ପ୍ରସ୍ତୁତି ଯୋଗୁଁ ଗବେଷଣା କାର୍ଯ୍ୟ ସହଜ ହୋଇଥାଏ।
(୪) ଅଜଣା ବ୍ୟକ୍ତି ଭାବେ ଗୁପ୍ତ ତଥ୍ୟ ପ୍ରକାଶ କରିବାକୁ ଲୋକ ସହଜ ମଣନ୍ତି।
(୫) ସଂଗୃହିତ ତଥ୍ୟ ନିର୍ଭରଯୋଗ୍ୟ ହୋଇଥାଏ।

Question ୨୩।
ଅଣ-ଅଂଶଗ୍ରହଣକାରୀ ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷଣର ଅପକାରିତାଗୁଡ଼ିକୁ ଦର୍ଶାଅ।
Answer:
(୧) ଏହି ପଦ୍ଧତି ଦ୍ଵାରା ପ୍ରାକୃତିକ ଅବସ୍ଥାରେ ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷଣ ସମ୍ଭବ ନୁହେଁ।
(୨) ଏହି ପଦ୍ଧତି ଦ୍ଵାରା ସଂଗୃହିତ ତଥ୍ୟ ଯଥେଷ୍ଟ ଓ ନିର୍ଭରଯୋଗ୍ୟ ନୁହେଁ ।
(୩) ଏହି ପଦ୍ଧତିରେ ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷକ ନିଜର ସନ୍ଦେହ ଦୂର କରି ନପାରି ଅନେକ ସମୟରେ ଭୁଲ୍ ଧାରଣା ଆପଣେଇଥାଏ।
(୪) ଏହି ପଦ୍ଧତି ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷକ ପ୍ରତି ଲୋକମାନେ ସନ୍ଦେହ ପ୍ରକାଶ କରିଥାନ୍ତି।

Question ୨୪।
ମିଶ୍ରିତ ଅଂଶଗ୍ରହଣ ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷଣ କ’ଣ ?
Answer:
ଗବେଷଣାରେ ତଥ୍ୟ ହାସଲ ପାଇଁ ବ୍ୟବହୃତ ପଦ୍ଧତି ମଧ୍ଯରୁ ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷଣ ଏକ ପ୍ରମୁଖ ପଦ୍ଧତି। ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷଣ ପଦ୍ଧତିର ବିଭିନ୍ନ ପ୍ରକାର ମଧ୍ୟରୁ ମିଶ୍ରିତ ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷଣ ଏକ ପ୍ରକାର ଅଟେ। ସମାଜବିଜ୍ଞାନୀମାନଙ୍କ ମତରେ ଏକ ସଂପୂର୍ଣ୍ଣ ଅଂଶଗ୍ରହଣ ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷଣ ଓ ସଂପୂର୍ଣ୍ଣ ଅଣ ଅଂଶଗ୍ରହଣ ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷଣ ସଂପୂର୍ଣ୍ଣ ଅସମ୍ଭବ। ତେଣୁ ଅନେକ ସମୟରେ ସମାଜବିଜ୍ଞାନୀମାନେ ଉଭୟ ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷଣର ମିଶ୍ରଣରେ ତଥ୍ୟ ସଂଗୃହିତ କରିଥାନ୍ତି। ଏହି ଉଭୟ ପ୍ରକାର ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷଣ ପଦ୍ଧତିର ମିଶ୍ରଣକୁ ମିଶ୍ରିତ ଅଂଶଗ୍ରହଣ ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷଣ କହାଯାଏ।

Question ୨୫।
ନିୟନ୍ତ୍ରିତ ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷଣ କ’ଣ ?
Answer:
ଗବେଷଣା କ୍ଷେତ୍ରରେ ତଥ୍ୟ ସଂଗ୍ରହ ପାଇଁ ବ୍ୟବହୃତ ପଦ୍ଧତିଗୁଡ଼ିକ ମଧ୍ୟରୁ ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷଣ ଏକ ପ୍ରମୁଖ ପଦ୍ଧତି। ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷଣ ପଦ୍ଧତିର ବିଭିନ୍ନ ପ୍ରକାର ମଧ୍ୟରୁ ନିୟନ୍ତ୍ରିତ ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷଣ ଅନ୍ୟତମ। ସାମାଜିକ ଗବେଷଣାକୁ ଅଧୁକ ବସ୍ତୁନିଷ୍ଠ ଓ ସଂକ୍ଷିପ୍ତ କରିବା ପାଇଁ ଏହି ପଦ୍ଧତି ବା କୌଶଳର ବିକାଶ କରାଯାଇ। ପକ୍ଷପାତିତା ଏବଂ ବାହ୍ୟକାରକଗୁଡ଼ିକର ପ୍ରଭାବକୁ ନିୟନ୍ତ୍ରଣ କରିବା ଏହାର ମୁଖ୍ୟ ଲକ୍ଷ୍ୟ। ବୈଧ ସାଧାରଣୀକରଣରେ ଉପନୀତ ହେବାରେ ଏହା ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷକକୁ ସାହାଯ୍ୟ କରେ। ପକ୍ଷପାତିତାଙ୍କୁ ନିୟନ୍ତ୍ରଣ କରିବା ପାଇଁ ଏହି ପଦ୍ଧତିରେ ଦୁଇ ପ୍ରକାରର ନିୟନ୍ତ୍ରଣ ଜାରି କରାଯାଏ ଯଥା ପର୍ଯବେକ୍ଷଣ କରାଯାଉଥିବା ଘଟଣା ଉପରେ ନିୟନ୍ତ୍ରଣ ଏବଂ ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷକ ଉପରେ ନିୟନ୍ତ୍ରଣ।

Question ୨୬।
ଅଣି ନିୟନ୍ତ୍ରଣ ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷଣ କ’ଣ ?
Answer:
ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷଣ ଗବେଷଣା କ୍ଷେତ୍ରରେ ବ୍ୟବହୃତ ଏକ ପଦ୍ଧତି ଅଟେ। ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷଣର ବିଭିନ୍ନ ପଦ୍ଧତି ମଧ୍ଯରୁ ଅଣନିୟନ୍ତ୍ରିତ ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷଣ ଏକ ପ୍ରକାର। ଏହି ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷଣ ଏକ ପ୍ରାକୃତିକ ପରିସ୍ଥିତିରେ କରାଯାଏ ତାହାକୁ ଅଣ ନିୟନ୍ତ୍ରିତ ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷଣ କୁହାଯାଏ। ଏଥିରେ ବାହାର କାରିଗର କୌଣସି ପ୍ରଭାବ ଅନୁଭୂତ ହୋଇନଥାଏ। ଏଥିରେ ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷକ ଓ ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷିତ ହେଉଥିବା ଘଟଣା ଉପରେ କୌଣସି ନିୟନ୍ତ୍ରଣ ଜାରି କରାଯାଏ ନାହିଁ।

Question ୨୭।
ପ୍ରଶ୍ନବଳୀ ବା ଦ୍ବେଷ୍ଟନାୟାର କ’ଣ ?
Answer:
ସାମାଜିକ ଗବେଷଣା କ୍ଷେତ୍ରରେ ବ୍ୟବହୃତ ବିଭିନ୍ନ ପଦ୍ଧତି ମଧ୍ଯରୁ ପ୍ରଶ୍ନବଳୀ ଏକ ଜନପ୍ରିୟ ପଦ୍ଧତି। ଏହି ପଦ୍ଧତି ମୁଖ୍ୟତଃ ଯେତେବେଳେ ତଥ୍ୟ ପ୍ରଦାନକାରୀ ଏକ ବୃହତ୍ ଅଞ୍ଚଳରେ ବିଚ୍ଛୁରିତ ହୋଇ ରହିଥାନ୍ତି ସେତେବେଳେ ଏହି ପଦ୍ଧତି ବ୍ୟବହାର କରାଯାଇଥାଏ। ସାଧାରଣତଃ ପ୍ରଶ୍ନବଳୀ ପ୍ରଶ୍ନମାନଙ୍କର ଏକ ଚିଠାକୁ ବୁଝାଇଥାଏ। ଯାହାକୁ ସୁବ୍ୟବସ୍ଥିତ ଭାବେ ସଜ୍ଜିତ ହୋଇ ରହିଥାଏ ଯାହା ମାଧ୍ୟମରେ ଗବେଷକ ତଥ୍ୟ ସଂଗ୍ରହ କରିଥାଏ। ଏହି ପଦ୍ଧତିରେ ଗବେଷକ ଏହି ପ୍ରଶ୍ନ ଚିଠାକୁ ତଥ୍ୟ ପ୍ରଦାନକରୀ ପାଖକୁ ଡାକରେ ପ୍ରେରିତ କରିଥାଏ ଯିଏକି ଏହାକୁ ପୂରଣ କରି ପୁନଶ୍ଚ ଗବେଷକ ପାଖକୁ ଡାକରେ ପ୍ରେରିତ କରିଥାଏ ଯିଏକି ଏହାକୁ ପୂରଣ କରି ପୁନଶ୍ଚ ଗବେଷଣ ପାଖକୁ ଡାକରେ ଫେରାଇ ଦିଏ। ଏହି ପଦ୍ଧତିରେ ଗବେଷକ ନିଜେ ତଥ୍ୟ ପ୍ରଦାନକାରୀ ପାଖକୁ ଯାଏ ନାହିଁ।

Question ୨୮।
ଏକ ଭଲ ପ୍ରଶ୍ନବଳୀର ଲକ୍ଷଣଗୁଡ଼ିକ ଦର୍ଶାଅ।
Answer:
(୧) ପ୍ରଶ୍ନବଳୀ ଆକାରରେ କ୍ଷୁଦ୍ର ହେବା ଉଚିତ।
(୨) ଏଥରେ ବସ୍ତୁନିଷ୍ଠ ପ୍ରକାରର ପ୍ରଶ୍ନ ରହିବା ଉଚିତ।
(୩) ଏଥିରେ ବ୍ୟବହୃତ ଭାଷା ସହଜ ଓ ଶବ୍ଦ ସଂକ୍ଷିପ୍ତ ହେବା ଉଚିତ।
(୪) ଏଥରେ ବିଷୟ ଭିତିକ ଶବ୍ଦର ବ୍ୟବହାର ହେବା ଉଚିତ ନୁହେଁ।
(୫) ଏଥିରେ ଥିବା ପ୍ରଶ୍ନଗୁଡ଼ିକ ସଠିକ୍ କ୍ରମରେ ସଜ୍ଜିତ ହେବା ଉଚିତ।
(୬) ଏହା ଆକର୍ଷଣୀୟ ଓ ବ୍ୟାପକ ହେବା ଉଚିତ।

Question ୨୯।
ପ୍ରଶ୍ନବଳୀର ପ୍ରକାରଗୁଡ଼ିକୁ ଦର୍ଶାଅ।
Answer:
ସାମାଜିକ ଗବେଷଣାରେ ତଥ୍ୟ ସଂଗ୍ରହ ପାଇଁ ବ୍ୟବହୃତ ପଦ୍ଧତିଗୁଡ଼ିକ ମଧ୍ୟରୁ ପ୍ରଶାବଳୀ ଅନ୍ୟତମ। ଏହାର ବିଭିନ୍ନ ପ୍ରକାର ରହିଛି। ପି. ଭି. ୟଙ୍ଗଙ୍କ ମତରେ ପ୍ରଶ୍ନବଳୀ ତିନି ପ୍ରକାରର ଯଥା ସଂରଚିତ ପ୍ରଶ୍ନବଳୀ, ଅଣ ସଂରଚିତ ପ୍ରଶାବଳୀ ଏବଂ ଛବିଳ ପ୍ରଶାବଳୀ। ପୁନଶ୍ଚ ଜି.ଏ ଲୁଣ୍ଡବର୍ଗ ପ୍ରଶାବଳୀକୁ ଦୁଇ ଭାଗରେ ବିଭକ୍ତ କରିଛନ୍ତି; ଯଥା ମତାମତର ପ୍ରଶାବଳୀ।

Question ୩୦।
ପ୍ରଶ୍ନୋବଳୀର ଉପକାରିତା ଗୁଡ଼ିକୁ ଦର୍ଶାଅ।
Answer:
(୧) ଏହି ପଦ୍ଧତିରେ କମ୍ ଖର୍ଚ୍ଚରେ ତଥ୍ୟ ସଂଗ୍ରହ କରାଯାଇପାରେ।
(୨) ବୃହତ୍ ଅଞ୍ଚଳ୍ପ ଭିତିକ ଅଧ୍ୟୟନ ଗବେଷଣା ପାଇଁ ଏହି ପଦ୍ଧତି ଯୋଗ୍ୟ ଅଟେ।
(୩) ଏହି ପଦ୍ଧତି ମାଧ୍ୟମରେ ବ୍ୟକ୍ତିଗତ ତଥ୍ୟ ସଂଗ୍ରହ ସହଜ ହୋଇଥାଏ।
(୪) ଏହି ପଦ୍ଧତି କମ୍ ସମୟ ଓ ପ୍ରଚେଷ୍ଟା ଆବଶ୍ୟକ ରହିଥାଏ।
(୫) ଏହି ପଦ୍ଧତି ମାଧ୍ୟମରେ ସଂଗୃହିତ ତଥ୍ୟ ନିର୍ଭରଯୋଗ୍ୟ ହୋଇଥାଏ।
(୬) ଏହା ଏକ ମହତ୍ ଓ ନମନୀୟ ପଦ୍ଧତି ଅଟେ।

Question ୩୧।
ପ୍ରଶ୍ନବଳୀର ଅପକାରିତାଗୁଡ଼ିକୁ ଦର୍ଶାଅ।
Answer:
ଗବେଷଣା କ୍ଷେତ୍ରରେ ତଥ୍ୟ ସଂଗ୍ରହର – ବିଭିନ୍ନ ପଦ୍ଧତି ମଧ୍ୟରୁ ଏହା ଏକ ଲୋକପ୍ରିୟ ପଦ୍ଧତି ଅଟେ । ପ୍ରଶାବଳୀ ପଦ୍ଧତିର ନିମ୍ନଲିଖତ ଅପକାରିତା ରହିଛି।
(୧) ଏହି ପଦ୍ଧତି ନିରକ୍ଷର ଲୋକଙ୍କ ଠାରୁ ତଥ୍ୟ ସଂଗ୍ରହ ପାଇଁ ବ୍ୟବହାର ହୋଇପାରିବିନି।
(୨) ଏହି ପଦ୍ଧତି ଦ୍ଵାରା ସଂଗୃହିତ ତଥ୍ୟ ବୈଧ ଓ ନିର୍ଭରଯୋଗ୍ୟ ନୁହେଁ।
(୩) ଏହି ପଦ୍ଧତିରେ ଅନେକ ଅସଂପୂର୍ଣ୍ଣ ହୋଇ ଫେରାଇ ଦିଆଯାଇଥାଏ।
(୪) ଏହି ପଦ୍ଧତିରେ ହସ୍ତଚାଳନା ବା ମନଇଚ୍ଛା ପୂରଣର ସୁଯୋଗ ରହିଛି।
(୫) କେତେକ ସ୍ଵତନ୍ତ୍ର ବା ସ୍ପର୍ଶକାତର ବିଷୟକୁ ଏହି ପଦ୍ଧତି ଦ୍ବାରା ଅଧ୍ୟୟନ ସମ୍ଭବ ନୁହେଁ।

Question ୩୨।
ସୂଚୀ କହିଲେ କ’ଣ ବୁଝ ?
Answer:
ସାମାଜିକ ଗବେଷଣା କ୍ଷେତ୍ରରେ ତଥ୍ୟ ସଂଗ୍ରହ ପାଇଁ ବ୍ୟବହୃତ ବିଭିନ୍ନ ପଦ୍ଧତି ମଧ୍ୟରୁ ସୂଚୀ ଏକ ଲୋକପ୍ରିୟ ପଦ୍ଧତି। ଗବେଷଣା କ୍ଷେତ୍ରରେ ଏହାର ବହୁଳ ବ୍ୟବହାର ଦେଖାଯାଏ। ସୂଚୀ ସାଧାରଣତଃ ପ୍ରଶ୍ନଗୁଡ଼ିକର ଏକ ଚିଠା ଯାହାକି ସାକ୍ଷାତକାର ସମୟରେ ଅନୁସନ୍ଧାନକାରୀ ଦ୍ବାରା ବ୍ୟବହୃତ ହୋଇଥାଏ। ତଥ୍ୟ ପ୍ରଦାନକାରୀ ଠାରୁ ତଥ୍ୟ ପାଇଁ ସେ ଏହାକୁ ପୂରଣ କରିଥାଏ। ଏହା ଗବେଷକର ମନେ ପକାଇବା ପାଇଁ ବ୍ୟବହୃତ ଏକ ଔପଚାରିକ ଚିଠା।

Question ୩୩।
ସୂଚୀର ଉପକାରିତାଗୁଡ଼ିକ ଦର୍ଶାଅ।
Answer:
ତଥ୍ୟ ସଂଗ୍ରହର ଏକ ପଦ୍ଧତି ଭାବେ ଏହା ବ୍ୟାପକ ବ୍ୟବହାର ହୋଇଥାଏ।
(୧) ଅନ୍ୟ ପଦ୍ଧତି ତୁଳନାରେ ସୂଚୀରେ ତଥ୍ୟ ଅଧ‌ିକ ମିଳିଥାଏ।
(୨) ଏହି ପଦ୍ଧତିରେ ତଥ୍ୟ ପ୍ରଦାନକାରୀ ସନ୍ଦେହ ଦୂର ପାଇଁ ସୁଯୋଗ ରହିଛି।
(୩) .ସୂଚୀ ପୂରଣ ପାଇଁ କମ୍ ସମୟ ଆବଶ୍ୟକ କରିଥାଏ ଓ ଭୁଲ୍ କମ୍ ଥାଏ।
(୪) ଏହି ପଦ୍ଧତି ସବୁ ବର୍ଗର ଲୋକଙ୍କ ପାଇଁ ଉପଯୋଗୀ ଅଟେ।
(୫) ଏହି ପଦ୍ଧତି ଦ୍ଵାରା ସଂଗୃହିତ ତଥ୍ୟ ନିର୍ଭରଯୋଗ୍ୟ ହୋଇଥାଏ।

Question ୩୪।
ସୂଚୀର ଅପକାରିତାଗୁଡ଼ିକୁ ଦର୍ଶାଅ।
Answer:
ସୂଚୀ ପଦ୍ଧତି ତଥ୍ୟ ସଂଗ୍ରହର ଏକ ବହୁଳ ବ୍ୟବହ୍ରୁତ ପଦ୍ଧତି ହୋଇଥିଲେ ମଧ୍ୟ ଏହାର ନିମ୍ନଲିଖୁତ ଅପକାରିତା ରହିଛି।
(୧) ଏହି ପଦ୍ଧତି ଅଧ‌ିକ ସମୟ ଆବଶ୍ୟକ କରିଥାଏ ଓ ଅଧୁକ ଖର୍ଚ୍ଚ କରିଥାଏ।
(୨) ବୃହତ୍ ଅଞ୍ଚଳ ଭିଭିକ ଅଧ୍ୟୟନ ଏହି ପଦ୍ଧତି ଦ୍ଵାରା ସମ୍ଭବ ନୁହେଁ।
(୩) ଏହି ପଦ୍ଧତିରେ ଗବେଷକର ଉପସ୍ଥିତି ତଥ୍ୟ ପ୍ରଦାନକାରୀଙ୍କ ମଧ୍ୟରେ ସଚେତନା ସୃଷ୍ଟି କରିଥାଏ ଫଳରେ ସେମାନେ ଭୁଲ୍ ତଥ୍ୟ ଦେଇଥାନ୍ତି।
(୪) ବ୍ୟକ୍ତିଗତ ସମସ୍ୟା ଅଧ୍ୟୟନ କ୍ଷେତ୍ରରେ ଏହି ପଦ୍ଧତି ଉପଯୋଗୀ ନୁହେଁ।

Question ୩୫।
ସୂଚୀର ଲକ୍ଷ୍ୟଗୁଡ଼ିକୁ ଦର୍ଶାଅ।
Answer:
(୧) ବସ୍ତୁନିଷ୍ଠ ତଥ୍ୟ ସଂଗ୍ରହ
(୨) ସୂଚୀ ଏକ ଗାଇଡ୍ ବା ପଥ ପ୍ରଦର୍ଶକ ଭଳ କାର୍ଯ୍ୟ କରିଥାଏ।
(୩) ଏହା ସଠିକ୍ ଯୋଗାଯୋଗ ଓ ସଠିକ୍ ତଥ୍ୟ ପ୍ରାପ୍ତ ହେବ।
(୪) ଏହା ବର୍ଗୀକରଣ ଓ ବ୍ୟାଖ୍ୟାରେ ସହାୟକ ହୁଏ।
(୫) ଏକ ମନେପକାଇବା ଯନ୍ତ୍ର ଭାବେ କାର୍ଯ୍ୟ କରେ।

Question ୩୬।
ସୂଚୀର ପ୍ରକାରଗୁଡ଼ିକୁ ଦର୍ଶାଅ।
Answer:
ସୂଚୀ ତଥ୍ୟ ସଂଗ୍ରହର ଏକ ଜନପ୍ରିୟ ପଦ୍ଧତି ହୋଇଥିବାରୁ ଏହାର ବହୁଳ ବ୍ୟବହାର ଦେଖାଯାଇଥାଏ। ସୂଚୀ ମୁଖ୍ୟତଃ ୫ ପ୍ରକାରର ଯଥା :
(୧) ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷଣ ସୂଚୀ,
(୨) ରେଟିଙ୍ଗ୍ ବା ମୂଲ୍ୟାଙ୍କନ ସୂଚୀ
(୩) ଦସ୍ତାବିତ୍ ବା ଡକୁମେଣ୍ଟ ସୂଚୀ
(୪) ମୂଲ୍ୟାୟନ ବା ଆନୁଷ୍ଠାନିକ ସୂଚୀ
(୫) ସାକ୍ଷାତ୍‌କାରୀ ସୂଟୀ।

‘ଗ’ ବିଭାଗ

ଦୀର୍ଘ ଉତ୍ତରମୂଳକ ପ୍ରଶ୍ନୋତ୍ତର

Question ୧।
ଅଗଷ୍ଟ କମ୍‌ଙ୍କ ତ୍ରିସ୍ତରୀୟ ନିୟମକୁ ଆଲୋଚନା କର।
Answer:
ପ୍ରଖ୍ୟାତ ଫରାସୀ ସମାଜବିଜ୍ଞାନୀ ଅଗଷ୍ଟ କମ୍‌ ସମାଜବିଜ୍ଞାନ ସୃଷ୍ଟି କରିଥିଲେ ତା’ ନୁହେଁ ନିଜର ଅନେକ ଅବଦାନ ଦ୍ଵାରା ସମାଜବିଜ୍ଞାନକୁ ପରିପୃଷ୍ଟ କରିଥିଲେ। ସେ ଅନେକ ପୁସ୍ତକ ରଚନା କରିବା ସହିତ କେତେକ ମତବାଦ ମଧ୍ୟ ପ୍ରଦାନ କରିଛନ୍ତି। ସେ ଜଣେ ବିବର୍ତ୍ତନବାଦୀ। ତାଙ୍କର ବିଭିନ୍ନ ଲେଖାରେ ବିବର୍ତ୍ତନବାଦର ପ୍ରତିଫଳିତ ଦେଖ‌ିବାକୁ ମିଳେ। ତ୍ରିସ୍ତରୀୟ ନିମୟ ସମାଜବିଜ୍ଞାନକୁ କମ୍‌କ ଏକ ପ୍ରମୁଖ ଅବଦାନ। କମ୍‌ ମାନବୀୟ ଚିନ୍ତାର ବିବର୍ତ୍ତନ ଓ ଏହାର ବିଭିନ୍ନ ସ୍ତରକୁ ସୁନ୍ଦର ରୂପେ ବ୍ୟାଖ୍ୟା କରିଛନ୍ତି। ତାଙ୍କ ମତରେ ମଣିଷର ମନ ଏବଂ ମାନବ ସମାଜ ଐତିହାସିକ ବିବର୍ତ୍ତନର ବିଭିନ୍ନ ସ୍ତର ଦେଇ ଗରି କରିବା ସହିତ ସଂପୂର୍ଣ୍ଣତାର ସର୍ବଶେଷ ସ୍ତରରେ ଉପନୀତ ହୋଇଥାଏ। ମାନବୀୟ ଚିନ୍ତନକୁ ଅଧ୍ୟୟନ କରିବା ପାଇଁ କମ୍‌ ନିୟମ ତ୍ରିସ୍ତରୀୟ ନିୟମ ନାମରେ ପରିଚିତ। ତାଙ୍କ ଅନୁସାରେ “ ଜ୍ଞାନର ପ୍ରତ୍ୟେକ ଶାଖା ତିନୋଟି ବିଭିନ୍ନ ସ୍ତର ଦେଇ ଗତି କରିଥାଏ ଯଥା : ଧର୍ମତାତ୍ତ୍ଵିକ ବା ଫିକ୍‌ଟିସସ୍, ଆଧ୍ୟାମ୍ବିକ ବା ଅମୂର୍ଣ ଏବଂ ବୈଜ୍ଞାନିକ ବା ବାସ୍ତବ।” ଏହାକୁ ହିଁ. ତ୍ରିସ୍ତରୀୟ ନିୟମ କୁହାଯାଏ। କାରଣ ତାଙ୍କ ମତରେ ମାନବୀୟ ଚିନ୍ତନ ବିବର୍ତ୍ତନର ତିନୋଟି ବିଭିନ୍ନ ସ୍ତର ମଧ୍ୟ ଦେଇ ଗତି କରିଥାଏ। ତାଙ୍କ ମତରେ ମାନବୀୟ ମନର ବିବର୍ତ୍ତନ ସହିତ ବ୍ୟକ୍ତି ମନର ବିବର୍ତ୍ତନ ସମାନ ଅଟେ। କମ୍ପେଙ୍କ ପ୍ରଦତ୍ତ ତ୍ରିସ୍ତରୀୟ ନିୟମର ତିନୋଟି ସ୍ତରକୁ ନିମ୍ନରେ ଦର୍ଶାଗଲା।

(୧) ଧର୍ମତାତ୍ତ୍ଵିକ ସ୍ତର (Theological or Fictitious Stage)
(୨) ଆଧ୍ୟାତ୍ମିକ ସ୍ତର (Metaphysical or Abstract Stage)
(୩) ବାସ୍ତବ ବା ବୈଜ୍ଞାନିକ ସ୍ତର (Positive or Scientific Stage)

(୧) ଧର୍ମତାତ୍ତ୍ଵିକ ସ୍ତର (Theological Stage): କମ୍‌ଙ୍କ ତ୍ରିସ୍ତରୀୟ ନିୟମର ପ୍ରଥମ ସ୍ତର ହେଉଛି ଧର୍ମତାତ୍ତ୍ଵିକ ସ୍ତର । ପ୍ରାୟତଃ ୧୩୦୦ ଖ୍ରୀଷ୍ଟାବ୍ଦ ପର୍ଯ୍ୟନ୍ତ ଏହି ସ୍ତର ତିଷ୍ଠି ରହିଥିବାର ବିଶ୍ଵାସ କରାଯାଏ। କମ୍‌ଙ୍କ ମତରେ ଏହି ସ୍ତରରେ ମନୁଷ୍ୟର ପ୍ରତ୍ୟେକ କାର୍ଯ୍ୟକଳାପ ଓ ବିଶ୍ବର ପ୍ରତ୍ୟେକ ଘଟଣା ଈଶ୍ଵର ବା ଅତି ପ୍ରାକୃତକ ଶକ୍ତି ପରିଚାଳିତ। ଯାହାକିଛି ଘଟଣା ଦ୍ଵାରା ପରିଚାଳିତ। ଏହି ସମୟରେ ମନୁଷ୍ୟର ଚିନ୍ତା ଧର୍ମ ତାନ୍ତ୍ରିକ ଅନ୍ଧବିଶ୍ଵାସ ଦ୍ଵାରା ଘଟୁଛି। ତା’ ପରେ ଈଶ୍ଵରୀୟ ଇଚ୍ଛା ବା ଅନିଚ୍ଛା ବିଦ୍ୟମାନ। ଏହି ସ୍ତର ପିଣ୍ଡି ବା ପୂଜାରୀମାନଙ୍କ ଦ୍ଵାରା ପ୍ରଭାବିତ ଓ ପରିଚାଳିତ ହୋଇଥାଏ। ଧର୍ମତାତ୍ତ୍ଵିକ ଚିନ୍ତନ ଅବୈଜ୍ଞାନିକ ଦୃଷ୍ଟିକୋଣ ଦ୍ବାରା ପରିଚାଳିତ। କମ୍ପେଙ୍କର ଏହିସ୍ତର ୪ଟି ଉପସ୍ତର ଦେଇ ଗତି କରିଥାଏ। ଯଥା: ଫେଟିସ୍‌ବାଦ, ଆରୋପେମଫିବାଦ, ବହୁ ଈଶ୍ବରବାଦ ଏବଂ ଏକ ଈଶ୍ବରବାଦ। ଧର୍ମତାତ୍ତ୍ଵିକ ଚିନ୍ତନର ପ୍ରଥମ ଉପସ୍ତର ହେଉଛି ଫେଟିସ୍‌ବାଦ। ଏହି ସ୍ତରରେ ବିଶ୍ଵାସ କରାଯାଉଥିଲା ଯେ, ପ୍ରତ୍ୟେକ ନିର୍ଜୀବ ବସ୍ତୁରେ ସଜୀବ ବା ଈଶ୍ଵରୀୟ ସତ୍ତା ରହିଛି।

ତ୍ରିସ୍ତରୀୟ ନିୟମର ଦ୍ଵିତୀୟ ଉପସ୍ତର ହେଉଛି ଆଡ୍ରୋପ୍ରେମର୍ଫିବାଦ। ଏଥିରେ ଈଶ୍ଵରଙ୍କର ମାନବୀୟ ରୂପର କଳନା କରାଯାଇଥିବାର ବିଶ୍ଵାସ କରାଯାଏ।

ବହୁ ଈଶ୍ଵରବାଦୀ : ତ୍ରିସ୍ତରୀୟ ନିୟମର ପ୍ରଥମସ୍ତରର ତୃତୀୟ ଉପରସ୍ତର ହେଉଛି ବହୁ ଈଶ୍ବରବାଦ। ଏହି ସ୍ତରରେ ଏକାଧ୍ଵକ ଈଶ୍ବରଙ୍କର ଅବସ୍ଥିତିରେ ବିଶ୍ବାସ କରୁଥିଲେ। ପ୍ରତ୍ୟେକ ବିଭାଗ ପାଇଁ ସ୍ଵତନ୍ତ୍ର ଈଶ୍ବର ମାନଙ୍କର କଳନା କରାଗଲା।

ଏକ ଈଶ୍ବରବାଦ : ଏହି ସ୍ତରରେ ମାତ୍ର ଏକ ଈଶ୍ବରଙ୍କ ଠାରେ ବିଶ୍ବାସ କରାଗଲା।

(୨) ଆଧ୍ୟାତ୍ମିକ ବା ଅମୂର୍ତ୍ତ ସ୍ତର (Metaphysical or Abstract Stage) : କମ୍‌କ ତ୍ରିସ୍ତରୀୟ ନିୟମର ଦ୍ଵିତୀୟ ସ୍ତର ହେଉଛି ଆଧ୍ୟାତ୍ମିକ ସ୍ତର। ଏହି ସ୍ତର ପ୍ରାୟତଃ ୧୩୦୦ ଖ୍ରୀଷ୍ଟାବ୍ଦରୁ ୧୮୦୦ ଖ୍ରୀଷ୍ଟାବ୍ଦ ମଧ୍ୟରେ ତିଷ୍ଠି ରହିଥିବାର ବିଶ୍ଵାସ କରାଯାଏ। ଏହି ସ୍ତର ଧର୍ମତାତ୍ତ୍ଵିକ ସ୍ତର ଠାରୁ ଉନ୍ନତ ଏବଂ ଏକ ଅଧୂ ନିବର୍ଷିତ ସ୍ତର ଅଟେ । ଏହି ସ୍ତରରେ ଲୋକମାନେ ବିଶ୍ଵାସ କରୁଥିଲେ ଯେ କେ ଅମୂର୍ଣ ଶକ୍ତି ବିଶ୍ଵର ସମସ୍ତ ଘଟଣାକୁ ନିର୍ଦ୍ଦେଶିତ ବା ପରିଚାଳିତ କରିଥାଏ। ଏହି ସ୍ତର ପ୍ରଥମ ସ୍ତରର ଏକ ସଂଶୋଧୃତ ସ୍ତର ଅଟେ। ଏହି ସ୍ତରରେ ପ୍ରଥମ ସ୍ତର ଅତି ପ୍ରାକୃତିକ ଶକ୍ତିର ସ୍ଥାନ ଅମୂର୍ତ୍ତ ଶକ୍ତି ଗ୍ରହଣ କରିଛି।

(୩) ବାସ୍ତବ ବା ବୈଜ୍ଞାନିକ ସ୍ତର (Positice or Scientific stage) : ଏହି ସ୍ତର କମ୍ପେଙ୍କ ତ୍ରିସ୍ତରୀୟ ନିୟମର ଶେଷ ସ୍ତର। ଏହି ସ୍ତର ହେବ ମାନବ ଚିନ୍ତନ ବା ମାନବ ମନର ବିକାଶଣର ଶେଷ ସ୍ତର। ଏହି ସ୍ତର ୧୮୦୦ ଖ୍ରୀଷ୍ଟାବ୍ଦ ପରେ ଆରମ୍ଭ ହୋଇଛି। ବିଜ୍ଞାନରେ ବିଶ୍ଵାସର ଏହି ସ୍ତରର ଅୟମାରମ୍ଭ ହୋଇଛି। ପୂର୍ବସ୍ତରର ପ୍ରିଷ୍ଟ ଏବଂ ଧର୍ମତତ୍ତ୍ଵାବଧାରକ ବଦଳରେ ଏଠାରେ ବୈଜ୍ଞାନିକଙ୍କର ପ୍ରାଧାନ୍ୟ ବୃଦ୍ଧି ପାଇଛି। ଏହି ସ୍ତରରେ କଳ୍ପନା ବଦଳରେ ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷଣର ପ୍ରାଧାନ୍ୟ ବୃଦ୍ଧି ପାଇଛି। ଏହି ସ୍ତରରେ ଶିଳ୍ପପତି ମାନଙ୍କର ପ୍ରାଧାନ୍ୟ ବୃଦ୍ଧି ପାଇଛି। ଏହି ସ୍ତରରେ ଶିଳ୍ପପତି ମାନଙ୍କର ପ୍ରାଧାନ୍ୟ ବୃଦ୍ଧି ପାଇଛି। ଏହି ସ୍ତରରେ ଶିଳ୍ପପତି ମାନଙ୍କର ପ୍ରାଧାନ୍ୟ ବୃଦ୍ଧି ପାଇଛି। ଏହି ସ୍ତରରେ ଶିଳ୍ପପତି ମାନଙ୍କର ପ୍ରାଧାନ୍ୟ ବୃଦ୍ଧି ପାଇଛି। ଏହି ସ୍ତରରେ ଶିଳ୍ପପତି ମାନଙ୍କର ପ୍ରାଧାନ୍ୟ ଦେଖାଦେଇଛି। ଏହି ସ୍ତରରେ ବୈଜ୍ଞାନିକ ଜ୍ଞାନର ପରିସୀମା ବୃଦ୍ଧି ପାଇଛି। ମନୁଷ୍ୟ ଆଉ ଧର୍ମତାତ୍ତ୍ଵିକ ସ୍ତରର ଅନ୍ଧବିଶ୍ଵାସ ଓ ଆଧ୍ୟାତ୍ମିକସ୍ତର ଅମୂର୍ତ ଶକ୍ତିରେ ବିଶ୍ଵାସ ନକରି ବୈଜ୍ଞାନକ ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷଣ ଉପରେ ବିଶ୍ଵାସ ବୃଦ୍ଧି ପାଇଛି।

Question ୨।
ଇମାଇଲେ ଦୁର୍ଗାଇମ୍ଙ୍କର ଆତ୍ମହତ୍ୟା ତତ୍ତ୍ଵକୁ ଆଲୋଚନା କର।
Answer:
ପ୍ରଖ୍ୟାତ ଫରାସୀ ସାମାଜବିଜ୍ଞାନ ଦୁର୍ଗାଇମ୍ ସମାଜବିଜ୍ଞାନର ଜଣେ ପ୍ରତିଷ୍ଠାତା ଜନକ୍ ଭାବେ ପରିଚିତ। ତାଙ୍କର ଅନେକ କାର୍ଯ୍ୟ ସମାଜବିଜ୍ଞାନର ବିକାଶ ପ୍ରକ୍ରିୟାକ ତ୍ବରାନ୍ବିତ କରିଥିଲା। ସେ ଅନେକ ପୁସ୍ତକ ରଚନା କରିବା ସହିତ ଅନେକ ମତବାଦ ରଚନା କରିଛନ୍ତି। ସେ ୧୮୯୭ରେ ଲି, ସୁଇସାଇଡ୍ ନାମକ ଏକ ପୁସ୍ତକ ରଚନା କରିଥିଲେ। ସେଥିରେ ସେ ଆତ୍ମହତ୍ୟାର ପ୍ରକାର ଓ କାରଣସବୁକୁ ଆଲୋଚନା କରିଛନ୍ତି। ସମାଜବିଜ୍ଞାନର ବୈଜ୍ଞାନିକ ପ୍ରକୃତିକୁ ପ୍ରମାଣ କରିବାକୁ ଯାଇ ସେ ଏହି ସାମାଜିକ ସମସ୍ୟାକୁ ଅଧ୍ୟୟନ କରିଛନ୍ତି। ଦୁର୍ଗାଇମଙ୍କ ମତରେ ଆତ୍ମହତ୍ୟା ଏକ ସମାଜିକ ସତ୍ୟ। ପୂର୍ବରୁ ଆତ୍ମହତ୍ୟାକୁ ଏକ ବ୍ୟକ୍ତିଗତ କାର୍ଯ୍ୟ ଭାବେ ବିଚାର କରାଯାଉଥିଲା। କିନ୍ତୁ ଦୁର୍ଶାଇମ୍‌ଙ୍କ ମତରେ ଆତ୍ମହତ୍ୟା ନିଜକୁ ହତ୍ୟା ବା ନଷ୍ଟ କରିବାର ଏକ ସାମାଜିକ କାର୍ଯ୍ୟ। ତାଙ୍କ ମତରେ ସମାଜ ବ୍ୟକ୍ତିଠାରେ ଏକ ଆତ୍ମହତ୍ୟା ଜନିତ ପ୍ରବଣତା ସୃଷ୍ଟି କରେ ଯ ଫଳରେ ବ୍ୟକ୍ତି ଆତ୍ମହତ୍ୟା କରିବାକୁ ବାଧ୍ଯ ହୁଏ। ସେ ବିଭିନ୍ନ ସମାଜରେ ଆତ୍ମହତ୍ୟା ହାର ଓ କାରଣକୁ ଅନୁଧ୍ୟାନ କରିଛନ୍ତି। ସେ ଆତ୍ମହତ୍ୟାର ବିଭିନ୍ନ ପ୍ରକାର ସମ୍ବନ୍ଧରେ ଉଲ୍ଲେଖ କରିଛନ୍ତି। ଆତ୍ମହତ୍ୟାର ଏହି ପ୍ରକାର ସଂହତି ଓ ନିୟନ୍ତ୍ରଣ ଭିତ୍ତିରେ ବର୍ଗୀକରଣ କରିଛନ୍ତି। ଦୁର୍ଗାଇମ୍ ଆତ୍ମହତ୍ୟାକୁ ମୁଖ୍ୟତଃ ୪ ଭାଗରେ ବିଭକ୍ତ କରିଛନ୍ତି। ସେଗୁଡ଼ିକ ହେଲା

(୧) ଅହିଂବାଦୀ ଆତ୍ମହତ୍ୟା (Egoistic suicide) : ଯେତେବେଳେ ବ୍ୟକ୍ତିର ସମାଜ ବା ସମୂହ ସହିତ ସଂହତି କମିଯାଏ ବା ହରାଏ ସେତେବେଳେ ଯଦି ବ୍ୟକ୍ତି ନିଜକୁ ହତ୍ୟା କରେ ତାହାକୁ ଅହଂବାଦୀ ଆତ୍ମହତ୍ୟା କୁହାଯାଏ। ଏକ ସଂହତି ପୂର୍ଣ୍ଣ ସମାଜରେ ଏ ପ୍ରକାର ଆତ୍ମହତ୍ୟା ଦେଖାଯାଏ ନାହିଁ । ବ୍ୟକ୍ତି ସମୂହ ସଂହତି ହରାଇଲେ ହତାଶ ହୋଇ ଏପ୍ରକାର ଆତ୍ମହତ୍ୟା କରିଥାଏ। ଏହି ସମୟରେ ବ୍ୟକ୍ତି ନିଜ ବିଷୟରେ କେବଳ ଚିନ୍ତା କରିଥାଏ। ସାମାଜିକ ସଂହତି ଦୁର୍ବଳ ହେଲେ ସମାଜରେ ଏ ପ୍ରକାର ଆତ୍ମହତ୍ୟା ଦେଖାଯାଇଥାଏ।

(୨) ପଦାର୍ଥବାଦୀ ଆତ୍ମହତ୍ୟା (Altruistic suicide) : ଏହା ହେଉଛି ଦୁର୍ଗାଇମ୍ ପ୍ରଦାନ କରିଥିବା ଆତ୍ମହତ୍ୟାର ଦ୍ଵିତୀୟ ପ୍ରକାର। ଯେତେବେଳେ ବ୍ୟକ୍ତିର ସମୂହ ସହିତ ସଂହତି ଅତ୍ୟଧ୍ଵକ ହୋଇଥାଏ ବା ଅଧିକ ଉଚ୍ଚ ହୋଇଥାଏ ସେତେବେଳେ ବ୍ୟକ୍ତି ଏହି ପ୍ରକାର ଆତ୍ମହତ୍ୟା କରିବା ପାଇଁ ପ୍ରେରତ ହୋଇଥାଏ। ଏହି ପ୍ରକାର ବ୍ୟକ୍ତି ଭାବିଥାନ୍ତି ଯେ ଏହା କରିବା ସେମାନଙ୍କର କର୍ତ୍ତବ୍ୟ ଅଟେ। ଯେତେବେଳେ ଜଣେ ବ୍ୟକ୍ତି ସମୂହ ବା ଦେଶ ପାଇଁ ନିଜ ଜୀବନ ବଳି ଦିଏ ସେତେବେଳେ ତା’ର ଆତ୍ମହତ୍ୟାକୁ ପଦାର୍ଥବାଦୀ ଆତ୍ମହତ୍ୟା କୁହାଯାଏ।

(୩) ଆନୋମିକ୍ ବା ହତାଶାମୂଳକ ଆତ୍ମହତ୍ୟା (Anomic sucide) : ଦୁର୍ଗାଇମ୍ସଙ୍କର ତୃତୀୟ ପ୍ରକାର ଆତ୍ମହତ୍ୟା ହେଉଛି ଅନୋମିକ୍ ଆତ୍ମହତ୍ୟା। ଯେତେବେଳେ ସାମାଜିକ ନିୟନ୍ତ୍ରିତ ଅତି ଦୁର୍ବଳ ହୋଇଯାଏ ସେତେବେଳେ ଏପ୍ରକାର ଆତ୍ମହତ୍ୟା ଦେଖାଯାଇଥାଏ। ଆମି ବା ନିୟମଶୂନ୍ୟତା ହେଉଛି ଆଧୁନିକ ସମାଜର ଏକ ଅତ୍ୟନ୍ତ ଦୂରାବସ୍ଥା। ଏ ସମୟରେ ସାମାଜିକ ନିୟନ୍ତ୍ରଣ ଅତ୍ୟନ୍ତ ନିମ୍ନସ୍ତରରେ ରହିଥାଏ। ଚରମ ହତାଶାର ବଶବର୍ତ୍ତୀ ହୋଇ ବ୍ୟକ୍ତି ଏ ପ୍ରକାର ଆତ୍ମହତ୍ୟା କରିଥାଏ। ଏ ପ୍ରକାର ଅବସ୍ଥା ପ୍ରାୟତଃ ଆର୍ଥିକ ବା ଶିଳ୍ପ ବା ବ୍ୟବସାୟ ଦୁର୍ଗତ ସମୟରେ ଦେଖାଯାଇଥାଏ। ଜୀବନରେ ଏହି ହଠାତ୍ ପରିବର୍ତ୍ତନ ସହିତ ଖାପ ଖୁଆଇ ନପାରି ବ୍ୟକ୍ତି ଆତ୍ମହତ୍ୟା କରେ ତାକୁ ଆନୋମିକ୍ ଆତ୍ମହତ୍ୟା କୁହାଯାଏ।

(୪) ଭାଗ୍ୟବାଦୀ ଆତ୍ମହତ୍ୟା (Fatalistic suicide) : ଦୁର୍ଗାଇମ୍ସଙ୍କର ଚତୁର୍ଥ ପ୍ରକାର ଆତ୍ମହତ୍ୟା ହେଉଛି ଭାଗ୍ୟବାଦୀ ଆତ୍ମହତ୍ୟା। ଏପ୍ରକାର ଆତ୍ମହତ୍ୟା ମୁଖ୍ୟତଃ ଅତ୍ୟଧିକ ସାମାଜିକ ନିୟନ୍ତ୍ରଣ ଅବସ୍ଥାରେ ପରିଲକ୍ଷିତ ହୋଇଥାଏ। ଯେତେବେଳେ ଜଣେ ଲୋକର ଭାବପ୍ରବଣତାକୁ ରୋକାଯାଏ ଏବଂ ଯାହାର ଭବିଷ୍ୟତ ଅନିଶ୍ଚିତ ହୋଇପଡ଼େ ସେ ଏପରି ଆତ୍ମହତ୍ୟା କରିଥାଏ।

Question ୩।
ଜାତି ଉପରେ ପ୍ରଫେସର ଜି. ଏସ୍. ୟୂରେଙ୍କର ମତକୁ ଆଲୋଚନା କର।
Answer:
ଜାତି ସ୍ତରୀକରଣ ବ୍ୟବସ୍ଥାର ଏକ ପ୍ରମୁଖ ଭିଭିଅଟେ। ଏହା ଉଭୟ ଏକ ସଂରଚନାତ୍ମକ ଓ ସାଂସ୍କୃତିକ ରୂପ। ଏହାକୁ ଏକ ଆବଦ୍ଧ ସ୍ତରୀକରଣ ବ୍ୟବସ୍ଥା ଭାରତୀୟ ସମାଜର ଏକ ଗୁରୁତ୍ଵପୂର୍ଣ୍ଣ ସାମାଜିକ ଅନୁଷ୍ଠାନ ଭାବେ ଏହା ପରିଚିତ। ପ୍ରାୟତଃ ତିନି ହଜାରରୁ ଉର୍ଷବର୍ଷ ଧରି ଏହା ଭାରତୀୟ ସମାଜରେ ତିଷ୍ଠି ଆସିଅଛି। ତେଣୁ ବିଭିନ୍ନ କ୍ଷେତ୍ରରୁ ବିଭିନ୍ନ ଚିନ୍ତାନାୟକମାନେ ଏହାକୁ ଆଗ୍ରହର ସହ ଅଧ୍ୟୟନ କରିଥାନ୍ତି। ଭାରତରେ ଜାତି ବ୍ୟବସ୍ଥାକୁ ସ୍ତରୀକରଣ ଓ ସାଂସ୍କୃତିକ ଦୃଷ୍ଟିକୋଣରୁ ଅଧ୍ୟୟନ କରାଯାଇଥାଏ। ସେହିପରି ପ୍ରଖ୍ୟାତ ସମାଜବିଜ୍ଞାନୀ ପ୍ରଫେସର ଜି-ଏସ-ଘୂରେ ଜାତି ବ୍ୟବସ୍ଥା ଉପରେ ଏକ ସ୍ଵତନ୍ତ୍ର ଅଧ୍ୟୟନ କରିଛନ୍ତି। ଭାରତୀୟ ସମାଜ ପାଇଁ ଏହା ତାଙ୍କର ଏକ ଗୁରୁତ୍ଵପୂର୍ଣ୍ଣ ଅବଦାନ। ୧୯୩୨ରେ ତାଙ୍କ ପୁସ୍ତକ “କାଷ୍ଟ ଏବଂ ରେସ୍ ଇନ୍ ଇଣ୍ଡିଆ” ପ୍ରକାଶିତ ହେଲା।

ଘୂରେ ଜାତିକୁ ଏକ ଐତିହାସିକ, ତୁଳନାତ୍ମକ ଓ ସଂହତିଗତ ଦୃଷ୍ଟିକୋଣରୁ ଅଧ୍ୟୟନ କରିଛନ୍ତି। ତାଙ୍କ ମତରେ, “ ଜାତ ହେଉଛି କ୍ଷୁଦ୍ର ଏବଂ ସଂପୂର୍ଣ୍ଣ ସାମାଜିକ ବିଶ୍ଵ” ଜାତିର ସୃଷ୍ଟି ପ୍ରଜାତି ମଧ୍ୟରୁ ବୋଲି ସେ ମତ ଦେଇଛନ୍ତି। ସେ ଜାତି ବ୍ୟବସ୍ଥାକୁ ବ୍ରାହ୍ମଣ ବ୍ୟବସ୍ଥା ସହିତ ଯୋଡ଼ିଛନ୍ତି। ଆର୍ଯ୍ୟମାନଙ୍କର ବିଜୟ ଫଳରେ ଭାରତରେ ଜାତି ବ୍ୟବସ୍ଥା ସୃଷ୍ଟି ହୋଇଛି ବୋଲି ସେ ମତ ଦେଇଛନ୍ତି। ବ୍ରିଟିଶ ଶାସନ ଯୋଗୁଁ ଭାରତୀୟ ଜାତି ବ୍ୟବସ୍ଥାରେ ଅନେକ ପରିବର୍ତ୍ତନ ଆସିଛି ବୋଲି ସେ ମତ ଦେଇଛନ୍ତି। ତାଙ୍କ ମତ ଜାତି ବ୍ୟବସ୍ଥା ସ୍ଥିର ନୁହେଁ ପରିବର୍ତ୍ତନଶୀଳ ଅଟେ।

(୧) ସମାଜର କ୍ଷୁଦ୍ର ବିଭାଜନ,
(୨) ସ୍ତରୀକରଣ,
(୩) ପବିତ୍ରତା ଓ ଅପବିତ୍ରତାର ନିୟମ,
(୪) ଭିନ୍ନଭିନ୍ନ ନାଗରିକ ଏବଂ ଧାର୍ମିକ ସୁବିଧା ସୁଯୋଗ ଓ ଅସୁବିଧା,
(୫) ବୃଦ୍ଧି ନିବାଚନରେ ବାଧା,
(୬) ବିବାହାର ବାଧା ବା ଏଣ୍ଡୋଗାମୀ।

Question ୪।
ସଂସ୍କୃତିକରଣ ଉପରେ ଏକ ସଂକ୍ଷିପ୍ତ ରଚନା ଲେଖ।
Answer:
ପ୍ରଖ୍ୟାତ ସମାଜବିଜ୍ଞାନୀ ଓ ଦିଲ୍ଲୀ ସ୍କୁଲ ଅଫ୍ ଇକୋନୋମିକ୍‌ସର ସମାଜବିଜ୍ଞାନ ପ୍ରଫେସର ଏମ୍. ଏନ୍. ଶ୍ରୀନିବାସ ତାଙ୍କର ପ୍ରସିଦ୍ଧ ପୁସ୍ତକ “ ଦୁର୍ଗସମାନଙ୍କ ମଧ୍ୟରେ ଧର୍ମ ଏବଂ ସମାଜ”ରେ ସଂସ୍କୃତିକରଣ ସଂପ୍ରତ୍ୟୟର ବ୍ୟବହାର କରିଥିଲେ। ଏହି ସଂପ୍ରତ୍ୟୟକୁ ବ୍ୟବହାର କରି ଶ୍ରୀନିବାସ ଭାରତର ପାରଂପାରିକ ସାମାଜିକ ସଂରଚନା ସାମାଜିକ ସାଂସ୍କୃତିକ ସଂଞ୍ଚଳନତାକୁ ବର୍ଣ୍ଣନା କରିବାକୁ ପ୍ରୟାସ କରିଛନ୍ତି। ଶ୍ରୀନିବାସ ଦକ୍ଷିଣ ଭାରତର ମହୀଶୂରର ଦୁର୍ଗସ୍‌ମାନଙ୍କୁ ଅଧ୍ୟୟନ କଲାବେଳେ ଦେଖିବାକୁ ପାଇଲେ ଯେ ଜାତି ସ୍ତରୀକରଣରେ ନିଜ ନିଜର ପ୍ରସ୍ଥିତିରେ ଉନ୍ନତି ଆଣିବା ପାଇଁ ନୀଚ ଜାତିର ଲୋକମାନେ ବ୍ରାହ୍ମଣମାନଙ୍କର କେତେକ ପ୍ରଥା ପରଂପରା ଓ ଜୀବନଶୈଳୀକୁ ଅନୁକରଣ କରୁଛନ୍ତି ଏବଂ ଅପବିତ୍ର ବୋଲି ବିବେଚିତ ହେଉଥିବା ସେମାନଙ୍କର କେତେକ ପ୍ରଥା ପରଂପରାକୁ ତ୍ୟାଗ କରୁଛନ୍ତି। ଉଦାହରଣସ୍ୱରୂପ ମୋନ ମାଂସ ଖାଇବା, ମଦ ପିଇବା ସହିତ ବ୍ରାହ୍ମଣମାନଙ୍କର ଖାଦ୍ୟ ଜୀବନଶୈଳୀ ଓ କର୍ମକାଣ୍ଡକୁ ଅନୁସରଣ କଲେ। ଏହିପରି କରି ଗୋଟିଏ ପିଢ଼ୀରେ ବା ପରେ ସେମାନେ ଜାତି ସ୍ତରୀକରଣରେ ଉଚ୍ଚ ସ୍ଥିତିଜାହିର କରିପାରିବେ। ଏହି ପ୍ରକ୍ରିୟାକୁ ବୁଝାଇବା ପାଇଁ ପ୍ରଥମେ ଶ୍ରୀନିବାସ “ ବ୍ରାହ୍ମଣୀକରଣ” ସଂପ୍ରତ୍ୟୟ ପ୍ରୟୋଗ କରିଥିଲେ ଓ ପରେ ଏହାକୁ ସଂସ୍କୃତିକରଣ ବୋଲି କହିଲେ। ତାଙ୍କ ମତରେ ବ୍ରାହ୍ମଣୀକରଣ ଏକ ସଂକୀର୍ଣ୍ଣ ସଂପ୍ରତ୍ୟୟ; କିନ୍ତୁ ସଂସ୍କୃତିକରଣ ଏକ ବ୍ୟାପକ ସଂପ୍ରତ୍ୟୟ। କାରଣ ସେ ଦେଖିବାକୁ ପାଇଲେ ଯେ ବ୍ରାହ୍ମଣଙ୍କ ବ୍ୟତୀତ ମଧ୍ୟ ଅନ୍ୟ ଉଚ୍ଚ ଜାତିକ ସେମାନେ ଅନୁକରଣ କରୁଛନ୍ତି।

ପ୍ରଥମେ ଶ୍ରୀନିବାସ ସଂସ୍କୃତିକରଣର ସଂଜ୍ଞା ଦେଇ କହିଲେ ଯେ ସଂସ୍କୃତିକରଣ ହେଉଛି ନୀଚ ଜାତିମାନଙ୍କ ମଧ୍ୟରେ ଏକ ମନୋବୃତ୍ତି ଜାତି ସ୍ତରୀକରଣରେ ଉଚ୍ଚକୁ ଯିବା ପାଇଁ ନିରାମିଷ ଭୋଜନ ଓ ଏହାର କର୍ମକାଣ୍ଡକୁ ସଂସ୍କୃତିକରଣ କରି ପରେ ସେ ଏହି ସଂଜ୍ଞାକୁ ପରିବର୍ତ୍ତନ କରି କହିଲେ ଯେ ସଂସ୍କୃତିକରଣ ହେଉଛି ଏକ ପ୍ରକ୍ରିୟା ଯେଉଁଠି ଜଣେ ନୀଚ ହିନ୍ଦୁଜାତି ବା ଜନଜାତି ବା ଅନ୍ୟ ସମୂହ ଏହାର ପ୍ରଥା, କର୍ମକାଣ୍ଡ, ମତବାଦ ଓ ଜୀବନଶୈଳୀକୁ ଏକ ଦ୍ଵିଜ ବା ଉଚ୍ଚଜାତିର ଜୀବନଶୈଳୀ ଅନୁକରଣରେ ପରିବର୍ତ୍ତନ କରିଥାଏ । ସଂସ୍କୃତିକରଣ ସାମାଜିକ ପରିବର୍ତ୍ତରେ ଏକ ଦେଶୀୟ ଉତ୍ସ ଭାବେ ପରିଗଣିତ । ଏହା ଜାତି ବ୍ୟବସ୍ଥାରେ କେବଳ ସ୍ଥିତିଗତ ପରିବର୍ତ୍ତନକୁ ବୁଝାଇଥାଏ । କୌଣସି ସଂରଚନାତ୍ମକ ପରିବର୍ତ୍ତନକୁ ବୁଝାଇ ନ ଥାଏ । ସଂସ୍କୃତିକରଣ ପ୍ରକ୍ରିୟାର ନିମ୍ନଲିଖତ ଲକ୍ଷଣମାନ ରହିଛି ।

(୧) ସାମଜିକ ପରିବର୍ତ୍ତନର ଏକ ଦେଶୀୟ ଉତ୍ସ
(୨) ଏକ ଦ୍ଵିପାକ୍ଷିକ ପ୍ରକ୍ରିୟା
(୩) ଏହା ଭାରତୀୟ ସମାଜର ସାମାଜିକ ଓ ସାଂସ୍କୃତିକ ପରିବର୍ତ୍ତନକୁ ବୁଝାଏ
(୪) ଏହା ବ୍ରାହ୍ମଣୀକରଣ ଓ ଅଣସଂସ୍କୃତିକରଣ ପ୍ରକ୍ରିୟାକୁ ଜନିତ କରିଥାଏ
(୫) ଏହା ଏକ ସାର୍ବଜନୀୟ ପ୍ରକ୍ରିୟା ନୁହେଁ
(୬) ସଂସ୍କୃତିକରଣ ସଂରଚନାତ୍ମକ ପରିବର୍ତ୍ତନ
(୭) ଶିକ୍ଷଣ, ଶିଳ୍ପୀକରଣ ଆଣି ସାଂସ୍କୃତିକରଣ ପ୍ରକ୍ରିୟାକୁ ତ୍ବରାନିତ କରିଥାଏ

Question ୫।
ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷଣ କ’ଣ ? ଏହାର ଲକ୍ଷଣଗୁଡ଼ିକୁ ଆଲୋଚନା କର।
Answer:
ଉଭୟ ପ୍ରାକୃତିକ ଓ ସାମାଜିକ ବିଜ୍ଞାନର ଗବେଷଣା କ୍ଷେତ୍ରରେ ପଦ୍ଧତି ଗୁରୁତ୍ବପୂର୍ଣ ଭୂମିକା ଗ୍ରହଣ କରିଥାଏ। କାରଣ ପଦ୍ଧତି ବିନା କୌଣସି ପ୍ରକାର ଗବେଷଣା ସମ୍ଭବ ନୁହେଁ। ପଦ୍ଧତି ହେଉଛି ଏକ ସୁବ୍ୟବସ୍ଥିତ ବ୍ୟବସ୍ଥା। ସାମାଜିକ ବିଜ୍ଞାନର ଗବେଷଣା କ୍ଷେତ୍ରରେ ବିଭିନ୍ନ ପଦ୍ଧତିର ବ୍ୟବହାର ହୋଇଥାଏ। ବୈଜ୍ଞାନିକ ଅନୁସନ୍ଧାରେ ବିଭିନ୍ନ ପଦ୍ଧତି ମଧ୍ଯରୁ ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷଣ ହେଉଛି ସବୁଠୁ ଏକ ଗୁରୁତ୍ଵପୂର୍ଣ୍ଣ ପଦ୍ଧତି। ସାମାଜିକ ଗବେଷଣା କ୍ଷେତ୍ରର ଏହା ସବୁଠୁ ପୁରୁଣା ପଦ୍ଧତିଭାବେ ପରିଚିତ।

ସାମାଜିକ ସମସ୍ୟାଗୁଡ଼ିକୁ ଅଧ୍ୟୟନରେ ଏକ ପ୍ରମୁଖ ପ୍ରଦ୍ଧତି ହେଉଛି ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷଣ। ଏହି ପଦ୍ଧତି ମାଧ୍ୟମରେ ଜଣେ ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷକ ଦ୍ଵାରା ଗବେଷଣା କ୍ଷେତ୍ରକୁ ତଥ୍ୟ ସଂଗ୍ରହ କରାଯାଏ। ଏହା ଏକ ଘଟଣା ବା ସମସ୍ୟାକୁ ସୁବ୍ୟବସ୍ଥିତ ଭାବେ ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷଣ ବା ଦର୍ଶନ କରିବାର ଏକ ପ୍ରକ୍ରିୟା ଅଟେ। ଏହା ମୁଖ୍ୟତଃ ଆଖିର କାର୍ଯ୍ୟ ଭାବେ ପରିଚିତ। ଏକ ବାସ୍ତବ ପରିସ୍ଥିତିରେ କ’ଣ ଘଟୁଛି ତାହାକୁ ଏକ ଯୋଜନା ଅନୁସାରେ ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷଣ କରିବାର ଏକ ପ୍ରକ୍ରିୟାକୁ ବୁଝାଇଥାଏ ଅକ୍ସଫୋର୍ଡ ଅଭିଧାନ ଅନୁସାରେ ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷଣ ଅର୍ଥ “ ଘଟଣା ବା ସମସ୍ୟା ପ୍ରାକୃତିକ ଅବସ୍ଥାରେ ଘଟୁଥିବା ସମୟରେ ସେମାନଙ୍କର କାରଣ ଏବଂ ଫଳାଫଳ ଓ ପାରସ୍ପରିକ ସଂପର୍କ ଭିତ୍ତିରେ ସଠିକ୍ ଦର୍ଶନ ଓ ତା’ର ଲିଖନକୁ ବୁଝାଇଥାଏ।”

ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷଣର ଲକ୍ଷଣ : ସାମାଜିକ ଗବେଷଣାର ଏକ ପ୍ରମୁଖ ପଦ୍ଧତି ବା ଏକ ବୈଜ୍ଞାନିକ କୌଶଳ ଭାବେ ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷଣର ନିମ୍ନଲିଖୂତ ଲକ୍ଷଣ ମାନରହିଛି।

(୧) ଆସ୍‌ର କାର୍ଯ୍ୟ : ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷଣ ଆଖିଦ୍ଵାରା ସମ୍ଭବ ହୋଇଥାଏ କାରଣ ପି.ଭି. ୟଙ୍ଗ୍ଙ୍କ ମତରେ, ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷଣ ହେଉଛି ଆଖି ଦ୍ବାରା କରାଯାଉଥିବା ଏକ ସୁବ୍ୟବସ୍ଥିତ ଓ ଜାଣିଶୁଣି କରାଯାଉଥିବା ଅଧ୍ୟୟନ। ଏହି ପଦ୍ଧତିରେ ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷକକୁ ପ୍ରତ୍ୟେକ ଜିନିଷକୁ ଅଧ‌ିକ ଯତ୍ନଶୀଳ ଭାବେ ଦେଖିବାକୁ ହୋଇଥାଏ। ଆଖି ତଥ୍ୟ ସଂଗ୍ରହର ଏକ ବିଶ୍ଵାସୀ ପଦ୍ଧତି ହୋଇଥିବାରୁ ଏହା ଉପରେ ବିଶେଷ ଗୁରୁତ୍ବ ଦିଆଯାଏ।

(୨) ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷଣ ବସ୍ତୁନିଷ୍ଠ ଅଟେ : ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷଣ ବସ୍ତୁନିଷ୍ଠ ହେବା ଉଚିତ୍ ଏବଂ ସମସ୍ତ ପ୍ରକାର ପକ୍ଷପାତିତା ବା ବ୍ୟକ୍ତିଗତ ବିଚାରରୁ ସଂପୂର୍ଣ୍ଣ ମୁକ୍ତ ହେବା ଉଚିତ। ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷଣ ସମୟରେ ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷକ ବସ୍ତୁନିଷ୍ଠ ଓ ନିରପେକ୍ଷ ଭାବେ ସମସ୍ତ ଘଟଣାକୁ ଅଧ୍ୟୟନ କରିବା ଉଚିତ।

(୩) ଏକ ସୁବ୍ୟବସ୍ଥିତ ପଦ୍ଧତି : ତଥ୍ୟ ସଂଗ୍ରହର ଏକ ସୁବ୍ୟବସ୍ଥିତ ପଦ୍ଧତି ହେଉଛି ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷଣ। କୌଣସି ପ୍ରକାର ଅବ୍ୟବସ୍ଥିତ ବା ହାଫାବାର୍ଡ଼ ତଥ୍ୟ ସଂଗ୍ରହକୁ ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷଣ କୁହାଯାଇ ପାରିବ ନାହିଁ। ଘଟଣାକୁ ସୁବ୍ୟବସ୍ଥିତ ପ୍ରକ୍ରିୟାରେ ଅଧ୍ୟୟନ କରିବାକୁ ହୋଇଥାଏ।

(୪) ନିର୍ଦ୍ଦିଷ୍ଟ ଲକ୍ଷ୍ୟ : ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷଣ ପଦ୍ଧତିର ନିଦ୍ଧିଷ୍ଟ ଲକ୍ଷ୍ୟ ରହିଥାଏ। ସେହି ଲକ୍ଷ୍ୟକୁ ଆଖି ଆଗରେ ରଖି ସୁବ୍ୟବସ୍ଥିତ ଭାବେ ତଥ୍ୟ ସଂଗ୍ରହ କରାଯାଏ। ନିଦ୍ଧିଷ୍ଟ ଲକ୍ଷ୍ୟ ବିନା ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷଣ ମୂଲ୍ୟହୀନ ହୋଇପଡ଼ିବ।

(୫) ସଠିକ୍ ଯୋଜନ : ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷଣ ଏବଂ ଯୋଜନାବଦ୍ଧ ପଦ୍ଧତି ଭାବେ ପରିଚିତ। ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷକ ତଥ୍ୟ ସଂଗ୍ରହଣ ପାଇଁ ଗବେଷଣା କ୍ଷେତ୍ରକୁ ଯିବା ପୂର୍ବରୁ ସୁବ୍ୟବସ୍ଥିତ ଯୋଜନା ପ୍ରସ୍ତୁତ କରିଥାଏ ଓ ସେହି ଯୋଜନା ମୁତାବତା ତଥ୍ୟ ସଂଗ୍ରହ କରାଯାଏ।

(୬) ଲେଖା ରଖିବା ଆବଶ୍ୟକ : ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷଣ ଏକ ଜଟିଳ ପ୍ରକ୍ରିୟା ଅଟେ। ତେଣୁ ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷକ ସମୟରେ ଗୁରୁତ୍ଵପୂର୍ଣ୍ଣ ତଥ୍ୟଗୁଡ଼ିକୁ ଲିଷ୍ପତ ଆକାରରେ ରଖିବା ଆବଶ୍ୟକ ନହେଲେ ପର୍ଯ୍ୟାବେକ୍ଷକ ଏହାକୁ ଭୁଲି ଯିବାର ସମ୍ଭାବନା ଥାଏ।

(୭) ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷଣ ସର୍ବଦା ଉପକଳ୍ପନା ଦ୍ଵାରା ନିର୍ଦ୍ଦେଶିତ ବା ପରିଚାଳିତ ହେବା ଉଚିତ।

(୮) ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷଣ ଏକ ପ୍ରତ୍ୟକ୍ଷ ଅଧ୍ୟୟନ ଯାହାଦ୍ଵାରା ପ୍ରାଥମିକ ତଥ୍ୟ ସଂଗୃହିତ ହୋଇଥାଏ।

(୯) ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷଣର ଫଳ ପୁନଃ ପରୀକ୍ଷଣ ଯୋଗୀ ହେବା ଉଚିତ।

Question ୬।
ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷଣର ସଂଜ୍ଞାଦିଅ ଓ ଏହାର ପ୍ରକାର ଗୁଡ଼ିକୁ ଆଲୋଚନା କର।
Answer:
ସାମାଜିକ ଗବେଷଣା କ୍ଷେତ୍ରରେ ବ୍ୟବହୃତ ହେଉଥିବା ବିଭିନ୍ନ ପଦ୍ଧତିଗୁଡ଼ିକ ମଧ୍ୟରୁ ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷଣ ଏକ ପ୍ରମୁଖ ପଦ୍ଧତି ପଦ୍ଧତିଗୁଡ଼ିକ ମଧ୍ୟରୁ ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷଣ ଏକ ପ୍ରମୁଖ ପଦ୍ଧତି ଭାବେ ପରିଚିତ। ସାମାଜିକ ଗବେଷଣା କ୍ଷେତ୍ରରେ ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷଣର ବ୍ୟବହାର ଅତି ପ୍ରାଚୀନ ଅଟେ। ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷଣ ମୁଖ୍ୟତଃ ଏକ ଆଖିର କାର୍ଯ୍ୟ। ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷଣ ଦ୍ଵାରା ସାମାଜିକ ସମସ୍ୟାଗୁଡ଼ିକୁ ଅଧ୍ୟୟନ କରାଯାଏ। ଏକ ଘଟଣା ବା ସମସ୍ୟାକୁ ସୁବ୍ୟବସ୍ଥିତ ଭାବେ ଦର୍ଶନ କରିବାର ପ୍ରକ୍ରିୟାକୁ ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷଣ କୁହାଯାଏ। ଏହା ମାଧ୍ୟମରେ ସାମାଜିକ ସମସ୍ୟାଗୁଡ଼ିକୁ ସଠିକ୍ ଭାବେ ଦେଖାଯାଇଥାଏ। ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷଣ ହେଉଛି ତଥ୍ୟ ସଂଗ୍ରହର ଏକ କୌଶଳ ଯାହାଦ୍ଵାରା ଜଣେ ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷକ ଗବେଷଣା କ୍ଷେତ୍ରରୁ ତଥ୍ୟ ସଂଗ୍ରହ କରିଥାଏ ବାସ୍ତବ ଜୀବନ ପରିସ୍ଥିତିରେ କ’ଣ ଘଟୁଛି ତାହାକୁ ଏକ ସୁବ୍ୟବସ୍ଥିତ ଯୋଜନା ମାଧ୍ୟମରେ ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷଣ କରିବାର ଏକ ପ୍ରକ୍ରିୟାକୁ ବୁଝାଇଥାଏ। ଆକ୍ସଫୋର୍ଡ କସାଇଜ୍ ଅଭିଧାନ ଅନୁସାରେ ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷଣ ଅର୍ଥ “ଘଟଣା ବା ସମସ୍ୟା ପ୍ରାକୃତିକ ଅବସ୍ଥାରେ ଘଟୁଥିବା ସମୟରେ ସେମାନଙ୍କର କାରଣ ଓ ଫଳାଫଳ ଓ ପାରସ୍ପରିକ ସଂପର୍କ ଭିତ୍ତିରେ ସଠିକ୍ ଦର୍ଶନ ଓ ତା’ର ଲିଖନକୁ ବୁଝାଇଥାଏ। ପି. ଭି. ୟଙ୍ଗଙ୍କ ମତରେ, “ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷଣ ହେଉଛି ଘଟଣା ଘଟୁଥିବା ସମୟରେ ଆଖିଦ୍ଵାରା କରାଯାଉଥିବା ଏକ ସୁବ୍ୟବସ୍ଥିତ ଓ ଜାଣିଶୁଣି ଅଧ୍ୟୟନ ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷଣର ଲକ୍ଷ୍ୟ ହେଉଛି ଜଟିଳ ସାମାଜିକ ଘଟଣା, ସାଂସ୍କୃତିକ ପଦ୍ଧତି ବା ମାନବ ଚରିତ୍ରରେ ଗୁରୁତ୍ଵପୂର୍ଣ ପାରସ୍ପରିକ ଲକ୍ଷଣଗୁଡ଼ିକର ପ୍ରକୃତି ଏବଂ ପରିମାଣକୁ ବୁଝିବା।”

ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷଣର ପ୍ରକାର : ପଦ୍ଧତି ବ୍ୟବହାର ଏବଂ ଜାରି କରାଯାଉଥିବା ନିୟନ୍ତ୍ରଣର ପ୍ରକାର ଭିତ୍ତିରେ ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷଣକୁ ପାଞ୍ଚଭାଗରେ ବିଭକ୍ତ କରାଯାଏ। ଯଥା –
(୧) ଅଂଶଗ୍ରହଣକାରୀ ବା ସହଭାଗୀ ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷଣ (Participant obervation)
(୨) ଅଣଆଂଶ ଗ୍ରହଣକାରୀ ବା ଅସହଭାଗୀ ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷଣ (Non-participant observation)
(୩) ମିଶ୍ରିତ ବା ବ୍ବାସି ସହଭାଗୀ ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷଣ (Mixed or Quasi participant observation)
(୪) ନିୟନ୍ତ୍ରିତ ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷଣ (Controlled observation)
(୫) ଅନିୟନ୍ତ୍ରିତ ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷଣ (Noncontrolled observtion)

(୧) ସହଭାଗୀ ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷଣ : ଯେତେବେଳେ ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷକ ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷଣ କରିବାକୁ ଥିବା ସମୂହ ସହିତ ମିଶି ବା ସେମାନଙ୍କ ସହିତ ଅଂଶଗ୍ରହଣ କରି ସେମାନଙ୍କ କାର୍ଯ୍ୟ କଳାପକୁ ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷଣ କରିଥାଏ ତାହାକୁ ସହଭାଗୀ ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷଣ କୁହାଯାଏ।

(୨) ଅସହଭାଗୀ ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷଣ : ଯେତେବେଳେ ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷକ ଏକ ସମୂହ ବା ତା’ର କାର୍ଯ୍ୟକଳାପକୁ ଦୂରରେ ରହି ଓ ସେମାନଙ୍କ ସହ ସାମିଲ ନ ହୋଇ ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷଣ କରିଥାଏ ତାହାକୁ ଅସହଭାଗୀ ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷଣ କୁହାଯାଏ। ଏଥିରେ ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷକ ଅଂଶଗ୍ରହଣ କରେ ନାହିଁ କି ସେମାନଙ୍କ କାର୍ଯ୍ୟକଳାପକୁ କୌଣସି ଉପାୟରେ ପ୍ରଭାବିତ କରିନଥାଏ।

(୩) ମିଶ୍ରିତ ବା କ୍ଲାସି ସହଭାଗୀ ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷଣ : ଏକ ସଂପୂର୍ଣ୍ଣ ସହଭାଗୀ ଓ ସଂପୂର୍ଣ୍ଣ ଅସହଭାଗୀ ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷଣ ବାସ୍ତବରେ ଅସମ୍ଭବ। ତେଣୁ ଉଭୟର ମିଶ୍ରଣରେ ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷଣ ଅଧ‌ିକ ସଫଳ ଓ ବସ୍ତୁନିଷ୍ଠ ହୁଏ ଏବଂ ଫଳାଫଳ ଉତ୍ତମ ମିଳିଥାଏ। ସହଭାଗୀ ଓ ଅସହଭାଗୀ ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷଣରେ ମିଶ୍ରଣରେ ସୃଷ୍ଟି ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷଣକୁ ମିଶ୍ରିତ ବା କ୍ରାସି ସହଭାଗୀ ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷଣ କୁହାଯାଏ।

(୪) ନିୟନ୍ତ୍ରିତ ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷଣ : ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷଣର ଫଳାଫଳକୁ ଅଧ‌ିକ ସଠିକ୍ ବସ୍ତୁନଶ୍ଚ ଓ ନିର୍ଭରଯୋଗ୍ୟ କରିବା ପାଇଁ ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷଣ ଉପରେ ନିୟନ୍ତ୍ରଣଜାରି କରାଯାଏ। ଏହି ନିୟନ୍ତ୍ରଣ ୨ଟି ସ୍ତରରେ ଜାରି କରାଯାଏ
(୧) ଘଟଣା ବା ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷଣ ହେବାକୁ ଥିବା ବିଷୟ ଉପରେ ନିୟନ୍ତ୍ରଣ ଏବଂ
(୨) ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷଣ ଉପରେ ନିୟନ୍ତ୍ରଣ ଏହି ଦୁଇ ପ୍ରକାର ନିୟନ୍ତ୍ରଣ ଜାରି ହୋଇଥିବା ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷଣକୁ ନିୟନ୍ତ୍ରିତ ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷଣ କୁହାଯାଏ।

(୫) ଅନିୟନ୍ତ୍ରିତ ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷଣ : ଯେତେବେଳେ ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷଣ ପ୍ରାକୃତିକ ଅବସ୍ଥାରେ କୌଣସି ପ୍ରକାର ପ୍ରଭାବ ପକାନଯାଇ ଓ ନିୟନ୍ତ୍ରଣ ଜାରି କରାନଯାଇ ସଂପନ୍ନ କରାଯାଏ ତାହାକୁ ଅନିୟନ୍ତ୍ରିତ ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷଣ କୁହାଯାଏ।

Question ୭।
ପ୍ରଶାବଳୀ କ’ଣ ? ଏକ ଭଲ ପ୍ରଶ୍ନବଳୀର ଲକ୍ଷଣ ଓ ପ୍ରକାରଗୁଡ଼ିକ ଉଲ୍ଲେଖ କର।
Answer:
ସାମାଜିକ ଗବେଷଣା ଏକ ଜଟିଳ ପ୍ରକ୍ରିୟା। ତଥ୍ୟ ସଂଗ୍ରହ ପାଇଁ ସଂପୂର୍ଣ୍ଣ ଅନୁସନ୍ଧାନର ଆବଶ୍ୟକ ହୋଇଥାଏ। ଏଥ‌ିପାଇଁ କ୍ଷେତ୍ରରେ ସଠିକ୍ ବା ଉପଯୁକ୍ତ ଉପକରଣ ବା କୌଶଳ ନିର୍ବାଚନ ସବଠୁ ଗୁରୁତ୍ବପୂର୍ଣ୍ଣ ଅଟେ କାରଣ ଗବେଷଣାର ଫଳାଫଳ ଏହା ଉପରେ ହିଁ ନିର୍ଭର କରିଥାଏ। ତେବେ ଯାହାହେଉ ତଥ୍ୟ ସଂଗ୍ରହ ପାଇଁ ସାମାଜିକ ଗବେଷଣା କ୍ଷେତ୍ରରେ ଅନେକ ଉପକରଣ ବା କୌଶଳ ବ୍ୟବହୃତ ହୋଇଥାଏ। ସେଥୁମଧ୍ୟରୁ ପ୍ରଶାବଳୀ ଏକ ଗୁରୁତ୍ଵପୂର୍ଣ୍ଣ ଉପକରଣ, ଅଟେ।

ସାଧାରଣତଃ ପ୍ରଶାବଳୀ ହେଉଛି ଏକ ତଥ୍ୟ ସିଟ୍‌ରେ ସୁବ୍ୟବସ୍ଥିତ କ୍ରମରେ ସଞ୍ଜିତ ହୋଇ ଛାପା ହୋଇଥିବା ପ୍ରଶ୍ନଗୁଡ଼ିକର ଏକ ଚିଠା। ପ୍ରଶାବଳୀକୁ ଉତ୍ତର ଦେବାକୁ ଥ‌ିବା ଉତ୍ତରକର୍ତ୍ତା ମାନେ ପୂରଣ କରି ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷଣ ପାଖକୁ ପଠାଇ ଦିଅନ୍ତି। ଯେତେବେଳେ ଗବେଷଣା ଏକ ବୃହତ୍ କ୍ଷେତ୍ର ପାଇଁ କରାଯାଏ ବା ତଥ୍ୟ ପ୍ରଦାନ କାରୀମାନେ ଦୂରଦୂରାନ୍ତରରେ ବିକ୍ଷିପ୍ତ ହୋଇ ରହିଥାନ୍ତି ସେତେବେଳେ ଏହି ଉପକୀରଣର ବ୍ୟବହାର କରାଯାଏ। ଏଥିରେ ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷକ ତଥ୍ୟ ପ୍ରଦାନକାରୀ ପାଖକୁ ତଥ୍ୟ ସଂଗ୍ରହ ପାଇଁ ଯାଏ ନାହିଁ ସେ କେବଳ ପ୍ରଶାବଳୀକୁ ଡାକରେ ତଥ୍ୟ ପ୍ରଦାନକାରୀ ପାଖକୁ ପଠାଇଦିଏ ଯିଏକି ପୂରଣ କରି ପୁଣି ତାଙ୍କଦ୍ଵାରା ଗବେଷଣ ପାଖକୁ ଫେରାଇ ଦେଇଥାଏ। ଗୁଡ଼େ ଏବଂ ହ୍ୟାଟଙ୍କ ମତରେ, “ ସାଧରଣ ଭାଷାରେ ପ୍ରଶ୍ନବଳୀ ଏକ ଉପକରଣକୁ ବୁଝାଏ ଯାହାକି ଏକ ଫରାମାଟ ବ୍ୟବହାର କରି ପ୍ରଶ୍ନଗୁଡ଼ିକର ଉତ୍ତର ସଂଗ୍ରହ କରିଥାଏ ଯାହାକୁ ତଥ୍ୟପ୍ରଦାନ କାରୀ ନିଜେ ହିଁ ପୂରଣ କରିଥାଏ । ”

ଏକ ଭଲ ପ୍ରଶ୍ନବଳୀର ଲକ୍ଷଣ :
ଏକ ପ୍ରଶ୍ନବଳୀ ଭଲ ବା ଉତ୍ତମ ବୋଲି ସେତିକି ବେଳେ କୁହାଯାଏ ଯେତେବେଳେ ଏହା ନିମ୍ନଲିଖୁତ ଲକ୍ଷଣମାନ ରହିଥ‌ିବ
(୧) ଏହା ଅକାରରେ କ୍ଷୁଦ୍ର ହେବା ଉଚିତ।
(୨) ପ୍ରଶାବଳୀରେ କେବଳ ବସ୍ତୁନିଷ୍ଠ ପ୍ରଶ୍ନମାନ ରହିଥିବା ଆବଶ୍ୟକ।
(୩) ପ୍ରଶାବଳୀ ସବୁ ଦୃଷ୍ଟିରୁ ଆକର୍ଷଣୀୟ ହୋଇଥବା ଉଚିତ।
(୪) .ପ୍ରଶାବଳୀରେ ବ୍ୟବହୃତ ଭାଷା ସରଳ ହେବା ଉଚିତ।
(୫) ଏଥରେ ବିଷୟଭିଭିକତାକୁ ଦୂରେଇବା ଉଚିତ।
(୬) ପ୍ରଶ୍ନବଳୀରେ ପ୍ରଶ୍ନଗୁଡ଼ିକ ସଠିକ୍ କ୍ରମରେ ସଜ୍ଜିତ ହେବା ଉଚିତ।

ପ୍ରଶ୍ନବଳୀର ପ୍ରକାର :
ପ୍ରଶାବଳୀ ବିଭିନ୍ନ ପ୍ରକାରର ଅଟେ । ପି. ଭି. ୟୁଙ୍ଗଙ୍କ ମତରେ, ପ୍ରଶାବଳୀ ତିନି ପ୍ରକାରର ଅଟେ।
(୧) ସଂରଚିତ ପ୍ରଶ୍ନବଳୀ
(୨) ଅଣସଂରଚିତ ପ୍ରଶାବଳୀ
(୩) ଛବିଳ ପ୍ରଶାବଳୀ

ଜି. ଏ. ଲୁଣ୍ଡବର୍ଗ ପ୍ରଶାବଳୀକୁ ଦୁଇଭାଗରେ ବିଭକ୍ତ କରିଛନ୍ତି; ଯଥା –
(୧) ସତ୍ୟ ବା ବାସ୍ତବତାର ପ୍ରାଶାବଳୀ,
(୨) ମତାମତର ପ୍ରଶାବଳୀ।

Question ୮।
ପ୍ରଶ୍ନବଳୀର ସଂଜ୍ଞାଦିଅ ଏବଂ ଏହାର ଉପକାର ଓ ଅପକାରକୁ ଦର୍ଶାଅ।
Answer:
ସାମାଜିକ ଗବେଷଣା ଏକ ଜଟିଳ ପ୍ରକ୍ରିୟା। ତଥ୍ୟ ସଂଗ୍ରହ ପାଇଁ ସଂପୂର୍ଣ୍ଣ ଅନୁସନ୍ଧାନର ଆବଶ୍ୟକ ହୋଇଥାଏ। ଏଥ‌ିପାଇଁ କ୍ଷେତ୍ରରେ ସଠିକ୍ ବା ଉପଯୁକ୍ତ ଉପକରଣ ବା କୌଶଳ ନିର୍ବାଚନ ସବୁଠୁ ଗୁରୁତ୍ଵପୂର୍ଣ୍ଣ ଅଟେ କାରଣ ଗବେଷଣାର ଫଳାଫଳ ଏହା ଉପରେ ହିଁ ନିର୍ଭର କରିଥାଏ। ତେବେ ଯାହାହେଉ ତଥ୍ୟ ସଂଗ୍ରହ ପାଇଁ ସାମାଜିକ ଗବେଷଣା କ୍ଷେତ୍ରରେ ଅନେକ ଉପକରଣ ବା କୌଶଳ ବ୍ୟବହୃତ ହୋଇଥାଏ। ସେଥିମଧ୍ୟରୁ ପ୍ରଶାବଳୀ ଏକ ଗୁରୁତ୍ଵପୂର୍ଣ୍ଣ ଉପକରଣ ଅଟେ।

ସାଧାରଣତଃ ପ୍ରଶାବଳୀ ହେଉଛି ଏକ ତଥ୍ୟ ସିଟ୍‌ରେ ସୁବ୍ୟବସ୍ଥିତ କ୍ରମରେ ସଜ୍ଜିତ ହୋଇ ଛାପା ହୋଇଥିବା ପ୍ରଶ୍ନଗୁଡ଼ିକର ଏକ ଚିଠ। ପ୍ରଶାବଳୀକୁ ଉତ୍ତର ଦେବାକୁ ଥିବା ଉତ୍ତରକର୍ତ୍ତା ମାନେ ପୂରଣ ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷକ ପାଖକୁ ପଠାଇ ଦିଅନ୍ତି। ଯେତେବେଳେ ଗବେଷଣା ଏକ ବୃହତ୍ କ୍ଷେତ୍ର ପାଇଁ କରାଯାଏ ବା ତଥ୍ୟ ପ୍ରଦାନ କାରୀମାନେ ଦୂରଦୂରାନ୍ତରରେ ବିକ୍ଷିପ୍ତ ହୋଇ ରହିଥାନ୍ତି ସେତେବେଳେ ଏହି ଉପକରଣର ବ୍ୟବହାର କରାଯାଏ। ଏଥୁରେ ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷକ ତଥ୍ୟ ପ୍ରଦାନକାରୀ ପାଖକୁ ତଥ୍ୟ ସଂଗ୍ରହ ପାଇଁ ଯାଏ ନାହିଁ ସେ କେବଳ ପ୍ରଶାବଳୀକୁ ଡାକରେ ତଥ୍ୟ ପ୍ରଦାନକାରୀ ପାଖକୁ ପଠାଇଦିଏ ଯିଏକି ଏହାକୁ ପୂରଣ କରି ପୁଣି ତାଙ୍କଦ୍ବାରା ଗବେଷକ ପାଖକୁ ଫେରାଇ ଦେଇଥାଏ। ଗୁଡ଼େ ଏବଂ ହ୍ୟାଙ୍କ ମତରେ, “ ସାଧାରଣ ଭାଷାରେ ପ୍ରଶ୍ନବଳୀ ଏକ ଉପକରଣକୁ ବୁଝାଏ ଯାହାକି ଏକ ଫରମାଟ ବ୍ୟବହାର କରି ପ୍ରଶ୍ନଗୁଡ଼ିକର ଉତ୍ତର ସଂଗ୍ରହ କରିଥାଏ ଯାହାକୁ ତଥ୍ୟପ୍ରଦାନ କାରୀ ନିଜେ ହିଁ ପୂରଣ କରିଥାଏ।”

ପ୍ରଶ୍ନବଳୀର ଉପକାର :
ପ୍ରଶାବଳୀ ପଦ୍ଧତିର ନିମ୍ନଲିଖତ ଉପକାରମାନ; ଯଥା –
(୧) ଏହି ପଦ୍ଧତି କମ୍ ସମୟ, ପ୍ରଚେଷ୍ଟା ଓ ଖର୍ଚ୍ଚ ଆବଶ୍ୟକତାରେ।
(୨) ବୃହତ୍ ଅଞ୍ଚଳରେ ବିକ୍ଷିପ୍ତ ତଥ୍ୟ ପ୍ରଦାନକାରୀଙ୍କ ପାଇଁ ଏହି ପଦ୍ଧତି ଉତ୍ତମ ଅଟେ।
(୩) ତଥ୍ୟ ସଂଗ୍ରହର ଏହା ସବୁଠୁ ସହଜ ଓ ନମନୀୟ ପଦ୍ଧତି ଅଟେ।
(୪) ଏହି ପଦ୍ଧତି ଦ୍ଵାରା ସଂଗୃହିତ ତଥ୍ୟ ଅଧ୍ଵ।
(୫) ଅନ୍ୟ ପଦ୍ଧତି ତୁଳନା ଏହି ପଦ୍ଧତିରେ ତଥ୍ୟ।
(୬) ବ୍ୟକ୍ତିଗତ ତଥ୍ୟ ସଂଗ୍ରହ ପାଇଁ ଏହି ପଦ୍ଧତି ଉତ୍ତମ ଅଟେ।

ପ୍ରଶ୍ନବଳୀର ଅପକାର :
ପ୍ରଶାବଳୀର ନିମ୍ନଲିଖୁତ ଅପକାରମାନ ରହିଛି
(୧) ନିରକ୍ଷର ଲୋକଙ୍କ କ୍ଷେତ୍ରରେ ଏହି ପଦ୍ଧତି ପ୍ରୟୋଗ କରାଯାଇ ପାରିବ ନାହିଁ।
(୨) ଏହି ପଦ୍ଧତିଦ୍ଵାରା ସଂଗୃହିତ ତଥ୍ୟ କମ୍ ନିର୍ଭରଯୋଗ୍ୟ ଅଟେ।
(୩) ଏହି ପଦ୍ଧତି ଦ୍ଵାରା ଗୁରୁତ୍ଵପୂର୍ଣ୍ଣ ଗଭୀର ଅଧ୍ୟୟନ ସମ୍ଭବ ନୁହେଁ।
(୪) ସ୍ପର୍ଶକାତର ବିଷୟ ପାଇଁ ଏହି ପଦ୍ଧତି ବ୍ୟବହାର ଯୋଗ୍ୟ ନୁହେଁ।
(୫) ଏହି ପଦ୍ଧତିରେ ଉତ୍ତର ପ୍ରଦାନ କମ୍ ଅଟେ।
(୬) ଏହି ପଦ୍ଧତିରେ ଗବେଷକ ଓ ତଥ୍ୟ ପ୍ରଦାନ କାରୀ ମଧ୍ୟରେ ପ୍ରତ୍ୟକ୍ଷ ସଂପର୍କ ସମ୍ଭବ ନୁହେଁ।

Question ୯।
ସୂଚୀ କହିଲେ କ’ଣ ବୁଝ ? ଏହାର ଲକ୍ଷଣ ଓ ପ୍ରକାରଗୁଡ଼ିକ ଦର୍ଶାଅ।
Answer:
ମନୁଷ୍ୟ ଏକ ସାମାଜିକ ପ୍ରାଣୀ ଭାବେ ସମାଜରେ ବାସ କରେ। ସମାଜରେ ତା’ର ବାସ କରିବା ସମୟରେ ସେ ନାନା ସମସ୍ୟାର ସମ୍ମୁଖୀନ ହୋଇଥାଏ। ଏହି ସମସ୍ୟାଗୁଡ଼ିକର ଅଧ୍ୟୟନ ଓ ସମାଧନ ପାଇଁ ସେ ମଧ୍ୟ ବିଭିନ୍ନ ଉପକରଣ କୌଶଳ ଦା ପଦ୍ଧତିରେ ବିକାଶ କରିଅଛି। ସେହିଗୁଡ଼ିକ ଦ୍ଵାରା ସାମାଜିକ ସମସ୍ୟାର ସମାଧାନ ସହିତ ହୋଇଥାଏ। ସେହି ପଦ୍ଧତିଗୁଡିକ ମଧ୍ୟରୁ ସୂଚୀ ଅନ୍ୟତମ ଅଟେ।

ସାଧାରଣ ଅର୍ଥରେ କହିଲେ ସୂଚୀ ହେଉଛି ପ୍ରଶ୍ନମାନଙ୍କର ଏକ ଚିଠା ଯାହାକି ଅନୁସନ୍ଧାନକାରୀ ସାକ୍ଷାତ୍‌କାର ସମୟରେ ବ୍ୟବହାର କରି ତଥ୍ୟ ପ୍ରଦାନ କାରୀକୁ ବିଭିନ୍ନ ପ୍ରଶ୍ନ ପ୍ରଚାର ନିଜେ ଏହାକୁ ପୂରଣ କରିଥାଏ। ଏହା ତଥ୍ୟ ଉଲ୍ଲେଖ କରିବାର ଏକ ଦସ୍ତାବିତ୍। ଏହାକୁ ଗବେଷଣ ତଥ୍ୟ ପ୍ରଦାନ କାରୀ ଠାରୁ ତଥ୍ୟ ପାଇଁ ପୂରଣ କରିଥାଏ। ଏହାକୁ ସାକ୍ଷାତ୍‌କାର ସମୟରେ ଏକ ସ୍ମୃତି ସୂଚକ ଭାବେ କାର୍ଯ୍ୟ କରିଥାଏ। ଏଥୁରେ ସମାନ ପ୍ରକାରର ପ୍ରଶ୍ନ ଲିପିବଦ୍ଧ ହୋଇ ରହିଥାଏ ଯାହାକି ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷଣ ବା ସାକ୍ଷତ୍‌କାର ସମୟରେ ଗବେଷକ ଦ୍ଵାରା ବ୍ୟବହୃତ ହୋଇଥାଏ। ଗୁଡେ ଏବଂ ହ୍ୟାଙ୍କ ମତରେ “ସୂଚୀ ହେଉଛି ଏକ ନାମ ଯାହାକି ସାଧାରଣତଃ ପ୍ରଶ୍ନମାନଙ୍କର ଏକ ସେଟ୍ ବା ଗୁଛ ପାଇଁ ବ୍ୟବହୃତ ହୋଇଥାଏ ଯାହାକି ଜଣେ ସାକ୍ଷାତକାର ହେଉଥିବା ବ୍ୟକ୍ତି ଦ୍ଵାରା ଅନ୍ୟ ଜଣେ ବ୍ୟକ୍ତି ସହିତ ମୁହାଁ ମୁହଁ ପରିସ୍ଥିତିରେ ପଚାରଯାଏ ଏବଂ ପୂରଣ କରାଯାଏ। ”

ସୂଚୀର ଲକ୍ଷ୍ୟ :
ସୂଚୀର ନିମ୍ନଲିଖତ ଲକ୍ଷ୍ୟ ମାନ ରହିଛି
(୧) ତଥ୍ୟକୁ ବସ୍ତୁନିଷ୍ଠ ଭାବେ ସଂଗ୍ରହ କରିବା।
(୨) ସୂଚୀ ତଥ୍ୟ ବର୍ଗୀକରଣ, ଟାବୁଲେସନ ଓ ବ୍ୟାଖ୍ୟାରେ ସହାୟକ ହୁଏ।
(୩) ସାକ୍ଷାତକାର ଓ ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷଣ ପାଇଁ ଏହା ଏକ ଉପକରଣ ପରିକାର୍ଯ୍ୟକରେ।
(୪) ତଥ୍ୟ ଲିପିବଦ୍ଧ ଉପକରଣ ପରି କାର୍ଯ୍ୟ କରିବ।
(୫) ସଠିକ୍ ସଂଯୋଗ ଓ ସଠିକ୍ ଉତ୍ତର ପ୍ରଦାନରେ ସହାୟକ ହେବ।
(୬) ସାକ୍ଷାତକାର ଓ ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷଣ ସମୟରେ ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷକର ସ୍ମୃତିକୁ ମନେ ପକାଇବାରେ ସାହାଯ୍ୟ କରେ।

ସୂଚୀର ପ୍ରକାର : ସୂଚୀ ସାଧାରଣତଃ ପାଞ୍ଚ ପ୍ରକାର; ଯଥା-
(୧) ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷଣ ସୂଚୀ : ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷଣ ପାଇଁ ବୃବହୃତ ସୂଚୀକୁ ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷଣ ସୂଚୀ କୁହାଯାଏ।
(୨) ରୋଟିଙ୍ଗ ସୂଚୀ : ଲୋକମାନଙ୍କର ମତ ଧାରଣ ପ୍ରବଳ, ଚିନ୍ତା ଆଦିକୁ ତର୍ଜମା ବା ମୂଲ୍ୟାୟନ କରିବା ପାଇଁ ବ୍ୟବହୃତ ସୂଚୀକୁ ରୋଟିଙ୍ଗ ସୂଚୀ କୁହାଯାଏ।
(୩) ଡକୁମେଣ୍ଟ ସୂଚୀ : ବିଭିନ୍ନ ଲିଵତ ଦସ୍ତବିକ୍‌ରୁ ତଥ୍ୟ ସଂଗ୍ରହ କରି ରଖିବାକୁ ବ୍ୟବହୃତ ସୂଚୀକୁ ଦସ୍ତାବିତ୍ ସୂଚୀ କୁହାଯାଏ।
(୪) ଆନୁଷ୍ଠାନିକ କ୍ଷେତ୍ରମାପ ସୂଚୀ : କେତେକ ସ୍ଵତନ୍ତ୍ର ଅନୁଷ୍ଠାନ ଗୁଡ଼ିକ ସମ୍ବନ୍ଧରେ ତଥ୍ୟ ସଂଗ୍ରହ ପାଇଁ ବ୍ୟବହୃତ ସୂଚୀକୁ ଆନୁଷ୍ଠାନିକ କ୍ଷେତ୍ରମାପ ସୂଚୀ କୁହାଯାଏ।
(୫) ସାକ୍ଷାତ୍‌କାରୀ ସୂଚୀ : ସାକ୍ଷାତ୍‌କାର ପାଇଁ ବ୍ୟବହୃତ ସୂଚୀ କୁ ସାକ୍ଷାତକାର ସୂଚୀ କୁହାଯାଏ।

QUestion ୧୦।
ସୂଚୀର ସଂଜ୍ଞାଦିଅ ଏବଂ ଏହାର ଉପକାର ଓ ଅପକାରଗୁଡ଼ିକୁ ଦର୍ଶାଅ।
Answer:
ମନୁଷ୍ୟ ଏକ ସାମାଜିକ ପ୍ରାଣୀ ଭାବେ ସମାଜରେ ବାସ କରେ। ସମାଜରେ ତା’ର ବାସ କରିବା ସମୟରେ ସେ ନାନା ସମସ୍ୟାର ସମ୍ମୁଖୀନ ହୋଇଥାଏ। ଏହି ସମସ୍ୟାଗୁଡ଼ିକର ଅଧ୍ୟୟନ ଓ ସମାଧାନ ପାଇଁ ସେ ମଧ୍ଯ ବିଭିନ୍ନ ଉପକାରଣ କୌଶଳ ବା ପଦ୍ଧତିର ବିକାଶ କରିଅଛି। ସେହିଗୁଡ଼ିକ ଦ୍ଵାରା ସାମାଜିକ ସମସ୍ୟାର ସମାଧାନ ସହିତ ହୋଇଥାଏ। ସେହି ପଦ୍ଧତିଗୁଡ଼ିକ ମଧ୍ୟରୁ ସୂଚୀ ଅନ୍ୟତମ ଅଟେ।

ସାଧାରଣ ଅର୍ଥରେ କହିଲେ ସୂଚୀ ହେଉଛି ପ୍ରଶ୍ନମାନଙ୍କର ଏକ ଚିଠା ଯାହାକି ଅନୁସନ୍ଧାନକାରୀ ସାକ୍ଷାତ୍‌କାର ସମୟରେ ବ୍ୟବହାର କରି ତଥ୍ୟ ପ୍ରଦାନକାରୀକୁ ବିଭିନ୍ନ ପ୍ରଶ୍ନ ପ୍ରଚାରି ନିଜେ ଏହାକୁ ପୂରଣ କରିଥାଏ। ଏହା ତଥ୍ୟ ଉଲ୍ଲେଖ କରିବାର ଏକ ଦସ୍ତାବିତ୍। ଏହାକୁ ଗବେଷକ ତଥ୍ୟ ପ୍ରଦାନକାରୀଠାରୁ ତଥ୍ୟ ପାଇ ପୂରଣ କରିଥାଏ। ଏହାକୁ ସାକ୍ଷାତ୍‌କାର ସମୟରେ ଏକ ସ୍ମୃତି ସୂଚକ ଭାବେ କାର୍ଯ୍ୟ କରିଥାଏ ଏଥରେ ସମାନ ପ୍ରକାରର ପ୍ରଶ୍ନ ଲିପିବଦ୍ଧ ହୋଇ ରହିଥାଏ ଯାହକି ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷଣ ବା ସାକ୍ଷତ୍ରିକାର ସମୟରେ ଗବେଷକ ଦ୍ଵାରା ବ୍ୟବହାର ହୋଇଥାଏ। ଗୁଡେ ଏବଂ ହ୍ୟାଙ୍କ ମତରେ “ ସୂଚୀ ହେଉଛି ଏକ ନାମ ଯାହାକି ସାଧାରଣତଃ ପ୍ରଶ୍ନମାନଙ୍କର ଏକ ସେଟ୍ ବା ଗୁଛ ପାଇଁ ବ୍ୟବହୃତ ହୋଇଥାଏ ଯାହାକି ଜଣେ ସାକ୍ଷତକାର ହେଉଥିବା ବ୍ୟକ୍ତି ଦ୍ଵାରା ଅନ୍ୟ ଜଣେ ବ୍ୟକ୍ତି ସହିତ ମୁହାଁ ମୁହିଁ ପରିସ୍ଥିତିରେ ପଚାରାଯାଏ ଏବଂ ପୂରଣ କରାଯାଏ । ”

ସୂଚୀର ଉପକାରିତା :
ଏକ କୌଶଳ ବା ପଦ୍ଧତି ଭାବେ ସୂଚୀ ସାମାଜିକ ଗବେଷଣ କ୍ଷେତ୍ରରେ ବେଶ୍ ଜନପ୍ରିୟ। ଏହାର ନିମ୍ନଲିଖୂତ ଉପକାର ରହିଛି ଯାହାକି ଏହାର ବ୍ୟପକ ବ୍ୟବହାର ଓ ଜନପ୍ରିୟତା ପାଇଁ ଦାୟୀ
(୧) ଅନ୍ୟ ପଦ୍ଧତିରେ ଅନ୍ୟ ପଦ୍ଧତିଠାରୁ ଉତ୍ତରର ହାର ଅଧିକ ଅଟେ।
(୨) ଏହି ପଦ୍ଧତିରେ ଉତ୍ତରଦାତା ମନରୁ ସମସ୍ତ ସନ୍ଦେହ ଦୂର କରିବାରେ ସହାୟକ ହୋଇଥାଏ।
(୩) ଏହି ପଦ୍ଧତିରେ ଗବେଷକ ଓ ତଥ୍ୟ ପ୍ରଦାନକାରୀ ମଧ୍ୟରେ ବ୍ୟକ୍ତିଗତ ସଂପର୍କ ସ୍ଥାପନ ପାଇଁ ପର୍ଯ୍ୟାପ୍ତ ସୁଯୋଗ ପ୍ରଦାନ କରିଥାଏ।
(୪) ସୂଚୀ ପୂରଣ ହେବା ପାଇଁ କମ୍ ସମୟ ଅବଶ୍ୟକ କରିଥାଏ।
(୫) ଏହି ପଦ୍ଧତି ସବୁ ପ୍ରକାର ଲୋକ ଓ ସମସ୍ୟା ପାଇଁ ବ୍ୟବହୃତ ହୋଇପାରେ।
(୬) ଏହି ପଦ୍ଧତିରେ ଭୁଲର ମାତ୍ରା କମ୍ ଅଟେ।

ସୂଚୀର ଅପକାରିତା :
ଅନେକ ଉପକାର ସହିତ ଏହି ପଦ୍ଧତିରେ ଅନେକ ଅପକାର ମଧ୍ୟ ରହିଛି।
(୧) ସୂଚୀ ପଦ୍ଧତିରେ ଅଧିକ ଖର୍ଚ୍ଚ କରିବାକୁ ପଡ଼ିଥାଏ।
(୨) ସୂଚୀ ପଦ୍ଧତି ଅଧ‌ିକ ସମୟ ଆବଶ୍ୟକ କରିଥାଏ କାରଣ ଗବେଷକ ତଥ୍ୟ କାରୀର ସାକ୍ଷାତ୍‌କାର ନେବା ପାଇଁ ବହୁସମୟ ଲାଗିଥାଏ।
(୩) ସୁଦୀର୍ଘ ଅଞ୍ଚଳର ଅଧ୍ୟୟନ ଏହି ପଦ୍ଧତି ଦ୍ଵାରା ସମ୍ଭବ ନୁହେଁ।
(୪) ସୂଚୀ ପଦ୍ଧତିରେ ଗବେଷକର ଉପସ୍ଥିତି ତଥ୍ୟ ପ୍ରଦାନ କାରୀଙ୍କ ମଧ୍ୟରେ ପକ୍ଷପାତିତା ବା ବ୍ୟକ୍ତିଗତ ରୁଚିର ପ୍ରଭାବ ପରିଲକ୍ଷିତ ହୋଇଥାଏ।
(୫) ସୂଚୀ ପଦ୍ଧତି ଅନେକ ପ୍ରଶାସନିକ ସମସ୍ୟା ସୃଷ୍ଟି କରିଥାଏ।

Question ୧୧।
ସହଭାଗୀ ବା ଅଂଶଗ୍ରହଣକାରୀ ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷଣର ଉପକାରିତା ଓ ଅପକାରିତା ଦର୍ଶାଅ।
Answer:
ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷଣର ବିଭିନ୍ନ ପ୍ରକାର ମଧ୍ୟରୁ ସହଭାଗୀ ବା ଅଂଶଗ୍ରହଣକାରୀ ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷଣ ଏକ ପ୍ରକାର ଅଟେ। ଯେତେବେଳେ ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷକ କରିବାକୁ ଚାହୁଥ‌ିବା ସମୂହ ସହିତ ଅଂଶଗ୍ରହଣ କରି ତା’ର କାର୍ଯ୍ୟକଳାପ ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷଣ କରେ ତାହାକୁ ସହଭାଗୀ ବା ଅଂଶଗ୍ରହଣକାରୀ ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷଣ କୁହାଯାଏ। ଏହି ପ୍ରକାର ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷଣରେ ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷକ ନିଜକୁ ସମୂହର ବିଭିନ୍ନ କାର୍ଯ୍ୟକଳାପ ସହିତ ନିଜକୁ ସାମିଲ କରିଦିଏ। ପି.ଭି. ୟଙ୍ଗଙ୍କ ମତରେ ଅଂଶଗ୍ରହରେ ହାର ଅଧ୍ୟୟନ ପ୍ରକାର ବା ପରିସ୍ଥିତିର ଚାହିଦା ଅନୁସାରେ ଭିନ୍ନଭିନ୍ନ ହୋଇଥାଏ। ସମୂହର ଜଣେ ସଦସ୍ୟ ଭାବେ ନିଜକୁ ମୁକ୍ତଭାବ ସମୂହରେ ମିଶାଇ ଥାଏ।

ଉପକାରିତା :
ସହଭାଗୀ ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷଣର ନିମ୍ନଲିଖତ ଉପକାରିତା ମାନ ରହିଛି।
(୧) ସହଭାଗିତା ଦ୍ଵାରା ଉତ୍ତମ ବୁଝାମଣା ସମ୍ଭବ ହୋଇଥାଏ।
(୨) ପ୍ରାକୃତିକ ଅବସ୍ଥାରେ ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷଣ ସମ୍ଭବ ହୋଇଥାଏ।
(୩) ସଂପୂର୍ଣ୍ଣ ଓ ସଠିକ୍ ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷଣ ସମ୍ଭବ ହୋଇଥାଏ।
(୪) ସହଭାଗୀ ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷକକୁ ସମୂହରେ ଅଧ‌ିକ ସ୍ଵାଗତ କରାଯାଏ।
(୫) ଦୂରରୁ ଯେଉଁ ବିଷୟଗୁଡ଼ିକ ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷଣ ସମ୍ଭବ ହୋଇନଥାଏ ତାହା ଏହାଦ୍ଵାରା ସମ୍ଭବ ହୋଇଥାଏ।

ଅପକାରିତା :
ସହଭାଗୀ ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷଣ ପଦ୍ଧତିର ନିମ୍ନଲିଖୂତ ଅପକାରିତା ମାନ ରହିଥାଏ।
(୧) ସମସ୍ତ ପ୍ରକାର ଅଧ୍ୟୟନ କ୍ଷେତ୍ରରେ ସହଭାଗୀ ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷଣ ସମ୍ଭବ ନୁହେଁ।
(୨) ଭାଗବତ ବା ନିବିଡ଼ ସହଭାଗିତା ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷଣର ବସ୍ତୁନିଷ୍ଠତାକୁ ନଷ୍ଟ କରିଥାଏ।
(୩) ଏହି ପଦ୍ଧତି ଦ୍ଵାରା ବ୍ୟାପକ ଅଞ୍ଚଳ ଅଧ୍ୟୟନ ସମ୍ଭବ ହୋଇନଥାଏ।
(୪) ଏହା ଦ୍ଵାରା ଅନେକ ସମୟରେ ଅଯଥା କଳି ସୃଷ୍ଟି ହେବାର ସମ୍ଭାବନା ଥାଏ।
(୫) ଅଧ‌ିକ ନିବିଡ଼ତା ଯୋଗୁଁ ଅନେକ ଗୁରୁତ୍ଵପୂର୍ଣ ଜିନିଷକୁ ଅଧ୍ୟୟନ କରାହୋଇଥାଏ।

Question ୧୨।
ଅଣସହଭାଗୀ ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷଣର ଉପକାରିତା ଓ ଅପକାରିତା ଦର୍ଶାଅ।
Answer:
ଯେତେବେଳେ ଜଣେ ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷଣ ଏକ ସମୂହ ବା ତା’ର କାର୍ଯ୍ୟକଳାପକ ଦୂରରେ ରହି ବା ଅଂଶଗ୍ରହଣ ନ କରି ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷଣ କରେ ତାହାକୁ ଅଣ ସହଭାଗୀ ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷଣ କୁହାଯାଏ। ସେ ସଂପୂର୍ଣ୍ଣ ନିରପେକ୍ଷତା ଅବଲମ୍ବନ କରିଥାଏ।

ଉପକାରିତା :
ଏହି ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷଣ ପଦ୍ଧତିର ନିମ୍ନଲିଖିତ ଉପକାରିତା ରହିଛି।
(୧) ଏ ପ୍ରକାର ଅଧ୍ୟୟନରେ ନିରପେକ୍ଷତା ଓ ବସ୍ତୁନିଷ୍ଠତା ସମ୍ଭବ ହୋଇଥାଏ।
(୨) ଏହି ପଦ୍ଧତି ଦ୍ଵାରା ଛୋଟ ଛୋଟ ଘଟଣାର ଯତ୍ନଶୀଳ ବ୍ୟାଖ୍ୟା ସମ୍ଭବ ହୋଇଥାଏ।
(୩) ନିରପେକ୍ଷତା ଯୋଗୁଁ ଗବେଷଣା କାର୍ଯ୍ୟ ସହଜ ହୋଇଥାଏ।
(୪) ଅଣସହଭାଗିତା ଯୋଗୁଁ ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷକ ଏହା ଦ୍ଵାରା ଅନେକ ଲୁକ୍‌କାୟିତ ତଥ୍ୟ ସଂଗ୍ରହ କରିପାରେ ଯାହା ସହଭାଗୀ ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷଣ ଦ୍ଵାରା ସମ୍ଭବ ହୋଇ ନ ଥାଏ।

ଅପକାରିତା :
ଏହାର ନିମ୍ନଲିଖିତ ଅପକାରିତାମାନ ମଧ୍ୟ ରହିଛି।
(୧) ପ୍ରାକୃତିକ ଅବସ୍ଥାରେ ଅଧ୍ୟୟନ ସମ୍ଭବ ହୋଇ ନ ଥାଏ।
(୨) ଜଣେ ବାହ୍ୟ ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷକକୁ ଲୋକମାନେ ସନ୍ଦେହ କରି ସଠିକ୍ ତଥ୍ୟ ଦେଇ ନ ଥାନ୍ତି।
(୩) ଏହି ପଦ୍ଧତି ଦ୍ଵାରା ସଂଗୃହିତ ତଥ୍ୟ ସଠିକ୍ ଓ ସତ୍ୟ ହୋଇ ନ ଥାଏ।
(୪) ଦୂରତା ଯୋଗୁଁ ଘଟଣାଗୁଡ଼ିକୁ ସଠିକ୍ ଦୃଷ୍ଟିକୋଣରୁ ଅଧ୍ୟୟନ କରା ନ ଯାଇପାରେ।
(୫) ଅନେକ ଘଟଣା ଅଛି ଯାହାକୁ ଏହି ପଦ୍ଧତିଦ୍ଵାରା ଅଧ୍ୟୟନ କରାଯାଇ ପାରିବ ନାହିଁ।