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Odisha State Board CHSE Odisha Class 12 Sociology Solutions Unit 4 Social Inequality, Exclusion and Movement Objective & Short Answer Type Questions.

CHSE Odisha 12th Class Sociology Unit 4 Social Inequality, Exclusion and Movement Objective & Short Answer Type Questions

Multiple Choice Questions With Answers

Question 1.
In the caste system, occupation is
(a) Changing
(b) Fixed
(c) Discontinued
Ans:
(b) Fixed

Question 2.
Status in the caste system is
(a) achieved
(b) ascribed
(c) None of the above
Ans:
(b) ascribed.

Question 3.
Marriage is the caste system is
(a) Endogamous
(b)Exogamous
(c) None of the above
Answer:
(a) Endogamous.

Question 4.
The word caste owes is the origin to which word.
(a) Greek
(b) Spanish
(c) French
Answer:
(b) Spanish.

Question 5.
Warner and Hunt had not given one of the following classifications of classes.
(a) Upper – middle class
(b) Lower-lower class
(c) Capitalist class
Answer:
(a) Upper – middle class

Question 6.
Who said this waste as a closed class?
(a) MajumdarandMadan
(b)MacIver
(c)Kingsely
Answer:
(a) Majumdar and Madan

Question 7.
Who said this “When the status is wholly predetermined so that men are born to their lot in their life without any hope of changing it then class takes the form of caste”.
(a) C.H. Cooley
(b) Madan
(c) Majumdar
Answer:
(a) C.H. Cooley

Question 8.
Who write in “History of Caste in India”?
(a) Ketkar
(b) C.H. Cooley
(c) Madan
Answer:
(a) Ketkar

Question 9.
Who said this “Classes are aggregates of individuals Who have for same opportunities of acquisition goods, the same exhibited standard of Hv
(a) Max-Weber
(b) MacIver and Page
(c) P. Gisbert
Ans :
(a) Max-Weber

Question 10.
A social class is any portion of a community marked off from the rest by social status”.
(a) Maclver and page
(b) Max-Weber
(c) P. Gisbert
Answer:
(a) Maclver and Page

Question 11.
Who said this “A social class is one or more broad groups of individuals who are ranked by the members of the community in socially superior and inferior positions”.
(a) OgbumandNimkoff
(b) Maclver
(c) P.Gisbert
Answer:
(a) Ogbum and Nimkoff

Question 12.
Who said this “A social class is a category or group of persons having a definite status in society which permanently determines their relation to other groups.
(a) P. Gisbert
(b) Maclver
(c) Max-Weber
Answer:
(a) P. Gisbert

Question 13.
Who said this, “The untouchable castes are those who suffer from various social and political disabilities many of which are traditionally prescribed and socially enforced by the higher castes”.
(a) D.N. Majumdar
(b)Dr. B.R.Ambedker
(c) Mahatma Gandhi
Ans :
(a) D.N. Majumdar

Question 14.
Who said this, “Tribal society is a collection of families bearing the name, speaking a common dialect, occupying or professing to occupy a common territory and it is not usually endogamous though originally it might have been so”.
(a) Imperial Gazette
(b) D.N. Majumdar
(c) W.W. Hunter
Answer:
(a) Imperial Gazette

Question 15.
Who said this “A tribe is a collection of families bearing a common name, members of which occupy of the same territory, speak the same language and observe certain taboos regarding marriage profession or occupation and hence developed a well-assessed system of reciprocity and mutuality of obligation”.
(a) D.N. Majumdar
(b)W.W. Hunter
(c) Imperial Gazette.
Answer:
(a) D.N. Majumdar.

Question 16.
Who said this “The tribe is a well-organised social structure where the human group lives in the defined physical environment. It is a collection of families which have a common name, which normally claims descent from a common ancestral living in a defined territory speaking a common dialect and is endogamous”.
(a) Imperial Gazette
(b) D.N. Majumdar
(c) W.W. Hunter
Answer:
(c) W.W. Hunter

One Word Answers

Question l.
A system of stratification in which mobility up and down the status ladder at least ideally may not occur.
Answer:
Caste system

Question 2.
An endogamous group membership of which is hereditary.
Answer:
Caste system

Question 3.
A class is somewhat strictly hereditary.
Answer:
Caste system

Question 4.
Restrictions in social intercourse.
Answer:
Caste system

Question 5.
Mention any one characteristic of the caste system.
Answer:
Endogamy

Question 6.
Mention one demerit of the caste system.
Answer:
Hinders social progress

Question 7.
Mention any one merit of the caste system.
Answer:
Helped in the integration of society.

Question 8.
Mention any one factor responsible of the caste system.
Answer:
Industrialisation

Question 9.
Mention any one changing aspect of the caste system.
Answer:
Change in endogamy.

Question 10.
Mention any one characteristic of the class.
Answer:
Universal

Correct The Sentences

Question l.
Caste is based on wealth.
Answer:
Caste is based on birth.

Question 2.
Class is based on birth.
Answer:
Class is based on birth

Question 3.
Class in an open system.
Answer:
Caste is a closed system

Question 4.
Class is a closed system.
Answer:
Class is an open system.

Question 5.
Caste choice of occupation.
Answer:
Caste determines occupation.

Question 6.
Class system determines occupations.
Answer:
Class system is the choice of occupations

Question 7.
Caste prescribes on such rules regarding eating, drinking and social interaction among its members.
Answer:
Caste prescribes certain rules regarding eating, drinking and social interaction among its members.

Question 8.
Caste is a simple social system.
Answer:
Caste is a complex social system.

Question 9.
Caste is old to Indian society.
Answer:
Caste is unique to Indian society.

Question 10.
Caste and class close in Indian society.
Answer:
Caste and class co-exist in Indian society.

Question 11.
Caste is a secular system.
Answer:
Caste is a sacred system.

Question 12.
Class is a sacred system.
Answer:
Class is a secular system.

Question 13.
Class consciousness is an important feature of the caste system.
Answer:
Class consciousness is an important feature of the class system.

Question 14.
A social class is a relatively temporary group.
Answer:
A social class is a relatively permanent group.

Question 15.
In a class system, there are two modes of feeling.
Answer:
In a class system, there are three modes of feeling.

Question 16.
A social class is a social phenomenon.
Answer:
Social class is a universal phenomenon.

Fill In The Blanks

l. Caste is based on ______.
Answer: Birth

2. Caste is based on _______.
Answer: Wealth

3. Caste is a _______ system.
Answer: Closed

4. Caste is a _______ of its members.
Answer: Occupation

5. Caste is a ________ social system.
Answer: Complex

6. Caste and class _______ in Indian society.
Answer: Co-exist

7. A social class is _______ a permanent group.
Answer: relatively

8. A social class is essentially a _______ group.
Answer: status

9. The term varna literally means ________.
Answer: Colour

10. Caste groups are _______ groups.
Answer: Open

11. Caste which means ______ of ________.
Answer: Breed, Lineage

12. A social class is an ______ group.
Answer: Open

13. Class is a ______ phenomenon.
Answer: Universal

Very Short-Answer Type Questions

Question l.
What do mean by caste?
Answer:
The word caste owes its origin to the Spanish word Cast which means breed, race, strain or a Complex of hereditary qualities. The Portuguese applied this term to the classes of people in India known by the name of Jati.

Question 2.
Caste taboos
Answer:
Caste are required to observe certain taboos and moral rules. Castes that fail to observe these rules lose status, while the caste that follows them gains status. For example, taboo, eating, taboo and the commensality taboo (Which is concerned with the persons from whom one may accept cooked food or with whom one may take food, the food taboo which prescribed what kinds of food a man may eat).

Question 3.
Class
Answer:
Class is a major type of stratification found especially in the modem civilized countries. It is a social group within the collectivity. It is a product of economic process and division of labour. It emerged in its present form as the result of industrialisation. It is based upon rule and differentiation.

Question 4.
Define caste
Answer:
“When the status is wholly predetermined so that when are home to their lot in their life without any hope of changing it then class takes the form of caste”.

Question 5.
Define class.
Answer:
Max- Weber “classes are aggregate of individuals who have the same opportunities of acquiring goods the same exhibited standard of living”.

Question 6.
What is Scheduled Caste?
Answer:
The Scheduled Castes who comprise the bulk of untouchables are technically outside the four-fold vama scheme. These castes were imputed with the maximum degree of ritual and social impurity while their occupations were treated as the lowest defiling occupation in the hierarchy.

Question 7.
Define Schedule Caste.
Answer:
The untouchable castes are those who suffer from various social and political disabilities, many of which are traditionally prescribed and socially enforced by the higher castes”.

Question 8.
Who are the Tribes?
Answer:
Tribe refers to the indigenous Janas. They are commonly designed as Adivasi (original settlers) and Girijan (hill dwellers.) Girijan (hill dwellers. Vampjati( forest caste men), Adimjati (primitive castes Janjati (folk communities), Anusuchit janjati (Scheduled Tribes).

Question 9.
Define tribe,
Answer:
According to the Imperial Gazette “Tribal society is a collection of families bearing a name, speaking a common dialect occupy a common territory and it is not usually endogamous though originally it might have been so”.

Question 10.
Hierarchy and Hereditary:
Answer:
Hierarchy is one of the most original and basic features of the caste system. Hierarchy refers to an organisation with grades or classes ranked one above the other. The castes are arranged on the basis of superiority and inferiority to each other. Each caste is a hereditary group. The membership of the caste is confined only to those who are born into it by an endogamous marriage relation. The status of an individual is determined by virtue of his birth. The rights and privileges that is socially due to an individual is determined hereditarily.

Question 11.
Openness Vs. Closeness.
Answer:
The caste system is strictly a closed structure. One’s position and status is determined once for all by virtue of his birth in a particular caste. No amount of material possession or personal qualities can bring him up in the social hierarchy or caste. On the other handed class system is an open structure. Here the status and position of a man is determined on the basis of bis personal qualities, material possessions and achievements in different aspects of social life, the class system gives enough scope for upward and downward mobility.

Question 12.
Divine Sanctions Vs Secular Norms
Answer:
Whatever may be the origin of caste, it can be told without the fear of contradiction that it derives its strength of continuity from divine sanctions. The beliefs like, one has to observe Jati, Dharma (Caste duties) to have a better birth till future, life, it is the God who has created caste distinctions to punish those who had done bad deeds in past life etc.

Have given a religious and divine sanction to the caste system. But there is no such dogmatic belief in the class system. It is based on purely objective things like wealth, power and position and it is quite free from religious considerations or controls.

Question 13.
Rigidity Vs Flexibility.
Answer:
The caste system is too rigid with regard to the rules of social intercourse. The taboos of eating and drinking and norms of inter-caste marriage are strictly followed. A lot of restrictions are imposed upon the members of a particular caste with regard to their relationship with the members of other castes. Taking of water or cooked food from the hands of a man of a lower caste is punishable. Caste endogamy is strictly maintained by prohibiting inter-caste marriage.

Question 14.
Caste and Democracy.
Answer:
‘Caste is basically a social institution. Politics and Government are related aspects. It plays its role in these areas of democracy. On the other hand, democracy is basically a political system, with social justice and equality as its main objective. But since both these systems emerge from social life, it is quite natural and inevitable that they get interrelated.

Question 15.
Segmental division.
Answer:
Caste groups are segmental groups. They have well-defined boundaries. So to say, each caste is an autonomous group independent of the other. The status of an individual is determined by his birth. No amount of power, prestige and wealth can change the position. The membership of a caste, therefore, is unchangeable and immutable. Further, each, in a way has its own way of life.

Question 16.
Caste Council
Answer:
The Caste Council consists of elder members of the caste, the recognised leaders who command the respect and confidence of their community. It functions to settle caste disputes. Matter- such as breaking the marriage promise, refusing by the husband to take his wife to his house adultery by the wife, killing cows insulting Brahmins, having illicit sexual relations with people of other castes, non-payment of debt, defying the customs of the caste regarding feasts etc.

Question 17.
Hierarchy.
Answer:
The concept of hierarchy forms the crux of the caste groups. Dumont believes that the hierarchical division of caste is based on the concept of purity and pollution and according to, the given caste occupies a particular position in the caste hierarchy.

Short-Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Analyse the characteristics of the caste system.
Answer:

Segmental Division:
A caste group is a segmental group. Under the caste system, society is divided into several small social groups known as castes, each caste is a well-developed social group.

Hierarchy:
In a caste society, all the castes are arranged into a hierarchy on the basis of their social importance. At the top of the hierarchy is Brahmanism whereas untouchable castes are at the bottom. In between them, many other castes exist.

Restrictions on Food:
Under the caste system caste imposes restrictions on its members with regard to food, drink and social intercourse.

Restrictions in civil and religious privileges:
In a caste-based society, there is an unequal distribution of privileges and disabilities along its members. Higher caste people enjoy all the privileges while lower caste people suffer from all kinds of disabilities.

Restrictions on occupation:
Under a caste system choice of occupation is not free. Each caste is traditional with a particular occupation.

Caste endogamy:
Every caste imposes restrictions on its members to marry one’s own caste or sub-caste.

Question 2.
Analyse the functions of caste that do not perform for individuals.
Answer:
Caste provides fixed social status to individuals. Under the caste system, the status of an individual is determined by their birth. His status is constant at all times. Caste provides social security to individuals. Every caste provides necessary social security to its members from its birth to death. It acts as health insurance. Caste guides an individual in his day- to day activities.

Every caste provides a specific behavioural pattern for its members to be followed on different fixed occasions. Caste determines the occupation of the individual. Every caste provides specific occupations for its members to follow. Caste provides mental security to individuals. Caste by prescribing and providing facilities to its member guarantees mental security to individuals.

Question 3.
Analyse the functions of caste in social life.
Answer:
Caste transmits and preserves culture. Every caste has its own culture to which it transmits, from generation to generation. At the same time, it also preserves culture. The caste system establishes social unity. It unites different people in a larger society and at the same time maintains their separate identities.

The caste system brings stability to society. It saves Hindu society from outside invasion, internal conflict and all sorts of problems. It makes religious conversion almost impossible. The caste system brings political stability to society. It acts as a constitution for Hindus. It saves Hindu culture from foreign forces. It continues to maintain political unity since ancient times.

The caste system serves as a unique system of division of labour. It makes provisions for all funds of work. It distributes all works among different castes. It also provides a religious explanation for the social division of labour as a result all perform their work smoothly.
By prescribing marriage within one’s own case or group it maintains the purity of blood.

Question 4.
Briefly discuss the different dysfunctions of caste.
Answer:
The caste system retorts social progress. Under the caste system individual has no freedom of any sort. At the same time, it does not accept change easily. With all the above, its rigidity stands as an obstacle to social progress. The caste system hinders economic progress. Under the caste system, an individual cannot choose his occupation freely.

Individual occupations are determined by caste, as a result, their efficiency suffers and thereby hampers economic progress. The caste system creates political disunity in society. It encourages individuals by loyalties towards one’s own caste and thereby casteism is created which ultimately threatens the unity and integrity of Indian society. The caste system perpetuates social inequalities in society.

Members of higher caste use castes as an instrument to keep their position in that as a result of which inequalities persist. The caste system also creates untouchability in society. It is the ugliest expression of the caste system. It keeps some members of Hindu society as untouchables. The condition of women was very pitiable under the caste system. The caste system also stands as an obstacle in the way of modernisation.

Question 5.
Briefly discuss the factors affecting caste systems.
Answer:
Modern education has played an important role in undermining the importance of caste in Indian society. it is based on democratic values like equality, liberty and fraternity. Industrialisation also quality affects the caste system. Caste is based on the rural economy. Hence, the industrial economy cuts to the roots of the caste system. Occupational caste cannot serve large-scale industrialisation.

The spread of urbanisation has made it impossible to practise caste restorations. Caste rules cannot be observed in urban society. Modem means of transportation also help in weakening the caste system by making it impossible to observe caste rules while travelling through it. A number of new social movements were launched against the caste system which helps in its disintegration.

Indian constitution has posed a grave threat to the very continuance of the caste system in Indian society. It makes many special provisions for its disintegration. The new legal system established by the Britishers also helps in weakening caste rigidity and its influence. The increasing importance of wealth also helps in weakening the observance of caste rules.

Question 6.
Briefly analyse a few changes that are being brought in the caste system in recent years.
Answer:
In recent years a number of changes are being introduced in the caste system as a result of the impact of many factors. These changes are discussed below. There is a change in the restrictions regarding the choice of occupation. Now every member of every caste is free to choose the occupation of his liking. There is a sharp decline in the supremacy of the Brahmins in society.

They are no more enjoying their traditional highest position in society. There is also a change in caste rigidity. It becomes more flexible. There is a change in the status of lower caste people as a result of a number of governmental efforts. There is also a change in the restrictions imposed on mental selection. Inter-caste marriages are encouraged. The caste system lost its control over its members. People are to more obeying their caste rules.

Question 7.
What is the class like? Discuss its characteristics.
Answer:
Social classes constitute an important aspect of social structure in modem Indian society. These social classes have always been present throughout the age, but the social classes as we see them today originated under British rule. Social class refers to the horizontal division of people who share a similar position in society.

Wealth, income, education, and occupation are some of the dying basic determinants of class. Social class is relatively open. There are social classes in society. These classes are hierarchically ranked in the forms of wealth and income.

Characteristics:
Class is a status group:
A social class is essentially a status group. Class is related to the status of the position of an individual in relation to others.

Achieved in nature:
Class is achieved and not ascribed like that of caste factors like income: occupation, wealth, and education.

Question 8.
Discuss the characteristics of the Tribe.
Answer:
The following characteristics of the tribe may be noted.

Definite common topography:
A tribe lives within a definite locality having similar physical features and natural environment it is because of this common habitat they develop similar socio-psychological traits.

A sense of unity:
The individuals of a tribe have a strong sense of unity. Because of the same habitat, and socio-psychological traits they develop a strong sense of solidarity among themselves.

A common name:
Each tribe has a name of its own. Its individual members are identified by the same common name outside the tribe.

A common language:
Each tribe becomes distinct from the others in its language and dialect. Because all the members speak a common language, their sense of unity and solidarity becomes more strong.

Common religious belief:
Each tribe claims a common ancestry and worships the ancestor in the form of a tribe. Religious beliefs and practices have great authoritative control over the members of the tribe. Religions guide the socio-economic as well as the political life of tribes to a great extent.

Endogamic practices:
Generally, a tribe is an endogamous group. The members of a tribe are usually many within their own tribe. But now- a – days because of the frequency of inter¬tribal contacts, the inter-tribe marriage rate is increasing. Even the tribes are also being seen marrying people from other religions like Christianity, Hinduism and Islam.

Political organisation:
Each tribe has a political organisation. This is helped and assisted by a group of other dominant members. The political organisation has its roots in the common need of the people for protection. All the intra- group conflicts are resolved by this organisation. All the important decisions about the tribe’s way of living are taken in this organisation. The authority of the chief is questionable and binding on the members.

Common culture:
Because of a common habit, common language and common religion, a tribe develops a common culture with a distinct way of life for itself.

Question 9.
Distinctions between caste and class.
Answer:
Caste is based on birth while class is based on wealth. Caste determines the occupation of its members. But on the other hand, there is no restriction on the choice of an occupation in the caste system. Caste is a closed system but class is an open system. The caste system is believed to be created by God and supported by religions while the class system is secular in nature. Caste society has a Caste Council but class society does not have such a council.

Question 10.
Distinguish between Caste and Tribe.
Answer:
A caste is a social group whereas a tribe is a territorial group. There are differences in the rank and status of the members of a tribe. But in caste, the status of all its members is generally conceived to be equal. Though a tribe, like a caste, is an endogamous group, endogamy is not strictly enforced in a tribe as it is in a caste. A tribe is always a politically organised group whereas a caste is never a politically organised group, though it performs many political families.

Question 11.
Write a short note on tribal problems.
Answer:
Trials in India are facing a large number of problems which continue to greaten. The very existence of tribes. Some of these important problems are as follows. Integration or assimilation of tribes with the national mainstream is an important problem for the tribes in India. Alienation of the tribes from their own land is an important problem of the tribes in India. Landlords or moneylenders of the plains gradually replaced the tribal landlords. Tribals nowadays are also suffering from many, socio-cultural problems.

Question 12.
Write a short note on tribal welfare programmes.
Answer:
The main aim of the tribal welfare programme was to solve different problems of tribal people arising mainly out of uncontrolled cultural contracts. However, at different times as well as non-government agencies. These measures are as follows:

• Elvin suggested the creation of national parks for tribals.
• Indian constitution had made a number of special provisions for the welfare of the tribal people.

Question 13.
What is the peasant movement? Discuss outs types.
Answer:
Agrarian unrest or peasant unrest is not a recent phenomenon since agriculture and land are regarded as the most important subjects the issue of agrarian unrest is to be taken up and handled carefully by the government. A.R. Desai has used the term peasant struggle to refer to agrarian unrest.

Doshi and Jain have pointed out the root of peasant unrest, therefore, lives on the social structure of the peasantry out history and processes of agricultural modernisation. Some of the peasant agitations have taken place in different places mostly for one or the other local causes. Some of these agitations were revolutions, peasant movements and so on.

Peasant discontent as recorded by historians has been a familiar feature of the 19th and 20th centuries. During the first quarter of the 20th century, pie peasant movements became much more violent. These movements were deeply influenced by the struggle for national freedom. While some of these had taken place prior to independence and a few others took place after the Independence.

Types of peasant struggles :
There are different types of peasant struggles depending upon the purpose ideology, organisational base, working style etc.

• The Santhal insurrection was one variety whereas Bardoli Satyagraha represented another variety.
• The Naxalbarti peasant struggle was actually a violent armed struggle.
• In the Moplah Rebellion of Malabar was the influence of Muslim religious leaders.
• The Champaran movement led by Mahatma Gandhi was absolutely a peaceful non-violent struggle.

Question 14.
Kathleen Gough’s classification of peasant struggle.
Answer:
Restorative Rebellion:
Agitations of this type usually consist of an attempt on the part of the agitations to right for the restoration of one-time existing privileges and statuses. Example The Santhal instruction. The Santhals fought against the British not very much for driving them away from India but for restoring their traditional rights. According to Ganga as many as 29 such rebellions took place in India prior to 1857.

Religious movements :
These types of movements took place under the active leadership of religious leaders. People supported and Joined in these agitations with the hope, wherein social equality Justice and brotherhood would be assured for all Example. The Moplah Muslims of Malabar revolted against the Hindu landlords and also the British.

Social Banditry:
It means a type of robbery in which the leaders loot the properties of the rich people and distribute the looted property among the poor, for example, the banditry led by Narasimha Reddy of Karmol in Andhra Pradesh.

The Terrorist Vengeance:
It is based on violence and armed revolt. Here the agitators make a frontal attack on the opponents who are regarded as their enemies. Here the enemies are tortured tyrannized and finally killed Example Noxalite agitations.

Mass Insurrections:
These take place suddenly and came to an end abruptly. They arise without any leader or any organisational base. Whenever they get a solution, may be temporary in nature, and the agitations may come to a sudden end, For Example, The so-called Deccan Revolt that took place in Poona, Ahmed Nagar, Satara and Solapur.

Liberal reformist movement:
Examples are the Champaran Satyagraha, Bardoli Satyagraha, and Kheda Satyagraha in Bihar and Gujurat, etc. This type of movement helps in removing some of the dangerous or at least harmful lords/ legislations. There is no use of violence, bloodshed, or attraction. These movements do not have the intention of creating any conflict or enmity between different communities.

Odisha State Board CHSE Odisha Class 11 Political Science Solutions Unit 4 Constitution at Work-I Long Answer Questions Part-1.

CHSE Odisha 11th Class Political Science Unit 4 Constitution at Work-I Long Answer Questions Part-1

Long Questions With Answers

Question 1.
Describe the importance of election in a democracy.
(Or)
Examine the role and significance of elections in a democratic country.
Answer:
An independent and efficient election system is essential for the success of democracy. It is through election people exercise their-sovereign power and decide the future of government the electoral process determines the future of a country. Free and fair elections elect competent representatives who can take the nation forward. Defective electoral machinery may invite the downfall of democracy.

Importance of Elections :

Election gives an opportunity to the votes to serve the nation. The voters discharge their duty by exercising voting rights and they elect those representatives who can change government policies and programs. This election helps in organizing public opinion. It is through an election that parties capture ruling power. Through elections, people get an opportunity either to support or oppose, the government.

It offers an opportunity to the votes to dethrone a ruling party out of office peacefully. Thus, an ideal electoral system strengthens the nation-building process. Election brings political stability, economic progress, and social integrity. It brings the ruler’s arid rule closer. The representatives are convinced about the problems facing the people. Election develops public trust on the government and defends the interests of citizens.

In order to win in elections the representatives do everything to satisfy the voters. Participation of voters in the electoral process promotes their political consciousness and they come to realize problems facing the state and other contemporary crises. The election also enhances the rate of political participation. During elections in a democracy a large number of people become active participants they either contest for political office or cry on a campaign for candidates or exercise, voting right.

Thus, the election as a whole makes people politically conscious and responsible. It makes citizens active and develops in them a spirit of service and sacrifice- The more the rate of participation the more success for the political system. It makes people repose their faith on the democratic process.

Question 2.
Narrate the Challenges to free and fair elections in India.
(Or)
Describe the deficiencies facing the Indian election System.
(Or)
Examine the problems facing the Indian electoral process.
Answer:
The new constitution of India has set up an independent and impartial election commission under Art. 324 of the constitution. The commission was set up in 1950 and the first general election was held in 1952. Since then 15 general elections have been conducted successfully under, the guidance and supervision of the election commission The Commission during the last 66 years has proved its efficiency, impartiality, and fairness. But still, the same obstacles are there which affect the integrity of the system.

These challenges and issues need to be discussed below. Challenges or threats to Indian Election System :
Use of Black money:
Election in India has become too costly because most of the political parties and candidates are making use of black money to win o the voters. The situation has become so acute that no ordinary citizen can venture to contest in ckcPwTha money power has affected the success of democracy.

Violence and muscle power :
The second major challenge is the use of muscle power and electoral violence to win elections. Most of the political parties today do not hesitate to give tickets to mafia dons and local goons to contest for the party. All moral ‘slogans of pacifying politics. Mabon, the World safe for women and children are more election slogans.

But no party sincerely contests election on moral grounds. The influx of criminals and anti-socials has increased so much that the election commission has come forward with proposals not to give party tickets to persons having criminal backgrounds.

Caste, Religion, Communal and Regional feelings:
Political parties in India are either based on caste religion community or regional feelings or extend favor, to such narrow feelings to win elections. Parties in the name of 3yizJjng elections create discord and disintegration within the state. The current problems j.tsanj out in k4be4 University ¡NU and NIT in Janimu and Kashmir and bright examples of Political parties encouraging divisive politics. This is not a good sign for the future of Indian democracy.

Defects in the electoral process:
Free and fair election in India is affected badly due to rigging and booth Capturing in various pooling stations. Despite police protection, such practices occur regularly putting a question – mark on the efficiency of the Election Commission.

Abuse of power by the ruling party :
During elections the party in power to center and states tend to abuse power for their political galaxy This poses a challenge to the fairness of the election commission Besides, political parties in India try to win over voters by influencing the poor, illiterate, and women voters So in order to increase the efficiency of election commission all these issues must be resolved by legal and other means.

Question 3.
Define universal suffrage and discuss its merits and demerits.
Answer:
Universal suffrage is a basis for the grant of voting right. When voting right is extended to all adults irrespective of their caste, religion, sex, discrimination, and educational or property qualifications it is called universal suffrage. It is found today in almost every democracy. However, it never gives voting rights to lunatics criminals, aliens, and others.

Merits:
The merits of universal suffrage may be discussed below:
Universal suffrage is in tune with the tune meaning of democracy. It believes in the principle of one man one vote. Universal suffrage establishes political equality. It demands that the right to vote should be equally distributed among all. It is not right to exclude some class or group from exercising franchise on the ground that they are poor, illiterate, or weaker.

The end of the state is common welfare. It is the common people that should determine the content of welfare, Because what touches all should also be decided by all. If one class is given the power to rule then it will always one class given the power to rule then it will always define general good in terms of its own. So if the universal voting right is given then all can have a share in the government.

It enables the minorities to protect their rights by electing their representatives for the national legislature; their feelings are voiced and their grievances are explained on the floor of chambers of parliament. Adult suffrage adds to the dignity and a sense of responsibility and political and civic education. A vote will give them an opportunity to understand the politics of the country and compute the political problems.

Universal franchise helps in bringing national units. and solidarity. Adult suffrage is the means through which people are bound together into a whole
The government as is backed by the majority feels strong which makes the administration stronger.

Demerits:
Universal suffrage is condemned for the following reason by Sidgwick, Mill, Maine, and others.

Universal adult suffrage may impede the scientific progress of the nation. Because the general people cannot make the best choice of candidate and those who shall be elected will be conservative enough to stand in the way of the progress and prosperity of the nation. Sir Henry Maine giving the argument said that universal suffrage would be in vogue in the UK during the scientific inventions and discoveries England could not have advanced so far.

He said universal suffrage could have prohibited the spinning jenny and the power loom. The right to vote for the uneducated ones is meaningless. Because the masses do not have the capacity to understand political problems and they can not elect the right type of representatives. So it should be given to those having the knowledge to make the best use of it. Universal voting right it is hoped, may lead to the loss of individual liberty, order, and civilization.

J.S. Mill argued for education and property qualification of votes. He said, education would make them conscious and property would make them responsible Mill said, no taxation without representation. That means those who do not pay taxes to the state should not vote taxes if they are given the voting right then public property and funds are likely to be spent lavishly.

If all are given the right to vote, then they shall be exploited by selfish individuals and political parties. They will be motivated by emotion and passion and it will be suicidal for democracy. The universal franchise may lead to the rule of ignorance. As the majority are illiterate they will represent an ignorant fellow and the government would be of the ignorant.

An audit franchise will lead to political corruption. Because the poor and the ignorant ones will sell their favor at the cost of tea or meal.
But, in spite of the drawbacks, this has been the order of the day. And ordinary people in poor underdeveloped countries have justified themselves as judicious voters and they have contributed to the success of democracy.

Question 4.
Give your arguments against women’s suffrage.
(Or)
What Is women’s suffrage? Discuss its merits
and demerits.
Answer:
When voting right is granted to all adult women irrespective of any discrimination, it is called women surface, Generally, it was a feeling with the men that women as are weaker to men in physical capacity they should not be given the right to vote. But gradually, women became educated, and they no more remained bound within the four walls, they entered into public service and at present being treated as equals.

Thus, the political emancipation of women was achieved in the first quarter of the 20th century in England and USA and gradually it spread to other states. The women in England got the right to vote in 1918, those above 30 years of age, but in 1928 the age limit was reduced. In USA voting right was conferred upon women in 1920, in France in 1946, and in Switzerland in 1970. However, scholars differ as to the contention about whether women’s franchise is just or not.

Arment of Favour :

First of all, it is argued that women should be given the right to vote to exercise their civil rights. If they will be denied the right to vote then they could not be good citizens and cannot be treated at poor as men. So to protect them from men’s subjugation voting right is necessary. As women today are equal to men in every respect, they are joining the armed forces, and police, they are intelligent and clever, and it is illegal to deny them voting right.

The right to vote does not require physical strength but moral and mental fitness to decide whether an individual is capable or not so it is wrong to deprive women of voting right on the ground of their physical weakness. The right to vote for women will enable them to defend themselves and their civil rights. Voting right for women is useful for them as it will save them from the exploitation of men. Women in politics will definitely purify the system. Corruption, favoritism, and illegal activities will be reduced.

Demerits :
The drawbacks of women’s suffrage are as fiction:

Women’s suffrage disturbs the peace of family life. Women are homemakers, if they will join politics then their household activitie&wiil be neglected. Women’s suffrage will also deprive children of their care and protection. If women join politics then their feminine qualities like tolerance, simplicity, love, and affection will give way to rude behavior, and stress. It will completely disturb the trust and relationship between husband – wife.

Women always remain dependent on men for most of their necessities so if they join politics what can they do for others. Women are conservative and emotional. So they will not handle the stress and strains of a political leader throughout the year. However, women’s suffrage has been in tune with democracy. As they constitute almost half of the population it will be an injustice to deny voting rights to adult women.

Question 5.
What is proportional representation? Examine its merits and demerits.
Answer:
Proportional representation is a form of minority representation. In this system, all groups, factions, and sections of the population are given representation in proportion to the votes secured by them during the election. It is a model of the indirect election that seeks to rectify the defects of the majority vote system.
Proportional representation can be of two types:

• The hare system or single transferable vote system.
• the list system.

The Hare System (single transferable vote system):
This model was developed in 1857 by Thomas Hare of England and it is known as the Hare System of representation. This is useful only for the multi-member constituency where each candidate needs to secure a fixed quota of votes. In this system, each voter has only one vote but exercises this vote in order of preference. The number of preferences is equal to the number of candidates.

Way:-The Quota is determined in the following way:

\(\text { Quota }=\frac{\text { Total number of valid votes }}{\text { Number of state }+1}+1\)

At the time of counting the 1st preference votes are counted first and those who reach the quota are declared elected. If some seats remain vacant then the 2nd choice of those voters who voted for successful candidates are transferred to others. Then counting starts and those who reach the quota are declared elected. Due to this transfer of preferences, it is called a single transferable vote system. The President and vice President arid Rajya Sabha members are elected in this method.

(b) List system:
The list system is useful only for multi-member constituencies. Here every party has to prepare a list Of candidates to be elected. The voters vote for the party without knowing the candidates. After the election seats are divided among the parties in proportion to votes secured by each party. For example, if the total number of valid votes is a hundred and the number of seats is 5 then the quota is \(\frac{100}{5}=20\).

If a party has secured forty votes it will get two seats. If all the seats are not filled up then the party that has the largest fractional surplus gets the remaining seat. This list system is followed in US Presidential elections in Belgium, France, Sweden, and Switzerland.

Merits :
In this system, the defects of the single-member constituency model is rectified. It makes the legislature a true mirror of the nation because all groups and parties are duly represented. It provides an opportunity to minorities to represent in the legislature. In this system, no vote is wasted. It develops a civil interest in the people.

Demerits :
Proportional representation encourages: smaller parties and thus leads to political stability. No party secures a majority in the legislature giving way to coalition ministries. Here the voters elect candidates, whom they do not know. It encourages factionalism and disintegration. It is not suitable for federations. The system of proportional representation enhances the power of party leaders.

They prepare a list of candidates, so the representatives are more loyal to the party bosses than to voters. It breeds corruption. The vested interests can easily control party high commands. In proportional representation, it is not possible to hold by-elections as it requires a multi-member constituency. It encourages divisive forces in society and contributes to the aggravation of successful sectionalism.

Question 6.
What is geographical or territorial representation? Discuss its merits and demerits.
Answer:
Territorial representation is otherwise known as geographic representation and it is found prevailing in most countries having representative governments. In this model, the whole country is divided into geographical areas or constituencies having approximately equal populations. From each constituency a single representative is elected by majority vote, The constituency may be single-member or multi-member, The territorial limits of the constituencies are fixed from time to time with the growth in population and voters.

Merits of Territorial Representation:
Territorial representation is simple and convenient. As the area of the constituency is limited it facilitates intimate contact between the voters and the representative. It is economical as much less amount is required for the restricted area. It ensures a stable majority in the legislature which is conducive to a strong and stable government.

Demerits:
The territorial representation is defective on the following grounds:
It narrows down the list of candidates available to the voter. In this method, no outsider can contest an election even if he or is experienced. Gerry’s meandering is the greatest defect of territorial representation. In this system boundary of the constituencies is manipulated by the ruling party for its advantage. It encourages parochialism in the representatives. They try to secure the local interests of their constituency and neglect national interests.

In this system professions and occupations are not represented. In this system a candidate requires a relative majority to win a seat, thus it leads to the permanent voicelessness of a perpetual minority.

Question 7.
What is functional representation? Examine its advantages and disadvantages.
(Or)
Give your views for and against functional representation.
Answer:
Functional representation is another type of minority representation which is a protest against territorial representation. Proportional representation represents only political minorities, hence, a functional representation that accords with the representation of all Occupation are- expected to be a better alternative to territorial representation.

Functional representation was advocated by Wallas, Webbs, Duguit and G.D.H. Cole, etc. According to them, the Parliament is elected by various professional vocational and functional groups like industry trading corporations, medical associations and lawyers associations, etc. This system was adopted by the Russian leaders after the Bolshevik Revolution.

Mussolini in Italy organized the Italian senate, on these lines. The German constitution of 1919 established an Economic council representing the special interests of labor, capital, and consumers. The Vidhan Parishads in Indian states are also organized on the basis of functional representation.

Advantages of Functional Representation:
The system of functional representation is advantageous on the following grounds:

In modem democracies, vocational groups play an important role so these groups should have representatives in the parliament. Most of the laws that parliament pass deal with industry, agriculture, trade, commerce, and other vocational interests. But these interests find no representation in parliament even though they are affected by the legislation. As the economic sector is playing an important role today functional representation should be adopted as the ideal basis of representation.

Disadvantages:
The system has been popular owing to its glaring detects as discussed below :

Functional representation is found to be inconsistent with national sovereignty. Esme says a legislative assembly elected on the basis of functional representation is expected to represent the interests of a particular group’s profession or interest but not of the nation. These groups within parliament fight for their sectional interests rather than adopt a national outlook.

If functional representation is followed, the then-the legislature shall turn into an area of conflict and every representative will blow his own trumpet and talk of his own group. It can serve no purpose. This system is based on unsound principles. One representative can not represent all shades or opinions. Laski says, how can a doctor talk of foreign policy since there is no medical view of foreign policy. Each representative shall be parochial in outlook and cannot serve the country at all.

There can be no adequate basis to provide adequate representation to various interests and vocations should the medical profession be placed on equal footing with the steel industry, agriculture, or otherwise. This system limits the choice of voters to professionals. Functional representation undermines the unity of the community.

Every voter is first of all a citizen of the country then he is a lawyer, a teacher or a farmer, but if his profession counts first then he will forget about the goal of the nation. On account of the following defects, functional representation is rarely followed. This system can only be supplemented with any other method.

Question 8.
What is direct Election? Discuss its merits and demerits.
Answer:
An election can be of two types. Direct and indirect election. In a direct election, the voters directly cast their votes in favor of the candidate. It is a simple process where the votes go to the pooling booth and press the button on the EVM against their candidate of choice. The candidate who secures the maximum vote is declared elected. Direct election is found in most of countries of the world today. The members of Lok Sabha and Vidhan Sabha in India, the members of the British House commons and US senate, and the House of Representatives are elected in this process.

Merits :

• In a direct elections, people participate in politics directly and become politically conscious.
• It establishes direct contact between the voters and the candidates. The representatives remain answerable to the people and work for their interests.
• It generates public opinion, interest, and initiative among voters.
• The voters remain more responsible.

Demerits :
The drawbacks of the indirect election are as follows:

• Direct election is not useful for poor, ignorant voters as they fail to choose proper candidates.
• It confuses voters as different parties talk differently to influence votes. Here parties divide voters on caste, religion, and communal lines to seek their favor.
• It tends to be influenced by falsehood & corruption parties go on condemning the character of opposition candidates. It pollutes the entire electoral atmosphere.
• Direct election is costly and more prone to violence. However, this is the best available option in a democracy.

Question 9.
What is an indirect election? Discuss its merits and demerits.
Answer:
The indirect election is a process where the voters do not directly elect the real representatives. It involves two elections. First, the voter elects an intermediary group and then this group elects the real representatives. The President and Vice President and the members of Rajya Sabha are elected in this method.

Merits :
The indirect election is peaceful for which more educated and learned persons participate in the process as candidates. In this method, the voters who vote for the real candidates are conscious, clever and literate so they can not be influenced by false propaganda or lured by money or muscle power. It is suitable for poor, backward, and underdeveloped countries. It is less expensive. It is suitable for electing top political offices.

Demerits :
The indirect election also suffers from the following defects.

The indirect election is less democratic as it never involves more people. In this process, no political awareness is created. It makes voters indolent and inactive. In this method, party decisions prevail over individual preferences. The voters do not have contact with the representatives. In this method, parties try to influence the group through money and power. So it is prone to corruption and bribery. However, this method has limited utility and can be used for the same posts.

Question 10.
Distinguish between direct and indirect elections.
Answer:
Elections in general can be direct or indirect. In the direct election, the voters participate directly and cast their votes in polling stations in favor of their liking; candidates. Those who secure the maximum votes in a constituency are declared elected. But, indirect election involves two elections. First people elect an intermediate body, which by the second election elects the real representatives.

Direct election establishes close contact between voters and representatives. But in an indirect election, no such contact can be established. Direct election promotes the political consciousness of voters and makes them responsible and conscious. But, the indirect election does not stimulate public interest. Direct election is suitable for educated and advanced countries, but the indirect election is useful for backward countries with ignorant and illiterate voters.

Direct election is expensive but indirect elections are less expensive. Direct election involves violence, corruption, booth capturing, rigging, and the use of illegal means to win elections. But in the indirect election, these things do not occur. In a direct election, the voters are free to make choices but in an indirect election, they have no choice but to act on party instructions. Direct election is more democratic than indirect elections. However, we find both practices in almost every state.

Question 11.
Discuss the electoral reforms which are yet to be introduced.
(Or)
Suggest reforms to rectify the Indian election system.
Answer:
The Indian election system is suffering from a member of defects, some of which are structural and others are operational. The election commission in concurrence with the union government has already introduced some reforms and some more are yet to be introduced. So, the proposed reforms should be enumerated below: Reforms suggested not introduced :

In order to reduce the vote-seat gap alternative systems must be followed like, the second ballot system or alternate vote system. To increase voter turnout during elections voting must be compulsory and voters must be encouraged to participate in voting. To eliminate the use of black money a poll fund should be created and donations to political parties must be open to all.

Special courts must be set up to speed up settling election disputes. Steps are taken to reduce the scope of defections. To enhance women’s representation, 33% reservation of seats for women must be introduced. Those violating the election code of conduct must be punished. Election campaigns should be monitored closely to keep it healthy. All these reforms will definitely improve the election system in India.

Question 12.
Discuss the Organisation of the Central Election Commission.
Answer:
For every democratic polity like India, a free and independent electoral machinery is indispensable. The constitution, therefore, provides for an independent Election Commission Under Art. 324 and incorporated several steps for keeping it free from political and executive influences.

Composition:
The constitution under Art. 324 (2) states that the Election Commission of India shall consist of a Chief Election Commissioner and such other commissioners as the president may from time to time determine.

Membership:
Initially, the election commission was a one-man commission and it was only after 1989 its membership increased to three. Besides the chief election commissioner, there are two election commissioners and all of them enjoy equal authority.

Mode of appointment and removal:
The chief election commissioner and other members of the election commission are appointed- by the president as per the rules framed by the parliament. The constitution was silent about the qualification of the members and their terms of office. They hold office at the pleasure of the president. However, once appointed the members of the election commission to continue in office till they attain the age of 65 years or complete 6 years in office, whichever is earlier

They can resign from office at any time or can be removed by the president only on grounds of ‘proved misbehavior and incapacity. The president can’t on his own remove any member unless a proposal to that effect is passed in both houses, of parliament by 2/3rds majority of members present and voting. Thus, the election commission acts as an independent and autonomous body. Which ensures free and fair elections.

Odisha State Board CHSE Odisha Class 12 Psychology Solutions Unit 2 Long Answer Questions Part-2.

CHSE Odisha 12th Class Psychology Unit 2 Long Answer Questions Part-2

Long Questions With Answers

Question 1.
What are the Signs and Symptoms of Stress?
Answer:
The way we respond to stress varies depending upon our personality, early upbringing and life experiences. Everyone has their own pattern of stress response. So the warning signs may vary, as may their intensity. Some of us know our pattern of stress response and can gauge the depth of the problem by the nature and severity of our own symptoms or changes in behavior.

These symptoms of stress can be physical, emotional and behavioral. Any of the symptoms can indicate a degree of stress which, if left unresolved, might have serious implications, that are often unavoidable such as air pollution, crowding, noise, the heat of the summer, winter cold, etc. Another group of environmental stresses are catastrophic events or disasters such as fire, earthquake, floods, etc.

Question 2.
Discuss the Types of Stress.
Answer:
The three major types of stress, viz. physical and. environmental, psychological, and social are listed. It is important to understand that all these types of stress are interrelated.

Physical and Environmental Stress :
Physical stresses are demands that change the state of our body. We feel strained when, we overexert ourselves physically, lack a nutritious diet, suffer an injury, or fail to get enough sleep. Environmental stresses are aspects of our surroundings.

Psychological Stress :
These are stresses that we generate ourselves in our minds. These are personal and unique to the person experiencing them and are internal sources of stress. We worry about problems, feel anxiety, or become depressed. These are, not only symptoms of stress, but they cause further stress for us. Some of the important sources of psychological stress are frustration, conflicts, internal and social pressures, etc.

Frustration:
Frustration results from the blocking of needs and motives by something “or someone that hinders us from achieving the desired goal. There could be a number of causes of frustration such as social discrimination, interpersonal hurt, low grades in school, etc.

Conflicts:
Conflicts may occur between two or more incompatible needs or motives, e.g. whether to study dance or psychology. You may want to continue your studies or take up a job. There may be a conflict of values when you are pressurised to take any action that may be against the values held by you.

Internal pressures:
Internal pressures stem from beliefs based upon expectations from inside us to ourselves such as, ‘I must do everything perfectly. Such expectations can only lead to disappointment. Many of us drive ourselves ruthlessly towards achieving unrealistically high standards in achieving our goals.

Social pressures:
Social pressures may be brought about from people who make excessive demands on us. This can cause even greater pressure when we have to work with them. Also, there are people with whom we face interpersonal difficulties, ‘a personality clash’ of sorts.

Social Stress :
These are induced externally and result from our interaction with other people. Social events like death or illness in the family, strained relationships, and trouble with neighbors are some Examples of social stresses. These social stresses vary widely from person to person. Attending parties may be stressful for a person who likes to spend quiet evenings at home while an outgoing person may find staying at home in the evenings stressful.

Question 3.
Write the Sources of Stress.
Answer:
A wide range of events and conditions Can generate stress. Among the most important of these are major stressful life events, such as the death of a loved one or personal.
Life Events:
Changes, both big and small, sudden and gradual affect our life from the moment we are born. We learn to cope with small, everyday changes but major life events can be stressful because they disturb our routine and cause upheaval. If several of these life events that are planned (e.g. moving into a new house) or unpredicted (e.g. break-up of a long-term relationship) occur within a short period of time, we find it difficult to cope with them and will be more prone to the symptoms of stress.
A Measure of Stressful Life Events

Life Events Mean Stress Score
Death of a close family member	66
Unexpected accident or trauma	53
Illness of a family member	52
Break-up with friend	47
Appearing for examinations	43
Change in eating habits	27

The mean number of stressful life events experienced over a period of one year. Holmes and Rahe developed a life event measure of stress. A measure of stressful life events based on the above scale known as the Presumptive Stressful Life Events Scale has been developed for the Indian population by Singh, Kaur and Kaur. It is a self-rating questionnaire made up of fifty-one life changes, that a person may have experienced. Each of these life events is assigned a numerical value in terms of their severity.

For example, the death of one’s spouse is assigned 95, personal illness or injury 56, failure in examination 43, appearing for examination or interview 43, and change in sleeping habits 33, as the mean stress score. Both positive and negative events are taken, believing that both kinds of changes cause stress. The respondent’s stress score is the weighted sum of all the items/life change events in the past one year checked by her/him. Some sample items of without producing overt physical or mental illness is approximately two.

However, the correlations between life events and susceptibility to any particular illness is low, indicating a weak association between life events and stress. It has been argued as to whether life events have caused some stress-related illness or whether stress caused life events and illness. The impact of most life events varies from person to person.

Factors such as age at which the event was first experienced, frequency of occurrence, duration of the stressful event and social support must be studied in evaluating the relationship between stressful life events and the subsequent illness episode, injury, the annoying frequent hassles of everyday life and traumatic events that affect our lives.

Hassles :
These are the personal stresses we endure as individuals, due to the happenings in our daily life, such as noisy surroundings, commuting, quarrelsome neighbors, electricity and water shortage, traffic snarls and so on. Attending to various emergencies are daily hassles experienced by a housewife. There are some jobs in which daily hassles are very frequent. These daily hassles may sometimes have devastating consequences for the individual who is often the one coping alone with them as others may not even be aware of them as outsiders. The more stress people report as a result of daily hassles, the poorer is their psychological well-being.

Traumatic Events :
These include being involved in a variety of extreme events such as a fire, train or road accident, robbery, earthquake, tsunami, etc. The effects of these events may occur after some lapse of time and sometimes persist as symptoms of anxiety, flashbacks, dreams and intrusive thoughts, etc. Severe trauma can also strain relationships. Professional help will be needed to cope with them especially if they persist for many months after the event is over.

Question 4.
What is the Effects of Stress on Psychological Functioning and Health,
Answer:
Many of the effects are physiological in nature, however, other changes also occur inside stressed individuals. There are four major effects of stress associated with the stressed state, viz. emotional, physiological, cognitive, and behavioral.

Emotional Effects :
Those who suffer from stress are far more likely to experience mood swings and show erratic behavior that may alienate them from family and friends. In some cases this can start a vicious circle of decreasing confidence, leading to more serious emotional problems. Some examples are feelings of anxiety and depression, increased physical tension, increased psychological tension and mood swings. Box 3.2 presents the phenomenon of ‘Examination Anxiety’.

Physiological Effects :
When the human body is placed under physical or psychological stress, it increases the production of certain hormones, such as adrenaline and cortisol. These hormones produce marked changes in heart rate, blood pressure levels, metabolism and physical activity. Although this physical reaction will help us to function more effectively when we are under pressure for short periods of time, it can be extremely damaging to the body in the long-term effects. Examples of physiological effects are release of epinephrine and norepinephrine, slowing down of the digestive system, expansion of air passages in the lungs, increased heart rate, and constriction of blood vessels.

Cognitive Effects :
If pressures due to stress continue, one may suffer from mental overload. This suffering from high level of stress can rapidly cause individuals to lose their ability to make sound decisions. Faulty decisions made at home, in career, or at the workplace may lead to arguments, failure, financial loss or even loss of job. Cognitive effects of stress are poor concentration and reduced short-term memory capacity.

Behavioral Effects:
Stress affects our behavior in the form of eating less nutritional food, increasing intake of stimulants such as caffeine, excessive consumption of cigarettes, alcohol and other drugs such as tranquilizers etc. Tranquilizers can be addictive and have side effects such as loss of concentration, poor coordination and dizziness. Some of the typical behavioral effects of stress seen are disrupted sleep patterns, increased absenteeism, and reduced work performance.

Stress and Health :
You must have often observed that many of your friends (maybe including yourself as well!) fall sick during examination time. They suffer from stomach upsets, body aches, nausea, diarrhea and fever etc. You must have also noticed that people, who are unhappy in their personal lives fall sick more often than those who are happy and enjoy life. Chronic daily stress can divert an individual’s attention from caring for herself or himself.

When stress is prolonged, it affects physical health and impairs psychological functioning.People experience exhaustion and attitudinal problems when the stress due to demands from the environment and constraints are too high and little support is available from family and friends. Physical exhaustion is seen in the signs of chronic fatigue, weakness and low energy. Mental exhaustion appears in the form of irritability, anxiety, feelings of helplessness and hopelessness.

This state of physical, emotional and psychological exhaustion is known as burnout. There is also convincing evidence to show that stress can produce changes in the immune system and increase the chances of someone becoming ill. Stress has been implicated in the development of cardiovascular disorders, high blood pressure, as well as psychosomatic disorders including ulcers, asthma, allergies and headaches. Researchers estimate that stress plays an important role in fifty to seventy percent of all physical illnesses. Studies also reveal that sixty percent of medical visits are primarily for stress-related symptoms.

General Adaptation Syndrome :
What happens to the body when stress is prolonged? Selye studied this issue by subjecting animals to a variety of stressors such as high temperature, X-rays, and insulin injections, in the laboratory over a long period of time. He also observed patients with various injuries and illnesses in hospitals. Selye noticed a similar pattern of bodily response in all of them. He called this pattern the General Adaptation Syndrome (GAS). According to him, GAS involves three stages: alarm reaction, resistance and exhaustion.

Alarm reaction stage :
The presence of a noxious stimulus or stressor leads to the activation of the adrenal pituitary- cortex system. This triggers the release of hormones producing the stress response. Now the individual is ready for fight or flight.

Resistance stage :
If stress is prolonged, the resistance stage begins. The parasympathetic nervous system calls for more cautious use of the body’s resources. The organism makes efforts to cope with the threat, as through confrontation.

Exhaustion stage:
Continued exposure to the same stressor or additional stressors drains the body of its resources and leads to the third stage of exhaustion. The physiological systems involved in alarm reaction and resistance become ineffective and susceptibility to stress-related diseases such as high blood pressure becomes more likely. Selye’s model has been criticized for assigning a very limited role to psychological factors in stress. Researchers have reported that the psychological appraisal of events is important for the determination of stress. How people respond to stress is substantially influenced by their perceptions, personalities and biological constitutions.

Stress and the Immune System:
Stress ean cause illness by impairing the workings of the immune system. The immune system guards the body against attackers, both from within and outside.

Psychoneuroimmunology:
Psychoneuroimmunology focuses on the links between the mind, the brain and the immune system. It studies the effects of stress on the immune system. How does the immune system work? The white blood cells (leucocytes) within the immune (antigens) such as viruses. It also leads to the production of antibodies. There are several kinds of white blood cells or leucocytes within the immune system, including T cells, B cells and natural killer cells. T cells destroy invaders, and T-helper cells increase immunological activity. It is these T-helper cells that are attacked by the Human Immuno Deficiency Virus (HIV), the virus causing Acquired Immuno Deficiency Syndrome (AIDS). B cells produce antibodies.

Natural killer cells are involved in the fight against both viruses and tumors, Stress can affect natural killer cell cytotoxicity, which is of major importance in the defense against various infections and cancer. Reduced levels of natural, killer cell cytotoxicity have been found in people who are highly stressed, including students facing important examinations, bereaved persons, and those who are severely depressed. Studies reveal that immune functioning is better in individuals receiving social support. Also, changes in the immune system will have more effect on health among those whose immune systems are already weakened.

Figure 3.4 depicts this sequence comprising negative emotions, release of stress hormones which lead to the weakening of the immune system, thereby affecting mental and physical health. Psychological stress is accompanied by negative emotions and associated behaviors, including depression, hostility, anger and aggression. Negative emotional states are of particular concern to the study of the effects of stress on health. The incidence of psychological disorders, such as panic attacks and obsessive behavior increases with the build-up of long-term stress. Worries can reach such a level that they surface as a frightening, painful physical sensation, which can be mistaken for a heart attack.

People under prolonged stress are more prone to irrational fears, mood swings and phobias, and may experience fits of depression, anger and irritability. These negative emotions appear to be related to the function of the immune system. Our ability to interpret our world and to invest that interpretation with personal meaning and emotion have a powerful and direct effect on the body. Negative moods have been associated with poorer health outcomes. Feelings of hopelessness are related to the worsening of disease and increased risk of injury and death due to various causes.

Lifestyle :
Stress can lead, to unhealthy lifestyles or health-damaging behavior. Lifestyle is th,e overall pattern of decisions and behaviors that determine a person’s health and quality of life. Stressed individuals may be more likely to expose themselves to pathogens, which are agents causing physical illness. People who are stressed have poor nutritional habits, sleep less and are likely to engage in other health-risking behaviors like smoking and alcohol abuse. Such health-impairing behaviors develop gradually and are accompanied by pleasant experiences temporarily.

However, we tend to ignore their long-term damaging effects and underestimate the risk they pose to our lives. Studies have revealed that health-promoting behavior like a balanced diet, regular exercise, family support, etc. play an important role in good health. Adhering to a lifestyle that includes a balanced low-fat diet, regular exercise and continued activity along with positive thinking enhances health and longevity. The modem lifestyle of excesses in eating, drinking and the so called fast-paced good life has led to violation of basic principles of health in some of us, as to what we eat, think or do with our lives.

Question 5.
How to cope up with Stress?
Answer:
In recent years the conviction has grown that it is how we cope with stress and not the stress one experiences that influence our psychological well-being, social functioning and health. Coping is a dynamic situation-specific reaction to stress. It is a set of concrete responses to stressful situations or events that are intended to resolve the problem and reduce stress. The way we cope with stress often depends on rigid deep-seated beliefs, based on experience, e.g. when caught in a traffic jam we feel angry because we believe that the traffic ‘should’ move faster.

To manage stress we often need to reassess the way we think and learn coping strategies. People who cope poorly with stress have an impaired immune response and diminished activity of natural killer cells. Individuals show consistent individual differences in the coping strategies they use to handle stressful situations. These can include both overt and covert activities.

The three coping strategies given by Endler and Parker are:

Task-oriented Strategy :
This involves obtaining information about the stressful situation and about alternative courses of action and their probable outcome; it also involves deciding priorities and acting so as to deal directly with the stressful situation. For example, schedule my time better, or think about how I have solved similar problems.

Emotion-oriented Strategy:
This can involve efforts to maintain hope and to control one’s emotions; it can also involve venting feelings of anger and frustration, or deciding that nothing can be done to change things. For example, tell myself that it is not really happening to me, or worry about what I am going to do.

Avoidance-oriented Strategy:
This involves denying or minimizing the seriousness of the situation; it also involves conscious suppression of stressful thoughts and their replacement by self-protective thoughts. Examples of this are watching TV, phone up a friend, or try to be with other people. Lazarus and Folkman has conceptualized coping as a dynamic process rather than an individual trait. Coping refers to constantly changing cognitive and behavioral efforts to master, reduce or tolerate the internal or external demands that are created by the stressful transaction.

Coping serves to allow the individual to manage or alter a problem and regulate the emotional response to that problem. According to them coping responses can be divided into two types of responses, problem-focused and emotion-focused. Problem-focused -strategies attack the problem itself, with behaviors designed to gain information, to alter the event, and to alter belief and commitments. They increase the person’s awareness, level of knowledge, and range of behavioral and cognitive coping options. They can act to reduce the threat value of the event.

For example “I made a plan of action and followed it”. Emotion-focused strategies call for psychological changes designed primarily to limit the degree of emotional disruption caused by an event, with minimal effort to alter the event itself. For example “I did some things to let it out of my system”. While both problem-focused and emotion-focused coping are necessary when facing stressful situations, research suggests that people generally tend to use the former more often than the latter.

Stress Management Techniques:
Stress is a silent killer. It is estimated to play a significant role in physical illness and disease. Hypertension, heart disease, ulcers, diabetes and even cancer are linked to stress. Due to lifestyle changes stress is on the increase. Therefore, schools, other institutions, offices and communities are concerned about knowing techniques to manage stress. Some of these techniques are.

Relaxation Techniques :
It is an active skill that reduces symptoms of stress and decreases the incidence of illnesses such as high blood pressure and heart disease. Usually, relaxation starts from the lower part of the body and progresses up to the facial muscles in such a way that the whole body is relaxed. Deep breathing is used along with muscle relaxation to calm the mind and relax the body.

Meditation Procedures :
The yogic method of meditation consists of a sequence of learned techniques for refocusing of attention that brings about an altered state of consciousness. It involves such a thorough concentration that the meditator becomes unaware, of any outside stimulation and reaches a different state of consciousness.

Biofeedback :
It is a procedure to monitor and reduce the physiological aspects of stress by providing feedback about current physiological activity and is often accompanied by relaxation training. Biofeedback training involves three stages: developing an awareness of the particular physiological response, e.g. heart rate, learning ways of controlling that physiological response in quiet conditions; and transferring that control into the conditions of everyday life.

Creative Visualisation:
It is an effective technique for dealing with stress. Creative visualization is a subjective experience that uses imagery and imagination. Before visualizing one must set oneself a realistic goal, as it helps build confidence. It is easier to visualize if one’s mind is quiet, body relaxed and eyes are closed. This reduces the risk of interference from unbidden thoughts and provides the creative energy needed for turning an imagined scene into reality.

Cognitive Behavioural Techniques :
These techniques aim to inoculate people against stress. Stress inoculation training is one effective method developed by Meichenbaum. The essence of this approach is to replace negative and irrational thoughts with positive and rational ones.

There are three main phases in this: assessment, stress reduction techniques, and application and follow-through. Assessment involves discussing the nature of the problem and seeing it from the viewpoint of the person/client. Stress reduction involves learning the techniques of reducing stress such as relaxation and self-instruction.

Exercise :
Exercise can provide an active outlet for the physiological arousal experienced in response to stress. Regular exercise improves the efficiency of the heart, enhances the function of the lungs, maintains good circulation, lowers blood pressure, reduces fat in the blood and improves the body’s immune system. Swimming, walking, running, cycling, skipping, etc. help to reduce stress. One must practice these exercises at least four times a week for 30 minutes at a time. Each session must have a warm-up, exercise and cool-down phases.

Question 6.
What is Stress-Resistant Personality?
Answer:
Recent studies by Kobasa have shown that people with high levels of stress but low levels of illness share three characteristics, which are referred to as the personality traits of hardiness. It consists of ‘the three Cs i.e. commitment, control and challenge. Hardiness is a set of beliefs about oneself, the world, and how they interact. It takes shape as a Sense of personal commitment to what you are doing, a sense of control over your life and a feeling of challenge.

Stress-resistant personalities have control which is a sense of purpose and direction in life; commitment to work, family, hobbies and social life and challenge, that is, they see changes in life as normal and positive rather than as a threat. Everyone does not have these characteristics, many of us have to relearn specific life skills in areas such as rational thinking and assertiveness to equip ourselves better to cope with the demands of everyday life, etc.

Life Skills :
Life skills are abilities for adaptive and positive behavior that enable individuals to deal effectively with the demands and challenges of everyday life. Our ability to cope depends on how well we are prepared to deal with and-counterbalance everyday demands and keep equilibrium in our lives. These life skills can be learned and even improved upon. Assertiveness, time management, rational thinking, improving relationships, self-care and overcoming unhelpful habits such as perfectionism, and procrastination, etc. are some life skills that will help to meet the challenges of life.

Assertiveness :
Assertiveness is a behavior or skill that helps to communicate, clearly and confidently, our feelings, needs, wants and thoughts. It is the ability to say no to a request, to state an opinion without being self-conscious, or to express emotions such as love, anger, etc. openly. If you are assertive, you feel confident and have high self-esteem and a solid sense of your own identity.

Time Management:
The way you spend your time determines the quality of your life. Learning how to plan time and delegate can help to relieve the pressure. The major way to reduce time stress is to change one’s perception of time. The central principle of time management is to spend your time doing the things that you value, or that help you to achieve your goals. It depends on being realistic about what you know and that you must do it within a certain time period, knowing what you want to do and organizing your life to achieve a balance between the two.

Rational Thinking :
Many stress-related problems occur as a result of distorted thinking. The way you think and the way you feel are closely connected. When we are stressed, we have an inbuilt selective bias to attend to negative thoughts and images from the past, which affect our perception of the present and the future. Some of the principles of rational thinking are: challenging your distorted thinking and irrational beliefs, driving out potentially intrusive negative anxiety-provoking thoughts and making positive statements.

Improving Relationships:
The key to a sound lasting relationship is communication. This consists of three essential skills: listening to what the other person is saying, expressing how you feel and what you think and accepting the other person’s opinions and feelings, even if they are different from your own. It also requires us to avoid misplaced jealousy and sulking behavior.

Self-care :
If we keep ourselves healthy, fit and relaxed, we are better prepared physically and emotionally to tackle the stresses of everyday life. Our breathing patterns reflect our state of mind and emotions. When we are stressed or anxious, we tend towards rapid and shallow breathing from high in the chest, with frequent sighs. The most relaxed breathing is slow, stomach-centered breathing from the diaphragm, i.e. a dome-like muscle between the chest and the abdominal cavity. Environmental stresses like noise, pollution, space, light, color, etc. can all exert an influence on our mood. These have a noticeable effect on our ability to cope with stress and well-being.

Overcoming Unhelpful Habits:
Unhelpful habits such as perfectionism, avoidance, procrastination, etc. are strategies that help to cope in the short-term but which make one more vulnerable to stress. Perfectionists are persons who have to get everything just right. They have difficulty in varying standards according to factors such as time available, consequences of not being able to stop work, and the effort needed. They are more likely to feel tense and find it difficult to relax, are critical of self and others and may become inclined to avoid challenges.

Avoidance is to put the issue under the carpet and refuse to accept or face it. Procrastination means putting off what we know we need to do. We all are, guilty of saying “I will do it later”. People who procrastinate are deliberately avoiding confronting their fears of failure or rejection. Various factors have been identified which facilitate the development of positive health.

Health is a state of complete physical, mental, social and spiritual well-being and not merely the absence of disease or infirmity. Positive health comprises the following constructs: “a healthy body high quality of personal relationships; a sense of purpose in life; self-regard, mastery of life’s tasks and resilience to stress, trauma, and change”. Box 3.3 presents the relationship between resilience and health. Specifically, factors that act as stress buffers and facilitate positive health are diet, exercise, positive attitude, positive thinking and social support.

Diet:
A balanced diet can lift one’s mood, give more energy, feed muscles, improve circulation, prevent illness, strengthen the immune system and make one feel better to cope with stresses of life. The key to healthy living is to eat three main meals a day and eat a varied well-balanced diet. How much nutrition one needs depends on one’s activity level, genetic makeup, climate and health history. What people eat and how much do they weigh involve behavioral processes. Some people are able to maintain a healthy diet and weight while others become obese. When we are stressed, we seek ‘comfort foods that are high in fats, salt and sugar.

Exercise :
A large number of studies confirm a consistently positive relationship between physical fitness and health. Also, of all the measures an individual can take to improve health, exercise is the lifestyle change with the widest popular approval. Regular exercise plays an important role in managing weight and stress and is shown to have a positive effect on reducing tension, anxiety and depression.Physical exercises that are essential for good health are stretching exercises such as yogic asanas and aerobic exercises such as jogging, swimming, cycling, etc. Whereas stretching exercises have a calming effect, aerobic exercises increase the arousal level of the body. The health benefits of exercise work as a stress buffer. Studies suggest that fitness permits individuals to maintain general mental and physical well-being even in the face of negative life events.

Positive Attitude:
Positive health and well-being can be realized by having a positive attitude. Some of the factors leading to a positive attitude are: having a fairly accurate perception of reality; a sense of purpose in life and responsibility; acceptance and tolerance for different viewpoints of others and taking credit for success and accepting blame for failure. Finally, being open to new ideas and having a sense of humor with the ability to laugh at oneself help us to remain centered Mid see things in a proper perspective.

Positive Thinking:
The power of positive thinking has been increasingly recognized in reducing and coping with stress. Optimism, which is the inclination to expect favorable life outcomes, has been linked to psychological and physical well-being. People differ in the manner in which they cope. For example, optimists tend to assume that adversity can be handled successfully whereas pessimists anticipate disasters. Optimists use more problem-focused coping strategies, and seek advice and help from others. Pessimists ignore the problem or source of stress and use strategies such as giving up the goal with which stress is interfering or denying that stress exists.

Social Support:
Social support is defined as the existence and availability of people on whom we can rely upon, people who let us know that they care about, value and love us. Someone who believes that she/he belongs to a social network of communication and mutual obligation experiences social support. Perceived support, i.e. the quality of social support is positively related to health and well-being. In contrast, social network, i.e. the quantity of social support is unrelated to well-being because it is very time-consuming and demanding to maintain a large social network.

Studies have revealed that women exposed to life event stresses, who had a close friend, were less likely to be depressed and had lesser medical complications during pregnancy. Social support can help to provide protection against stress. People with high levels of social support from family and friends may experience less stress when they confront a stressful experience, and they may cope with it more successfully. Social support may be in the form of tangible support or assistance involving material aid, such as money, goods, services, etc.

For example, a child gives notes to her/his friend, since she/he was absent from school due to sickness. Family and friends also provide informational support about stressful events. For example, a student facing a stressful event such as a difficult board examination, if provided information by a friend who has faced a similar one, would not only be able to identify the exact procedures involved, but also it would facilitate in determining what resources and coping strategies could be useful to successfully pass the examination.

During times of stress, one may experience sadness, anxiety, and loss of self-esteem. Supportive friends and family provide emotional support by reassuring the individual that she/he is loved, valued, and cared for. Research has demonstrated that social support effectively reduces psychological distress such as depression or anxiety, during times of stress. There is growing evidence that social support is positively related to psychological well-being. Generally, social support leads to mental health benefits for both the giver and the receiver.

Question 7.
Effect of noise on Child health.
Answer:
Noise :
Children’s reading abilities, cognitive development, physiological indicators, and motivational tasks are affected by exposure to noise. The most common noises that children are exposed to are transportation (e.g. cars, airplanes), music and other people. Evans’ research reveals significant reading delays for children living near airports and exposed to airport noise. He and his colleagues found these delays in reading to occur alnoise levels far below those required to produce hearing damage or loss.

Chronic and acute noise exposure also affects cognitive development, particularly long-term memory, especially if the task is complex. Short-term memory appears to be less affected, but this is dependent upon volume of noise. One way that children adapt to chronic noise is by disregarding or ignoring auditory input. A consequence of this coping strategy is that children also tune out speech, which is a basic and required component of reading. As a result, not only are children’s reading abilities affected, but also their abilities at tasks that require speech perception.

Noise levels also indirectly influence children’s cognitive development via their effect on the adults and teachers who interact with children. Teachers in noisy schools are more fatigued, annoyed and less patient than teachers in quieter schools. Teachers in noisy schools also losC instruction time due to noise distractions and have a compromised teaching style. Children exposed to chronic loud noise also experience a rise in blood pressure, and stress hormones. And children as young as four are less motivated to perform on challenging language and pre-reading tasks under conditions of exposure to chronic noise.

Question 8.
Short notes :
Answer:
Crowding:
Research demonstrates that crowding has an effect on interpersonal behaviors, mental health, motivation, cognitive development and biological measures. Family size has not been found to be a critical factor in crowding. Rather, Evans identifies density, or number of people per room, as the crucial variable for measuring effects of crowding on children’s development. Regarding child development, Evans has found that 10-12-year-old children are more likely to withdraw in overcrowded situations. Children may engage in withdrawal behavior as a means of coping with an overstimulating environment.

Evans’ research also reveals that a highly concentrated number of children in an activity area results in more distractions and less constructive play among preschool-aged children. Overcrowding also influences parenting behaviors. Parents in crowded homes are less responsive to young children. Evidence of parental unresponsiveness begins early— before a child is one year old and occurs at all income levels. Overcrowding also strains parent-child Relationships. Parents in overcrowded homes are more likely to engage in punitive parenting, which in turn, affects the level of children’s distress.

Evans’ research shows that strained parent-child relationships negatively influence social, emotional and biological measures (e.g. elevated blood pressure) in 10- to 12-year-old children. Children’s mental health status may be affected by overcrowding. Elementary school-aged children who live in more crowded homes display higher levels of psychological distress and they also have higher levels of behavior difficulties in school.Evans has found that overcrowding produces psychological distress among 3rd and 4th-grade students as reported by both the children and their teachers. These effects are intensified if children reside in large, multifamily structures. Effects were also intensified among a group of 8- to 10-year-olds if the family home was chaotic.

Chronic overcrowding influences children’s motivation to perform tasks. Independent of household income, children aged 6-12 show declines in motivational behavior and also demonstrate a level of learned helplessness—a belief that they have no control over their situation and therefore do not attempt to change it—although they have the power to do so. But there are gender differences: Evans found the link between overcrowding and learned helplessness among 10-to- 12-year-olds to exist for girls, but not for boys.

Evans’ studies find several effects of overcrowding on both objective and subjective measures of children’s cognitive development. Elementary school children living in more crowded homes score lower on standardized reading tests and they see themselves as less scholastically competent than their classmates.  Parenting behaviors directly related to children’s cognitive and language development are also affected by density level.Evans found that parents in crowded homes speak less to their infants and rise fewer complicated words during the period from infancy up to age two and a half. Research demonstrates that the quality and sophistication of speech as well as the quantity of words spoken by parents to their children are significant factors in the amount and types of words children produce.

Biological measures implicate the effects of overcrowding on children’s physiology. In one study, Evans found gender differences in measures of blood pressure among 10-12- year-old children with males in higher residential crowding situations demonstrating elevations in blood pressure, but not females. However, higher overnight levels of the stress hormones epinephrine and norepinephrine were found in both 8- to 10-year-old male and female children living in high-density apartments. This finding was especially relevant when chaos and disorder was present in the family.

Housing and Quality of Neighborhood:
Housing quality and the neighborhoods in which houses are situated have also been investigated in relation to children’s socio-emotional development. For example, families living in high-rise housing, as opposed to single-family residences, have fewer relationships with neighbors, resulting in less social support. Studies on housing and the quality of neighborhoods have also examined the role of chaos in children’s environments finding an association between chaotic home environments and levels of psychological distress among middle school children.

Research has identified the physical characteristics of neighborhoods that significantly influence children’s development. These characteristics include residential instability, housing quality, noise, crowding, toxic exposure, quality of municipal services, retail services, recreational opportunities, including natural settings, street traffic, accessibility of transportation and the physical quality of both educational and health facilities. Perhaps not surprisingly, Evans’ research findings support the therapeutic effects of children’s exposure to natural settings.

Natural settings are preferred by children and allow them to exercise gross motor abilities as well as engage in social interactions. In addition, these settings also alleviate the adverse effects of children’s exposure to chronic stress. The research outlined above demonstrates both the direct and indirect effects of the physical environment on children’s development. Direct effects include cognitive, social, emotional and biological outcomes.Indirect effects include interactions with parents and teachers, which in turn, influence developmental outcomes such as learning and language development.

Although in several studies Evans demonstrates these effects for children at all income levels, low-income children experience excessive exposure to noise, overcrowding and unfavorable housing and neighborhood conditions.Exposure to these poor-quality physical conditions is linked to other psychological and social aspects of the environment, especially poverty. Using a building block analogy, low-income children have more blocks stacked one on top of the other than children of other income levels. Thus, children living in poverty experience multiple exposures, rather than a single exposure to risk.

What You Can Do to check the impact of the environment on human behavior?

Guard against additional, interior noise sources:
Individuals living in noisy environments often habituate or become accustomed to the noise level. Aim to reduce the existing noise instead of adding other sources of noise. Check the volume level on your child’s music devices (e g., iPod, Walkman; it is too loud if someone else can hear the music). If he listens to his favorite music too loudly, make proper volume adjustments. Also monitor the volume level on computers, televisions, and other electronic devices, keeping them as low as possible.

Engage your child:
Children ignore and tune out speech as a way of coping with environmental overstimulation. Take notice if your child is not paying attention or listening to your speech and if so, intervene. Take your child to a quiet outdoor nature spot or a quiet indoor location such as the local library) This is especially important during the preschool and early elementary school years (ages 3-6 years) when children are learning to read.

Tune in instead of tuning out:
Parents living under high noise exposure appear to withdraw, be less responsive and talk less to their children. The natural tendency is to disengage from speaking and reading to children so as not to compete with the noise. These coping strategies negatively affect children’s reading and cognitive abilities. Be alert to the occurrence of these behaviors and counter them by talking to your child, reading aloud to her, engaging her in discussions, and actively listening to what she has to say to you.

Modify your environment:
If your budget permits, consider purchasing extra noise attenuation devices for your child’s room for use during homework activities and sleeping. Earplugs are a low-cost alternative.

Consider your child’s school environment:
If you have a choice, send your child to a quiet, less chaotic school. This is particularly desirable if your home environment is also noisy. Be active in your community. The noisiest environmental conditions occur in low-income and ethnic minority communities. One way to counteract this is to be active and involved. Ask your representative why it is noisier, in these communities.

Seek information:
If a major source of noise in your community is road traffic, check with your local planning department. Note that traffic volume is closely aligned with traffic noise levels. The busiest streets are usually the noisiest.

Examination Anxiety:
Examination anxiety is a fairly common phenomenon that involves feelings of tension or uneasiness that occur before, during, or after an examination. Many people experience feelings of anxiety around, examinations and find it helpful in some ways, as it can be motivating and create the pressure that is needed to stay focused on one’s performance. Examination nerves, worry, or fear of failure are normal for even the most talented student. However, the stress of formal examination results in such high degrees of anxiety in some students that they are unable to perform at a level that matches the potential they have shown in less stressful classroom situations.

Examination stress has been characterized as “evaluative apprehension” or “evaluative stress” and produces debilitating behavioral, cognitive and physiological effects no different from those produced by any other stressor. High stress can interfere with the student’s preparation, concentration and performance. Examination stress can cause test anxiety which adversely affects test performance. Persons who are high in test anxiety tend to perceive evaluative situations as personally threatening; in test situations, they are often tense, apprehensive, nervous and emotionally aroused.Moreover, the negative self-centered cognitions which they experience distract their attention and interfere with concentration during examinations.

High-test anxious students respond to examination stress with intense emotional reactions, negative thoughts about themselves, feelings of inadequacy, helplessness and loss of status and esteem that impair their performance. Generally, the high-test anxious person instead of plunging into a task plunges inward, that is, either neglect or misinterprets informational cues that may be readily available to her/him, or experiences attentional blocks.While preparing for examinations, one must spend enough time for study, overviewing and weighing one’s strengths and weaknesses, discuss difficulties with teachers and classmates, plan a revision timetable, condensing notes, space out revision periods and most importantly on the examination day concentrate on staying palm.

Question 9.
What do you understand by the term ‘environment’? Explain the different perspectives to understand the human-environment relationship.
Answer:
‘Environment’ refers to all that is around us. Literally, it means everything that surrounds us including the physical, Social world and cultural environment. In general, it includes all the forces outside the human beings to which they respond in Some way. There is more than one way of looking at the human-environment relationship.
A psychologist named Stokols (1990) describes three approaches that may be adopted to describe the human-environment relationship.

• The minimalist perspective assumes that the physical environment has minimal or negligible influence on human behavior, health and well-being. The physical environment and human beings exist as parallel components.
• The instrumental perspective suggests that the physical environment exists mainly for use by human beings for their comfort and well-being. Most of the human influences on the environment reflect the instrumental perspective.
• The spiritual perspective refers to the view of the environment as. something to be respected and valued rather than exploited. It implies that human beings recognize the interdependent relationship between themselves and the environment, i.e. human beings will exist and will be happy only as long as the environment is kept healthy and natural.
  The traditional Indian view about the environment supports the spiritual perspective.

Question 10.
“Human beings affect and are affected by the environment”. Explain this statement with the help of examples.
Answer:
Human beings exert their influence on the natural environment for fulfilling their physical needs and other purposes. The human-environment relationship can be appreciated fully by understanding that the two influence each other and depend on each other for their survival and maintenance. Some aspects of the environment influence human perception.

• Environmental influences on perception :
  Some aspects of the environment influence human perception. For example, a tribal society of Africa lives in circular huts, that is, in houses without angular walls. They show less error in a geometric illusion (the Muller-Lyer illusion) than people from cities, who live in houses with angular walls.
• Environmental influences on emotions:
  The environment affects our emotional reactions as well. Watching nature iri any form, whether it is a quietly flowing river, a smiling flower, or a tranquil mountain top, provides a kind of joy that cannot be matched by any other experience. Natural disasters, such as floods, droughts, landslides, and quakes on the earth or under the ocean, can affect people’s emotions to such an extent that they experience deep depression and sorrow, a sense of complete helplessness and lack of control over their lives.
• Ecological influences on occupation, living style, and attitudes :
  The natural environment of a particular region determines whether people living in that region rely on agriculture (as in the plains), or on other occupations such as hunting and gathering (as in a forest, mountainous or desert regions), or on industries (as in areas that are not fertile enough for agriculture). In turn, occupation determines the lifestyle and attitudes of the residents of a particular geographical region.

Question 11.
What is noise? Discuss the effects of noise on human behavior.
Answer:
Any sound that is annoying or irritating and felt to be unpleasant is said to be noise. From common experience, it is known that noise, especially for long periods of time, is uncomfortable and puts people in an unpleasant mood.

Effects of noise on human behavior:

• When the task being performed is a simple mental task, such as the addition of numbers, noise does not affect overall performance, whether it is loud or soft.
  In such situations, people adapt, or ‘get used to noise.
• If the task being performed is very interesting, then, too, the presence of noise does not affect performance. This is because the nature of the task helps the individual to pay full attention to the task and ignore the noise. This may also be one kind of adaptation.
• When the noise comes at intervals, and in an unpredictable way, it is experienced as more disturbing than if the noise is continuously present.
• When the task being performed is difficult or requires full concentration, then intense, unpredictable and uncontrollable noise reduces the level of task performance.
• When tolerating or switching off the noise is within the control of the person, the number of errors in task performance decreases.
• In terms of emotional effects, noise above a certain level causes annoyance, and can also lead to sleep disturbance. These effects are also reduced if the noise is controllable, or is necessary as a part of the person’s occupation. However, continued exposure to uncontrollable and annoying noise can have harmful effects on mental health.

Question 12.
What are the salient features of crowding? Explain the major psychological consequences of crowding.
Answer:
Crowding to a feeling of discomfort because there are too many people or things around us, giving us the experience of physical restriction and sometimes the lack of privacy. Crowding is the person’s reaction to the presence of a large number of persons within a particular area or space. When this number goes beyond a certain level, it causes stress to individuals caught in that situation. In this sense, crowding is another example of an environmental stressor.

The experience of crowding has the following features :

• Feeling of discomfort,
• Loss or decrease in privacy,
• Negative view of the space around the person, and
• The feeling of loss of control over social interaction.

1. Crowding and high density may lead to abnormal behavior and aggression. This was shown many years ago in a study of rats. These animals were placed in an enclosure, initially in small numbers. As their population increased within this enclosed space, they started showing aggressive and unusual behavior, such as biting the tails of other rats. This aggressive behavior increased to such an extent that ultimately the animals died in large numbers, thus decreasing the population in the enclosure. Among human beings also, an increase in population has sometimes been found to be accompanied by an increase in violent crime.
2. Crowding leads to lowered performance on difficult tasks that involve cognitive processes and has adverse effects on memory and the emotional state. These negative effects are seen to a smaller extent in people who are used to crowded surroundings.
3. Children growing up in very crowded households show lower academic performance. They also show a weaker tendency to continue working on a task if they are unsuccessful at it, compared to children growing up in non-crowded households. They experience greater conflict with their parents and get less support from their family members.

Question 13.
Why is the concept of ‘personal space’ important for human beings? Justify your answer with the help of an example.
Answer:
Personal space or the comfortable physical space one generally likes to maintain around oneself, is affected by a high-density environment. In a crowded context, there is a restriction on personal space and this can also be a cause of negative reactions to crowding.

For example: In social situations, human beings like to maintain a certain physical distance from die person with whom they are interacting. This is called interpersonal al physical distance and is a part of a broader concept called personal space, i.e. the physical space we like to have all around us. One reason for the negative reactions to crowding, as described earlier, is the decrease in personal space.

Odisha State Board Elements of Mathematics Class 11 CHSE Odisha Solutions Chapter 1 Mathematical Reasoning Ex 1(a) Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

CHSE Odisha Class 11 Math Solutions Chapter 1 Mathematical Reasoning Exercise 1(a)

Question 1.
Choose the correct answer from the given choices:

(i) Negation of ‘Paris is in France and London is in England’ is :
(A) Paris is in England and London is in France.
(B) Paris is not in France or Landon is not in England.
(C) Paris is in England or London is in France.
(D) Paris is not in France and London is not in England.
Solution:
(A) Paris is in England and London is in France.

(ii) The conditional (p ∧ q) → p is :
(A) a tautology
(B) a contradiction
(C) neither a tautology nor a contradiction
(D) none of these
Solution:
(A) a tautology

(iii) Which of the following is a contradiction?
(A) (p ∧ q) ∧ ~ (p ∧ q)
(B) p ∨ (~ p ∧ q)
(C) (p → q) → p
(D) None of these
Solution:
(A) (p ∧ q) ∧ ~ (p ∧ q)

(iv) Which of the following is logically equivalent to ~ (~ p → q)?
(A) p ∧ q
(B) p ∧ ~ q
(C) ~ p ∧ q
(D) ~ p ∧ ~ q
Solution:
(D) ~ p ∧ ~ q

(v) (~(~p) ∧ q) is equivalent to
(A) ~ p ∧ q
(B) p ∧ q
(C) p ∧ ~ q
(D) ~ p ∧ ~ q
Solution:
(B) p ∧ q

(vi) If p: It rains today, q: I go to school, r: I shall meet any friend, and s’: I shall go to a movie, then which of the following is the proposition.
If it does not rain or if I do not go to school, then I shall meet a friend and go to a movie.
(A) ∼ (p ∧ q) → (r ∧ s)
(B) ~ (p ∧ q) → (r ∧ s)
(C) ~ (p ∧ q) → (r ∨ s)
(D) None of these
Solution:
(A) ~ (p ∧ q) → (r ∧ s)

(vii) Which of the following is true?
(A) p → q ≡ (~p → ~q)
(B) ~ (p → ~ q) ≡ (~ p ∧ q)
(C) ~ (~p ~ q) ≡ (~ p ∧ q)
(D) ~ (p ↔ q) ≡ [~(p → q)∧~(q → p)]
Solution:
(C) ~ (~p ~ q) ≡ (~ p ∧ q)

(viii)The Inverse of the proposition p ∧ ~ q) → r is:
(A) ~ r (~ p ∨ q)
(B) ~ p ∨ q → ~ r
(C) r → (p ∧ ~q)
(D) None of these
Solution:
(B) ~p ∨ q → ~ r

(ix) The contrapositive of (p ∨ q) → r is
(A) r → (p ∨ q)
(B ) ~r → (p ∨ q)
(C) ~ r → (~p ∧ ~q)
(D) p → (q ∨ r)
Solution:
(C) ~ r → (~p ∧ ~q)

(x) Which of the following is inverse of the proposition: “If a number is a prime, then it is odd.
(A) if a number is not prime, then it is odd.
(B) if a number is not a prime, then it is not odd.
(C) if a number is not odd then it is not a prime.
(D) if a number is not odd, then it is a prime.
Solution:
(B) if a number is not a prime, then it is not odd.

Question 2.
Give examples, five in each case, of , sentences that are
(i) propositions
Solution :
Examples of a proposition:
(a) Rama is a boy.
(b) He is ten years old.
(c) He is reading in class six.
(d) He has 2 brothers and 3 sisters.
(e) 2 + 3 ≥ 5

(ii) not-propositions
Solution:
Examples of not-proposition:
(a) How old are you?
(b) What is he to you?
(c) Read mindfully.
(d) What a beautiful girl!
(e) May God offer you long life.

Question 3.
Illustrate the use of all connectives and the modified ‘not’ in five separate examples of propositions.
Solution:
Conjunction: Hari and Madhu are two friends.
Disjunction: Hari or Madhu stand first in their class.
Implication: If I will be the king, then I will make you my queen.
Double Implication: I will love you if you will love me.
Negation: I don’t like her.

Question 4.
Try to construct an example of a proposition involving all connectives and also the modifier ‘not’.
Solutions:
If she do not come and take my help, then she neither understands the problem nor solves them but she can create other problems.

Question 5.
Which of the following sentences are propositions and which are not? Write with reasons :
(i) 2 < 5.
(ii) Is 9 < 3?
(iii) x is greater than 100.
(iv) Why are you crying?
(v) May God grant you long life.
(vi) Cuttack is a big city.
(vii) It is possible that there is life on Mars.
(viii)Ram is a friend of Hari.
(ix) x² –  x + 1=0
(x) Oh! What scenery!
(xi) You must go to school every day.
(xii) It was raining yesterday.
Solution:
(i) 2 < 5 is a proposition, as it is true.

(ii) Is 9 < 3? Is not a proposition, as it is neither true nor false.

(iii) “x is greater than 100” is not a statement as x is not defined.

(iv) Why are you crying? Is not a statement as it is neither true nor false.

(v) “May God grant you long life” is not a statement as it is neither true nor false.

(vi) “Cuttack is a big city” is not a statement, as it contains the word ‘big’ (not defined).

(vii) “It is possible that there is life on Mars” is not a proposition. (To date it is not confirmed)

(viii)Ram is a friend of Hari. It is a statement as it is true or false.

(ix) “x² – x + 1 = 0” is not a statement as ‘x’ is not defined.

(x) Oh! What scenery! It is not a statement as it is neither true nor false.

(xi) You must go to school every day. It is not a statement as it is neither true nor false.

(xii) It was raining yesterday. It is not a proposition as it is not known to which day yesterday means.

Question 6.
Write down negations of each of the following.
(i) If you read, you will pass.
(ii) John is a friend of Thomas.
(iii) Fifteen is greater than five.
(iv) Either Pramod is clever or he is laborious.
(v) Money is necessary for happiness.
(vi) It is raining and Mahanadi is flooded.
(vii) Pen is might than a sword.
(viii) |x| is equal to either x or – x.
(ix) It is raining and it is cool.
(x) 3 + 6 > 8 and 2 + 3 < 6.
Solution:
(i) It is not true that if you read, you will pass.
(ii) John is not a friend of Thomas.
(iii) Fifteen is not greater than five.
(iv) Pramod is not clever and also not laborious.
(v) Money is not necessary for happiness.
(vi) It is neither raining nor Mahanadi is flooded.
(vii) Pen is not more mighty than a sword.
(viii) |x| is neither x nor – x
(ix) It is not raining or it is not cool.
(x) 3 + 6 ≤ 8 or 2+ 3 ≥ 6.

Question 7.
Translate the following propositions into symbolic form, stating the prime components in each case.
(i) If you do not work hard, you will repent.
(ii) Jamini will be rewarded if and only if he is punctual.
(iii) If there is a will, there is a way.
(iv) Time and tide wait for none.
(v) 29 is a prime number which is a sum of two squares.
(vi) Life is short, but virtue is lasting.
(vii) If the boy is poor, then he will be hungry and if he is hungry, then he cannot be honest.
(viii) A year consists of twelve months while a month does not consist of more than thirty-one days.
(ix) If the government cannot solve the unemployment problem, then public opinion will rise against it which will lead to a strengthening
of opposition.
(x) Chinu and Minu went to Calcutta, but Minu came back earlier since she lost all her money
Solution:
(i) Let p: You work hard, q: you will repent. Then the given statement is ~ p → q.
(ii) Let p: Jamini will be rewarded, q: He is punctual. The given statement is p ↔ q.
(iii) Let p: There is a will, q: There is a way.
∴ The given statement is p → q.
(iv) Let p: Time waits for none. q: Tide waits for none.
∴  Solution is p ∧ q.
(v) Let p: 29 be a prime number. q: It is a sum erf two squares
∴  Solution is p ∧ q.
(vi) Let p: Life is short. q: Virtue is lasting.
Solution is q ∧ q.
(vii) Let p: The boy is poor. q: He will be hungry. r: He can be honest.
Solution is (p → q) ∧ (q → ~r)
(viii) Let p: A year consists of twelve 9. months. q: A month consists of more than 31 days.
∴ Solution is p ∧ ~ q.
(ix) Let p: The Government can solve the unemployment problem. q: Public opinion will rise against it. r: It will lead to a strengthening
of opposition.
∴  Solution is (p → q) → r.
(x) Let p: Chinu went to Calcutta. q: Minu went to Calcutta. r: Minu came back earlier. s: She lost all her money.
Solution is (p ∧ q) ∧ (s → r).

Question 8.
Let p, q, and r denote respectively the statements: “you are honest”, “you are laborious” and “you will receive a promotion”, Translate the following statements into English language :
(i) (p ∨ q) → r
(ii) ~ r → ~ p
(iii) ~ (p ∨ q) → ~ r
(iv) |r ∨ (~ p)| → ~ q
(v) p ∧ q ∧ r
Solution:
Let p: You are honest. q: You are laborious. r: You will receive a promotion.
(i) (p ∨ q) → r. It’s the English language is “If you are honest or laborious then you will receive a promotion.”
(ii) If you will not receive a promotion, then you are not honest.
(iii) If you are neither honest nor laborious then you will not receive a promotion.
(iv) If you will receive a promotion or you are not honest then you are not, laborious.
(v) You are honest and laborious and you will receive a promotion.

Question 9.
Construct truth tables for the following and indicate which of these are tautologies :
Solution:
(i) p ∧ q → p ∨ q

p	q	p ∧ q	p ∨ q	p ∧ q ∧ p ∨ q
T	T	T	T	T
T	F	F	T	T
F	T	F	T	T
F	F	F	F	T

∴ It is a tautology.

(ii) p ∧ q → p
Solution:

p	q	p ∧ q	p ∧ q → p
T	T	T	T
T	F	F	T
F	T	F	T
F	F	F	T

∴ It is a tautology.

(iii) p ∧ (p → q) → q
Solution:

p	q	p → q	p ∧ (p → q)	p ∧ (p → q) → q
T	T	T	T	T
F	T	T	F	T
T	F	F	F	T
F	F	T	F	T

∴ It is a tautology.

(iv) p → p ∧ q
Solution:

p	q	p ∧ q	p → (p ∧ q)
T	T	T	T
T	F	F	F
F	T	F	T
F	F	F	T

∴ It is a not tautology.

(v) p → (~p → q)
Solution:

p	q	~p	~p → q	p → (~p → q)
T	T	F	T	T
T	F	F	T	T
F	T	T	T	T
F	F	T	F	T

∴ It is a tautology.

(vi) ~p ∧ (p ∧ q) → q
Solution:

∴ It is a tautology.

(vii) (p ∨ ~q) ∧ (q ∨ ~p)
Solution:

∴ It is a not tautology.

(viii) p → (~ q ∧ r)
Solution:

∴ It is a not tautology.

(ix) (p → q) → [(q → r) → (p → r)]
Solution:

∴ It is a tautology.

(x) p ∨ → ~(p ∧ q)
Solution:

∴ It is a not tautology.

(xi) (p → ~p) → ~p
Solution:

P	~p	p → ~p	(p → ~p) → ~p
T	F	F	T
F	T	T	T

∴ It is a tautology.

(xii) (~ p ∨ p) → (~ q ∨ q)
Solution:

∴ It is a tautology.

(xiii) (p ∧ q) → p) → q
Solution:

p	q	p ∧ q	(p ∧ q) → p	((p → q) → p) → q
T	T	T	T	T
T	F	F	T	F
F	T	F	T	T
F	F	F	T	F

∴ It is a not tautology.

(xiv) (p ↔ q) ∧ (q ↔ r) → (p ↔ r)
Solution:

∴ It is a tautology.

(xv) [p → (p ∨ q)] → [q → (p ∧ q)]
Solution:

Question 10.
If p has truth value T, what can be said about the truth values of
(i) ~p ∧ q → p ∨ q
Solution:

∴ ~p ∧ q → p v q is always true if p is true.

(ii) p ∨ q → ~p ∧ q
Solution:

∴ p ∨ q → ~ p ∧ q is always false it is true.

Question 11.
Determine the truth values of p ↔  ~ q when the biconditional p ↔ q has truth value (i) F, (ii) T.
Solution:

p	q	-q	p ↔ q	p ↔ ~q
T	T	F	T	F
T	F	T	F	T
F	T	F	F	T
F	F	T	T	F

(i) When p ↔ q is False, p ↔ ~ q is True.
(ii) ∴ When p ↔ q is True, p ↔ ~q is False.

Question 12.
State the converse, inverse and contra-positive of each of the following propositions. Stating it as a conditional, wherever necessary.

(i) If A ABC is equilateral, then its three angles are congruent.
Solution:
If A ABC is equilateral, then its three angles are congruent.
Converse: If the three angles of the A ABC are congruent, then it is equilateral.
Inverse: If A ABC is not equilateral, then its three angles are not congruent.
Contrapositive: If the three angles of the A ABC are not congruent, then it is not equilateral.

(ii) If Gopal is clever, then he is rich.
Solution:
Con: If Gopal is rich, then he is clever.
Inv.: If Gopal is not clever, then he is not rich.
Cont: If Gopal is not rich, then he is not clever.

(iii) p → ~ q
Solution:
p → ~ q
Con: ~ q → p
Inv: ~ p → q
Cont: q → ~ p

(iv) Sum of two odd integers is even.
Solution:
If two integers are odd, then their sum is even.
Con: If the sum of two integers is even, then they are odd.
Inv: If two integers are not odd, then their sum is not even.
Cont: If the sum of two integers is not even then they are not odd.

(v) The square of an integer is a natural number.
Solution:
If a number is an integer, then its square is a natural number.
Con: If the square of a number is a natural number, then it is an integer.
Inv: If a number is not an integer, then its square is not a natural number.
Cont: If the square of a number is not a natural number then it is not an integer.

(vi) A parallelogram that is inscribed in a circle is a rectangle.
Solution:
If a parallelogram is inscribed in a circle, then it is a rectangle.
Con: If a parallelogram is a rectangle, then it is inscribed in a circle.
Inv: If a parallelogram is not inscribed in a circle then it is not a rectangle.
Cont: If a parallelogram is not a rectangle, then it is not inscribed in a circle.

(vii) The ground being wet, there has been rainfall at night.
Solution:
If the ground being wet then there has been rainfall at night.
Con: If there has been rainfall at night then the ground being wet,
Inv: If the ground is not wet then there has been no rainfall at night.
Con: If there has been no rainfall at night then the ground is not wet.

Question 13.
Are the following pair of statements negation of each other?
(i) The number π is not a rational number.
(ii) The number π is not an irrational number.
(iii) The number π is a rational number. The number π is an rational number.
Solution:
(i) No (ii) Yes

Question 14.
Write the component statement of the following compound statements and check whether the compound statement is true or false.
(i) 24 is a multiple of 4 and 6
(ii) The school is closed if there is a holiday or a Sunday.
(iii) 7 is a rational number or an irrational number.
(iv) 57 is divisible by 2 or 3.
(v) All things have two eyes and two legs.
(vi) 2 is an even number and a prime number.
(vii) Every parallelogram is a trapezium or a rhombus.
Solution:

(i) The component statement is
p: 24 is a multiple of 4
q: 24 is a multiple of 6
The truth value of the statement is ‘True’

(ii) The component statements are :
p: There is a holiday or a Sunday
q: The School is closed
The truth value of the compound statement is ‘True’.

(iii) The component statements are
p: 7 is a rational number
q: 7 is an irrational number
The truth value of the compound statement is ‘True’.

(iv) The component statements are
p: 57 is divisible by 2
q: 57 is divisible by 3
The truth value of the compound statement is ‘True’.

(v) The component statements are
p: All things have two eyes.
q: All things have two eyes
The truth value of the compound statement is ‘false’

(vi) The component statements are
p: 2 is an even number
q: 2 is a prime number
The truth value of the compound statement is ‘ True.

(vii) The component statements are
p: Every parallelogram is a trapezium
q: Every parallelogram is a rhombus.
The truth value of the compound statement is “false”.

Question 15.
Identify the Quantifiers of the following statements.
(i) There exists a number that is equal to its square.
(ii) For every real number x, x is less than x + 1.
(iii) There exists a capital for every state of India.
(iv) For all x ∈ R , sin² x + cos² x = 1
(v) There exists an even prime number other than 2.
(vi) For every negative integer x, x³ is also a negative integer.
(vii) For every real number x, x² ≠ x.
Solution:
(i) There exists
(ii) for every
(iii) There exists
(iv) for all
(v) There exists
(vi) for every
(vii) for every

Question 16.
Write the negation of the following statement.
(i) Every living person is not 150 years old.
(ii) There exists x∈ N, x + 3 ≠ 10
(iii) All the students completed their homework.
(iv) There exists a number that is equal to its square.
(v) For every real number x, x + 4 is greater than x.
(vi) Everyone who lives in India is an Indian.
Solution:
(i) There exists a living person who is 150 years old.
(ii) for all x ∈ N, x + 3 ≠ 10
(iii) There exists a student who has not completed his homework.
(iv) Each number is not equal to its square.
(v) There exists a real number x, x + 4 is not greater than x.
(vi) There exists a person who lives in India but is not an Indian.

Odisha State Board Elements of Mathematics Class 11 Solutions CHSE Odisha Chapter 2 Sets Ex 2(a) Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

CHSE Odisha Class 11 Math Solutions Chapter 2 Sets Exercise 2(a)

Question 1.
Construct five different examples of sets. Describe each with the help of a proposition.
Solution:
(i) Collection of all the days of a week.
i.e., D = {Sunday, Monday, Tuesday, Wednesday, Thursday, Friday, Saturday}
= {x: x is a day of a week}

(ii) Collection of writing instruments
i.e., A = {pen, pencil, paper, ink}
= {x: x is a writing instrument}

(iii) Collection of all kings having more than one queen.
i.e., B = {x: x is a king having more than one queen.}

(iv) Collection of all nationalized political parties i.e., C = {BJP, Congress, CPI, CPI(M), JD(U), JD(S), JP}
= {x: x is a set of nationalized political parties}

(v) Collection of all integers of multiples of 3.
i.e., D = {0, ± 3, ± 6}
= {x: x is a set of all integers of multiples of 3}

(vi) Collection of all fingers of a hand
i.e., E = {x: x is a finger of hand}

Question 2.
Give an example of a set that has exactly 10 elements and express it through a defining property.
Solution:
Collection of all positive prime numbers less than 30 i.e„ A = {2, 3, 5, 7, 11, 13, 17, 19, 23, 29} = {x: x is a prime number less than 30}

Question 3.
It is possible to express every set through a defining property? Justify your answer.
Solution:
Yes, it is possible to express every set through a defining property, as every set can be written in the set builder form.

Question 4.
If {x: p₁ (x)} = {x: p₂ (x)}, show for each x, p₁ (x) and p₂ (x) have the same truth value.
Solution:
Given that {x : p₁ (x)} = {x : p₂ (x)}
∴ The two sets have the same element.
So p₁ (x) ≠ p₂ (x) i.e., they have the same truth value.

Question 5.
For each of the following words, write down the set of letters forming that word :
(i) Administration,
(ii) Misrepresentation,
(iii) Mathematics,
(iv) Concurrence,
(v) Demonstration
Solution:
(i) {a, d, i, m, n, o, r, s, t }
(ii) {a, e, i, m, n,o,p, r, s, t }
(iii) {a, c, e, h, i, m, s, t }
(iv) {c, e, n, n, o, r, u }
(v) {a, d, e, i, m, n, o, r, s, t }

Question 6.
State with reason, which of the following are sets and which are not :
(i) All big rivers of India.
(ii) All natural numbers having at least one prime factor.
(iii) All sincere students of Ravenshaw college during the academic year 1998 -99.
(iv) All real numbers with negative squares.
(v) All citizens of India earning more than Rs. 10,000/- per month.
(vi) All college teachers who are citizens of India.
(vii) All finite subsets of the set Z of integers.
(viii)Collection of all possible sets.
(ix) Collection of all winged horses.
(x) Collection of all residents of Odisha who will live for more than 100 years.
Solution:
(i) It is not a set, as the word ‘big’ is not properly defined.
(ii) It is a set, as it is properly defined.
(iii) It is not a set, as the word ‘sincere’ is not properly defined.
(iv) It is a set, as it is well-defined.
(v) It is a set, as it is well-defined.
(vi) It is a set, as it is well-defined.
(vii) It is a set, as it is well-defined.
(viii)It is a set, as it is well-defined.
(ix) It is a set, as is it properly defined.
(x) It is not a set, as we do not know, who will live for more than 100 years.

Question 7.
Write the following sets in the form of lists:
(i) {x: x is a prime number and 1 ≤ x ≤ 100}
(ii) {x: x = is an odd integer}
(iii) {x: x = 1 or x = 2 or x = 3 }
(iv) {x: x = can be written as a sum of two odd integers}
(v) Set of all natural numbers that are divisible by 5.
Solution:
(i) {2, 3, 5, 7, …….. 97}
(ii) {± 1, ± 3, ± 5, ……..}
(iii) {1, 2, 3}
(iv) {2, 4, 6, 8, 10, ………}
(v) {5, 10, 15, 20, ……..}

Question 8.
Write the following sets in the intention (or specification form)
(i) {a}
(ii) Φ
(iii) {1, 2}
(iv) {1, 2, 3, 4, 5}
(v) P (Φ)
(vi) {1, 3, 9, 27}
Solution:
(i) {x: x = a}
(ii) {x: x ≠ x}
(iii) {x: x = 1 or x = 2}
(iv) {x: x ∈ N, 1 ≤ x ≤ 5}
(v) {x: x = Φ}
(vi) {x: x =3ⁿ n ∈ Z, 0 ≤ n ≤ 3 }

Question 9.
Determine if set A is a proper subset of the set B where A and B are as given below:

(i) A = { 1, 2, 3, …….}
B = {x: x is a rational number}
Solution:
A is a proper subset of B as all the elements of A are in B.

(ii) A = {x: x is a prime number}
B = {2n – 1: n = 1, 2, 3, …… }
Solution:
A = {x : x is a prime number}
= {2, 3, 5, 7, 11, ……}
B = {2n – 1: n = 1, 2, 3, …. }
= {1, 3, 5, 7, ….}
∴ A ⊄ B, because of 2 ∈ A but 2 ∉.

(iii) A = {-l, 1, 3}
B = {x: x ∈ R and x³ – 2x³ -x + 2 = 0}
Solution:
Solving x³ – 2x² – x + 2 = 0
we have x² (x – 2) – 1 (x – 2) = 0
or, (x – 2) (x²– 1) = 0
∴ x = 1, -1, 2
∴ B ={ -1, 1, 2}
∴ A is not a subset of B.

(iv) A= {1, 2, 3, 4}
B = [n ∈ N, n is a divisor of 60}
Solution:
B = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 10, 12, 15, 20, 30, 60}
∴ A ⊂ B

Question 10.
For each of the following pairs of sets A and B, determine if A ⊂ B or A ⊄ B:
Solution:
(i) A = Φ, B = {Φ}
Here A ⊂ B, as Φ is the subset of every set

(ii) A = {x : x is an integer}
= 0, ± 1, ± 2……..
B = {3x : x is an integer}
= {0, ± 3, ± 6,……} A ⊄ B.

(iii) A = {x: x is an odd integer}
B = {x: x is real and not an even integer}
∴ A = {± 1, ± 3, ± 5, …….} and B is the set containing all the real numbers except for even integers.
∴ A ⊂ B

(iv) A = {x : x is an integer which is both even and odd}
B = {x: x is an integer, x ≠ x}
∴ A ⊂ B, … A = Φ and B = Φ)

(v) A = |a, b, c|, B = {|a|, |b|,  |c|}
∴ A ⊄ B

Question 11.
Determine the truth of the falsity of the following propositions with reasons.
(a) {1, 2} € {1,2,3}
(b) A ⊂ A for any set A.
(c) Every set has a proper subset.
(d) Every set in a proper subset of the same set
(e) For any object x, there is a set A such that, x ∈ A.
(f) For any object x, there is a set A such that, x ∉ A.
(g) If A, B, C sets, then either A = B or A ⊂ B or B ⊂ A.
(h) a ∈ {(a)}
(i) a ∈ {(a, b), b}, a ≠ b.
(j) If A is a proper subset of B and B is a subset of C, then A is a proper subset of C.
(k) A ⊂ Φ if and only if A = Φ.
Solution:
(a) {1,2} ∈ {1,2,3} is false, as {1, 2} is not an element of { 1, 2, 3} but it is a subset.
(B) A ⊂ A is false, as A is an improper subset of itself, not a proper subset.
(C) ‘Every set has a proper subset is false as Φ has no proper subset.
(d) Every set is a proper subset of the same set is false.
(e) For any object x, there is a set A such that, x ∈ A. It is true.
(f) For every object x, there is a set A such that, x ∉ A. It is true.
(g) If A, B, C sets, then either A = B or A ⊂ B or B ⊂ A. It is false, as there is a possibility for A ≠ B.
e.g. a = {1, 2}, b = {a, b}
(h) a ∈ {{a}}. It is false as ‘a’ is not an element of the set {(a)}.
(i) as ∈ {{a, b}, b}, a ≠ b It is false, as ‘a’ is not an element of the set {{a, b}, b}
(j) If A is a proper subset of B and B is a subset of C, then A is a proper subset of C.
It is true, as
x ∈ A ⇒ x ∈ B ∴ (A ⊂ B)
and x ∈ B ⇒ x ∈ C ∴ (B ⊂ A)
∴ x ∈ A ⇒ x ∈ C means A ⊂ C.
(k) A ⊂ Φ if and only if A = Φ is true.
Proof:
Necessary part: Given A ⊂ Φ and prove A = Φ.
Now A ⊂ Φ       ….(1)
And Φ is the subset of every set.
So Φ ⊂ A           ….(2)
Combining (1) and (2) we get A = Φ.
Sufficient part: Given A = Φ and to prove A ⊂ C.
A = Φ ⇒ A ⊂ Φ and Φ ⊂ A
Thus A ⊂ Φ.

Question 12.
Write down the power set of
(i) {a, b, c}
(ii) {a, {a}}
(iii) Φ
(iv) {Φ}
(v) {a, {a}, {a,b}}
(vi) {{Φ}}
Solution:
(i) Let A = {a, b, c}
P(A) = {{a}, {b}, {c}, {a, b}, {a, c}, {b, c}, A, Φ}

(ii) Let A = {a, {a}} then P(A) = {{a}, {{a}}, Φ, A}

(iii) P (Φ) = {Φ}

(iv) P({Φ})-= {{Φ}, Φ}

(v) Let A = {a, {a}, {a, b}}
∴ P(A) = {{a}, {{a}}, {{a, b}}, {a}, {a}
{{a}, {a,b}}, {a, {a,b}, A, Φ)}

(vi) Let A = {{Φ}}
∴ P(A) = {A, Φ}

Question 13.
Prove that P(A) ⊂ P(B) if and only if A ⊂ B. When is the inclusion P(A) ⊂ P(B) proper?
Solution:
Necessary Part :
Let P(A) ⊂ P(B),
we shall prove that A ⊂ B.
∴ Let x ∈ A
⇒ {x} ∈ P(A)
⇒ {x} ∈ P(B)  (∴ P(A) ⊂P(B)
⇒ x ∈ B
Sufficient Part:
Let A ⊂ B
Let x ∈ P(A)
⇒ x ⊂ A
⇒x ⊂ B (∴ A ⊂ B)
⇒ x ∈ P(B)
Thus P(A) ⊂ P(B)
The inclusion P(A) ⊂ P(B) is proper when A is a proper subset of B.

Question 14.
A set can be finite or infinite (as understood in an informal way). For instance, {1, 2, 3, 4} is a finite set whereas Z is an infinite set. The number of elements of a set A, denoted by |A|, is called its cardinal number. Without going into the necessary technicalities, we may just observe that
|Φ|  = 0, |{x_1, x_2………,x_n }| = n
Two sets A and B are called similar if they have the same cardinal number. Thus, the sets {1, 2, 3} and {2, 4, 6} are similar. We write A ~ B to express the fact that A and B are similar. Now, answer the following questions.
(i) What are the cardinal numbers of the following sets?
{Φ}, {a, {a, b}}, {Z} {0.5}, {0, {5}}, {a, b, {a, b} }, {{Φ}}, {Φ, {Φ}}
(ii) For any natural number n, give an example of a set A such that |A = n|.
(iii) Determine the cardinal number of the set {x: x is real and x³ – x² + x- 1 = 0 }
Solution:
(i) Cardinal number of the set {Φ} is 1.
Cardinal number of the set {a, {a, b} } is 2.
Cardinal number of the set {z} is 1.
Cardinal number of the set {0,5} is 2.
Cardinal number of {0, {5 } } is 2.
Cardinal number of the set {a, b {a, b}) is 3.
Cardinal number of the set {{Φ}} is 1.
Cardinal number of {Φ, {Φ}} is 2.

(ii) Let A = {1, 2, 3}
∴ | A | = 4 where 4 ∈ N for n = 4.

(iii) Let A = {x : x is real and
x³ – x² + x – 1 = 0 }
Solving, x³ – x² + x – 1 = 0
or, x² ( x – 1) + 1 (x – 1 ) = 0
or, (x- 1) (x² + 1) = 0
x – 1 = 0, x² + 1 = 0
x = 1, ± i
As x is real, we have A = {1}
| A | = 1

Question 15.
Which sets are finite and which are infinite?
(i) The set N of positive natural numbers.
(ii) The set Z of integers.
(iii) The set Q of rational numbers.
(iv) The set R of real numbers.
(v) The set of prime numbers.
(vi) The set of even integers.
(vii) The set of human beings.
(viii)The set of integers less than 10.
Solution:
(i) “The set N of positive natural numbers” is an infinite set.
(ii) “The set Z of integers” is an infinite set.
(iii) “The set Q of rational numbers” is an infinite set.
(iv) “The set R of real numbers” is an infinite set.
(v) “The set of prime numbers” is an infinite set.
(vi) “The set of even integers” is an infinite set.
(vii) “The set of human beings” is a finite set.
(viii)“The set of integers less than 10” is an infinite set.

Question 16.
Verify that
| P (Φ) | = 2⁰
| P ({a}) | = 2¹
| P ({a, b}) | = 2²
| P({a, b, c}) | = 2³
Solution:
(i) Let A = Φ, then P(A) = {Φ}
∴ P(A) = 1 = 2⁰

(ii) Let A = {a} then P(A) = {{a}, Φ}
∴ P(A) = 2 = 2¹

(iii) Let A = {a, b)
then P(A) = {{a}, {b}, {a, b}, Φ}
∴ P(A) = 4 = 2²

(iv) Let A = {a, b, c}
P(A) = {{a}, {b}, {c}, {a, b}, {b, c}, A, Φ}
∴ P(A) = 8 = 2³

Question 17.
Find the number of elements of
(i) P(P(Φ))
(ii) P(P(P(Φ)))
(iii) P(P(P(P(Φ))))
Solution:
(i) We have | P (Φ) | = 2⁰ = 1
∴ | P(P(Φ)) | = 2¹ = 2
(ii) | P(P(P(Φ))) | = 2² = 4
(iii) | P(P(P(P(Φ))) | =2⁴ = 16

Question 18.
Prove by the method of induction that if A has n number of elements, then | P (A) | = 2ⁿ.
Solution:
When n = 1, we have, let A = {a₁}
P (A) = {{ a₁ }, Φ} ⇒ | P(A) | = 2 = 2¹
∴ p₁ is true.
Let p_k be true i.e., if A = {a_1, a_{2, ………..} a_k }
then | A | = k and | P(A) | = 2^k
Now let B = {a_1, a_{2, ………..} a_k, a_k+1  }
∴ | B | =k + 1.
Here A has 2^k subsets. These 2^k subsets are also in B. Which includes the additional elements a_k+1 ∈ B.
So there are 2^k. 2 = 2^k+1 subsets in B.
∴ | P(B) | = 2^k+1
i.e., if | A| = k +1 then | P(A) | = 2^k+1
∴ p_k+1 is true.
∴ p_n is true for all values of n ∈ N.
∴ | P(A) | =2ⁿ if | A | = n.

Question 19.
Can you say how many elements P(P(A)) if A has n elements?
Solution:
If | A | = n then | p(A) | =2ⁿ
and | P(P(A)) | = 2⁽²ⁿ⁾ .

Odisha State Board Elements of Mathematics Class 11 CHSE Odisha Solutions Chapter 1 Mathematical Reasoning Ex 1(b) Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

CHSE Odisha Class 11 Math Solutions Chapter 1 Mathematical Reasoning Exercise 1(b)

Question 1.
Check the validity of the following statements.

(i) p: 100 is a multiple of 5 and 4.
(ii) q: 125 is multiple of 5 and 7.
(iii) r: 60 is a multiple of 3 or 5.
Solution:
(i) Here the connective is ‘and’
Step -1: 100 is a multiple of 5 (True)
Step -2: 100 is a multiple of 4 (True)
∴ 100 is a multiple of 5 and 4 is true, i.e. the statement ‘p’ is valid.

(ii) Here the connective is ‘and’
Step – 1: 125 is a multiple of 5 (True)
Step – 2: 125 is a multiple of 7 (false)
∴ The statement ‘q’ is (false), i.e. the statement ‘q’ is not a valid statement

(iii) Here the connective is ‘or’
60 is a multiple of 3 (True)
60 is a multiple of 5 (True)
Thus the component statements are both true.
∴ The statement ‘r’: 60 is a multiple of 3 or is true, i.e. ‘r’ is a valid statement.

Question 2.
Check the validity of the statements given below by the method given against each.
(i) “The sum of an irrational number and a rational number is irrational’’ (by contradiction method).
(ii) “If n is a real number with n > 3, then n² > 9 (by the method of contradiction).
(iii) ‘‘If x, y are integers such that xy is odd then both x and y are odd” (by the method of contrapositive)
(iv) “If x is an integer and x² is even then x is also even” (method of contrapositive).
Solution:
(i) Let the given statement is false.
i.e. the sum of an irrational number and a rational number is rational.
⇒ An irrational number + a rational number = a rational number
⇒ An irrational number = A rational number + rational number = A rational number
Which is absurd.
We arrive at a contradiction.
This is due to our false assumption. Thus, the given statement is true.

(ii) Let the given statement is false.
i.e. for a natural number n > 3 n² > 9
⇒ n² ≤ 3 ⇒ n ≤ 3
(.’. n is a natural number which contradicts the fact that n > 3)
This contradiction is due to our false assumption.
Thus for any natural number
n > 3, n² > 9.

(iii) Let p: x and y are integers such that xy is odd. and q: both x and y are odd. We shall prove the validity of p → q by using the method of contrapositive.
Now ~ q: It is not true that both x and y are odd, i.e. at least one of x (or y) is even.
Let ~ q is true.
Let x is even and x = 2n for some integer n.
⇒ xy = 2ny for some integer n.
⇒ xy is even (not odd)
⇒ ~ p is true.
Thus by the method of contrapositive, we proved ~ q ⇒ ~ p, i.e. p → q is true.

(iv) Let p: x is an integer and x² is even
q : x is even.
Let ~ q is true
⇒ x is not an even integer
⇒ x is an odd integer
Let x = 2n + 1 for some integer ‘n ’
⇒ x² = (2n + 1)² = 4n² + 4n + 1
= 2 (2n² + 2n) + 1
which is odd.
⇒ p is false ⇒ ~ p is true
Thus ~ q ⇒ ~ p
∴ Thus the statement is true.
i.e x is even ⇒x is also even

Question 3.
By giving counter-examples, show that the following statements are not true:
(i) If measures of all the angles of a triangle are equal, then the triangle is an obtuse angled triangle.
(ii) For every real number x and y, x² = y² ⇒ x = y.
(iii) The equation x² – 1 = 0 does not have any root lying between 0 and 2.
Solution:
(i) Let in ΔABC
∠A = ∠B = ∠C = 60°
Clearly, no angle is obtuse.
∴ The triangle is not obtuse-angled.
(ii) for x = – 2, y = 2
x² = y² = 4 but x ≠ y
∴ x² = y² ⇒ x = y
(iii) x = 1 is a root of x² – 1=0
that lies between 0 and 2.
∴ The given statement is false.

Question 4.
Check the validity of “If I do not work, I sleep.
If I am worried, I will not sleep. Therefore, if I am worried, I will work”.
Solution:
Method-1:
Let p: I work
q: I sleep
r: I am worried
“If I do not work, I sleep” can be written as ~ p → q
“If I am worried, I will not sleep” can be written as r → ~ q
‘If I am worried, I will work’’ can be written as r → p
The given statement can be written as [(~ p → q) ∧ (r → ~ q)] → ( r → p)
Let us draw the truth table

As [(~ p → q) ∧ (r → q)] → (r → p)
is a tautology the given statement is logically valid.
Method – 2:
Let p: I do work
q: I sleep
r: I am worried
“If I do not work, I sleep ” can be represented as ~ p → q
“If I am worried, I will not sleep” can be written as r → ~ q
Thus we can write the given statement as
[(~ p → q) ∧ (r → q)] → (r → p)
But a statement and its contrapositive are equivalent.
Thus this can be written as
[(r  → ~ q) ∧  (~ q → p)] → (r → p)
By the principle of syllogism, the given statement is logically valid.

Question 5.
Let a and b be integers. By the law of contrapositive prove that if ab is even then either a is even or b is even:
Solution:
Let p: For integers ‘a and b’ ab is even q: a is even or b is even
we shall check the validity of p → q by the method of contrapositive Let ~ q is true.
⇒ Both a and b are odd
Let a = 2m + 1, b = 2n + 1
for some integers m and n
⇒ ab = (2m + 1) (2n + 1)
= 4mn + 2 (m + n ) + 1
= 2 [2mn + m + n) + 1
Which is odd
⇒  p is false
⇒  ~ p is true
Thus the method of contrapositive p → q is true.
i.e. The given statement is logically valid.

Odisha State Board BSE Odisha 10th Class English Solutions Chapter 4 At the High School Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

BSE Odisha Class 10 English Solutions Chapter 4 At the High School

BSE Odisha 10th Class English At the High School Text Book Questions and Answers

E. Let’s Understand The Text:
P-1
Question 1.
What is a biography? What is an autobiography?
(ଜୀବନୀ କ’ ଣ ? ଆତ୍ମଜୀବନୀକ’ ଣ ?)
Answer:
A biography is the life history of a person. An autobiography is the life history of a person written by himself or herself.

Question 2.
Is this lesson a biography or an autobiography? Support your answer with reasons.
(ଏହି ବିଷୟଟି ଏକ ଜୀବନୀ ବା ଏକ ଆତ୍ମଜୀବନୀ ? କାରଣ ଦର୍ଶାଇ ତୁମ ଯଥାର୍ଥତା ପ୍ରଦର୍ଶନ କର ।)
Answer:
This lesson is an autobiography (auto-self, bio-life, graphy – writing). The reason for it being an autobiography is that it begins with the first person pronoun(ପ୍ରଥମ ପୁରୁଷ ସର୍ବନାମ) ‘I’ standing for (ସୂଚିତ କରୁଥିବା) the writer Mahatma Gandhi. Also, the use of ‘my’ (Gandhi’s) proves it to be an autobiography.

Question 3.
Was Gandhi good at studies ? How will you support your answer ?
ପାଠରେ ଦକ୍ଷ ଥିଲେ ? ତୁମେ କିପରି ତୁମର ଉତ୍ତରକୁ ସମର୍ଥନ କରିବ ?)
Answer:
Yes, Gandhi was good at his studies. I will support (ସମର୍ଥନ କରିବି) by saying so (ଏହା କହି) with the expressions mentioned (ଦର୍ଶାଯାଇଥ‌ିବା ଅଭିବ୍ୟକ୍ତିସମୂହରୁ) like (ଯଥା) “I wasn’t regarded as a fool at the high school”, “I always enjoyed the affection of my teachers” and “I never had a bad certificate”. “I even won prizes ” etc.

Question 4.
Did his teacher like him?
(ତାଙ୍କର ଶିକ୍ଷକ ତାଙ୍କୁ ଭଲ ପାଉଥିଲେ କି ?)
Answer:
Yes, his teachers liked him.

Question 5.
What sorts of certificates were sent to his parents?
(କେଉଁ ପ୍ରକାର ପ୍ରମାଣପତ୍ର ତାଙ୍କ ପିତାମାତାଙ୍କ ପାଖକୁ ପଠାଯାଉଥିଲା ?)
Answer:
Certificates of progress and character were sent to his parents every year.

Question 6.
When did he win prizes?
(ସେ କେତେବେଳେ ପୁରସ୍କାର ଜିତୁଥିଲେ ?)
Answer:
He won prizes after he passed out of the second standard.

Question 7.
Which standards did he get scholarships in ?
(କେଉଁସବୁ ଶ୍ରେଣୀରେ ଅଧ୍ୟୟନ କରୁଥିଲାବେଳେ ସେ ଛାତ୍ରବୃତ୍ତି ପାଉଥିଲେ ?)
Answer:
He got scholarships when he was in standard fifth and sixth.

Question 8.
What were the amounts of his scholarships?
(ତାଙ୍କ ଛାତ୍ରବୃତ୍ତିର ପରିମାଣ କେତେ ଥିଲା ?)
Answer:
Rupees four and ten were the amounts of scholarships Gandhi obtained (ପାଉଥିଲେ ).

Question 9.
Who did he thank more for his scholarship – himself or his good luck?
(ସେ ଛାତ୍ରବୃତ୍ତି ପାଇଁ କାହାକୁ ଅଧିକ ଧନ୍ୟବାଦ ଦେଉଥିଲେ – ନିଜକୁ ବା ନିଜର ସୌଭାଗ୍ୟକୁ ?)
Answer:
He thanked his good luck more for his scholarship than himself or his merit.

Question 10.
What do you know about Gandhi as a person?
(ଜଣେ ବ୍ୟକ୍ତି ଭାବରେ ତୁମେ ଗାନ୍ଧିଙ୍କ ବିଷୟରେ କ’ଣ ଜାଣିଛ ?)
Answer:
As a person, I know that Gandhi as a student was good at studies, besides being very particular (ସବିଶେଷ) about himself.

P-2
Question 11.
What was he very much careful about?
(ସେ କେଉଁ ବିଷୟରେ ଅଧ‌ିକ ଯତ୍ନଶୀଳ ଥିଲେ?)
Answer:
He was very much careful about his character (ଚରିତ୍ର ବିଷୟରେ).

Question 12.
How did he react when blamed?
(ନିନ୍ଦିତ ହେଉଥ୍ଲାବେଳେ ସେ କିପରି ପ୍ରତିକ୍ରିୟା କରୁଥିଲେ? )
Answer:
When being blamed he broke into tears (କାନ୍ଦି ପକାଉଥିଲେ).
Or, Any sort (ପ୍ରକାର) of blame brought tears into his eyes.

Question 13.
What was more important for Gandhi – winning prizes or building character?
(କ’ଣ ଗାନ୍ଧିଙ୍କ ପାଇଁ ଅଧିକ ଗୁରୁତ୍ଵପୂର୍ଣ୍ଣ ଥିଲା – ପୁରସ୍କାର ଜିତିବା ବା ଚରିତ୍ର ଗଠନ କରିବା?)
Answer:
Building character was more important for Gandhi.

Question 14.
Why did he get physical punishment?
(ସେ କାହିଁକି ଶାରୀରିକ ଦଣ୍ଡ ପାଇଥିଲେ ?)
Answer:
He got physical punishment for some little blemish in his character.

Question 15.
Who was the headmaster?
(ପ୍ରଧାନଶିକ୍ଷକ କିଏ ଥିଲେ ?)
Answer:
Dorabji Edulji Gimi was the headmaster.

Question 16.
Was he popular? Why?
(ସେ (ପ୍ରଧାନଶିକ୍ଷକ ଜିମି) କ’ଣ ଲୋକପ୍ରିୟ ଥିଲେ ? କାହିଁକି ?)
Answer:
Yes, he (Mr Gimi) was popular. Because he was a disciplinarian, a man of method and a good teacher.

Question 17.
What was made compulsory for upper standard boys ?
(ଉପର ଶ୍ରେଣୀର ବାଳକମାନଙ୍କ ପାଇଁ କ’ଣ ବାଧ୍ୟତାମୂଳକ କରାଯାଇଥିଲା ?)
Answer:
Gymnastics and cricket were made compulsory for uppper standard boys.

Question 18.
I disliked both. What does ‘both’ refer to ?
( ମୁଁ ଉଭୟକୁ ଘୃଣା/ନାପସନ୍ଦ କରୁଥିଲି । ଏଠାରେ ‘ଉଭୟ’ କ’ଣ ସୂଚିତ କରୁଛି ?)
Answer:
I disliked both. Here ‘both’ refers to ‘gymnastics’ and ‘cricket’.

Question 19.
What was the reason for Gandhi’s dislike for cricket and gymnastics?
(କ୍ରିକେଟ୍ ଓ ଜିମ୍‌ନାଷ୍ଟିକ୍ ପ୍ରତି ଗାନ୍ଧିଙ୍କର ଘୃଣାର କାରଣ କ’ଣ ଥିଲା ?)
Answer:
The reason for Gandhi’s dislike for cricket and gymnastics was his shyness.

Question 20.
Was the headmaster a lover of games?
(ପ୍ରଧାନଶିକ୍ଷକ କ’ଣ ଖେଳପ୍ରେମୀ ଥିଲେ ?)
Answer:
Yes, the headmaster was a lover of games.

Question 21.
What false idea did Gandhi have about games?
(ଖେଳ ବିଷୟରେ ଗାନ୍ଧିଙ୍କର କେଉଁ ମିଥ୍ୟା ଧାରଣା ଥିଲା ?)
Answer:
Gandhi nurtured a false idea (ଏକ ମିଥ୍ୟା ଧାରଣା ପୋଷଣ କରିଥିଲେ) that games had nothing to do with education.

Question 22.
What were his views on games later?
(ପରେ ଖେଳ ସମ୍ପର୍କରେ ତାଙ୍କର ମତ କ’ଣ ଥିଲା ?)
Answer:
Later he viewed (ମତ ଦେଇଥିଲେ ଯେ) that games should have many places in the curriculum as mental training.

P-3
Question 23.
What was the special reason for Gandhi’s dislike for gymnastics?
(ଜିମ୍‌ନାଷ୍ଟିକ୍‌ସ୍ ପ୍ରତି ଗାନ୍ଧିଙ୍କର ଅନାସକ୍ତିର ବିଶେଷ କାରଣ କ’ଣ ଥିଲା ?)
Answer:
The special reason for Gandhi’s dislike for gymnastics was to serve (ସେବା କରିବାପାଇଁ) his father after school

Question 24.
Compulsory exercise came directly in the way of this service. What was the service?
( ବାଧ୍ୟତାମୂଳକ ବ୍ୟାୟାମ ପ୍ରତ୍ୟକ୍ଷ ଭାବରେ ଏହି ମାଧ୍ୟମରେ ଆସୁଥିଲା । ସେବାଟି କ’ଣ ଥିଲା ? )
Answer:
Compulsory exercise came directly in the way of this service. The service was to serve his father.

Question 25.
Did the headmaster grant his request? Why?
(ପ୍ରଧାନଶିକ୍ଷକ କ’ଣ ତାଙ୍କର ଅନୁରୋଧ ରଖୁଥ‌ିଲେ ? କାହିଁକି ?)
Answer:
No, the headmaster didn’t grant his request because he didn’t believe him.

Question 26.
Why did he get to school late ?
(ସେ କାହିଁକି ବିଦ୍ୟାଳୟରେ ବିଳମ୍ବରେ ପହଞ୍ଚିଲେ ?)
Answer:
He got to (reached) school late because he had no watch and the clouds deceived him also.

Question 27.
Clouds deceived him. How?
(ବାଦଲଖଣ୍ଡ ତାଙ୍କୁ ଠକିଦେଲା ? କିପରି ?)
Answer:
The clouds deceived him. As the clouds had gathered across the sky, he did not guess the time and reached the school when the boys had all left.

Question 28.
Did the headmaster believe what he said?
(ସେ ଯାହା କହିଲେ ପ୍ରଧାନଶିକ୍ଷକ ବିଶ୍ଵାସ କଲେ କି ?)
Answer:
No, the headmaster didn’t believe what he said.

Question 29.
How much was he fined?
(ତାଙ୍କୁ କେତେ ପରିମାଣର ଅର୍ଥ ଜରିମାନା ଲଗାଯାଇଥିଲା ?)
Answer:
He was fined one or two annas.

Question 30.
What was he accused of? Was the accusation proper?
(ସେ କାହିଁକି ଅଭିଯୁକ୍ତ ହୋଇଥିଲେ ? ଅଭିଯୋଗ କ’ଣ ଯୁକ୍ତିଯୁକ୍ତ ଥିଲା ?)
Answer:
He (Gandhi) was accused of lying. No, it wasn’t proper in case of Gandhi (ଗାନ୍ଧିଙ୍କ କ୍ଷେତ୍ରରେ ).

Question 31.
What pained him so much?
(କ’ଣ ତାଙ୍କୁ ଅଧିକ ଯନ୍ତ୍ରଣା ଦେଇଥିଲା ?)
Answer:
The accusation (ଅଭିଯୋଗ) that he was lying (ମିଛ କହୁଥିଲେ) pained him so much.

P-4
Question 32.
What lesson did he learn from it?
(ସେ ଏଥୁରୁ କ’ଣ ଶିକ୍ଷାଲାଭ କରିଥିଲେ ? )
Answer:
From it he learnt that a man of truth must be a man of care.

Question 33.
Was he careless in school later?
(ପରେ ସେ ବିଦ୍ୟାଳୟର ଯତ୍ନହୀନ ହୋଇଥିଲେ କି ?)
Answer:
No, he wasn’t careless in school later.

Question 34.
Did he really have to pay the fine?
(ତାଙ୍କୁ କ’ଣ ପ୍ରକୃତରେ ଜରିମାନା ଦେବାକୁ ପଡ଼ିଥିଲା ?)
Answer:
No, he didn’t have to pay the fine really.

Question 35.
How was the fine exempted in the end?
(ଶେଷରେ ସେ କିପରି ଜରିମାନା ଦେବାରୁ ମୁକ୍ତି ପାଇଥିଲେ ? )
Answer:
The fine was exempted (ଛାଡ କରାଯାଇଥିଲା) in the end as Gandhi’s father wrote himself to the headmaster urging his (Gandhi’s) service for him after school.

P-5
Question 36.
What was the other neglect Gandhi talked about?
(ଗାନ୍ଧି କହିଥ‌ିବା ଅନ୍ୟ ଏକ ଅବହେଳା ବା ଯତ୍ନହୀନତା କ’ଣ ଥିଲା ?)
Answer:
The other neglect Gandhi talked about was his bad handwriting.

Question 37.
What was his earlier notion on handwriting?
(ହସ୍ତଲେଖା ବିଷୟରେ ତାଙ୍କର ପୂର୍ବ ଧାରଣା କ’ଣ ଥିଲା ?)
Answer:
His earlier notion of handwriting was that it wasn’t a necessary part of education.

Question 38.
When and where did he realize that his notions were wrong? What made him think so?
( କେତେବେଳେ ଓ କେଉଁଠାରେ ସେ ହୃଦୟଙ୍ଗମ କଲେ ଯେ ତାଙ୍କର ଧାରଣାସବୁ ଭୁଲ ଥିଲା ? କେଉଁଥ‌ିପାଇଁ ଏଭଳି ଚିନ୍ତା କଲେ ?)
Answer:
Until he went to England and later in South Africa he realized that his notions were wrong. The observation (ପର୍ଯ୍ୟବେକ୍ଷଣ) of the good handwriting of the lawyers and the young men in South Africa made him think so.

Question 39.
What were his views on handwriting?
(ହସ୍ତାକ୍ଷର ବିଷୟରେ ତାଙ୍କର ମତ କ’ଣ ଥିଲା ?)
Answer:
He viewed (opined – ସେ ଦେଖିଥିଲେ) that good handwriting was a necessary part of education and bad handwriting should be regarded as a sign of an imperfect education.

Question 40.
What was his advice to young men and women in this regard?
(ଏ ବିଷୟରେ ଯୁବକ ଯୁବତୀମାନଙ୍କୁ ତାଙ୍କର ପରାମର୍ଶ କ’ଣ ଥିଲା ?)
Answer:
His advice to young men and women in this regard was to learn to handwrite only after they have learned to draw objects by observation.

P-6
Question 41.
Why did Gandhi consider Sanskrit harder than geometry?
( ଗାନ୍ଧି କାହିଁକି ଜ୍ୟାମିତି ଅପେକ୍ଷା ସଂସ୍କୃତକୁ କଷ୍ଟକର ବୋଲି ବିଚାର କରୁଥିଲେ ?)
Answer:
Gandhi considered Sanskrit harder than geometry as there was nothing to memorize (ଘୋଷି ମନେରଖ୍ର କିଛି ନାହିଁ) in geometry, whereas in Sanskrit everything had to be learned by heart.

Question 42.
Which class was Sanskrit introduced in?
(କେଉଁ ଶ୍ରେଣୀରୁ ସଂସ୍କୃତ ଶିକ୍ଷା ଆରମ୍ଭ ହେଉଥିଲା ? )
Answer:
Sanskrit was introduced in the fourth standard.

Question 43.
What did Gandhi say about the Sanskrit and Persian teachers?
(ଗାନ୍ଧିଜୀ ସଂସ୍କୃତ ଓ ପର୍ସିଆନ୍ ଶିକ୍ଷକଙ୍କ ବିଷୟରେ କ’ଣ କହିଥିଲେ ?)
Answer:
As Gandhi said, the Sanskrit teacher was a hard taskmaster (ପିଲାମାନଙ୍କୁ ଘରପଢ଼ା ଦେବାରେ କଠୋର), but the Persian teacher was lenient (କୋମଳ ବା ଉଦାର ).

Question 44.
Were they on good terms ? Quote the sentence from your text in support of your your answer: (ସେମାନେ (ସଂସ୍କୃତ ଶିକ୍ଷକ ଓ ପର୍ସିଆନ୍ ଶିକ୍ଷକ) କ’ଣ ଉତ୍ତମ ସମ୍ପର୍କରେ ଥିଲେ ? ନିଜର ଉତ୍ତରର ସମର୍ଥନ ପାଇଁ ପାଠ୍ୟବିଷୟରୁ ସମ୍ପର୍କିତ ବାକ୍ୟଟିକୁ ଉଦ୍ଧୃତ କର ।)
Answer:
No, they weren’t on good terms ( ଉତ୍ତମ ସମ୍ପର୍କ ବା ବନ୍ଧୁତା ). The sentence supporting the answer is “There was a sort of rivalry going on between the Sanskrit and the Persian teachers”.

Question 45.
What tempted him to sit in the Persian class?
(ପର୍ସିଆନ୍ ଶ୍ରେଣୀରେ ବସିବାପାଇଁ ତାଙ୍କୁ କ’ଣ ଆକର୍ଷିତ କରିଥିଲା ?)
Answer:
The easiness (ସହଜତା) of the Persian subject tempted him to sit in the Persian class.

Question 46.
How did the Sanskrit teacher feel about it?
(ସଂସ୍କୃତ ଶିକ୍ଷକ ଏହା ବିଷୟରେ କ’ଣ ଅନୁଭବ କଲେ ?)
Answer:
When the Sanskrit teacher saw Gandhi sit in the Persian class, he was grieved (ଦୁଃଖ୍ତ ହୋଇଗଲେ ).

Question 47.
Why did he think it necessary for Gandhi to study Sanskrit?
(ଗାନ୍ଧି ସଂସ୍କୃତ ପଢ଼ିବା ଆବଶ୍ୟକ ବୋଲି ସେ (ସଂସ୍କୃତ ଶିକ୍ଷକ) କାହିଁକି ଭାବୁଥିଲେ ?)
Answer:
The Sanskrit teacher thought it necessary for Gandhi to study Sanskrit because he (Gandhi) was the son of a Vaishnava father. Besides (ଏହା ବ୍ୟତୀତ) Sanskrit was the language of his own religion.

P-8
Question 48.
Did he come back to Sanskrit class? Why?
(ସେ (ଗାନ୍ଧି) କ’ଣ ସଂସ୍କୃତ ଶ୍ରେଣୀକୁ ଫେରି ଆସିଲେ ? କାହିଁକି ?)
Answer:
Yes, he came back to Sanskrit class. Because he couldn’t disregard ( ଅଣଦେଖା କରିପାରୁନଥିଲେ) his teacher’s affection (ସ୍ନେହ).

Question 49.
What put him to shame?
(ତାଙ୍କୁ କ’ଣ ଲଜ୍ଜିତ କରିଥିଲା ?)
Answer:
The Sanskrit teacher’s kindness (ଦୟା) put him (Gandhi) to shame.

Question 50.
Who was his Sanskrit teacher?
(ତାଙ୍କର ସଂସ୍କୃତ ଶିକ୍ଷକ କିଏ ଥିଲେ ?)
Answer:
Krishnashankar Pandya was the Sanskrit teacher.

Question 51.
How did the study of Sanskrit help him later?
(ସଂସ୍କୃତ ପଠନ ତାଙ୍କୁ ପରେ କିଭଳି ସାହାଯ୍ୟ କରିଥିଲା ?)
Answer:
The study of Sanskrit helped him acquire (ଶିଖୁରେ ) the little knowledge of the language and fostered (ବୃଦ୍ଧି କରିଥିଲା ) his interest in sacred books.

Question 52.
What feelings did Gandhi have for his teachers?
( ନିଜର ଶିକ୍ଷକମାନଙ୍କ ବିଷୟରେ ଗାନ୍ଧିଙ୍କର ଅନୁଭୂତି କ’ଣ ଥିଲା ?)
Answer:
Gandhi had the feelings of regards (ସମ୍ମାନ ) and love for his teachers.

F. Let’S Sum-Up:

Question.
The present text “At the High School” is built up of the main idea and supporting ideas. The text title itself is the main theme/idea. The facts/information presented in the paragraphs form the contents/sub-themes/supporting ideas. Given below is a table, which shows a well-knit structure of the text. Some facts/information are missing from it. Complete the table using the required information choosing from the HELP-BOX. Some paragraphs have more than one theme.
(“At the High School” ବିଷୟଟି ଗୋଟିଏ ମୁଖ୍ୟ ପ୍ରସଙ୍ଗ ଓ ସହାୟକ ପ୍ରସଙ୍ଗମାନଙ୍କୁ ନେଇ ଲିଖୁ । ବିଷୟର ଶୀର୍ଷକ ବା ନାମ ହିଁ ମୁଖ୍ୟ ପ୍ରସଙ୍ଗ ଅଟେ । ଅନୁଚ୍ଛେଦଗୁଡ଼ିକରେ ଉପସ୍ଥାପିତ ତଥ୍ୟଗୁଡ଼ିକ ହେଉଛି ସହାୟକ ପ୍ରସଙ୍ଗ । ନିମ୍ନରେ ଏକ ସାରଣୀ ଦିଆଯାଇଛି ଯାହା ପାଠ୍ୟବିଷୟକୁ ସୁନ୍ଦର ଭାବେ ଗ୍ରସ୍ତୁତ କରିଛି । ଏଥ‌ିରେ କେତେକ ତଥ୍ୟ ଛାଡ଼ି ଦିଆଯାଇଛି । ସହାୟକ ବାକ୍ସ (HELP-BOX)ରୁ ଆବଶ୍ୟକ ତଥ୍ୟ ଚୟନ କରି ସାରଣୀଟିକୁ ସମ୍ପୂର୍ଣ୍ଣ କର । କେତେକ ଅନୁଚ୍ଛେଦର ଏକାଧ୍ଵ ପ୍ରସଙ୍ଗ ଅଛି ।)

At the High School

Para-1	Para-2		Para-3	Para-4	Para-5	Para-6		Para-7
	punishment					subjects

handwriting        subjects          studies                punishment teachers              reward            games                 headmaster

Answer:

Para-1	Para-2		Para-3	Para-4	Para-5	Para-6		Para-7
Reward (ପୁରସ୍କାର)	Punishment (ଦଣ୍ଡ)	Games Head- master	Head- master	Carelessness remission of fines	Hand- writing (ହସ୍ତଲିଖନ)	subjects	teachers	studies

handwriting        subjects          studies                punishment teachers              reward            games                 headmaster

Note: Some facts given in the box below the table are insufficient. So information has been given in the table rooms.

G.Let’s Listen And Speak:

(a) Read the following conversation between Gandhi and his Sanskrit teacher.
Your teacher will read out the conversation. Listen to him/her. Follow the dialogue while listening.
Your teacher will act out the character of Gandhi’s Sanskrit teacher and the class, Gandhi. Next, the role changes – the class act as the Sanskrit teacher and your teacher as Gandhi.
Next, the teacher divides the class into groups who will role-play in the like manner with a change in roles. Then practice in pairs.
Finally, your teacher invites two of your friends to play the roles in front of the class.
Sanskrit Tr: Hello Moniya! How are you?
Gandhi: Fine.
Sanskrit Tr: I hear you’re sitting in the Persian class.
Gandhi: Yes, sir.
Sanskrit Tr: What prompted you to do so?
Gandhi: Persian is easy, sir.
Sanskrit Tr: But Sanskrit is the language of our culture. You should study the language by any means.
Gandhi: Sanskrit is very difficult for me.
Sanskrit Tr: Why do you think so?
Gandhi: Because everything has to be learned by heart.
Sanskrit Tr: That’s not the case, Manu. Come to me. I’ll help you learn Sanskrit with ease.
Gandhi: Thank you for your offer, sir.
Note: “Moniya” or “Manu” was Gandhi’s nickname during his childhood.
(ଉପରେ ପ୍ରଦତ୍ତ ସଂସ୍କୃତ ଶିକ୍ଷକ ଓ ଗାନ୍ଧିଙ୍କ (ଯାହାଙ୍କର ବାଲ୍ୟ ନାମ ‘ମୋନିଆ’ ବା ‘ମନୁ’ ଥୁଲା) ମଧ୍ୟରେ ହୋଇଥିବା କଥୋପକଥନକୁ ପଢ଼ ଓ ଦୁଇ ଦୁଇ ଜଣ ହୋଇ ଅଭ୍ୟାସ କର ।)

(b) Your teacher will conduct a quiz on the lesson. She/he will organize/administer the activity following every step as shown in a similar quiz program under the lesson “Festivals of Northeast India”. “K. Let’s do this activity”. (Page-65)
(ବିଷୟକୁ ନେଇ ଏକ ଜଣା ଅଜଣା କାର୍ଯ୍ୟକ୍ରମ ତୁମ ଶିକ୍ଷକ ପରିଚାଳନା କରିବେ ।)

H. Let’s Enrich Our Vocabulary:
Notice the underlined word in the sentence below.
(ନିମ୍ନରେ ଦିଆଯାଇଥ‌ିବା ବାକ୍ୟରେ ରେଖାଙ୍କିତ ଶବ୍ଦକୁ ଲକ୍ଷ୍ୟ କର ।)
When I merited or seemed to the teacher to merit a rebuke, it was unbearable for me.

ଏଠାରେ unbearable (ଅସହ୍ୟ ) ହେଉଛି ଏକ ଶବ୍ଦ ଯାହାnegative prefix ‘un’ + bearableର ମିଶ୍ରଣରେ ଗଠିତ । not + bearable = unbearable, ଏଠାରେ ‘not’କୁ ଉଠାଇ ‘un’ prefix ବା ପ୍ରତ୍ୟୟକୁ bearable ପୂର୍ବରୁ ବସାଇ ବିପରୀତ ଅର୍ଥକୁ ସୂଚିତ କରାଯାଇଛି ।

(a) Show how the following words are built up of their prefixes and roots. One is done as an example: disobedient = dis + obedient
[Prefix (ପ୍ରତ୍ୟୟ) ଓ root ବା ମୂଳ ଶବ୍ଦଗୁଡ଼ିକୁ ନେଇ କିଭଳି ନିମ୍ନଲିଖ୍ ଶବ୍ଦଗୁଡ଼ିକୁ ଗଠିତ ହୋଇଛି ଦର୍ଶାଅ ।]

Prefix       root
abnormal (ଅସ୍ଵାଭାବିକ)          =   ab + normal
disappear (ଅଦୃଶ୍ୟ ହୋଇଯିବା) =   dis+ appear
impossible (ଅସମ୍ଭବ)            =   im + possible
misunderstand (ଭୁଲ୍ ବୁଝିବା) =   mis+understand
demerit (ଅପକାରିତା)             =   de + merit
illegible (ଅପଠ୍ୟ)                  =   il + legible
intransitive (ଅକର୍ମକ)            =   in + transitive
unlucky (ହତଭାଗ୍ୟ )              =   un + lucky

(b)Rewrite the following sentences replacing the underlined words by single words with their opposite/negative meanings.
(ନିମ୍ନଲିଖ୍ ବାକ୍ୟଗୁଡ଼ିକୁ ରେଖାଙ୍କିତ ଶବ୍ଦଗୁଡ଼ିକ ସ୍ଥାନରେ ସେଗୁଡ଼ିକର ଏକଶବ୍ଦବିଶିଷ୍ଟ ବିପରୀତ/ନାସ୍ତିସୂଚକ ଅର୍ଥ ବସାଇ ପୁନର୍ବାର ଲେଖ ।)

For example :

1. Swarupa’s achievement (ସଫଳତା) is not believable.
   Swarupa’s achievement is unbelievable (ଅବିଶ୍ୱସନୀୟ)
2. Remote tribal areas (ଦୁର୍ଗମ ଆଦିବାସୀ ଅଧ୍ୟୁଷିତ ଅଞ୍ଚଳ) among hills and forests are not still reachable.
   Remote tribal areas among hills and forests are still unreachable (ଅପହଞ୍ଚ).
3. The younger generation (ଯୁବ ପିଢ଼ି) is not interested in traditional occupations (ପାରମ୍ପରିକ ବୃତ୍ତି).
   The younger generation is uninterested (ଆଗ୍ରହୀ) in traditional occupations.
4. The stranger did not talk in a polite manner.
   The stranger talked in an impolite manner / impolitely (ଅଶୋଭନୀୟ ଭାବରେ).
5. Many people are not happy with what they have.
   Many people are unhappy (ସୁଖୀ) with what they have.
6. Dull weather (ଖରାପ ପାଗ) does not make us active.
   Dull weather makes us inactive (ନିଷ୍କ୍ରିୟ).
7. Human wants (ମଣିଷର ଇଚ୍ଛା) are not limited.
   Human wants are unlimited (ଅସୀମିତ ).
8. They are not managing the organization (ସଙ୍ଗଠନ) properly.
   They are mismanaging (କୁପରିଚାଳନା) the organization.
9. Her inaugural speech (ଉଦ୍ଘାଟନୀ ଭାଷଣ) was not motivating.
   Her inaugural speech was demotivating (9§919999).
10. They did not behave their guests well.
    They misbehaved (ସେମାନେ ଅତିଥିଙ୍କୁ ଅସଦାଚରଣ କରିଥିଲେ।) their guests.
11. The soul (ଆତ୍ମା) is not mortal.
    The soul is immortal (ଅମର).

I. Let’s Learn Language:
1. Examine the following sentence.
(ନିମ୍ନଲିଖ୍ ବାକ୍ୟକୁ ଲକ୍ଷ୍ୟ କର ।)
Before I reached the school, the boys had all left.
(ମୁଁ ବିଦ୍ୟାଳୟରେ ପହଞ୍ଚିବା ପୂର୍ବରୁ ବାଳକମାନେ ଚାଲି ଯାଇଥିଲେ ।)
The setence has two clauses.
ଏହି ବାକ୍ୟରେ ଦୁଇଟି ଖଣ୍ଡବାକ୍ୟ ଅଛି ।)
(i) Before I reached the school
(ii) the boys had all left
ପ୍ରଥମ ଖଣ୍ଡବାକ୍ୟ ବା ବାକ୍ୟଖଣ୍ଡ (clause)ରେ verb (କ୍ରିୟାପଦ) reached (past simple tense) recent ବା କିଛି ସମୟ ପୂର୍ବରୁ ସମାପ୍ତ କାର୍ଯ୍ୟକୁ ସୂଚିତ କରୁଥିଲାବେଳେ ଦ୍ୱିତୀୟ ଖଣ୍ଡବାକ୍ୟରେ ବ୍ୟବହୃତ erfect tense) earlier past action ବା ପୂର୍ବରୁ ସମାପ୍ତ କାର୍ଯ୍ୟକୁ ସୂଚିତ କରୁଛି ।
Let’s understand through the given diagram.

Earlier Past	Recent past
The boys had all left.	I reached the school.

Answer:

Another example :
The tortoise had reached (earlier/first completed action) the destination by the time / before the rabbit awake (later/second action).
(ଠେକୁଆ ଉଠିଲାବେଳକୁ କଇଁଛ ଲକ୍ଷ୍ୟସ୍ଥଳରେ ପହଞ୍ଚି ସାରିଥିଲା ।)

(a) There is such añother sentence in paragraph-3 of the text. Can you find it out? Fill in each sentence below using the correct form of the verbs given in brackets. One is done for you. (ନିମ୍ନଲିଖ ପ୍ରତ୍ୟେକ ବାକ୍ୟରେ ବନ୍ଧନୀ ମଧ୍ଯରେ ଦିଆଯାଇଥ‌ିବା କ୍ରିୟାପଦର ଠିକ୍ ରୂପ ବସାଇ ଶୂନ୍ୟସ୍ଥାନ ପୂରଣ କର । ତୁମ ପାଇଁ ଗୋଟିଏ କରି ଦିଆଯାଇଛି ।)
(i) All guests had arrived (arrive) before the party started (start).
(ii) We ________ (sit) for lunch after mother ________ (fry) the eggs.
(iii) When Mahatma Gandhi ________ (pass away), India ________ (achieve) her freedom.
(iv) The train ________ (leave) before they (reach) the station.
(v) Namrata _________ (post) the letter after she _________ (write) it.
(vi) The patient ________ (die) before the doctor ________ (come).
(vii) The farmer ________ (plough) the field before he ________ (sow) seeds.
(vii) The prizes (be, give) long before the cultural programmes (start).
Answer:
(i) All guests had arrived (arrive) before the party started (start)
(ii) We sat for lunch after mother had fried the eggs.
(iii) When Mahatma Gandhi passed away (died), India had achieved (got) her freedom.
(iv) The train had left before they reached the station.
(v) Namrata posted the letter after she had written it.
(vi) The patient had died before the doctor came.
(vii) The farmer had ploughed the field before he sowed seeds.
(vii) The prizes had been given long before the cultural programmes started.

2. Look at the following sentences. (ନିମ୍ନଲିଖ୍ ବାକ୍ୟକୁ ଦେଖ ।)
If I had not acquired a little Sanskrit, I should have found it difficult to take any interest The sentence has two clauses.
(i) If I hadn’t acquired the little Sanskrit — If clause / Conditional clause (If ବା ସର୍ତ୍ତମୂଳକ ଖଣ୍ଡବାକ୍ୟ)
(ii) I should have found it difficult to take any interest —> Main clause (ମୁଖ୍ୟ ବା ପ୍ରଧାନ ଖଣ୍ଡବାକ୍ୟ)
ଏୋଗେ If I had not acquired the little Sanskrit …………… ଅସଂପୂର୍ଣ୍ଣ unfulfilled if or conditional clause.

(a) Read the following situations and write an ‘If-sentence’ for each.
(ନିମ୍ନଲିଖ୍ ବାକ୍ୟଗୁଡ଼ିକୁ ପଢ଼ ଓ ପ୍ରତ୍ୟେକ ପାଇଁ ଗୋଟିଏ ଲେଖାଏଁ If ବାକ୍ୟ ଲେଖ ।)
(i) They did not start early. They missed their train.
(ii) He did not fall into the river. He was not drowned.
(iii) The sun was in the right direction. The photographs came out very well.
(iv) I saw you. I invited you to my party.
(v) Lilima won a lottery. She bought a good house.
(vi) The mangoes were not ripe. They did not sell at a good price.
(vii) Subhra did not spend much. She had a lot of bank balances.
(viii) The farmer worked hard. He reaped a rich harvest.
Answer:
(i) If they had started early, they would not have missed their train.
(ii) 1f he had fallen (ପଡିଯାଇଥିଲା) into the river, he would have been drowned(ବୁଡ଼ି ଯାଇଥାନ୍ତା).
(iii) If the sun hadn’t been (ହୋଇ ନ ଥାଆନ୍ତା) in the right direction, the photographs wouldn’t have come out (ବାହାରକୁ ଆସି ନଥାନ୍ତା) very well.
(iv) If I hadn’t seen (ଦେଖିନଥିଲି) you, I wouldn’t have invited (ନିମନ୍ତ୍ରଣ କରିନଥାନ୍ତେ ) you to my party.
(v) If Lilima hadn’t won (ଜିତିନଥିଲେ) a lottery, she wouldn’t have bought ( କିଣିନଥାନ୍ତେ) a good house.
(vi) If the mangoes had been (ହୋଇଥିବ) ripe, they would have sold ( ବିକ୍ରି ହୋଇଥାନ୍ତା) at a good price.
(vii) If Subhra had spent ( ଖର୍ଚ୍ଚ ହୋଇସାରିଛି) much, she wouldn’t have had (ହୋଇ ନଥାନ୍ତା) a lot of bank balance.
(viii) If the fanner hadn’t worked (କାମ କରିନାହିଁ ) hard, he wouldn’t have reaped a rich harvest (ଅମଳ ହୋଇନଥାନ୍ତା ).

(b) Put the verbs in brackets into their correct forms. ((ବନ୍ଧନୀ ମଧ୍ଯରେ ଥ‌ିବା କ୍ରିୟାପଦଗୁଡ଼ିକୁ ସେମାନଙ୍କ ଉପଯୁକ୍ତ ରୂପରେ ବସାଅ ।)
(i) If our boys had played well, our team (win) the match easily.
(ii) If Manisha (not get) the scholarship, she might have missed the chance of her studies abroad.
(iii) India would not have achieved her freedom if the Indians (not fight) for it.
(iv) Crops would have been better if it (rain) well.
(v) The government (not be) very unpopular if they had not raised taxes.
(vi) If you (take) my advice, you would not have got into troubles.
(vii) The glass (not break) if she had not dropped it.
Answer:
(i) If our boys had played well, our team would have won (ଜିତିଥାନ୍ତେ ) the match easily.
(ii) If Manisha hadn’t got (ପାଇ ନାହିଁ) the scholarship, she might have missed the chance of her studies abroad.
(iii) India would not have achieved her freedom if the Indians hadn’t fought (ଯୁଦ୍ଧ କରି ନ ଥିଲେ) for it.
(iv) Crops would have been better if it had rained (ବର୍ଷା ହୋଇଥିଲା) well.
(y) The government wouldn’t have been (ହୋଇ ନଥାନ୍ତା) very unpopular if they had not raised taxes.
(vi) If you had taken (ନେଇଥିଲେ) my advice, you would not have got into troubles.
(vii) The glass wouldn’t have broken (ଭାଙ୍ଗି ନଥାନ୍ତା) if she had not dropped it.

3. Fill in the blanks with correct prepositions choosing from the box. (ବାକ୍ସରୁ ବାଛିଥିବା ସଠିକ ପ୍ରିପୋଜିସନ ସହିତ ଖାଲି ସ୍ଥାନଗୁଡ଼ିକୁ ପୂରଣ କରନ୍ତୁ)
(among, from, in, of, to, with)
(i) She was deeply ashamed (ଲଜ୍ଜିତ) ________ her behavior at the party.
(ii) People are ________ the opinion (ମତ) that price controls are losing ground.
(iii) The festival kicked off (ଆରମ୍ଭ ହେଲା) _______ traditional music and folk dances.
(iv) Sweets were distributed (ବଣ୍ଟିତ) ________ children.
(y) Charities are exempted (ମୁକ୍ତ) paying tax.
(vi) Children hardly refuse (ମନା କରନ୍ତୁ ) obey.
(vii) India succeeded (ସଫଳ ହେଲା) in winning the World Cup Cricket that year.
(viii) The ofticer was convicted (ଦୋଷୀ ସାବ୍ୟସ୍ତ) ________ bank fraud.
Answer:
(i) She was deeply ashamed of her behavior at the party.
(ii) People are of the opinion that price controls are losing ground.
(iii) The festival kicked off with traditional music and folk dances.
(iv) Sweets were distributed among children.
(v) Charities are exempted from paying tax.
(vi) Children hardly refuse to obey.
(vii) India succeeded in winning the World Cup Cricket that year.
(viii) The officer was convicted of bank fraud.

J. Lets Write:
1. Write answers to all questions under “E. Let’s understand the Text”.
2. Write a paragraph in about 5 to 8 sentences on each of the topics given below :
(ନିମ୍ନରେ ଦିଆଯାଇଥ‌ିବା ପ୍ରତ୍ୟେକ ଶୀର୍ଷକ ଉପରେ ୫ରୁ ୮ଟି ବାକ୍ୟ ମଧ୍ଯରେ ଏକ ଅନୁଚ୍ଛେଦ ଲେଖ ।)
(a) Gandhi as student
(b) Gandhi’s Headmaster
(c) Gandhi’s Sanskrit and Persian teachers
(d) Gandhi’s attitude towards sports and handwriting
Answer.
Gandhi as a student:
Gandhi was an average student in high school. He had high regard (ଉଚ୍ଚ ସମ୍ମାନ) for his teachers. He loved geometry more than Sanskrit. Once he was fined for having not attended (ଯୋଗ ଦେଇନଥିବା) gymnastics class. But at his father’s request, he got the fine remitted. His being fined (ତାଙ୍କୁ ଜରିମାନା କରାଯାଇଛି) pained him.

Gandhi’s Headmaster:
Dorabji Edulji Gimi was the headmaster when Gandhi was in High School. He was loved by the students. Because he was a disciplinarian, a man of method, and above all (ସର୍ବୋପରେ) a good teacher. He believed in the keeping of sound health of the boys. So he made attending of the boys in gymnastics and cricket compulsory. He convicted Gandhi of lying.

Gandhi’s Sanskrit and Persian teachers:
Gandhi’s Sanskrit teacher was Krishnashankar Pandya. He was pained (ଯନ୍ତ୍ରଣା ଅନୁଭବ କଲା) to see Gandhi sit in the Persian class. He prevailed upon (ଉପରେ ବିଜୟୀ ହେଲା ) him to come back to Sanskrit class as it was the language of his own religion and he being a Vaishnav father’s son.
On the other hand (ଅନ୍ୟ ହାତ), his Persian teacher was lenient. He had some sort of rivalry with the Sanskrit teacher. His soft nature and the easiness of the Persian language one day tempted Gandhi to sit in the Persian class.

Gandhi’s attitude (ମନୋଭାବ) towards (ଆଡକୁ) sports and handwriting:
Regarding (ସମ୍ବନ୍ଧରେ) sports Gandhi had the earlier notion that sports like gymnastics had nothing to do with education. He kept aloof (ଦୂରେଇ ରଖିଥିଲେ) from cricket, football or gymnastics as he desired (ସେ ଇଚ୍ଛା କଲେ) to serve (ସେବା କରିବାକୁ) his father during those classes. Later (ପରେ) he felt that physical training should have (ଥିବା ଦର୍କାର) as many places as mental training in the curriculum. Handwriting, likewise (ସେହିଭଳି) was thought to have no necessity in good education by Gandhi. But he had to change (ପରିବର୍ତ୍ତନ କରିବାକୁ ପଡିଲା) this notion (&I961I) when he observed (ଯେତେବେଳେ ସେ ଦେଖିଲେ) the good handwriting (ଭଲ ହସ୍ତଲିଖନ) of young men and lawyers in South Africa.

3. Write a letter in about 100 words to your penfriend telling him/her about Gandhi as a person.
(ତୁମର ପତ୍ରବନ୍ଧୁଙ୍କୁ ଜଣେ ବ୍ୟକ୍ତି ହିସାବରେ ଗାନ୍ଧିଙ୍କ ବିଷୟରେ ବର୍ଣ୍ଣନା କରି ପ୍ରାୟ ୧୦୦ ଶବ୍ଦରେ ଏକ ପତ୍ର ଲେଖ ।)

Jairampur
Salipur
Date : ………………..
Dear Asish,
How are you now? Hoping you will be enjoying a relaxed time. Recently I went through (read thoroughly – ଭଲ ଭାବରେ ପଢନ୍ତୁ) a topic on Gandhi’s life.
As a person, Gandhi showed his enormous (ପ୍ରକାଣ୍ଡ) potential (ସମ୍ଭାବ୍ୟ) when he was in South Africa. When he saw the distressed (ଦୁର୍ଦ୍ଦଶାଗ୍ରସ୍ତ) condition of the Indians there, he launched ‘Satyagraha’ a great weapon against Apartheid (ଅପାର୍ଥିଡ଼ ) of the White rulers (ଶ୍ୱେତାଙ୍ଗ ଶାସକ). From this, he matured (ପରିପକ୍ବତା ହାସଲ କରିଥିଲେ)) as a great leader which he successfully (ସେ ସଫଳତାର ସହିତ) displayed (ପ୍ରଦର୍ଶିତ |) by supporting the cause (କାରଣ) of the farmers in Champaran of Bihar in 1917.
His leadership (ନେତୃତ୍ୱ) made crores of Indians bow their heads to him for his having empowered India to become free from British rule.
I hope you have got to know a few things about this great Indian as a person.
Yours sincerely,
Nabakishore.

BSE Odisha 10th Class English At the High School Important Questions and Answers

Very Short & Objective Questions With Answers.
Answer The Following Questions In A Word Or A Phrase.

Question 1.
What did Gandhi always enjoy in high school?
Answer:
The affection of his teachers.

Question 2.
What was sent to the parents every year?
Answer:
Certificates of progress and character.

Question 3.
In which classes did Gandhi obtain (get) scholarships?
Answer:
In the fifth and sixth standards.

Question 4.
What were the amounts (ପରିମାଣ) of scholarship did Gandhi receive?
Answer:
Rupees four and ten.

Question 5.
What did Gandhi thank more for his having obtained scholarships?
Answer:
To his good luck

Question 6.
What is Gandhi’s own recollection about?
Answer:
Not having high regard for his ability

Question 7.
How did Gandhi guard his character?
Answer:
Jealously.

Question 8.
What bought tears to his eyes?
Answer:
Least little blemish.

Question 9.
What did he receive once?
Answer:
Physical punishment.

Question 10.
How did he weep?
Answer:
Piteously (ଦୟାଳୁ).

Question 11.
What was Dorabji Edulji Gimi ?
Answer:
Gandhi’s headmaster.

Question 12.
Why was Gimi popular?
Answer:
For being a disciplinarian, a man of method, and a good teacher.

Question 13.
What did Mr. Gimi make compulsory?
Answer:
Gymnastics and cricket.

Question 14.
What was Gandhi’s false notion about gymnastics?
Answer:
Having nothing to do with education.

Question 15.
What should have many places in the curriculum as mental training?
Answer:
Physical training.

Question 16.
What did Gandhi do as soon as the school closed?
Answer:
Hurried home (ଶୀଘ୍ର ଘରକୁ).

Question 17.
What did Gandhi do after arriving at home?
Answer:
Began serving his father.

Question 18.
At what time was the gymnastics held?
Answer:
At four o’clock.

Question 19.
What deceived Gandhi?
Answer:
The clouds.

Question 20.
What was Gandhi convicted of?
Answer:
Lying (ମିଛ କହୁଛି).

Question 21.
Why did he weep in deep anguish?
Answer:
Not being able to prove his innocence(ତାଙ୍କର ନିର୍ଦ୍ଦୋଷତା ପ୍ରମାଣ କରିବାକୁ ସମର୍ଥ ନୁହେଁ |).

Question 22.
What did he repent of?
Answer:
His neglect in handwriting.

Question 23.
Whose beautiful handwriting did he see in South Africa?
Answer:
Lawyers and young men.

Question 24.
What, according to (କ’ଣ, ଅନୁଯାୟୀ |) Gandhi, should be regarded as a sign of imperfect education?
Answer:
Bad handwriting.

Question 25.
How should children learn letters?
Answer:
By observation.

Question 26.
What proved a harder task for Gandhi?
Answer:
Sanskrit.

Question 27.
What was the Persian teacher like?
Answer:
Lenient (କୋମଳ).

Question 28.
Why was the Sanskrit teacher grieved?
Answer:
To see Gandhi sit in the Persian class.

Question 29.
How could Gandhi show interest in sacred books?
Answer:
For having acquired a little knowledge in Sanskrit.

Question 30.
What was the problem in Sanskrit?
Answer:
Everything had to be learned by heart.

Fill In The Blanks With Right Words.

1. Gandhi was regarded as a ________ at the high school.
Answer:
fool

2. Gandhi never had a ___________.
Answer:
had certificate

3. He won prizes after he passed out of ___________.
Answer:
the second standard

4. Gandhi did&t have any high regard for ___________.
Answer:
his ability

5. ___________drew tears from Gandhi’s eyes.
Answer:
The least little blemish

6. Once Gandhi received ___________.
Answer:
corporal (ଦଣ୍ଡବିଧାନ) punishment

7. ___________ was considered a desert (ମରୁଭୂମି) for Gandhi.
Answer:
Receiving punishment

8. Mr. Gimi made gymnastics and cricket compulsory for ___________.
Answer:
the boys of upper standard

9. ________ was one of the reasons for Gandhi is aloofness (ନିଃସଙ୍ଗତା) from gymnastics or cricket.
Answer:
His shyness

10. According to Gandhi gymnastics had ___________.
Answer:
nothing to do with education

11. Gandhi requested Gimi to ___________.
Answer:
exempt him from gymnastics

12. On _______ Gandhi had school in the morning.
Answer:
Saturdays

13. Gandhi had no ___________ ,and the cloud deceived him.
Answer:
watch

14. Gandhi felt ashamed (ଗାନ୍ଧୀ ଲଜ୍ଜିତ ଅନୁଭବ କଲେ) ___________.
Answer:
had handwriting

15. In the words of Gandhi a man of truth must also be ___________.
Answer:
man of care

16. Gandi was disheartened (ଗାନ୍ଧୀ ନିରାଶ ହୋଇଥିଲେ) ___________.
Answer:
entering the sixth standard

17. A sort of ___________ was going on between the Sanskrit and the Persian teachers.
Answer:
rivalry

18. Gandhi was the son of a ___________.
Answer:
Vaishnava father

19. Krishnashankar Pandya was Gandhi’s ___________.
Answer:
Sanskrit teacher

20. Due to (କାରଣରୁ) some knowledge in Sanskrit, Gandhi showed interest in ___________.
Answer:
his sacred books

Multiple Choice Questions (Mcqs) With Answers
Pick out the correct alternative.

Question 1.
Gandhi wasn’t regarded as a ____________ at the high school.
(A) fool
(B) scholar
(C) stupid
(D) wise
Answer:
(A) fool

Question 2.
Gandhi always enjoyed his teachers.
(A) favor
(B) affection
(C) well wishes
(D) love
Answer:
(B) affection

Question 3.
Certificates of progress and character were sent to the parents.
(A) every month
(B) every hour
(C) every year
(D) every minute
Answer:
(C) every year

Question 4.
Gandhi never had.
(A) a bad character
(B) a good certificate
(C) a good character
(D) a bad certificate
Answer:
(D) a bad certificate

Question 5.
Gandhiji won prizes after passing out of the.
(A) fourth standard
(B) third standard
(C) fifth standard
(D) second standard
Answer:
(D) second standard

Question 6.
In the standard Gandhi obtained (got)scholarships.
(A) third and fourth
(B) second and third
(C) fifth and sixth
(D) sixth and seventh
Answer:
(C) fifth and sixth

Question 7.
Gandhi obtained rupees respectively while in the fifth and sixth standards.
(A) lour and six
(B) four and ten
(C) four and eight
(D) five and ten
Answer:
(B) four and ten

Question 8.
As Gandhi remembered he had not any high regard.
(A) for his ability
(B) for his merit
(C) for his stupidity
(D) for his knowledge
Answer:
(A) for his ability

Question 9.
Gandhi guarded his character.
(A) very jealously
(B) very carefully
(C) very cunningly
(D) very cautiously
Answer:
(A) very jealously

Question 10.
The least drew tears from Gandhi’s eyes.
(A) little rebuke
(B) little blemish
(C) little partiality
(D) little misbehavior
Answer:
(B) little blemish

Question 11.
Gandhi didn’t mind (didn’t take it seriously).
(A) the rebuke
(B) the misbehavior
(C) the blemish
(D) the punishment
Answer:
(D) the punishment

Question 12.
When Gandhi was in the Dorabji Edulji Gimi was the headmaster.
(A) fifth standard
(B) fourth standard
(C) sixth standard
(D) seventh standard
Answer:
(D) seventh standard

Question 13.
Mr. Dorabji Edulji Gimi was Gandhi’s.
(A) class-teacher
(B) English teacher
(C) headmaster
(D) Sanskrit teacher
Answer:
(C) headmaster

Question 14.
Cricket and gymnastics were made compulsory for the boys of.
(A) upper standard
(B) higher standard
(C) lower standard
(D) middle standard
Answer:
(A) upper standard

Question 15.
Gandhi had to join the gymnastics class at on a Saturday.
(A) 4 p.m.
(B) 2 p.m.
(C) 3 p.m.
(D) 6 p.m.
Answer:
(A) 4 p.m.

Question 16.
___________ deceived Gandhiji.
(A) Weather
(B) Clouds
(C) Friends
(D) Headmaster
Answer:
(B) Clouds

Question 17.
Gandhi had no.
(A) sense
(B) knowledge
(C) watch
(D) intention
Answer:
(C) watch

Question 18.
All the boys had left the field at Gandhi’s.
(A) departure
(B) entry
(C) commence
(D) arrival
Answer:
(D) arrival

Question 19.
Mr. Gimi refused to believe Gandhi taking the reason of his.
(A) illness
(B) late presence
(C) absence
(D) early departure
Answer:
(C) absence

Question 20.
Mr. Gimi fined Gandhi annas.
(A) two or three
(B) one or two
(C) three or four
(D) four or five
Answer:
(B) one or two

Question 21.
His being convicted of deeply pained Gandhi.
(A) lying
(B) theft
(C) conspiracy
(D) misbehavior
Answer:
(A) lying

Question 22.
His failure to prove his caused Gandhi to cry in deep anguish.
(A) innocence
(B) ability
(C) morality
(D) truthfulness
Answer:
(A) innocence

Question 23.
His being convicted of lying by was the first time and last instance of Gandhi’s carelessness in school.
(A) his father
(B) Mr. Gimi
(C) Mr. Pandya
(D) his friend
Answer:
(B) Mr. Gimi

Question 24.
Gandhi finally succeeded in getting the fine.
(A) reduced
(B) abolished
(C) remitted
(D) none of these
Answer:
(C) remitted

Question 25.
In South Africa, Gandhi saw the beautiful handwriting of and young men bom and educated there.
(A) teachers
(B) judges
(C) businessmen
(D) lawyers
Answer:
(D) lawyers

Question 26.
When Gandhi saw the beautiful handwriting of lawyers and young men in South Africa, he repented of.
(A) his mistake
(B) his carelessness
(C) his neglect
(D) his misconduct
Answer:
(C) his neglect

Question 27.
Gandhi’s father wrote to Mr. Gimi needing Gandhi at home.
(A) after school
(B) in the evening
(C) during recess
(D) in the morning
Answer:
(A) after school

Question 28.
Before learning to write children should first be taught the art of.
(A) reading
(B) memorizing
(C) drawing
(D) observing
Answer:
(C) drawing

Question 29.
Sanskrit, however, proved a for Gandhi.
(A) easier task
(B) difficult task
(C) good task
(D) harder task
Answer:
(D) harder task

Question 30.
In Sanskrit, everything had to be learnt.
(A) by observation
(B) by heart
(C) by memorizing
(D) by ability
Answer:
(B) by heart

At the High School Summary in English

Lead-In:
According to several accounts (ଖାତା), Gandhi was not so brilliant (talented – ପ୍ରତିଭାଶାଳୀ) as a student. He was noted (famous – ପ୍ରସିଦ୍ଧ) to be good at English, fair in Arithmetic, weak in Geography, good in conduct (ଆଚରଣ) and bad in handwriting. Though he did not have any high regard (ସମ୍ମାନ) for his “ability” (ସାମର୍ଥ୍ୟ), he was astonished (very much surprised – ବହୁତ ଆଶ୍ଚର୍ଯ୍ୟ) whenever he won prizes and scholarships.

Paragraphwise Explanation:
Para-1: I was not regarded as a fool at the high school. I always enjoyed the affection of my teachers. Certificates of progress and character used to be sent to the parents every year. I never had a bad certificate. In fact, I even won prizes after I passed out of the second standard. In the fifth and sixth I obtained scholarships of rupees four and ten respectively, an achievement for which I have to thank good luck more than my merit.
ଅନୁବାଦ : ଉଚ୍ଚ ବିଦ୍ୟାଳୟରେ ମୁଁ ଏକ ବୋକା ରୂପେ ପରିଚିତ ନ ଥୁଲି । ମୁଁ ସର୍ବଦା ମୋ ଶିକ୍ଷକମାନଙ୍କର ସ୍ନେହ ଉପଭୋଗ କରୁଥିଲି । ପ୍ରତିବର୍ଷ ପାଠ୍ୟନ୍ନତି ଓ ଚରିତ୍ର ସମ୍ପର୍କିତ ପ୍ରମାଣପତ୍ର ପିତାମାତାଙ୍କ ପାଖକୁ ପଠାଯାଉଥିଲା । ମୋ ସମ୍ପର୍କରେ ଗୋଟିଏ ମଧ୍ୟ ଖରାପ ପ୍ରମାଣପତ୍ର ନ ଥିଲା । ପ୍ରକୃତରେ, ଦ୍ଵିତୀୟ ଶ୍ରେଣୀ ଉତ୍ତୀର୍ଣ୍ଣ ହେବା ପରେ ମୁଁ ପୁରସ୍କାର ପାଇଥୁଲି । ପଞ୍ଚମ ଓ ଷଷ୍ଠ ଶ୍ରେଣୀରେ ମୁଁ ଯଥାକ୍ରମେ ୪ ଟଙ୍କା ଓ ଦଶ ଟଙ୍କାର ଛାତ୍ରବୃତ୍ତି ପାଇଥୁଲି, ଏଭଳି ଏକ କୃତିତ୍ଵ ଯେଉଁଥ୍ପାଇଁ ମୁଁ ମୋର ମେଧା ଅପେକ୍ଷା ସୌଭାଗ୍ୟକୁ ଧନ୍ୟବାଦ ଦେବି ।

Para-2: My own recollection is that I did not have any high regard for my ability. I used to be astonished whenever I won prizes and scholarships. But / very jealously guarded my character. The least little blemish drew tears from my eyes. When I merited, or seemed to the teacher to merit a rebuke, it was unbearable for me. I remember having once received corporal punishment. I did not so much mind the punishment as the fact that it was considered my desert. I wept piteously. That was when I was in the first or second standard. There was another such incident during the time when I was in the seventh standard. Dorabji EduTfi Gimi was the headmaster then. He was popular among the boys, as he was a disciplinarian, a man of method and a good teacher. He made gymnastics and cricket compulsory for the boys of upper standard. I disliked both. I never took part in any exercise, cricket or football, before they were made compulsory. My shyness was one of the reasons for this aloofness, which I now see wrong. I had then the false notion that gymnastics had nothing to do with education. Today I know that physical training should have much place in the curriculum as mental training.
ଅନୁବାଦ : ମୋର ନିଜସ୍ଵ ସ୍ମୃତି ଏହା ଅଟେ ଯେ ମୋର ନିଜର ସାମର୍ଥ୍ୟ ଉପରେ କୌଣସି ବିଶେଷ ସମ୍ମାନ ନ ଥିଲା । ମୁଁ ଯେତେବେଳେ ପୁରସ୍କାର ଓ ଛାତ୍ରବୃରି ଜିତୁଥୁଲି ଆଶ୍ଚର୍ଯ୍ୟ ହୋଇ ପଡ଼ୁଥିଲି । କିନ୍ତୁ ମୁଁ ଅତି ସତର୍କତାର ସହିତ ମୋର ଚରିତ୍ର ପ୍ରତି ଯତ୍ନଶୀଳ ଥୁଲି । ଏପରିକି ସାମାନ୍ୟ ନୈତିକ ତ୍ରୁଟି ବା ଭୁଲ୍ ମୋ ଆସ୍‌ରେ ଲୁହ ଭରି ଦେଉଥିଲା । ମୁଁ ଯେତେବେଳେ କୌଣସି ଭୁଲ୍ ବା ତ୍ରୁଟିର ହର ଥୁଲି ବା ମୋତେ ଏକ ଗାଳି ଦେବା ଠିକ୍ ବୋଲି ଶିକ୍ଷକଙ୍କୁ ଲାଗୁଥୁଲା, ଏହା ମୋ ପାଇଁ ଅସହ୍ୟ ହୋଇ ପଡ଼ୁଥିଲା । ଥରେ (ଏକଦା) ଶାରୀରିକ ଦଣ୍ଡ ପାଇଥିବାର ମୋର ମନେ ପଡ଼ୁଛି । ମୁଁ ଏହି ଦଣ୍ଡକୁ ସେତେ ଗୁରୁତ୍ଵ ଦେଇନଥିଲି କାରଣ ପ୍ରକୃତରେ ଏହା ପ୍ରାପ୍ତ କରିବାର ମୁଁ ଯୋଗ୍ୟ ଥିଲି । ମୁଁ ବିକଳରେ କାନ୍ଦି ପକାଇଲି । ସେତେବେଳେ ମୁଁ ପ୍ରଥମ ବା ଦ୍ଵିତୀୟ ଶ୍ରେଣୀରେ ଥିଲି, ଏହା ଘଟିଥିଲା । ମୁଁ ସପ୍ତମ ଶ୍ରେଣୀରେ ଅଧ୍ୟୟନ କରୁଥିଲାବେଳେ ଅନ୍ୟ ଏକ ଘଟଣା ଘଟିଥିଲା । ସେତେବେଳେ ଦୋରାଜୀ ଇଦୁଜୀ ଜିମି ପ୍ରଧାନଶିକ୍ଷକ ଥିଲେ । ଜଣେ ଶୃଙ୍ଖଳାପ୍ରେମୀ, ନୀତିବାନ୍ ଏବଂ ଏକ ଉତ୍ତମ ଶିକ୍ଷକ ଥିବାରୁ ସେ ବାଳକମାନଙ୍କ ମଧ୍ୟରେ ପ୍ରସିଦ୍ଧ ଥିଲେ । ଉପର ଶ୍ରେଣୀର ବାଳକମାନଙ୍କ ପାଇଁ ସେ ଜିମ୍‌ନାଷ୍ଟିକ୍ ଓ କ୍ରିକେଟ୍‌କୁ ବାଧ୍ୟତାମୂଳକ କରିଥିଲେ । ମୁଁ ଉଭୟକୁ ନାପସନ୍ଦ କରୁଥିଲି । ଏ ଦୁଇଟି ବାଧ୍ୟତାମୂଳକ ହେବା ଯାଏ, ମୁଁ କ୍ରିକେଟ୍ କିମ୍ବା ଫୁଟବଲ ଭଳି କୌଣସି ଖେଳରେ ଅଂଶଗ୍ରହଣ କରୁନଥୁଲି । ଏଭଳି ଖେଳ ବା କ୍ରୀଡ଼ାରୁ ଦୂରେଇ ରହିବାର ଗୋଟିଏ କାରଣ ଥିଲା ମୋର ଲାଜକୁଳାପଣ, ଯାହାକୁ ମୁଁ ଏବେ ଭୁଲ୍ ବୋଲି ଭାବୁଛି । ମୋର ସେତେବେଳେ ଏକ ଭ୍ରାନ୍ତ ଧାରଣା ଥିଲା ଯେ ଜିମ୍‌ନାଷ୍ଟିକ୍‌ର ଶିକ୍ଷା ସହିତ କୌଣସି ସମ୍ପର୍କ ନାହିଁ । ଆଜି ମୁଁ ଜାଣୁଛି ଯେ ପାଠ୍ୟକ୍ରମରେ ମାନସିକ ଶିକ୍ଷା ଭଳି ଶାରୀରିକ ପ୍ରଶିକ୍ଷଣର ସମାନ ଗୁରୁତ୍ଵ ରହିବା ଉଚିତ ।

Para-3: The reason for my dislike was my keen desire to serve as nurse to my father. As soon as the school closed, I would hurry home and begin serving him. Compulsory exercise came directly in the way of this service. 1 requested Mr Gimi to exempt me from gymnastics so that I might be free to serve my father. But he would not listen to me. Now it happened that one Saturday, when we had school in the morning, I had to come from home to school for gymnastics at four o’ clock in the afternoon. I had no watch, and the cloud deceived me. Before I reached the school, the boys had all left. The next day Mr. Gimi examining the roll, found me marked absent. Being asked for the reason of absence, I told him what had happened. He refused to believe me and ordered me to pay a fine of one or two annas.
ଅନୁବାଦ : ବାପାଙ୍କର ଜଣେ ସେବକ ରୂପେ କାର୍ଯ୍ୟ କରିବାର ଆନ୍ତରିକ ଇଚ୍ଛା ମୋର ଖେଳ ବା କ୍ରୀଡ଼ା ପ୍ରତି ଅନିଚ୍ଛୁକତାର କାରଣ ଥିଲା । ବିଦ୍ୟାଳୟ ବନ୍ଦ ହେବାମାତ୍ରେ ମୁଁ ଶୀଘ୍ର ଘରକୁ ଯାଇ ତାଙ୍କର ସେବା ଆରମ୍ଭ କରିଦେଉଥ୍ଲି । ବାଧ୍ୟତାମୂଳକ ବ୍ୟାୟାମ ବା କ୍ରୀଡ଼ା ଏହି ସେବାରେ ପ୍ରତ୍ୟକ୍ଷ ପ୍ରତିବନ୍ଧକ ଭାବେ ମୋ ପାଇଁ ଉଭା ହେଲା । ବାପାଙ୍କୁ ସେବା କରିବାପାଇଁ ମୋତେ ଜିମ୍ନାଷ୍ଟିକ୍‌ସ୍‌ରୁ ମୁକ୍ତି ଦେବାପାଇଁ ମୁଁ ପ୍ରଧାନଶିକ୍ଷକ ଶ୍ରୀଯୁକ୍ତ ଜିମିଙ୍କୁ ଅନୁରୋଧ କଲି । କିନ୍ତୁ ସେ ମୋ ଅନୁରୋଧକୁ ପ୍ରତ୍ୟାଖ୍ୟାନ କରିଦେଲେ । ଦିନେ ଶନିବାର ଏଭଳି ଘଟିଲା ଯେ ସକାଳେ ଆମ୍ଭମାନଙ୍କର ବିଦ୍ୟାଳୟ କାର୍ଯ୍ୟକ୍ରମ ହୋଇ ଯାଇଥିଲା; ଅପରାହ୍ନ ୪ଟାରେ ଜିମ୍‌ନାଷ୍ଟିକ୍‌ସ୍‌ରେ ଯୋଗ ଦେବାପାଇଁ ମୋତେ ଘରୁ ବିଦ୍ୟାଳୟକୁ ଆସିବାର ଥିଲା । ମୋ ପାଖରେ ଘଣ୍ଟା ନ ଥିଲା ଏବଂ ଅକାଶରେ ଆଚ୍ଛାଦିତ ବାଦଲ ସତେ ଯେପରି ମୋତେ ଠକି ଦେଇଥିଲା । ବିଦ୍ୟାଳୟରେ ପହଞ୍ଚିବାବେଳକୁ ବାଳକମାନେ ଚାଲିଯାଇଥିଲେ । ପରବର୍ତ୍ତୀ ଦିନ ଛାତ୍ରମାନଙ୍କ ଉପସ୍ଥାନ ପରୀକ୍ଷା କରୁଥିଲାବେଳେ ମି. ଜିମି ମୋତେ ଜିମ୍‌ନାଷ୍ଟିକ୍‌ରେ ଅନୁପସ୍ଥିତ ଥ‌ିବାର ଦେଖିବାକୁ ପାଇଲେ । ଯାହା ଘଟିଥିଲା ମୁଁ ତାଙ୍କୁ କହିଲି । ହେଲେ ସେ ମୋ କଥା ବିଶ୍ଵାସ କଲେ ନାହିଁ ଓ ଏକ ବା ଦୁଇ ଅଣାର ଜରିମାନା ଦେବାକୁ ଆଦେଶ ଦେଲେ ।

Para-4: I was convicted of lying! That deeply pained me. How was I to prove my innocence? There was no way. / cried in deep anguish. I saw that a man of truth must also be a man of care. This was the first time and last instance of my carelessness in school. I had a faint recollection that I finally succeeded in getting the fine remitted. The exemption from exercise was of course obtained as my father wrote himself to the headmaster saying that he wanted me at home after school.
ଅନୁବାଦ : ମିଛ କହିବାରୁ ମୁଁ ଦଣ୍ଡିତ ହୋଇଥିଲି । ଏହା ମୋତେ ଗଭୀର ଭାବରେ ଯନ୍ତ୍ରଣା ଦେଇଥିଲା । ମୋର ନିରୀହତାକୁ କିଭଳି ପ୍ରମାଣିତ କରିବି ? ମୋ ପାଇଁ ଏହାର କୌଣସି ସମାଧାନ ନ ଥିଲା । ତୀବ୍ର ମାନସିକ ବିଷାଦରେ ମୁଁ କାନ୍ଦିଲି । ଏହି ଘଟଣାରୁ ମୋର ହୃଦ୍‌ବୋଧ ହେଲା ଯେ ଜଣେ ସଟ ବ୍ୟକ୍ତି ଜଣେ ଯତ୍ନଶୀଳ ବ୍ୟକ୍ତି ହେବା ଉଚିତ । ବିଦ୍ୟାଳୟରେ ମୋର ଯତ୍ନହୀନତାର ଏହା ପ୍ରଥମ ଓ ଶେଷ ଉଦାହରଣ ଥିଲା । ଅସ୍ପଷ୍ଟ ରୂପେ ମୋର ଯାହା ମନେପଡ଼ୁଥିଲା ଯେ ଶେଷରେ ଜରିମନା ଦେବାରୁ ମୁଁ ଛାଡ଼ ପାଇଥିଲି । ଅବଶ୍ୟ ବ୍ୟାୟାମରୁ ମୋତେ ଅବ୍ୟାହତି ପ୍ରାପ୍ତିର କାରଣ ଏହା ଥିଲା ଯେ ବିଦ୍ୟାଳୟ ପରେ ବାପା ମୋର ସେବା ଦରକାର କରୁଥିଲେ ବୋଲି ଲିଖ୍ ଭାବରେ ପ୍ରଧାନଶିକ୍ଷକଙ୍କୁ ଜଣାଇଥିଲେ ।

Para-5: But though I was none the worse for having neglected exercise, I am still paying the penalty of another neglect. I do not know whence I got the notion that good handwriting was not a necessary part of education, but I retained it until I went to England. When later, especially in South Africa, I saw the beautiful handwriting of lawyers and young men born and educated in South Africa, I was ashamed of myself and repented of my neglect. I saw that bad handwriting should be regarded as a sign of an imperfect education. I tried later to improve mine, but it was too late. I could never repair the neglect of my youth. Let every young man and woman be warned by my example, and understand that good handwriting is a necessary part of education. I am now of the opinion that children should first be taught the art of drawing before learning to write. Let the child learn his letters by observation as he does different objects, such as flowers, birds, etc. and let him learn to handwrite only after he has learnt to draw objects. He will then write a beautifully formed hand.
ଅନୁବାଦ : ଯଦିଓ ବ୍ୟାୟାମରେ ଅବହେଳା ପ୍ରଦର୍ଶନ ମୋ ପାଇଁ ସେତେ ଗୁରୁତର ନ ଥୁଲା, ତଥାପି ମୁଁ ଏବେ ବି ଆଉ ଏକ ଅବହେଳାର ଶାସ୍ତି ପାଉଛି । ମୁଁ ଜାଣିପାରୁନି କେତେବେଳେ ମୋଠାରେ ଏଭଳି ଧାରଣା ସୃଷ୍ଟି ହେଲା ଯେ ସୁନ୍ଦର ହସ୍ତାକ୍ଷର ଶିକ୍ଷାର ଏକ ଆବଶ୍ୟକୀୟ ଅଙ୍ଗ ନୁହେଁ, ଇଂଲଣ୍ଡକୁ ଯିବା ପର୍ଯ୍ୟନ୍ତ ମୋର ଏହି ଧାରଣା ବଳବତ୍ତର ରହିଥିଲା । ପରେ ଦକ୍ଷିଣ ଆଫ୍ରିକାରେ ଜନ୍ମଗ୍ରହଣ କରି ଶିକ୍ଷାପ୍ରାପ୍ତ ହୋଇଥିବା ଓକିଲ ଓ ଯୁବକମାନଙ୍କର ସୁନ୍ଦର ହସ୍ତାକ୍ଷର ମୁଁ ଦେଖିଲି । ମୁଁ ନିଜକୁ ଲଜ୍ଜିତ ମନେକଲି ଓ ମୋର ଅବହେଳା ନିମନ୍ତେ ଅନୁତାପ କଲି । ମୁଁ ବୁଝିଲି ଯେ ଅସୁନ୍ଦର ହସ୍ତାକ୍ଷରକୁ ଅସମ୍ପୂର୍ଣ୍ଣ ଶିକ୍ଷାର ଏକ ଲକ୍ଷଣ ବୋଲି ମନେ କରାଯିବା ଉଚିତ । ପରେ ମୁଁ ମୋ ହସ୍ତାକ୍ଷରରେ ଉନ୍ନତି ଆଣିବାକୁ ଚେଷ୍ଟା କରିଥୁଲି ମାତ୍ର କରିଥିବା ଅବହେଳାର ଭରଣା କରିପାରିଲି ନାହିଁ । ମୋ ଉଦାହରଣରୁ ପ୍ରତ୍ୟେକ ପୁରୁଷ ଓ ନାରୀ ସତର୍କ ହୋଇଯାଆନ୍ତୁ ଏବଂ ହୃଦୟଙ୍ଗମ କରନ୍ତୁ ଯେ ସୁନ୍ଦର ହସ୍ତାକ୍ଷର ଶିକ୍ଷାର ଏକ ଆବଶ୍ୟକୀୟ ଅଂଶ । ଏବେ ମୋର ମତ ହେଉଛି ଯେ ଲେଖା ଶିଖୁବା ପୂର୍ବରୁ ପିଲାମାନଙ୍କୁ ପ୍ରଥମେ ଚିତ୍ରକଳା ଶିକ୍ଷା ପ୍ରଦାନ କରାଯିବା ଉଚିତ । ପିଲା ଫୁଲ, ପକ୍ଷୀ ଭଳି ପଦାର୍ଥକୁ ଅଙ୍କନ କରୁଥିବା ଭଳି ତାକୁ ନିରୀକ୍ଷଣ ମାଧମରେ ଅକ୍ଷର ଶିକ୍ଷା କଳା ଶିଖାଯାଉ ଏବଂ ପଦାର୍ଥଗୁଡ଼ିକୁ ଅଙ୍କନ କରିବା କଳା ଶିଖ୍ ପରେ ତା’କୁ ହସ୍ତାକ୍ଷର ଶିକ୍ଷା ଦିଆଯାଉ । ତା’ପରେ ସେ ଏକ ସୁନ୍ଦର ହାତଲେଖା କରିପାରିବ ।

Para-6: Sanskrit, however, proved a harder task. In geometry, there was nothing to memorize, whereas in Sanskrit, I thought, everything had to be learnt by heart. This subject was also commenced from the fourth standard. As soon as I entered the six, I became disheartened. The teacher was a hard taskmaster, anxious, as I thought, to force the boys. There was a sort of rivalry going on between the Sanskrit and the Persian teachers. The Persian teacher was lenient. The boys used to talk among themselves that Persian was very easy and the Persian teacher, was very good and considerate to the students. The ‘easiness’ tempted me and one day I sat in the Persian class. The Sanskrit teacher was grieved. He called me to his side and said: How can you forget that you are the son of a Vaishnava father? Won’t you learn the language of your own religion? If you have any difficulty, why not come to me? I want to teach you students Sanskrit to the best of my ability. As you proceed further, you will find in it things of absorbing interest. You should not lose heart. Come and sit again in the Sanskrit class.
ଅନୁବାଦ : ସଂସ୍କୃତ ମୋ ପାଇଁ ଏକ କଷ୍ଟକର ବିଷୟ ଥିଲା । ଜ୍ୟାମିତିରେ ମନେ ରଖୁ ବା ମୁଖସ୍ଥ କରିବା ଭଳି କିଛି ନ ଥିଲା, କିନ୍ତୁ ସଂସ୍କୃତରେ ସବୁକିଛି ମୁଖସ୍ଥ କରିବାକୁ ପଡ଼ୁଥିଲା ବୋଲି ମୁଁ ମନେ କରୁଥୁଲି । ଏହି ବିଷୟ ମଧ୍ଯ ଚତୁର୍ଥ ଶ୍ରେଣୀରୁ ଆରମ୍ଭ ହୋଇଯାଉଥିଲା । ଷଷ୍ଠ ଶ୍ରେଣୀରେ ପ୍ରବେଶ କରିବା ମାତ୍ରେ ମୁଁ ହତୋତ୍ସାହିତ ହୋଇପଡ଼ିଲି । ମୁଁ ଯାହା ମନେ କରୁଥୁଲି ସଂସ୍କୃତ ଶିକ୍ଷକ ପାଠ ଦେବାରେ ଜଣେ କଠୋର ଶିକ୍ଷକ ଥିଲେ ଓ ସଂସ୍କୃତ ନେବା ପାଇଁ ବାଳକମାନଙ୍କୁ ବାଧ୍ୟ କରୁଥିଲେ । ସଂସ୍କୃତ ଶିକ୍ଷକ ଓ ପାର୍ସୀ ଶିକ୍ଷକଙ୍କ ମଧ୍ୟରେ ଏକପ୍ରକାର ପ୍ରତିଯୋଗିତା ବା ଶତ୍ରୁତା ଚାଲିଥିଲା । ପର୍ସିଆନ ଶିକ୍ଷକ ଉଦାର ଥିଲେ । ବାଳକମାନେ ନିଜ ନିଜ ଭିତରେ କଥା ହେଉଥିଲେ ଯେ ପର୍ସିଆନ୍ ବା ପାର୍ସୀ ବିଷୟ ବହୁତ ସହଜ ଓ ପର୍ସିଆନ୍ ଶିକ୍ଷକ ଛାତ୍ରମାନଙ୍କ ପ୍ରତି ଅତି ଉତ୍ତମ ଓ ବିଚାରଶୀଳ ଥିଲେ । ପର୍ସିଆନ୍ ବିଷୟର ସରଳତା ମୋତେ ଆକର୍ଷିତ କଲା ଓ ଦିନେ ମୁଁ ଯାଇ ପର୍ସିଆନ୍ ଶ୍ରେଣୀରେ ବସିପଡ଼ିଲି । ଏହା ଦେଖ୍ ସଂସ୍କୃତ ଶିକ୍ଷକ ଦୁଃଖ ହୋଇଗଲେ । ସେ ତାଙ୍କ ନିକଟକୁ ମୋତେ ଡାକିଲେ ଓ କହିଲେ, ‘‘ତୁ କେମିତି ଭୁଲିଯାଉଛୁ ଯେ ତୁ ଜଣେ ବୈଷ୍ଣବ ପିତାର ପୁତ୍ର ? ତୁ କ’ଣ ତୋ ଧର୍ମର ଭାଷା ଶିଖୁ ନାହିଁ ? ତୋର ଯଦି କିଛି ଅସୁବିଧା ଅଛି, ମୋ ପାଖକୁ ଆସୁନାହୁଁ କାହିଁକି ? ମୁଁ ତୁମଭଳି ଛାତ୍ରମାନଙ୍କୁ ମୋର ଦକ୍ଷତା ଅନୁସାରେ ସଂସ୍କୃତ ଶିକ୍ଷା ଦେବି । ଆଗକୁ ଗଲେ ତୋତେ ସଂସ୍କୃତ ଖୁବ୍ ଆନନ୍ଦଦାୟକ ମନେହେବ । ନିରୁତ୍ସାହିତ ହୁଅ ନାହିଁ । ସଂସ୍କୃତ ଶ୍ରେଣୀରେ ପୁଣି ଆସି ବସ !’’

Para-7: This kindness put me to shame. I could not disregard my teacher’s affection. Today I cannot but thank with gratitude of Krishnashankar Pandya. For if I had not acquired the little Sanskrit that I learnt then, I should have found it difficult to take any interest in our sacred books. In fact I deeply regret that I was not able to acquire a more thorough knowledge of the language.
ଅନୁବାଦ : ସଂସ୍କୃତ ଶିକ୍ଷକଙ୍କ ଏଭଳି ଦୟାଶୀଳତାରେ ମୁଁ ନିଜକୁ ଲଜ୍ଜିତ ମନେକଲି । ମୁଁ ମୋ ଶିକ୍ଷକଙ୍କର ସ୍ନେହକୁ ଅସମ୍ମାନିତ କରିପାରିଲି ନାହିଁ । ଆଜି ମୁଁ ମୋର ସଂସ୍କୃତ ଶିକ୍ଷକ କ୍ରିଷ୍ଣଶଙ୍କର ପାଶ୍ୟାଙ୍କ ପ୍ରତି କୃତଜ୍ଞତା ପ୍ରକାଶ ନ କରି ରହିପାରୁ ନାହିଁ । ସେତେବେଳେ ମୁଁ ଯଦି ସାମାନ୍ୟ ସଂସ୍କୃତ ଜ୍ଞାନ ଲାଭ କରିନଥା’ନ୍ତି, ମୁଁ ତା’ହେଲେ ଆମ୍ଭମାନଙ୍କର ପବିତ୍ର ଗ୍ରନ୍ଥ ପ୍ରତି ଉତ୍ସାହ ଦେଖାଇବାରେ କଷ୍ଟ ମନେ କରିଥା’ନ୍ତି । ପ୍ରକୃତରେ ମୋତେ ଗଭୀର ଦୁଃଖର ସହ କହିବାକୁ ପଡ଼ୁଛି ଯେ ସଂସ୍କୃତ ଭାଷାରେ ଅଧିକ ଜ୍ଞାନ ଲାଭ ପାଇପାରିଲି ନାହିଁ ।

About The Author:
As you all know, Mahatma Gandhi (born in 1869) was one of the tallest leaders in the world. He was the greatest leader of our independence movement (ସ୍ୱାଧୀନତା ଆନ୍ଦୋଳନ). He is popularly called the Father of the Nation. But before he became the Mahatma (Great Soul) in his later life, Gandhi received his early education at Rajkot English School in Rajkot in the state of Gujarat. Later it became a full-fledged (ସମ୍ପୁର୍ଣ୍ଣ) High School and came to be known as Rajkot High School. Gandhi matriculated from this school in 1887 at the age of 18. After independence in 1947, the school was renamed the “Mohandas Gandhi High School” in honor of the Father of the Nation.

Meaning /Glossary:
wasn’t regarded — wasn’t considered (ବିବେଚନା କରାଯାଇନଥିଲା )
affection — adorátion (ସ୍ନେହ)
His affection overwhelmed (ଅତିଷ୍ କରିଦେଲା) me.
obtained — acquired or got (ପ୍ରାପ୍ତ ବା ପ୍ରାପ୍ତ)
The girl obtained (ପ୍ରାପ୍ତ) the first prize in the debate.
achievement— act of getting success (କୃତିତ୍ଵ ବା ସଫଳତା)
India had made several (a lot of) achievements in science.
merit — talent (ପ୍ରତିଭା)
I won the prize on my merit.
recollection — the memory of the past or what is remembered (ମରଣ)
He is in deep recollection.
astonished — surprised very much (ଆଶ୍ଚର୍ଯ୍ୟାନ୍ବିତ ହେଲି)
blemish — moral defect (ନୈତିକ ଦୋଷ)
jealously — very carefully / being afraid of losing something
Mohit jealously controlled his loose tongue (rebuke – ଗାଳି ବା ଅଶାଳୀନ ଭାଷା).
corporal punishment — punishment by beating (ଶାରୀରିକ ଦଣ୍ଡ)
desert — thing one deserves to get (ହକ୍ ବା ପ୍ରାପ୍ତଯୋଗ୍ୟ ବସ୍ତୁ)
Getting punishment for the wrong done by me is my desert.
wept — sobbed (କଇଁ କଇଁ ହୋଇ କାନ୍ଦିଲି )
piteously — painfully (କରୁଣ ଭାବରେ)
disciplinarian — one who is very strict in maintaining rules and forces others to obey them
(କଠୋର ଶୃଙ୍ଖଳିତ ବ୍ୟକ୍ତି)
Our headmaster is a disciplinarian.
curriculum — course of study (ପାଠ୍ୟକ୍ରମ)
took part — participated (ଅଂଶଗ୍ରହଣ କରିଥିଲେ )
I took part in school sports.
shyness — reticence, the act of using a very few words
She is girl of shyness. (ଲୋ ଏକ ଲାଜକୁଳୀ ଝିଅ ।)
aloofness — isolation / act of staying away from something (ଦୂରେଇ ରହିବା ପ୍ରକ୍ରିୟା)
Aloofness from public contact is the best prevention of Coronavirus.
false notion — false idea (ଭ୍ରାନ୍ତ ଧାରଣା)
incident — happening/event (ଘଟଣା)
Life is full of incidents.
rebuke — scold or reproof (ଗାଳି)
Don’t take your mother’s rebuke to heart. (ମା’ଙ୍କର ଗାଳିକୁ ହୃଦୟରେ ଧର ନାହିଁ ।)
least — bare minimum or trivial (ତୁଚ୍ଛ ବା ସାମାନ୍ୟ)
Even the least offence (ସାମାନ୍ୟ ପାପ) draws tears from my eyes.
merited — deserved (ଦରକାର କରୁଥୁଲି) (ନିନ୍ଦା ବା ପ୍ରଶଂସା)
I merited a prize for my brilliant performance in the play (ନାଟକରେ ).
gymnastics — exercises to develop muscles or display agility (ମାଂସପେଶୀର ବିକାଶ ବା କ୍ଷିପ୍ର ତାର ପ୍ରଦର୍ଶନ ନି ମିତ୍ତ ବ୍ୟାୟାମ )
dislike — hatred (ଘୃଣା ବା ଅନିଚ୍ଛା)
as soon as — immediately after (ପରେ)
As soon as the bell rang (ବେଲ୍‌ ବାଜିବା ମାତ୍ରେ), the pupils came out of their classes.
would hurry home — went home hurriedly or quickly(ଘରକୁ ଶୀଘ୍ର ଚାଲିଯାଉଥ୍ଲି )
to exempt me —to free me (ମୋତେ ବିରତରଖି ବାପାଇଁ ବା କ୍ଷାନ୍ତ ବା ମୁକ୍ତି କରିବା ପାଇଁ) (କ୍ରୀଡ଼ା, ପରୀକ୍ଷା ଆଦିରୁ)
He requested the P.E.T. (Physical Education Teacher) to exempt him from the school sports.
being asked — as asked (ପଚରାଯିବାରୁ)
was convicted — was punished (ଦଣ୍ଡିତ ହେଲା)
lying — telling lies (ମିଛ କଥା | ମିଛ କଥା କହିବାରୁ)
innocence (N) — faultless (ନିରୀହତା)
Geeta is a girl of innocence. (ଗୀତା ଜଣେ ନିରୀହ ଝିଅ ।)
He cou1dn’t prove his innocence.(ସେ ନିଜର ନିରୀହତା ପ୍ରମାଣିତ କରିପାରଲା ନାହିଁ ।)
refused — didn’t approve (ଅନୁମୋଦନ କରିନାହାଁନ୍ତି)
Father refused to believe me.
indeepanguish— in profound gloom (ଗଭୀର ମାନସିକ ଯନ୍ତ୍ରଣାରେ)
instance — example (ଉଦାହରଣ)
carelessness — act of being without care /negligence (ଅବହେଳା ବା ଯତ୍ନହୀନତା)
Carelessness causes lots of accidents.
none the worse — not to be affected by (ଅପ୍ରଭାବିତ ବା ଅସମ୍ବେଦନଶୀଳ)
am still paying the penalty — am still suffering (ଏବେ ବି ଦଣ୍ଡ ବା ଦୁଃଖ ଭୋଗୁଛି
retained — upheld (ବଜାୟ ରଖୁଥୁଲି)
Pratap Jena, the Honourable M.L.A. of Mahanga retained his seat.
could never repair the neglect — could never make up the loss (କ୍ଷତିକୁ ଆଦୌ ଭରଣା କରିପାରିଲି ନାହିଁ )
of the opinion — in the view of (ମତରେ)
Shakti is of the opinion that he is the best athlete (କ୍ରୀଡ଼ାବିତ୍).
repented — felt atoned (ଅନୁତପ୍ତ ହେଲି)
I repented of my carelessness in riding the bike.
beautifully formed hand — good handwriting (ସୁନ୍ଦ ର ହସ୍ତାକ୍ଷର)
especially — particularly (ବିଶେଷ ଭାବରେ)
was commenced — started or began ( ଆରମ୍ଭ ହୋଇଥିଲା)
The game was commenced after a short rainfall.
harder task — difficult or tough lesson (କଷ୍ଟ ପାଠ)
had to be learnt by heart — had to be crammed (କୁଣ୍ଢାଇ ଦେବାକୁ ପଡ଼ିଥିଲା)
to improve — to do better (ଭଲ କରିବା ପାଇଁ)
became disheartened— lost courage or interest (ଆଗ୍ରହ ହରାଇଲି)
He became disheartened to see his marks.
rivalry — competition (ପ୍ରତିଯୋଗିତା)
Presently there is a rivalry between India and Pakistan.
leniern — liberal or soft (ଉଦାରବାଦୀ କିମ୍ବା ନରମ |)
Father is lenient.
considerate — one who considers the problems of others (ବିଚାରଶୀଳ)
A considerate person can help you out.
absorbing — deep or profound (ଗଭୀର କିମ୍ବା ଗଭୀର)
I read the letter with absorbing interest.
sacred — holy (ପବିତ୍ର)
Lord Jagannath is great for the sacred Hindus.
The Quran is a sacred epic (ପବିତ୍ର ମହାକାବ୍ୟ)
exemption — liberty or act of freeing (ଛାଡ଼)
I requested the headmaster for the exemption of fine.
to be best of my ability — best per my potential (ମୋର ଦକ୍ଷତା)
faint — unclear or hazy (ଅସ୍ପଷ୍ଟ ବା ମଳିନ)
I have a fruit idea of the travel.
remitted — exempted (ମୁକ୍ତ)
Finally he succeeded (ସଫଳ ହେଲା |) in getting his late fine remitted.
grieved — deeply hurt (ଗଭୀର ଆଘାତ)
Are you grieved now?
tempted — enticed/attracted (ପ୍ରଲୋଭିତ / ଆକର୍ଷିତ )
The sight of the valley tempted me.
infact — really (ପ୍ରକୃତରେ)
In fact you are my best friend.
regret — feel sad (ଦୁଃଖ ଅନୁଭବ କରିବା)
I deeply regret your loss.
to acquire — to get (ପାଇବା ପାଇଁ)

BSE Odisha 10th Class English Detailed Text

• Chapter 1 All Things Bright and Beautiful
• Chapter 2 A letter to God
• Chapter 3 The Solitary Reaper
• Chapter 4 At the High School
• Chapter 5 Village Song
• Chapter 6 Festivals of North-East India
• Chapter 7 The Flower-School
• Chapter 8 Air Pollution: A Hidden Menace
• Chapter 9 From the Formalin Jar
• Chapter 10 School’s Goodbye

Odisha State Board CHSE Odisha Class 11 Math Solutions Chapter 3 Relations And Functions Ex 3(c) Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

CHSE Odisha Class 11 Math Solutions Chapter 3 Relations And Functions Exercise 3(c)

Question 1.
Give an example of a relation that is not a function.
Solution:
Let the relation ‘f’ be defined from
A = {1, 2, 3} to B = {1, 2} as
f = {(1, 1), (1, 2), (2, 1), (3, 2)}
f is not a function because f (1) = 1,
f(1) = 2 but 1 ± 2 i.e. f is one many.

Question 2.
If X and Y are sets containing m and n elements respectively then what is the total number of functions from X to Y?
Solution:
If |X| = m and |Y| = n then the number of functions from X to Y = |Y|^|X| = n^m

Question 3.
Find the domain of the following functions:
(i)\( \sqrt{9-x^2}\)
Solution:
y = f(x) = \(\sqrt{9-x^2}\)
Clearly, f(x) is well-defined for 9 – x² ≥ 0 ⇒ x² ≤ 3² ⇒ – 3 ≤ x ≤ 3
∴ dom f = [ – 3, 3]

(ii) \(\frac{x}{1+x}\)
Solution:
y = f(x) = \(\frac{x}{1+x}\)
f(x) is well defined for all x ∈ R
∴ dom f = R

(iii) 1 – |x|
Solution:
y = f(x) = 1 – |x|
f(x) is well defined for all x ∈ R
∴ dom f = R

(iv) \(\frac{1}{x^2-1}\)
Solution:
y = f(x) = \(\frac{1}{x^2-1}\)
f(x) is well defined for x² – 1 ≠ 0
⇒ x² ≠ 1
⇒ x² ≠ ± 1
∴ dom f = R – { -1, 1}

(v) \(\frac{\sin x}{1+\tan x}\)
Solution:
y – f(x) = \(\frac{\sin x}{1+\tan x}\)
f(x) is well defined for 1 + tan x
≠ 0
⇒ tan x ≠ – 1
⇒ x ≠ n π + \(\frac{3 \pi}{4}\)
∴ dom f = R – {n π + \(\frac{3 \pi}{4}\)}

(vi) \(\frac{x}{|x|}\)
Solution:
y = f(x) = \(\frac{x}{|x|}\)
f(x) is well defined for |x| ≠ 0
⇒ x ≠ 0
∴ dom f = R – {0}

(vii) \(\frac{1}{x+|x|}\)
Solution:
y = f(x) = \(\frac{1}{x+|x|}\)
f(x) is well-defined for
x + |x| ≠ 0
⇒ |x| ≠ – x
⇒ x is not negative
⇒ dom f = [0, – ∞)

(viii) \(\sqrt{\log \left(\frac{12}{x^2-x}\right)}\)
Solution:
y = f(x) = \(\sqrt{\log \left(\frac{12}{x^2-x}\right)}\)
f(x) is well defined for \(\frac{12}{x^2-x}\) ≥ 1
⇒ 12 ≥ x² – x
⇒ x² – x – 12 ≤ 0
⇒ (x – 4) (x + 3) ≤ 0
Let us draw the signing scheme

⇒ x ∈ [ – 3, 4]
∴ dom f =[-3, 4]

(ix) [x] – x
Solution:
y = f(x) = [x] – x
f(x) is well defined for all x ∈ R
∴ dom f = R

(x) \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{1-x^2}}\)
Solution:
y = f(x) = \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{1-x^2}}\)
f(x) is well defined for 1 – x² > 0
⇒ x² < 1 ⇒ – 1 < x < 1
∴ dom f = (-1, 1)

(xi) log (sin x)
Solution:
y = f(x) = log (sin x)
fix) is well-defined for sin x > 0
⇒ x ∈ (2nπ , (2n + l)π), n ∈ Z

Question 4.
Find the range of the following functions:
(i) \(\frac{x^2-1}{x^2+1}\)
Solution:
Let y = f(x) = \(\frac{x^2-1}{x^2+1}\)
⇒ x² – y + y = x² – 1
⇒  x²y – x² = – (1 + y)
⇒ x² (y- 1)=-(1 + y)
⇒ x² = \(\frac{\ – (1+y)}{y-1}=\frac{1+y}{1-y}\)
⇒ x = ± \(\sqrt{\frac{1+y}{1-y}}\)
Now x is well-defined for
\(\frac{1+y}{1-y}\) ≥ 0

∴ rng f = [-1,1)

(ii) \(\sqrt{x-1}\)
Solution:
y = f(x) = \(\sqrt{x-1}\)
⇒ y² = x- 1
⇒ x = y² + 1
x is well difierid for all y ∈ R but
y ≥ 0
∴ rng f = [0, ∞]

(iii) [x] – x
Solution:
y = f(x) = [x], – x
We have [x] ≤ x < [ x] + 1
⇒ 0 ≤ x – [x] < 1
⇒ 0 ≥ [x] – x > – 1
⇒ -1 < [x] – x ≤ 0
⇒ -1 < y ≤ 0
⇒ rng f = ( – 1 , 0]

(iv) \(\frac{x}{1-x}\)
Solution:
y = f(x) = \(\frac{x}{1-x}\)
⇒ y – xy = x
⇒ xy + x = y
⇒ x (y + 1) = y
⇒ x = \(\frac{y}{y+1}\)
x is well defined for y ≠ – 1
∴ Rng f = R – {- 1}

(v) \(\frac{x}{1+x^2}\)
Solution:
y = f(x) = \(\frac{x}{1+x^2}\)
⇒ y + x²y = x
⇒ x²y – x + y = 0
⇒ x = \(\frac{1 \pm \sqrt{1-4 y^2}}{2 y}\)
x is well defined for 1 – 4y² ≥ 0 and y ≠ 0
⇒ y² ≤ \(\frac{1}{4}\) and y ≠ 0
⇒ – \(\frac{1}{2}\) ≤ y ≤ \(\frac{1}{2}\) and y ≠ 0
but for x = 0 we have y = 0
∴ rng f = \(\left[-\frac{1}{2}, \frac{1}{2}\right]\)

(vi) \(\frac{1}{2-\cos 3 x}\)
Solution:
y = f(x) = \(\frac{1}{2-\cos 3 x}\)
we have – 1 ≤ cos 3x ≤ 1
⇒ 1 ≥ – cos 3x ≥ -1
⇒ – 1 ≤- cos 3x ≤ 1
⇒ 2 – 1 < 2 – cos 3x ≤ 3
⇒ 1 ≤ 2 – cos 3x ≤ 3
⇒ 1 ≥ \(\frac{1}{2-\cos 3 x} \geq \frac{1}{3}\)
⇒ \(\frac{1}{3}\) ≤ y ≤ 1
∴ rng f =[\(\frac{1}{3}\), 1]

(vii) log ₁₀ (1 – x)
Solution:
y = f(x) = log₁₀ (1 – x)
Clearly y ∈ R
∴ rng f = R

(viii) \(\sqrt{1+x^2}\)
Solution:
y = f(x) = \(\sqrt{1+x^2}\)
⇒ y² = 1 + x²
⇒  x² = y² – 1
⇒ x = ± \(\sqrt{y^2-1}\)
x is well defined for y² – 1 ≥ 0
⇒ y² ≥ 1
⇒ – 1 ≥ y ≥ 1
But y > 0
∴ rng f = [1, ∞)

Question 5.
Find the domain and range of the following functions:
(i) \(\frac{x^2}{1+x^2}\)
Solution:
y = f(x) = \(\frac{x^2}{1+x^2}\)
Domain:
f(x) is well defined for all x ∈ R
∴ dom f = R
Range (Method – 1):
y = \(\frac{x^2}{1+x^2}\)
⇒ y + yx² = x²
⇒ x² – yx² = y
⇒ x² (1 – y) = y
⇒ x² = \(\frac{y}{1-y}\)
⇒ x = ± \(\sqrt{\frac{y}{1-y}}\)
x is well-defined for \(\frac{y}{1-y}\) ≥ 0

⇒ y 6 [0. 1)
∴ Rng f = [0,1)
Method – 2:
0 ≤ x² < x² + 1
⇒ 0 ≤ \(\frac{x^2}{x^2+1}\) < 1
⇒ 0 ≤ y ≤ 1
∴ rng f = [0, 1)

(ii) \(\sqrt{2 x-3}\)
Solution:
y = f(x) = \(\sqrt{2 x-3}\)
Domain:
f(x) is well defined for 2x- 3 ≥ 0
⇒ x ≥ 3/2
∴ dom f =[\(\frac{3}{2}\), ∞]
Range:
y = \(\sqrt{2 x-3}\) ⇒ y² = 2x – 3
⇒ 2x = y² + 3
⇒ x = \(\frac{y^2+3}{2}\)
x is well defined for all y ∈ R
But y is not negative.
∴ Rng f = [0, ∞)

(iii) log_e |x – 2|
Solution:
y = f(x) = log |x – 2|
Domain:
f(x) is well defined for |x – 2| >0
⇒ x ≠ 2
∴ dom f = R – {2}
Range:
y = log |x – 2| ∈ R ⇒ rng f = R

Question 6.
Give an example of a step function on [- 1, 3] = {x ∈ R| – 1 ≤ x ≤ 3}.
Solution:
f(x) = \(\left\{\begin{array}{c}
-1,-1 \leq x<0 \\
0,0 \leq x<1 \\
1,1 \leq x<2 \\
2,2 \leq x<3 \\
3,3 \leq x<4
\end{array}\right\}\)

Question 7.
Let X ={ a, b, c}, Y = {1, 2, 3, 4}
(a) Find out which of the following relations are functions and which are not and why?
Solution:
X = [a, b, c}, Y = {1, 2, 3, 4}
(i) {(a, 1), (a, 2), (b, 3), (b, 4)}
Solution:
{(a, 1), (a, 2), (b, 3), (b, 4)} is not a function as ‘a’ has two images in Y.

(ii) {(a, 2), (b, 3), (c, 4)}
Solution:
{(a, 2), (b, 3), (c, 4)} is a function from X to Y as the elements of X has unique images in Y.

(iii) {(a, 3), (b, 1), (a, 4), (c, 2)}
Solution:
{(a, 3), (b, 1), (a, 4), (c, 2)} is not a function as ‘a’ and ‘b’ have two images also domain of the function ≠ X.

(iv) {(a, 1), (b, 1), (c, 1)}
Solution:
{(a, 1), (b, 1), (c, 1)} is a function from X to Y.

(v) {(a, 2), (b. 1), (c, 1)}
Solution:
{(a, 2), (b, 1), (c, 1)} is a function from X to Y.

(vi) {(a, a), (b, b), (c, c)}
Solution:
{(a, a), (b, b), (c, c)} is a function from X to X.

(b) Find the domain and range of those relations in a which are functions.
Solution:
(i) The domain of each function is
X = [a, b, c}
Range of functions

(ii) is {2, 3, 4}.
In (iv) is {1} and in (v) is {1, 2}. The range of function in (vi) is X.

(c) Identify the constant function if any.
Solution:
The function in (iv)
i.e. {(a, 1), ib, 1), (c, 1)} is a constant function.

(d) Identify the identity function if any.
Solution:
The function in (vi)
i.e.{(a, a), (b, b), (c, c)} is an identity function.

Question 8.
Find \(f(\sqrt{2})\) and \(\boldsymbol{f}(-\sqrt{3})\) for the function
\(f(x)=\left\{\begin{array}{l}
x^2, \text { if } x<0 \\
x, \text { if } 0 \leq x \leq 1 \\
\frac{1}{x}, \text { if } x>1
\end{array}\right.\)
Solution:
\(f(\sqrt{2})\) = \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\)
\(\boldsymbol{f}(-\sqrt{3})\) = (√3)² = 3

Question 9.
Find x for which the value of f(x) = x² – 4x + 3 is
Solution:
f(x) = x² – 4x + 3
(i) 0
Solution:
f(x) = 0
⇒ x² – 4x + 3 = 0
⇒ (x – 3) (x – 1) = 0
⇒ x =1, 3

(ii) – 1
Solution:
f(x) = – 1
⇒ x² – 4x + 3 = -1
⇒ x² – 4x + 4 = 0
⇒ (x – 2)² = 0
⇒ x = 2

Question 10.
Find the values of x for which the following functions are not defined:
(i) \(\frac{x^2-4}{x-2}\)
Solution:
y = f(x) = \( \frac{x^2-4}{x-2}\)
Clearly f(x) is not defined for x = 2

(ii) \(\frac{\sin x}{x}\)
Solution:
y = f(x) = \(\frac{\sin x}{x}\)
f(x) is not defined for x = 0

(iii) \(\frac{\log \cos x}{\sec x}\)
Solution:
y = f(x) = \(\frac{\log \cos x}{\sec x}\)
f(x) is not defined for cos x ≤ 0
⇒ for x ∈ x \(\left[\frac{\pi}{2}, \frac{3 \pi}{2}\right]\) or \(\left[\frac{5 \pi}{2}, \frac{7 \pi}{2}\right]\)
In general x ∈ \(\left[(4 n+1) \frac{\pi}{2},(4 n+3) \frac{\pi}{2}\right]\), n ∈ Z

Question 11.
Let f(x) = \(\sqrt{1+x}\), g(x) = \(\sqrt{1-x}\)
Find & Also, find the domain in each case.
Solution:
f(x) = \(\sqrt{1+x}\), g(x) = \(\sqrt{1-x}\)
f(x) is well defined for x + 1 ≥ 0
⇒ x ≥ – 1
∴ dom f = [- 1 , ∞) = D₁
g(x) is well defined for 1 – x ≥ 0
⇒ x ≤ 1
⇒ x ∈ (-∞, 1]
∴ dom g (-∞, 1] = D₂
∴ D₁ ∩ D₂ = [-1, 1]
(i) f + g
Solution:
f + g: [-1, 1] → R
defined as (f + g) (x)
= f(x) + g(x) = \(\sqrt{1-x}\) + \(\sqrt{1-x}\)

(ii) f – g
Solution:
f – g :[-1, 1] → R defined as
(f – g) (x) = \(\sqrt{1-x}\) – \(\sqrt{1-x}\)

(iii) fg
Solution:
fg : [ – 1, 1] → R defined as
(fg) (x) > f(x) g(x)
\(\sqrt{1-x}\)\(\sqrt{1-x}\) = \(\sqrt{1-x^2}\)

(iv) f/g
Solution:
f/g : [- 1,1) → R defined as
\(\left(\frac{f}{g}\right)\)(x) = \(\frac{f(x)}{g(x)}=\frac{\sqrt{1+x}}{\sqrt{1-x}}\)
for (i) to (iii) domain = [- 1, 1]
but for (iv) domain = [- 1, 1)

Question 12.
If(x) = log_e \(\left(\frac{1-x}{1+x}\right)\), then prove that f(x) + f(y) = \(\left(\frac{x+y}{1+x y}\right)\)
Solution:
f(x) = log\(\left(\frac{1-x}{1+x}\right)\)
f(x) + f(y) = log\(\left(\frac{1-x}{1+x}\right)\) + \(\left(\frac{1-y}{1+y}\right)\)

Question 13.
Let f = {(-1, 4), (2, 7), (-2, 11}. (0,1), (1, 2) be a quadratic polynomial from Z to Z, find f(x).
Solution:
Let f(x) = ax² + by² + C is the quadratic polynomial
f(-1) = 4 ⇒ a – b + c = 4    …..(1)
f(0) = 1⇒ c = 1                   ….(2)
f(1) = 2 ⇒ a + + c = 2        ….(3)
∴ a – b + 1 = 4 and a + b + 1 = 2
⇒ a – b = 3 and a + b = 1
⇒ a = 2, b = -1
f(x) = 2x² – x + 1
f(2) = 8 – 2 + 1 = 7
f(- 2) = 8 + 2 + 1 = 1 1
Thus the required function is f(x) = 2x² – x + 1

Question 14.
Sketch the graphs of the following functions.
(i) f(x) = x³
(ii) f(x) = 1 + \(\frac{1}{x^2}\)
(iii) f(x) = (x-1)²
Solution:
(i) f(x) = x³

x	0	1	2	– 1	-2	3
y	1	1	8	-1	-8	27

(ii) f(x) = 1 + \(\frac{1}{x^2}\)

x	1	-1	2	– 2	3	-3
y	2	2	5/4	5/4	10/9	10/9

(iii) f(x) = (x-1)²

x	-1	0	1	2	3	4
f(x)	4	1	0	1	4	9

Odisha State Board CHSE Odisha Class 11 Political Science Solutions Unit 4 Constitution at Work-I Short Answer Questions.

CHSE Odisha 11th Class Political Science Unit 4 Constitution at Work-I Short Answer Questions

Very Short-Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is an Election?
Answer:
The election is a process of choosing representatives.

Question 2.
What are the different types of elections?
Answer:
The election is of two types
(a) Direct election
(b) Indirect election.

Question 3.
What is a direct election?
Answer:
Direct election is a process where the voters cast their vote directly in favor of candidates.

Question 4.
What is an indirect election?
Answer:
The indirect election is a process in which the voters elect an intermediary group or body which again elects the true representative.

Question 5.
When the Indian election commission was set up?
Answer:
The Indian election commission was set on 26th January 1950

Question 6.
What is the function of the election commission?
Answer:
The election commission conducts free, fair, and impartial elections for the office of the President, Vice President, members of parliament, and the state legislature.

Question 7.
On what ground is the election? commissioners can be removed?
Answer:
The members of the Election Commission can be removed on grounds of proven misbehavior or incapacity.

Question 8.
Which act regulates the election to the office of president and vice president?
Answer:
The presidential Vice-Presidential Election Act. 1952 regulates the election of the President and Vice President.

Question 9.
By which amendment Act the voting age of votes is reduced from 21 to 18 years?
Answer:
The (51st Amendment Act of 1988 has reduced the voting age from 21 to 18 years.

Question 10.
What is the tenure of office of Election Commissions?
Answer:
The tenure of office of each election commission is 6 years but he may retire before if he attains the age of 65.

Question 11.
How the chief election commissioner can be removed?
Answer:
The chief election commissioner can be removed on grounds of proof, of misbehavior or incapacity if a proposal to that effect is passed in both houses of parliament by a special majority.

Question 12.
What is the voter list of the Electoral roll?
Answer:
The electoral roll or voter list is the list containing the names of valid voters of a constituency.

Question 13.
Where do the candidates file their nominations?
Answer:
The candidates file their nomination before the District Returning Officer.

Question 14.
What is repolling?
Answer:
When polling takes place for the second time after the election in a both is countermanded due to irregularities, it is called repolling.

Question 15.
What do you mean by electoral reforms?
Answer:
Electoral reform is an attempt to restrict the effects of the prevailing electoral process.

Question 16.
What is the relative majority?
Answer:
The relative majority refers to a number that is not about half of the voters who cast their vote in an election but is a majority in comparison to all other contesting candidates.

Question 17.
What is a by-election?
Answer:
When an election to an office is held due to runtime death or resignation of the office bearer before the normal term is known as buy election.

Question 18.
What is a mid-term poll?
Answer:
The election held before the end-of normal figure of Loksabha or Vidhansabha for unusual dissolution of the house is called a mid-term poll.

Question 19.
What is constituency?
Answer:
Constituency refers to an electoral segment constituted by taking the voters in that area from which one candidate is elected.

Question 20.
What is the electorate?
Answer:
Electorate refers to the valid voters of a definite constituency.

Question 21.
What is universal suffrage?
Answer:
Universal suffrage means an extension of voting rights to all adults irrespective of caste, color, sex, education, and property qualification.

Question 22.
To whom does the constitution deprive of voting rights?
Answer:
As per Art. 326, the constitution deprived the voting rights to aliens, criminals, lunatics, and bankrupt persons.

Question 23.
What is a single-member – constituency?
Answer:
One candidate can win in a definite election

Question 24.
What is a general election?
Answer:
The general election is a process where all the voters of the nation or state participate and so the election to Lok sabha and Vidhansabha is called a general election.

Question 25.
Who are the constituents of Parliament?
Answer:
The parliament constitutes of Loksabha, RajyaSabha, and the President of India.

Question 26.
What is a quorum?
Answer:
Quorum means the minimum number of members to be present in any house for a day for transacting its business.

Question 27.
How the members of the Rajya Sabha are elected?
Answer:
The members of RajyaSabha are elected indirectly by state legislative assemblies through proportional representation single transferable vote

Question 28.
What is the consolidated fund?
Answer:
The fund in which all the receipts of income of the union government are deposited is called the consolidated fund of India.

Question 29.
What is a contingency fund?
Answer:
The contingency fund is a reserve fund in the hands of the president from which sanctions can be made to meet any unavoidable situation or natural calamity.

Question 30.
What is the financial year?
Answer:
The financial year is a time period that lasts from April 1 st to March 31 st.

Question 31.
What s question hour?
Answer:
Question hour is the very first hour of every parliamentary ‘ session that continues from 11 AM to 12 Noon every day.

Question 32.
What is zero hours?
Answer:
Zero hour refers1 to one hour of parliamentary business that extends from 12 Noon to 1 PM every working day.

Question 33.
What is an adjournment motion?
Answer:
An adjournment motion is a legislative motion introduced in either house to discuss any matter of public importance in place of the regular course of business in a house.

Question 34.
What is half an hour discussion?
Answer:
Half an hour discussion is a brief discussion on administrative lapses arid negligence in the parliament.

Question 35.
What is a censure motion?
Answer:
A censure motion is a parliamentary motion that condemns corruption and inefficiency of any executive department.

Question 36.
What is the bill?
Answer:
Bill is a draft proposal pending legislation.

Question 37.
What is the public bill?
Answer:
A public bill is a bill that affects all or most of the residents in a state.

Question 38.
What is the private bill?
Answer:
A private bill relates to any private person, company or organization or section of the population.

Question 39.
What is the ordinary bill?
Answer:
The ordinary bill includes all bills except money bills and constitutional amendment bills.

Question 40.
What is an appropriation bill?
Answer:
An appropriation bill is a proposal for sanctioning of funds out of the consolidated fund for any specific department.

Question 41.
What is a vote on Account?
Answer:
A vote on the account is a temporary measure sought by the government if it fails to pass the general.budget before 31st March.

Question 42.
What is territorial representation?
Answer:
Territorial representation is also known- as geographical representation. In this process, the entire state is divided into a number of constituencies and from each such constituency, a representative is elected.

Question 43.
What is functional representation?
Answer:
Functional representation is a form of minority representation. It gives representation to people belonging to various functional groups and associations like industry, trading, corporations, medical association, lawyers, engineers, teachers, etc.

Question 43.
What is proportional representation?
Answer:
Proportional representation is a technique of minority representation. In this method, a political party secures seats in proportion to the votes secured. It is further divided into a single transferable vote system and a list system.

Question 44.
What is universal suffrage?
Answer:
When voting right is extended to all adults irrespective of caste, religion, sex, property and educational qualification, it is called universal suffrage. Art. 326 of the constitution deals with it.

Question 45.
Lok Sabha
Answer:
Lok Sabha is the lower house of the Indian Parliament. It consists of 545 by citizen voters of the country.

Question 46.
Rajya Sabha
Answer:
Rajya Sabha is the upper house oi parliament. It is a permanent chamber and its members are elected indirectly b> state legislative assemblies.

Question 47.
Speaker of Lok Sabha
Answer:
Speaker is the chairman and presiding officer of Lok Sabha. He conducts the proceedings of Lok Sabha.

Question 48.
Answer:
The vice-President of India is the ex-officio chairman of the Rajya Sabha. He presides over the meetings of the Rajya Sabha and conducts its proceedings.

Question 49.
Consolidated fund of India
Answer:
Art. 266 of the constitution deals with the consolidated fund. All incomes, revenues, and taxes collected from various sources are deposited in this fund.

Question 50.
Contingency Fund
Answer:
Art. 267 provides for the contingency fund of India. It is under the disposal of the president and funds can be sanctioned to meet unforeseen expenditures.

Question 51.
What is call-attention motion?
Answer:
During the parliamentary discussion, if some members draw the attention of the house with due permission from the speaker about any vital issue affecting the general interest of the nation it is called a call attention motion. The opposition parties use it as a weapon to obstruct government policies and discussions.

Question 52.
What is privilege motion?
Answer:
When any minister is actions, behavior or words affect the dignity of any member or the house as a whole it results in a breach of privilege. The opposition may bring a privilege motion to criticize the ruling party.

Question 53.
What is no confidence motion?
Answer:
A no-confidence motion is introduced by any members of Lok Sabha condemning the behavior and role of the government. If it is passed in the Lok Sabha by a simple majority of votes then the government has to resign.

Question 54.
What is the budget?
Answer:
The budget is the annual estimate of the income and expenditure of the government. It has to be passed in both houses of parliament before the beginning of the new financial year.

Question 55.
What are the financial powers of Parliament?
Answer:

• The parliament approves the annual budget of the state.
• Without its approval no new tax can be levied nor exempted.

Question 56.
What is question hour?
Answer:
Question hour is the very first hour of every working day when the parliament is in session. During this hour the members may ask various questions to the government about different issues.

Question 57.
What is an ordinance?
Answer:
The ordinance is an emergency legislation proclaimed either by the president of India or the Governor of any state. It is declared during the recess of parliament.

Question 58.
Joint sitting of Parliament.
Answer:
The joint sitting of Parliament is held as per Art. 108 of the constitution. The President may convene a joint sitting to settle the dispute sing between the two houses over the passage of an ordinary bill.

Question 59
What is a vote on Account?
Answer:
A vote on the account is a temporary measure taken by parliament when the annual budget can’t be passed before 31st March.  In this process, the Govt has to pass budgetary allocation for two to three months.

Question 60.
What is a closure?
Answer:
The program advisory committee of the Lok Sabha determines the time limit for discussing the demand for grants of every department during the budget. If it is not passed within the time then no discussion demand for grants takes place and that is called closure.

Question 61.
What is the guillotine?
Answer:
During budget discussion, if the demand for grants of various departments can it be discussed then those are simply placed for a vote of the house, which is called the guillotine. It marks the end of the discussion on the demand for grants.

Question 62.
What is cut motion?
Answer:
During a discussion of the demand for grants of different departments, the opposition may initiate a cut motion. This motion proposes to bring down the expenditure of a department to Re.l.

Question 63.
What is the point of order?
Answer:
When any member of parliament seeks the intervention of the honorable Speaker citing irregularities in the parliamentary procedure it is called a point of order. It can be introduced for discussion if the speaker gives permission.

Question 64.
Independence of election commission
Answer:
The independence and autonomy of the Election Commission is essential for the conduct of a free and fair poll. Therefore, the constitution has kept the election commission free from politically arid bureaucratic interference.

Question 65.
Qualifications of an MLA.
Answer:
The qualification prescribed by the constitution for being an MLA is He/she must be a citizen of India. He/ she must be above 25 years of. He/she must pass all other qualifications as prescribed by parliament.

Question 66.
How the Vidhansabha exercises control over the state council of ministers?
Answer:
The members of Vidhansabha may ask questions, supplementary questions, motions, and resolutions to criticize the government. It can introduce not confidence motion to remove the ministry from office.

Question 67.
How the legislature controls the purse of the nation?
Answer:
The legislature passes the annual budget and approves all proposals for imposition, repeal, or collection of taxes. The government can’t raise or spent one rupee without the approval of the legislature. It also controls all incomes and expenditures incurred y the executive.

Question 68.
What are the functions of the speaker of Lok Sabha?
Answer:
The speaker of Lok Sabha presides over the Lok Sabha. He conducts the proceedings of the house as an impartial umpire.

Question 69.
How the Lok Sabha exercises control over the union council of ministers?
Answer:
The Lok Sabha exercises control over the Union Council of Ministers by passing a vote of the no-confidence motion. It can also initiate cut motion, call attention motion, censure motion and put questions to ministers to keep the government under control.

Question 70.
What do you mean by the parliament of India?
Answer:
Parliament is the Union Legislature in India. It comprises the Lok Sabha, the Rajya Sabha, and the President of India. It is the most powerful organ of the state.

Question 71.
What are the two special powers of the Rajya Sabha?
Answer:
Rajya Sabha can pass a resolution by 2/3rds majority authorizing the parliament to make law on the state list. It can pass a resolution in respect of the creation or abolition of posts of All India Services.

Question 72.
What are the privileges of Members of Parliament?
Answer:
Members of Parliament enjoy unrestricted freedom to express their views in the house. During their tenure, they can’t be detained for any civil offense during and 40 days before and after the session of the house.

Question 73.
What is an appropriation bill?
Answer:
The appropriation bill contains all the demands for grants of all the departments and the amount charged to the consolidated fund of India. The Parliament by approval of this bill allows the government to incur expenditures for various departments under the government.

Question 74.
What is Finance Bill?
Answer:
The finance bill contains all proposals for taxation in the budget. It is introduced after the enactment of the Appropriation bill. The passage of the finance bill marks the end of the budget process.

Question 75.
How the second chamber of a state legislature can be created or abolished?
Answer:
The second chamber of a State legislature can be created or abolished if a proposal to that effect is passed in the concerned State Legislative Assembly by 2/3rds of its members present and voting. After that parliament reserves the right to take the final decision.

Question 76.
How the members of Lok Sabha are elected?
Answer:
The members of Lok Sabha are elected directly by the people through single-member constituencies on the basis of a universal adult franchise. They are elected through a simple majority vote system.

Short-Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Distinguish between direct and indirect elections.
Answer:
Direct election is a single election where the voters directly cast their votes in favor of the actual representative. But indirect election involves two elections, the first one by voters to elect the intermediary group, and by the second the true representatives are elected. In direct election close contact between the voters and the representatives is established. But in the indirect election so contact is established.

Direct election makes people conscious and responsible, but indirect election does not stimulate public interest. Direct election is suitable for developed countries but indirect election is useful for backward countries. Direct election is expensive but indirect election is less expensive.

Question 2.
Election Commission.
Answer:
The Indian constitution under Art. 324 has provided for an independent election commission. It ensures free, fair, and impartial elections in India. It conducts an election for President. Vice President Parliament and the state legislature. It comprises three members appointed by the president. It recognizes political parties and allows party symbols.

Question 3.
Functions of the election commission.
Answer:
The election commission discharges the following functions

• Preparation and revision of electoral rolls.
• Conduct of elections to the office of president, Vice-President, Parliament and state legislature
• Recognition of political parties and allotment of party symbols.
• Appointment of Returning officers, observers, election officers, and polling officers.

Question 4.
Independence of Election commission.
Answer:
The Indian constitution has secured the independence of the election commission. The members of the election commission are appointed by the president as per the law made by the parliament. They can’t be removed from office unless a proposal to that effect is passed in both houses of parliament by a special majority. The salary and allowances of the members of the election commission can’t be lowered during their term of office. They enjoy equal status as that of the judges of the Supreme Court.

Question 5.
Electoral reforms.
Answer:
Electoral reforms are necessary for every democratic system because with changes in time the drawbacks of the election process need modification. The Government of India has therefore introduced some reforms in the election process and some more reforms are self-indispensable. The voting age of voters has been reduced from 21 to 18. Electronic voting machines have been introduced to conduct free and fair polls and speedy counting of results. The voters have been given photo identity cards. To avoid fake candidates number of proposers and seconders has been increased and the security deposit has also been hiked.

Question 6.
Chief Election Commissioner.
Answer:
The senior member of the election commission is known as the chief election commissioner. He is appointed and removed in the same process and enjoys equal powers with the other two members He enjoys a 6 years term and retires at the age of 65 years. He is removed on grounds of proven misbehavior or incapacity if a resolution to that effect is passed in both houses of parliament by a special majority. He has to coordinate the activities of the other two members of the election commission.

Question 7.
Features of an ideal election system.
Answer:

1. After ideal election system is vital for the success of democracy.
2. It must be free from political and . bureaucratic influence.
3. There should be an independent judiciary to adjudicate election disputes.
4. Public trust and support towards the election commission is an indicators of an ideal electoral system.
5. It must have efficient administrative machinery to ensure free polling.

Question 8.
Importance of election for a democracy.
Answer:

• An independent election system is vital for the success of democracy.
• It enables voters to elect efficient and capable representatives.
• Election leads to the formation of a stable government and a good election system makes people repose their faith on government.
• Election lets the representatives enact good laws.
• An ideal election system keeps criminals and evil-minded people away from the democratic process.

Question 9.
Challenges to Indian Election Commission.
Or, Problems with the Indian electoral system
Answer:
The Indian election commission is now facing a few challenges which obstruct its efficiency, and these are

• Use of black money & muscle power in elections.
• The prevailing pattern of the relative majority system
• Abuse of power by central and state employees.
• Defects in the preparation of pectoral rolls.
• Influence of caste, religion, language, communal and regional feelings electoral process. Entry of criminals and anti-socials into the process.

Question 10.
Universal suffrage
Answer:
Universal suffrage is the very basis of representation in a democracy. It believes in the granting of voting rights to all adults irrespective of their caste, color, sex, religious discrimination, and education or property qualification. It supports the one-man-one-vote principle. It ensures more participation of younger people and women in elections and this makes democracy real.

Question 11.
Merits of Universal suffrage.
Answer:
Universal suffrage makes democracy successful. It ensures political, equality and justice. It promotes political awareness among people and develops the self-respect of each voter. Universal suffrage makes the legislature a true representative chamber of various interest groups. It enables women and backward classes to safeguard their own interests.

Question 12.
Demerits of Adult Suffrage.
Answer:
The drawbacks of adult suffrage are as follows:
Universal suffrage gives voting rights to poor illiterate people who do not understand the value of a vote. So it tends to be abusing voting rights. It often results in the selling of votes for a meager amount. Those backward people make a mockery of their voting right. It makes democracy weak because illiterate votes can’t judge good candidates. Universal suffrage further affects the dignity of women and their feminine qualities.

Question 13.
Women suffrage.
Answer:
Women’s suffrage means a grant of voting rights to women. Women’s suffrage makes women equal to men. It develops a spirit of service and sacrifice in women. Women’s Suffrage was first of all granted in the USA in 1919. England in 1928, Switzerland in 1970. India in 1950 and European countries from 1940-50.

Question 14.
Merits of Women suffrage.
Answer:
John Stuart Mill Sidquick and Esmein support women’s suffrage on the following grounds. As in a democracy, women are treated at par with men, There is no, ground to deprive them of voting right. Women’s suffrage will make them safeguard their own rights and privilege. Today women are capable of doing everything even if they are joining- the army and airforce, so it will be an injustice today for them to vote right.

Women’s suffrage will bring a major change in the social setup. Women are less tolerant of corruption. Crime and favoritism so by giving them political rights they can abolish exploitation and inequality in society.

Question 15.
Demerits of women suffrage.
Answer:
Women’s suffrage may lead to disruptions in family life. It will lead to neglect of children and the old. Women joining politics may develop a rift between husband and wife. As women are by nature fearful and apprehensive they may not discharge their duties properly. Unless they are educated it is not at all justifiable to give them voting right.

Question 16.
What is a direct election?
Answer:
Direct election is a process where the citizen voters directly cast their vote at a pooling booth to elect their representatives. It gives the opportunity and freedom to each voter to vote for his / her candidate of choice. In this election, the person who gets the maximum vote is declared elected. Direct election is democratic and it is seen everywhere. The members of Lok Sabha and Vidhan Sabha are elected by direct election.

Question 17.
Merits of direct election.
Answer:
Direct election gives every voter the freedom to vote for the candidate of his choice. In this process, each Voter gets the satisfaction that he is selecting the government. It establishes close contact between the votes and representatives. It promotes political consciousness. It makes voters accountable and develops the attitude of service.

Question 18.
Demerits of direct election
Answer:
The poor and ignorant people while casting their vote can not make the proper choices of representatives. Indirect election votes are swayed by election waves and do not make good choices. It is too much expensive, so poor people rarely get a chance to win. Violence and muscle power influence the outcome of a direct election.

Question 19.
Indirect election.
Answer:
The indirect election is a process where the voters elect their representatives indirectly that is through an intermediary group. It involves two elections, first, the intermediary group is elected and by second the group elects the real representatives. The Indian President, Vice-President and members of the Rajya Sabha are elected in this method.  It is less expensive and more representative. It may be carried out either by list system.

Question 20.
Minority Representation.
Answer:
Minority representation refers to the representation of minorities. Proportional representation is a technique of minority representation. Each group and party secures seats in proportion to the votes secured. It enables each minority to safeguard its interests.

Question 21.
Merits of indirect election.
Answer:
Indirect election eliminates the evils of the party system, therefore more capable and efficient representatives are elected. Here merit of the candidates counts over the election wave. It is suitable for poor and backward countries. It is less influenced by the evils of party politics.

Question 22.
Demerits of Indirect Election.
Answer:
The indirect election is undemocratic as the voters are not given the scope to elect representatives directly. There is no direct contact between the voters and representatives. It discourages voters in a democracy. Here the party dominates over individual choice. It encourages corruption, bribery, and illegal activities.

Question 23.
Single transferable vote system.
Answer:
A single transferable vote system is a form of proportional representation. It was invented by Thomas Hare of England. It is suitable for multi-member constituencies. In this system, each voter cast his vote in order of preference. The 1st preference votes are taken into account first, and those who secure the required quota of votes are declared elected. Here the 2nd preference vote is transferred to another candidate for which it is called a single transferable vote system.

Question 24.
Proportional Representation.
Answer:
Proportional representation is a form of indirect election. It rectifies the defects of a single-member constituency. In this system, a representative is elected on the basis of votes cast in his favor. So every vote is taken into consideration. It provides an opportunity to smaller parties and groups to win some seats in proportion to their votes. No vote is wasted in this system.

Question 25.
Demerits of Proportional representation.
Answer:
Propositional Representation is a complex process that ordinary voters can not understand. It encourages small parties and factionalism in a democracy. If encourages a multi-party system and most of the time coalition ministries are formed. It establishes no links or relationships between voters and representatives. In this system, the voters are bound by partly decisions and policies.

Question 26.
Communal Representation.
Answer:
Communal representation means the formation of electoral constituencies on the basis of Hindu, Muslim, Christian and Sikh religious communities, This system was encouraged by Britishers during pre-independence In this system, representatives are elected from every religious community. It can be ensured by reservation of seats bn communal lines. The Indian constitution has rejected communal representation.

Question 27.
Functional Representation.
Answer:
Functional Representation means the election of representatives from specific functional groups and units. It is an alternative to the system of territorial representation. This type of representation is prevailing in socialist and communist countries where representatives are chosen from farmers. It tends to neglect general interest for the sake of functional gr I p interest.

Question 28.
Challenges to Indian Election System.
Answer:
The Indian election system is facing, a lot of challenges in the nature

• Lot-of challenges in the nature of
• Increase in corruption and entry of criminals into politics.
• Politicization of caste, religion, communal and regional issues.
• Increasing violence, booth capturing arid rigging during the poll.
• Most of political parties are trying to misguide and confuse voters especially the poor and weaker sections of society.

Question 29.
Difference between money bill and finance bill.
Answer:
The difference between money bills and financial bills is more systematic than real. Art. 110 deals with money bills while Art. li 7 deals with financial bills. Financial bills are mostly bills dealing with income and expenditure and some portions of money bills also deal with similar issues. But all financial bills are not many bills. A finance bill is a mixture of an ordinary bill and a money bill. Money bills can’t be amended by Rajya Sabha but financial bills can be.

Question 30.
Ordinary Bill and Money Bill.
Answer:
An ordinary bill may be a public bill or a private bill, but a money bill is always a public bill. Ah, the ordinary bill can be introduced into either House of Parliament, but a money bill can only be introduced into the Lok Sabha. A money bill is introduced with the prior permission of the President, but an ordinary bill requires no such permission. The President may or may not approve an ordinary bill, but can’t disapprove a motley bill. The Rajya Sabha can reject an ordinary bill, but it can’t reject a money bill.

Question 31.
Bill and Act.
Answer:
Bill is a draft proposal for legislation. It is the preliminary stage of an Act, but Act is the final stage of a bill. A bill is a legislative proposal that after parliamentary action becomes an Act. A bill is not enforceable either by the executive or judiciary but an Act is enforced by the executive and applied in law courts. A bill carries no legal sanction but an Act carries legal sanction.

Question 32.
How does the legislature act as the custodian of the national purse?
Answer:
Without the approval of the budget by the legislature, no money can be raised or spent by the government. Without legislative sanction, no expenditure can be charged out of the consolidated fund, and no tax can be levied or exempted. It maintains a strict vigil over financial transactions made by executives. It appoints legislative committees like public accounts. Committee and Estimates Committee for the purpose.

Question 33.
How the Union Parliament is organized?
Answer:
Union Parliament is bicameral in structure, its Lower House is called Lok Sabha, and its Upper House as Rajya Sabha. Lok Sabha is the popular house and its members are elected directly by the citizen voters for five years. Rajya Sabha is the Upper House and its strength is 250 of which 238 members are elected indirectly from states and Union Territory Legislative Assembles for six years. The rest 12 are nominated by President.

Lok Sabha enjoys a five years tenure but Rajya Sabha is permanent.

Question 34.
What are the required qualifications for a member of the Rajya Sabha?
Answer:
A member of the Rajya Sabha is required to possess the following qualifications.

• He must be a citizen of India.
• He must be above 30 years of age.
• He should not be insolvent or of unsound mind,
• He should not hold any office or profit either under the Union of State Gate.

Question 35.
What are the required qualifications for a member of the Lok Sabha?
Answer:
A member of Lok sabha should satisfy the following qualifications.

• He must be a citizen of India.
• He must be above 25 years of age.
• He must not be insolvent or of unsound mind.
• He must not hold any office of profit either under the Union Govt or of slate.

Question 36.
Joint sitting of Parliament.
Answer:
The President summons the joint sitting of parliament under Art. 108 . to resolve the deadlock between the two houses of parliament over the passage of an ordinary bill. The meeting is held in. the central Hall of Parliament with the speaker of Lok Sabha in the chair. The matter is discussed and finally, a vote is taken. The decision of the majority is taken for granted. The Lok Sabha due to its, numerical strength usually wins.

Question 37.
Role of Rajya Sabha in the passage of a money bill.
Answer:
Rajya Sabha is the second chamber of the union parliament and it plays an insignificant role in the passage of a money bill. No money bill can be introduced into the House. A bill after approval of Lok Sabha comes to the house and it is given a period of 14 days to approve the bill. The House can’t amend or reject a money bill, but can suggest amendments. The lower house may consider such a suggestion or not. Under no circumstances it can delay a money bill beyond 14 days.

Question 38.
Write the special powers of RajyaSabha.
Answer:

• Under Art. 249, Rajya Sabha can pass a resolution authorizing the Parliament to enact laws on any item of state list in the national interest.
• The House can initiate a proposal for the removal of the Vice President.
• Under Art. 312, it can pass a resolution authorizing the union Govt, either for the creation of addition of posts belonging to all Indian services.

Question 39.
What is a No-confidence motion?
Answer:
No confidence motion is an instrument in the hands of the Lok Sabha to control the ministry. It is moved by the members of the opposition bench to criticize and remove the government. It is initialed by at least l/4th members of the House and the Speaker gives a 14 days notice to the Govt. On the appointed date, the matter is discussed vividly and a final vote is taken. If the majority of the members are present and the voting vote is in favor of the motion the govt, resigns.

Question 40.
What are the functions of the Speaker of Lok Sabha?
Answer:

• The Speaker is the presiding officer of the Lok Sabha.
• He presides over its meetings and maintains decorum
• He conducts the business of the House.
• He protects the privileges and freedom of the members
• He interprets the rules of business of the House and decides on the admissibility of questions, resolutions and motions.
• In case of a tie, he casts his vote.

Question 41.
Estimate Committee.
Answer:
The estimates committee is a parliamentary committee. It consists of 30 members elected from Parliament. It examines the estimates of various ministries and suggests alternative policies to bring efficiency and economy to administration. The committee also works to bring about improvements in organization and efficiency in administration.

Question 42.
What are the privileges of members of Parliament?
Answer:
The members of parliament enjoy the following privileges. They enjoy freedom of speech, and for that, no legal action can be taken. They are immune from all legal proceedings for any act committed inside the House. No, a member can be arrested or detained by the public authority during – the session without the permission of the speaker.

Question 43.
Appropriation Bill.
Answer:
After a discussion of demands for grants, the Appropriation Bill is prepared by taking the demands passed by Lok Sabha and expenditure charged upon the Consolidated Fund of India. This bill is presented to the Lok Sabha and it has to pass through all the stages as any other bill.

Question 44.
Finance Bill.
Answer:
All the taxation proposals contained in the budget are known as Finance Bill. It is presented to the Lok Sabha after the enactment of the Appropriation Bill. It is passed in the same process as money bills. The passing of finance bills marks the completion of the budget.

Question 45.
What is a Vote on Account?
Answer:
The financial year of the Govt ends on 31 st March and as per the rules, the Budget must be passed by 31st March. If for any reason the budget can’t be passed within the time then the Govt can seek an affirmative vote from the Parliament to make necessary expenditures on Adhoc basic. This is called Vote on Account.

Question 46.
What are the required qualifications for membership of the Legislative Assembly?
Answer:
As per 173 of the constitution, a member of the State Legislative Assembly is required to satisfy the following qualifications He must be a citizen of India. He must be above 25 years of age. He must possess all other qualifications as prescribed by the law of Parliament.

Question 47.
What, are the disqualifications for membership of the State Legislative Assembly?
Answer:
A person shall be disqualified for membership of a State Legislative Assembly if.He/she holds any office of profit either under the State or Union government. He /she is of unsound mind. He/she is an undischarged insolvent. He/she has voluntarily acquired the citizenship of a foreign state. He/she is disqualified by any law made by Parliament.

Question 48.
How the membership of an MLA can be terminated?
Answer:
Termination of membership of an MLA is a controversial issue and the final decision in this regard is given by the State Governor. The Governor before disqualifying a member has to obtain the view of the Election Commission and act accordingly. His decision is final and can not be questioned in any court of law. The membership of a disqualified member shall be terminated by the Assembly by passing a resolution to that, effect.

Question 49:
What are the required qualifications of a member of the Legislative Council?
Answer:
A person should possess the following qualifications to become a member of the legislative council. He must be a citizen of India. He/she must be above 30 years of age. He/she must possess such other qualifications as may be prescribed by the law of parliament.

Question 50.
How the Second Chamber of the State Legislature can be abolished?
Answer:
The Second Chamber of a State Legislature can be abolished in accordance with Art. 169 of the Constitution. It can be done if a resolution to that effect is passed by a majority of the total membership of the Assembly and a two-thirds majority of members present and voting of the concerned state legislative assembly. This resolution must be followed by the Act of Parliament after which the President orders for the abolition of the Second Chamber.

Question 51.
Which states in India have bicameral legislature?
Answer:
Five of 25 states in India have a bicameral legislature. These states are

• Uttar Pradesh.
• Bihar.
• Maharastra.
• Jammu and Kashmir.

Question 52.
Legislative Council is a superfluous chamber.
Answer:
Legislative Council is the Second Chamber of a State Legislature. It is a weak chamber that exercises limited and negligible influence over the lower chamber in the legislative sphere. It can neither check the money bills nor ordinary bills against the wish of the Lower House. It has no control over the executive. It does not participate in the amendment of the Constitution and the election of the President. Thus, in comparison to the Lower House, the Legislative Council is weaker in all aspects for which it is criticized as a superfluous chamber.

Question 53.
What are the functions of the Speakers of the Legislative Assembly?
Answer:
Speaker is the Presiding officer of the Legislative Assembly and he performs the following functions. He presides over the sessions of the Assembly. He maintains decorum in the House and interprets the rules of business. He is the final authority to admit questions, motions, and resolutions. He conducts the proceedings and votes within the House He can cast his vote in case of a tic. He safeguards the privileges of the members of the House.

Odisha State Board CHSE Odisha Class 11 Political Science Solutions Unit 4 Constitution at Work-I Long Answer Questions Part-2.

CHSE Odisha 11th Class Political Science Unit 4 Constitution at Work-I Long Answer Questions Part-2

Long Questions With Answers

Question 1.
Explain the functions of the election commission of India.
Answer:
The election commission of India is an independent body that conducts elections to the office of the President, Vice-President members of Parliament, and state legislatures, the functions of the commission can be enumerated below.

The Election/Commission revises electoral rolls before the every-general election. It exercises supervision and control over all matters pertaining to the election of the President, Vice-President, Members of Parliament, and State legislatures. It tenders advice to the President and Governors in matters of disqualification of members of parliament and state legislatures.

The commission gives recognition to political parties and allots election symbols. It makes appointments of election officials to enquire about disputes arising out of election arrangements. It issues notification of the election of schedules indicating the date and time of elections. The commission also regulates the campaigning of political parties through TV. and Radio.

It also requires the necessary states for the conduct of the poll. The commission has to determine the code of conduct of the political parties and candidates during elections. It has to decide about cases of rigging, booth capturing and. countermanding of polls, and also on repoll. The commission undertakes delimitation of constituencies every 10 years or so. The commission has to make all arrangements to conduct the peaceful poll.

Question 2.
Write an essay on the Independence of the Election Commission.
Answer:
Free and fair elections are indispensable for a democratic polity, The founding fathers were well aware of the situation and they tried their best to ensure the independence and integrity of the Election Commission.

Independence of the Election Commission:
The constitution has taken the following steps to ensure independence to the Election Commission.

The members of the Election Commission are appointed by the President as per rules made by the parliament. They hold office during the pleasure of the president. The president can’t remove them unless a resolution to that effect is passed in both houses of parliament by 2/3rds the majority of those present and voting and by a majority membership of each house.

They can only be removed only on grounds of proven misbehavior and in capacity. The members receive a salary as determined by Parliament from time to time and it is charged upon the consolidated fund of India, on which discussion takes place in the parliament During their tenure, their salary and conditions of service can’t be changed to their disadvantage.

The members of the Election Commission enjoy the status of a judge of the Supreme Court and after Retirement, they are not assigned any additional duty. The commission remains politically neutral and above all controversies maintains the dignity of the institution.

Question 3.
Mention the Electoral reforms introduced by the Election Commission of India.
Answer:
During the last sixty years, the history of elections in India indicates that the electoral process is not free from deficiencies. Analysts express doubt about the fairness and impartiality of the Election Commission. To overcome these defects there is a need for electoral reforms.

Reforms Introduced:
The government of India has already introduced certain electoral reforms to bring about the efficiency of the commission. The voting age has been reduced from 21 to 18 in order to encourage young voters. To ensure perfect arrangement for poll staff members now deputed much before by the Election Commission. To avoid the multiplicity of candidates in a constituency number of proposers and seconders has been increased and the amount of the security deposit has been enhanced 20 times.

Electronic voting machines have been used and photo identification cards have been issued to avoid false voting and tender voting and ensure quick counting of votes. If any candidate shows disrespect to the national flag, National Anthem, and to the constitution of India, he shall be disqualified from contesting polls for six years. No candidate can contest from two or more seats simultaneously.

The government prohibits persons from going with arms to polling booths. The sale of liquor during the last 48 hours of the election has been declared illegal. The poll day is declared a paid holiday to enable public servants to cast their votes. The time limit for bye-elections has been reduced to six months. A postal ballot system has been introduced to enable polling officers to cast their votes.

Further, there is a demand for holding simultaneous elections for Parliament and Assemblies. To keep the black money out of elections there is a need for state funding of elections. There is a need for quick disposal of election cases and rotation of reserved seats. To make the election free and fair election expenses must be audited properly.

Question 4.
Explain the powers and functions of the Union Parliament.
Answer:
The Union Legislature in India is called Parliament. It is bicameral in structure. The Upper Upper House is called the Council of States or Rajya Sabha and the Lower House being the popular House it performs most of the functions on behalf of the Parliament and dominates the Upper House.

Powers:
Parliament being the legislative wing, it is responsible for law-making. It also performs other vital functions.

Legislative:
The Union Parliament is a popular body that formulates the laws of the land. It is the Parliament that initiates and approves all legislative proposals. Without the knowledge of the Union Parliament, no law can be enacted.

Executive:
The Union Parliament performs certain executive functions. The ministers sit in the Parliament and remain responsible and answerable to the legislature for all their actions. The Lok Sabha controls the executive by putting various questions to the ministers. It is also the sole authority of the Lok Sabha. To pursue a no-confidence motion against the ministers. There is a responsible, executive in India.

Financial :
The Union Parliament in India enjoys absolute control over financial matters. No single pie will be spent without the knowledge of the Union Parliament. All sorts of financial appropriations are determined and approved by the legislature.

Constitutional :
No Constitution is static. With the development of civilization, and the change in the life of the people the Constitution needs to be
amended. In India, the Union Parliament possesses all powers with regard to the amendment of the Constitution.

Electoral:
The Union Parliament also possesses certain functions with regard to certain elections of the high officials. The Parliament participates in the election of the president and Vice president and another Parliamentary committee.

Judicial :
The Union legislature also possesses some sort of judicial power. The Lok Sabha acts as a judiciary to decide certain cases tike, like the impeachment of the Supreme Court.& High Court Judges, the President, the Vice-President and the no-confidence motion against the Council of Ministers are some of the illustrations of the judicial power of the union legislative

Administrative-Power :
The Union Parliament also possesses some administrative powers. The Parliament has control over the various administrative heads of various departments, The Lok Sabha possesses the power to question to the concerned minister for any administrative commission or commissions.

Miscellaneous Power :
The Union Parliament also enjoys certain miscellaneous powers which include controlling the emergency provisions and issuing ordinances by the President, of India.

Question 5.
Discuss the Legislative Procedure of the Union Parliament.
Answer:
In every constitutional setup, there is a legislature, whose primary responsibility is to formulate the two. There is a fixed procedure principle on the basis of which-the legislative procedure, is being carried out. Similarly, in India, there is a fixed procedure or principle on the basis of which the laws are made. There are two kinds of bills ordinary bill and a money bill. An ordinary bill may be introduced into either House of the Parliament but money bills can only be introduced into the Lok Sabha.

The Procedure of Legislation :
For the passing up of any bill, the legislature in India involves three stages of reading i.e. the first reading, the second reading, and the third reading.

Introduction of the bill:
For legislation, the first step is the introduction of the bill in the House for which a notice will be given one month. The date for the introduction of the bill is fixed by the Speaker or the Chairman of the House concerned and on the due date, the member is asked to present the bill If the majority of members of the House support the introduction of the bill is introduced and is published in the gazette.

First Reading:
After the introduction of the bill, the Chair of the House fixes, the date of its first reading. On the appointed day the member moves the bill. In this stage

• The title of the bill is read.
• The vote is taken

Second Reading:
After the committee has sent the report the bill may be referred for second reading on the fixed date. In the stage of second reading.

• The examination of the Select Committee may be taken into consideration.
• The member may move the bill which will be sent to Select Committee.
• Thirdly the member may move the bill for eliciting public opinion.

Select Committee Stage:
After the second reading, the bill is referred to a select committee. The committee examines the bill thoroughly. There is a detailed discussion of the bill
in this stage. The Select Committee may propose any changes in the bill on the basis of all kinds of information collected.

Report Stage:
After the bill is examined and discussed thoroughly, the Select Committee prepares its report. The suggestions recommended by the Select Committee is taken into account. If the majority of members arrived at a decision, the Chairman of the committee presents the report to the House. If the house agrees to consider the bill as reported by the Select Committee it enters into the second stage of the second reading when the bill is discussed clause by clause and the members are allowed to move their amendments. And the vote is taken.

Third Reading:
In this reading, the discussion is confined to either in support of the bill or rejection of the bill. If the bill is passed by the majority members of the present and voting the bill is passed by the legislature. And the bill is referred to the other House of Parliament. If the bill is passed by the other House then it is referred to the President for his assent. The President may give his assent or return it for reconsideration to the Parliament.

In case of Jhe disagreement of the other House with Regard to the bill, the President may summon a joint sitting of both the Houses of Parliament. If the bill is passed by the majority members in the joint sitting, it will presume that both the Houses of Parliament have passed the bill. After passing by both the Houses of Parliament have passed the bill. After passing by both the Houses of Parliament President gives his assent and the bill becomes an Act.

Question 6.
Analyze the organization and functions of the Lok Sabha.
Answer:
Indian Parliament is bicameral it Council States or Rajya Sabha and the Lower. House is known as the House of People or Lok Sabha, The House of the People-of the Lok Sabha is the direct representatives of the people Ordinarily there are 54 members of the Lok Sabha which consists of two categories of members, 545 members are elected directly by the people and two members are nominated by the President of India from among the Anglo- Indian community. The number of members to be elected to the House is determined on the basis of the ratio of the population of the states.

Term of Office:
The House of People is a temporary House that is ordinarily elected for a period of five years. But before the completion of the term the House may be dissolved and a fresh election may be, ordered. Similarly, the term of the House may also be extended up to a maximum of one year during the time of emergency.
The House meets twice in a year. There shall not be more than six months gap between each interval of the session.

Qualifications of the Members:
The Constitution of India provides tile following qualifications for the members of the House of the People. These are:

• He must be a citizen of India.
• He must have completed 25 years of age
• He must also possess other qualifications prescribed by-the Parliament from time to time.
• The President of India summons prorogues and dissolves the House of People. He also addresses the first session of the House.

Powers and functions of the House of People:
Generally, the Lower House in all Parliamentary forms of Government constitutes the elected representatives of the people. So the House of People in the context of the Indian Parliamentary form of Government occupies the highest position in the administration of the state. The House of People in the context-of-Indian Parliamentary form of Government is the highest authority where the conception of popular sovereignty is reflected. The House of People remains answerable to the people of India.  The various powers and functions of the House of People are discussed below.

Legislative Power:
The House of People or the Lok Sabha enjoys a very dominant position with regard to the legislative power. No bill would be an Act without the knowledge of the House of Parliament but money bills can only be introduced in the Lok Sabha. People Ordinary bills may be introduced in either. House of the Parliament but money bills can only be introduced in the Lok Sabha. But in the case of any other bills, they must be passed by Lok Sabha in order to become an Act.

Administrative Power:
In all types of Parliamentary forms of Government, the Lok Sabha is answerable to the legislature. So there is a responsible executive in all Parliamentary forms of Government. In India, the House of the People is the direct representative of the people, and the Council of ministers of the legislature remains answerable to Lok Sabha for all their actions. The Lok Sabha can control ministers who head various departments through various questions. If the council of ministers does not remain answerable for their actions the legislature may move a no-confidence motion against the ministers.

Financial Power:
The Lok Sabha possesses absolute control over public finance. No single pie can be expended without the sanction of the Lok Sabha. It is in the Lower House of Parliament the money bill can be introduced in regard to which Rajya Sabha possesses little or no option. The Rajya Sabha can not initiate any financial legislation and it is the financial supremacy of the Lok Sabha to grant finance for the state administration.

Constituent Power:
The union legislature possesses the power to amend the Constitution of India. Though with regard to the amendment of certain provisions of the Constitution the state government’s participation is required yet it is the Union Parliament that possesses more power for a constitutional amendment. The Parliament can initiate all those amendments for which the Lok Sabha plays a decisive role:

Electoral Power:
The Lok Sabha has certain electoral power. Lok Sabha participates in the election of the President of India, and Vice-President of India. Only elected members of the Lok Sabha alone possess the to participate in the election of President and Vice-President.

Judicial:
Lok Sabha also acts as a judiciary to decide certain cases like the impeachment of the President of India. The Vice-President, the Judges of the Supreme Court and High Court, etc. Lok Sabha alone can move and pass a no-confidence motion against the Council Ministers in the Parliament.

Question 7.
Discuss the role and functions of the Speaker of Lok Sabha.
Answer:
The Constitution provides that there shall be a Speaker for Lok Sabha who shall preside over the business of the House. The Speaker is the President of the House who is responsible to ensure the smooth functioning of the Lok Sabha.

Appointment of Speaker:
The Constitution provides that the Speaker should be elected from among the legislatures elected to Lok Sabha. The constitutional status is purely impartial so for which before entering into the office of Speaker he must vacate his membership to ensure impartiality. He may resign from his office for which at least a notice should be given to the House with 15 days in hand.

Functions of the Speaker:
The primary function of the Speaker is to ensure the smooth functioning of the Lok Sabha. It is the Speaker who happens to be responsible for all legislative procedures within Lok- Sabha. He controls the business of the 1 louse. It is the Speaker whose will and wishes prevail over the will and wishes of all other members. There are a lot of functions performed by the Speaker which is discussed below.

The Speaker is the chief authority within Lok Sabha who presides over all legislative proceedings within the Lok Sabha. He conducts the business of the House and every member of the House must address to the dignity of the Speaker in their speech. The Speaker protects the rights of the ruling as well as the opposition members, The Speaker must ensure that the opinions of the opposition members are adequately published.

Every member must be permitted by Speaker before telling anything. The Speaker administers various rules and regulations of the legislative proceeding in Lok Sabha and the ruling of the Speaker is final in this regard. It is the Speaker-who decides the nature and features of various bills introduced in Lok Sabha. Ordinarily, the Speaker does not enjoy the fight to vote but he can cast a vote in case there is a tie-in the vote.

Role and Position of Speaker:
In all Parliamentary forms of government, the Speaker or the Chair Person of the representative House Occupies a very dignitary position. Similarly, in the context of
Indian Parliamentary form of Government the Speaker of Lok Sabha occupies a very dignified position. Since more or less we have inherited the British pattern of office of Speaker where the Speaker does not belong to any political party only to ensure the impartiality of the procedure of the House.

It is the same position with regard to the constitutional status of the office, of Speaker. Though we have not observed the British pattern of practice yet, maximum steps have been taken to ensure the impartiality of the Speaker. In India, the Speaker may be a member of a political party but he ads as a nonparty man after entering into office. The Constitution of India and the convention have assigned dignity to a great extent during the tenure of his office.

So he does not take part in any party affairs during the lifetime of his office. Since he presides over the meetings of the House it is the responsibility of the Speaker to provide adequate opportunity to all members irrespective of party affiliation which will enhance the dignity and the status of the Speaker. The Speaker must not act on the basis of his personal ideology which will strike at the very impartial tradition of the office of the Speaker.

Question 8.
Discuss the composition and powers of the Rajya Sabha and examine its utility in the Indian constitutional setup.
(Or)
Examine the powers and utility of the Council of States in India.
Answer:
Rajya Sabha or Council of States is the second chamber of the Union Parliament. It gives representation to the states and Union Territories on the basis of population. It is a weaker chamber, in comparison to the Lower House, but it plays a vital role in the constitutional setup.

Composition:
The Council of States is the permanent chamber. Its maximum strength is 250-238  members representing the States and Union Territories rest of the 12 members are nominated by the President from persons having excellence either in Arts, Science, Literature, or Social Service. The members of the Rajya Sabha are elected indirectly by the members of respective states and Union Territories through, proportional representation and a single transferable vote system.

Any citizen of India above 30 years of age and possessing all other qualifications can become a member of the House. The term of each member is six years and one-third of them retire every two years. The Vice-President acts as the ex-officio chairman of the House.

Powers and Functions :
The Council of States performs the following functions:

Legislative Functions :
The Rajya Sabha shares equal legislative powers with the Lok Sabha. No ordinary bill can become an Act without its approval, in case of disagreement between the two House on an ordinary, bill, the President can summon a joint sitting and decide the fate of the bill.

Financial Functions:
The House remains subordinate to the Lok Sabha in matters of money bills. No money bill can be introduced into Rajya Sabha. When a bill after approval in the Lok Sabha is sent to the Upper House for approval within a period of 14 days. The House can’t amend the money bills. It merely records its affirmation and the bill is presumed to be passed.

Executive Functions:
The Rajya Sabha cannot exercise effective control over the union government. It can’t pass a no-confidence motion against the ministry nor it can compel the ministry to resign. The ministers remain collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha. It can only raise questions and introduce motions putting the Govt, into trouble.

Amendment of the Constitution:
The Council of States participates in the amendment of the constitution. It can initiate proposals of amendment and without its approval, no portion of the constitution can be amended.

Electoral Power:
The members of the Rajya Sabha do participate in the election of the President & Vice-President of India. They also elect the Deputy Chair Person of the House and Parliamentary committees.

Judicial Powers:
The House shares equal authority with the Lok Sabha in the impeachment of the President. It also approves proposals relating to the removal of Judges of the Supreme Court and High Court.

Special Powers and Utility:
Rajya Sabha is a weaker chamber but It is not powerless. It enjoys certain special powers like;

• Approval of emergency proclamations.
• Initiating proposals for the removal of Vice-President.
• Requesting Parliament under Art-249 to make law on items of state list in the national interest and
• Initiating a proposal for the increase or decrease of posts under the cadre of All India Services.

Utility:
Rajya Sabha is a permanent chamber and it renders useful service to Parliament when Lok Sabha is dissolved. It is a House of elderly statesmen and administrators who contribute their experience toward the promotion of national interests. It relieves the burden of Lok Sabha. It defends the interests of federal units. It represents the diverse interests of the nation.  It plays a vital role as a revisory chamber. It organizes public opinion on important issues interposing delay. Therefore it can’t be considered a superfluous chamber.

Question 9.
Discuss how the Union budget is passed in the Parliament of India.
Answer:
A budget is the annual financial statement of the estimated income and expenditure of a nation. Before, the end of financial year it is the responsibility of the Union Govt. to pass the budget. The Union Finance Ministry prepares the budget and after approval of the ministry, it is introduced into the Lok Sabha with the prior permission of the President.

The Annual Budget is divided into two parts,

• Railway Budget.
• General Budget.

The Railway Minister introduces the railway budget and after 2 to 3 days the Finance Minister presents the General Budget to the Lok Sabha.

Introduction of Budget:
The Finance Minister presents the budget in the last week of February on a fixed date. While introducing the budget, he. makes a budget speech outlining die financial plans and programs of the Govt, for the ensuing year.

Budget Reactions:
After the introduction, each member is given a copy of the budget to go through the details.

General Discussion:
After 3 to 4 days after the introduction, a general1 discussion takes place. The Govt, deferred’s fiscal policies against the criticism of the opposition.

Consideration by Standing Committees:
There are 17 standing committees to review add analyze the details of the general budget. These committees play an active role in the approval of the budget. The recommendation of these committees is put into discussion in the Lok Sabha.

Voting on Demand for Grants:
Just after the general discussion voting on Demand for Grants takes place. The departmental expenditure of different departments is discussed and then put to vote. The Speaker fixes the date and time of such discussion- for each department. If any of the demand is rejected in the House then Govt has to resign.

Passing of Appropriation Bill:
After voting, on Demand for Grants the Appropriation Bill is prepared to assemble the demands passed by the House along with the expenditure charged” upon the Consolidated Fund of India. This Appropriation Bill is presented to the Lok Sabha and it passes the same stages as any other money bill. With the passage of the Appropriation Bill, the demands of expenditure of different departments are sanctioned.

Passing of Finance Bill:
The Finance Bill contains all proposals for taxation and it is presented to the House after the enactment of the Appropriation Bill. It also goes through the same procedure as in the case of a money bill. The Rajya Sabha is given a period of 14 days to approve it. After the passage of the Finance Bill, it is put to the President for signature. It marks the approval of the budget.

Vote on Account:
If for any reason the budget can’t be passed by 31st March the Govt has to seek a Favourable vote from the Parliament to incur necessary expenditures. This adhoc permission is called Vote on Account. The entire budgetary process takes a period of 75 days.

Question 10.
Discuss the organization and functions of the Odisha Legislative Assembly.
Answer:
The State Legislature in Odisha is unicameral and the Lower House is called Legislative Assembly or Vidhan Sabha. It is a representative assembly whose members are elected directly by the citizen voters of the state.

Composition:
The Odisha Legislative Assembly is composed of 147 members elected directly by the citizens on the basis of the universal adult franchise. The Constitution provides that out of seats of the State Legislative Assembly. 34 have been reserved for ST and 22 for SC candidates.

Qualification of the Members:
There are certain qualifications of the members of the State Legislative Assembly, which are as follows:

• He must be a citizen of India.
• He must have completed at least 25 years of age.
• He must not have occupied any other office of profit either under the State Government or the Central Government.

Term:
The term of the Legislative Assembly is five years. But before the completion of the term the House may also be. dissolved by the Governor on account of the failure of the political machinery of the state. Again the term of the House may also be extended another year in the time of emergency.

Functions: The various, functions of the State Legislative Assembly are discussed below.

Legislative Functions:
Formulation of laws is the primary responsibility of the legislature and the legislative assembly is the lower representative House of the citizens exercises relatively greater power in the formulation of laws. No law would be there without the knowledge of the State Legislative Assembly. All the laws relating the finances should alone be introduced in the state Legislative Assembly.

With regard to non-financial matters, the state Legislative Assembly enjoys comparatively a comfortable position. The State Legislature is entitled to formulate laws on the State list concurrent list So the legislative assembly possesses a greater role in the enactment of the laws.

Executive Functions:
The State Legislative Assembly controls the ministry. The executive collectively remains responsible and answerable to the state legislature. The ministers are selected out of the legislature. The Legislative Assembly can put the question to the ministers for their actions and if the legislature loses its faith in the executive it may initiate a no-confidence motion against the Council of Ministers by which the Council of Ministers goes out of office.

Judicial Functions:
The state Legislative Assembly also performs certain judicial functions. Particularly it acts as a judge with regard to the consideration of no-confidence motions and impeachment motions.

Financial Functions:
The Legislative Assembly being the House of popular representatives exercise absolute power over the state treasury. No single paise can be spent without the knowledge of the State Legislative Assembly. The Assembly finalizes the budget, i.e, the annual income and expenditure statement of the revenue administration of the state.

It may pass, reduce, or reject the demands for grants made in the budget. Any legislative proposal for finance must be approved by the state. The State Legislative Assembly must acknowledge all the items of expenditure other than the expenditure raised from the Consolidated Fund of India.

Electoral Function:
The Legislative Assembly also performs certain electoral functions. It participates in the election of the Speaker of the House and elects the representatives to the Council of States. The members of the State Legislative Assembly are also the members of the electoral college which participate in the election of the President of India. So the Legislative Assembly participates in the election of the President of India.

Constituent Function:
Normally the State Legislative Assembly possesses no or little power with regard to the amendment of the Constitution of India. All policy initiatives arc initiated by the Union Parliament and approved by it. But the amendments related to the election of the President of India, High Courts the representation of the States in the Parliament, and Article-368 of the Constitution, all require the ratification of at least one-half of the State, Legislatures.

Question 11.
Discuss the Composition and Functions of the State Legislative Council.
Answer:
In those states where the Legislature is bi-cameral in nature, the Upper House is called the State Legislative council or the Vidhan Parishad the lower house is the Legislative Assembly or the Vidhan Sabha. The State Legislative Council is a permanent House. Unlike the State Legislative Assembly, the members of the State Legislative Council are not directly elected by the people.

Composition:
The members of the State Legislative Council are not directly elected by the people rather its members are elected variously. The Constitution provides that the members of the State Legislative Council should not exceed the l/3rd strength of the legislative assembly. So the maximum strength of the Legislative Council should hot exceed 160 and it must not be less than 40.

There are elected as well as nominated members of the State Legislative Council. There are the following kinds of members in the State Legislative Council what the Constitution provides. One-third of its members shall be elected by the members of various local bodies i.e., Municipalities, District Boards, and other Local Bodies. One-twelfth of its members shall be elected by university graduates of not less than three years standing.

One-twelfth of its members shall be elected by the teachers not less than the standard of secondary schools. One-third of its members shall be elected by the members of the Legislative Assembly. And finally, one-sixth of its members shall be nominated by the Governor from among the persons having knowledge in the field of literature, art, or any other specialized field.

Qualification of the Members:
The Constitution provides that the members of the State Legislative Council should possess the following qualifications. ,

• He must be a citizen of India.
• He must have completed 30 years of age.
• Thirdly, the members should not hold any office of profit either under the State Government or the Central Government. If he holds such an office he must vacate at the time of election.

Tenure:
Ordinarily, the members of the State Legislative Council are elected for a period of six years. But the State Legislative Council is a permanent House and it is not subject to any dissolution. One-third of its members retire in every two years.

Powers and Functions of the Legislative Council:
The legislative Assembly which is the popular House enjoys comparatively more power than the State Legislative Council. However, it would not be assumed that the State Legislative Council doesn’t possess any power.

The following are the various powers and functions of the State Legislative Council.

Legislative Functions:
The State Legislature consists of the Legislative Assembly, the Legislative Council, and the Governor. So the Legislative Council of each and every state, where there is a bicameral legislature, participates in the affairs of formulation of laws. All kinds of bills, except money bill, may be introduced into the State Legislative Council. Again all bills which are introduced and passed by the Legislative Assembly must be sent to the Legislative Council for its assent.

The Legislative Council may or may not give its assent or may return the bill for reconsideration of the bill. But after reconsideration, the council must give its assent. But in case of any bill is rejected by the council for the second time and one month has been completed it would be presumed that the bill has been passed by the Legislative Council.

Executive Functions:
The State Legislative Council also possesses some executive or administrative functions. Unlike the Legislative Assembly, the Legislative Council cannot pursue a no-confidence motion against the Council of Ministry but it can ask questions to the minister regarding the administration of the state. It can pass also resolutions concerning the administration of the state.

Financial Functions:
The State Legislative Council enjoys comparatively less financial power than the Legislative Assembly. The Constitution provides that no financial bill can be introduced in the Legislative Council. All sorts of money bills are first introduced in the State Legislative Assembly and it can be sent to the Council for its assent. The Legislative Council may suggest change but that may or may not be accepted by the legislative assembly. The council may delay the passing of money bills up to maximum 14 days.

From the above discussions, it has become clear that the State Legislative Council enjoys less power in comparison to the State Legislative Assembly: The State Legislative Council is not only the second chamber but also the secondary chamber of the state legislature. It can be termed as the House of elders and its function is to advise and suggestions to the younger who are, strong, active and efficient. The Legislative Assembly can make or unmake everything by taking into confidence the council.

The state Legislative Council is a chamber that has been there with a view to ensuring checks The significance of the State Legislative Assembly is that it is a body of professionals having technical knowledge which represents various functional interests. Its debates are marked by higher intensity, in-depth knowledge and broad political insight. Although it has it’s technical side yet, its hand had been tied with regard to powers in comparison to State Legislative Assembly.

Question 12.
Examine the relationship between the two Houses of the State Legislature.
(Or)
Discuss the relationship between the Legislative Assembly and the Legislative Council of State.
Answer:
The Constitution of India has provided for bicameralism at the state level, though there is bicameralism only in five states. The lower chamber is called the Legislative Assembly of Vidhan Sabha while the upper chamber is known as the Legislative Councilor Vidhan Parishad. The Assembly is the popular chamber that exercises supremacy over the upper chamber.

Organization:
The Assembly has a- membership which is three times that of the membership of the Legislative Council. The Assembly is the Lower House whose members are elected directly for a term of five years. The Legislature Council is a secondary chamber whose members are elected indirectly for a term of six years.

Functions:
Not only in the organization but also in powers and functions the Lower House enjoys a place of primacy.

As regards ordinary bills:
Ordinary bills can be introduced into either House of the. The legislature and unless passed in both of them cannot become an Act. An ordinary bill passed by the Assembly when submitted to the Legislative Council. The latter can reject or approve it within three months. If the period is over even without the approval of the council the bill is supposed to have been passed in the Upper House.

‘If returned it must be’ approved within one month, Thus the Upper House can delay an ordinary bill at best for four months. It cannot prevent any bill from passing in the Assembly. But, if a bill initiated in the upper chamber is opposed by the tower one then the future of the bill is killed.

As regards money bills:
No money bill can be introduced into the Legislative Council. Only when a money bill is passed in the Lower House is submitted to the upper one, the House is given a time of 14 days to give its opinion on the bill. If the period elapses then the bill is supposed to have been passed. The Council can not amend money bills or proposals of taxation.

Control over executive:
The Lower House of the legislature exercises controls over the state council of ministers. The ministers remain accountable to the Assembly and if necessary it can pass a vote of no-confidence and force the ministry to resign, But the Legislative Council has no such control over the executive. It cannot drive the ministers out.

Other Spheres:

• The Assembly participates in the election of the President of India, but the council does not.
• The Assembly can participate in constitutional amendments, but the council can’t.
• The debates and deliberations of the Lower House attract public attention, but no such attention is given to the discussions of the Lower House.
• Therefore, the Legislative Council is considered not only a second chamber but also a secondary one. It does not obstruct the Assembly in its business.

Odisha State Board CHSE Odisha Class 11 Political Science Solutions Unit 4 Constitution at Work-I Objective Questions and Answers.

CHSE Odisha 11th Class Political Science Unit 4 Constitution at Work-I Objective Questions

Multiple Choice Questions With Answers

Question 1.
How many members are there in the election commission of India?
(a) one
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) Five
Answer:
(c) Three

Question 2.
Which article of the constitutions of India deals with Election Commission?
(a) Art. 248
(b) Art. 268
(c) Art. 348
(d) Art. 324
Answer:
(d) Art. 324

Question 3.
How many members were there in the Election Commission of India where the Indian Constitution came into force?
(a) one
(b) two
(c) three
(d) four
Answer:
(a) one

Question 4.
In which year did membership of the election commission increase?
(a) 1977
(b) 1981
(c) 1985
(d) 1989
Answer:
(d) 1989

Question 5.
Who appoints the members of the Election commission?
(a) President of India
(b) Prime minister of India
(c) Parliament of India
(d) Council ministers
Answer:
(a) President of India

Question 6.
When the members of the election commission retire from service?
(a) At the age of 60 years
(b) At the age of 65 years
(c) At the age of 62 years
(d) At the age of 70 years
Answer:
(b) At the age of 65 years

Question 7.
Which type of representation is never seen in a democracy?
(a) Propositional Representation
(b) Universal suffrage
(c) Minority representation
(d) Communal representation
Answer:
(d) Communal representation

Question 8.
To which of the following offices the Election Commission does not conduct polls?
(a) President & Vice President
(b) Loksabha & Rajya Sabha
(c) Legislative Assembly Members
(d) Members of Municipality
Answer:
(d) Members of Municipality

Question 9.
From which year electronic voting. machine (EVM) was introduced in General Election?
(a) January 15, 1990
(b) March 15, 1989
(c) April 15, 1996
(d) February 15, 1998
Answer:
(b) March 15, 1989

Question 10.
When the campaigning for election ends?
(a) 24 hours before the poll
(b) 48 hours before the poll
(c) 24 hours before the end of the poll
(d) 48 hours before the end of the poll
Answer:
(d) 48 hours before the end of the poll

Question 11.
What percentage of vote does a candidate need to secure so that his security deposit will not be forfeited?
(a) One third
(b) One fourth
(c) One fifth
(d) One-sixth of the valid votes.
Answer:
(d) One-sixth of the valid votes.

Question 12.
Who among the following is a supporter of universal suffrage?
(a) J.S. Mill
(b) II.J. Laski
(c) Sir Henry Maine
(d) Blantschli
Ans.
(b) II.J. Laski

Question 13.
Electoral reforms have been introduced on the recommendation of which commission?
(a) Savalwal Committee
(b) Sindhi Committee
(c) Dinesh Goswamy Committee
(d) Virappa moilee Committee
Answer:
(c) Dinesh Goswamy Committee

Question 14.
On whose name the bills are introduced into the Parliament?
(a) President of India
(b) Prime Minister
(c) Speaker
(d) Departmental Minister
Ans.
(a) President of India

Question 15.
What is the tenure of Lok Sabha?
(a) five years
(b) four years
(c) six years
(d) none of these
Answer:
(a) five years

Question 16.
Who nominates the 12 members of Rajyasabha
(a) President of India
(b) Chairman of Rajya Sabha
(c) Members of Rajya Sabha
(d) Prime Minister
Answer:
(a) President of India

Question 17.
Who initiates money bill in the Lok Sabha?
(a) President of India
(b) Prime Minister
(c) Finance Minister of India
(d) Speaker of Lok Sabha
Answer:
(c) Finance Minister of India

Question 18.
How many seats are reserved for SC and ST in the Lok Sabha?
(a) 79 and 40
(b) 75 and 51
(c) 34 and 22
(d) 85 and 47
Answer:
(a) 79 and 40

Question 19.
What is the term of office of a Member of the Rajya Sabha?
(a) 5 years
(b) 6 years
(c) 4 years
(d) permanent
Answer:
(b) 6 years

Question 20.
Through which motion the President can be removed from office?
(a) No – confidence motion
(b) Censure motion
(c) Impeachment
(d) Exit motion
Answer:
(c) Impeachment

Question 21.
What is the minimum age qualification for membership of LokSabha?
(a) 25 years
(b) 30 years
(c) 35 years
(d) 21 years
Answer:
(a) 25 years

Question 22.
How many states of India have bicameral legislature?
(a) five
(b) six
(c) ten
(d) seven
Answer:
(a) five

Question 23.
Which one is not a function of the legislature?
(a) Enactment of Law
(b) Amendment of the Constitution
(c) Preparation of budget
(d) Ventilation of public grievances
Answer:
(c) Preparation of budget

Question 24.
How the Legislature controls the executive?
(a) By passing a no-confidence motion
(b) By putting questions to the ministers
(c) By initiation cut motion
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above

Question 25:
Which is the most powerful organ of Govt, in India?
(a) Executive
(b) Parliament
(c) Supreme Court
(d) Bureaucracy
Answer:
(b) Parliament

Question 26.
Which is the exclusive power of Rajya Sabha?
(a) To initiate money bills
(b) To initiate proposals for the removal of the President
(c) To initiate proposals for the removal of the Vice President
(d) To initiate proposals for the removal of the comptroller Auditor-General
Answer:
(c) To initiate proposals for the removal of the Vice President

Question 27.
On whose recommendation posts under All India Services can be increased or decreased?
(a) Lok Sabha
(b) Rajya Sabha
(c) Supreme Court
(d) Cabinet Sub-Committee
Answer:
(b) Rajya Sabha

Question 28.
What constitutes the Quorum of the LokSabha?
(a) l/5th of the total membership
(b) l/6th of the total membership
(c) l/10thof-total membership
(d) l/20th of the total membership
Answer:
(c) l/10thof-total membership

Question 29.
Who presides over the joint sitting of the Parliament?
(a) President of India
(b) Prime Minister of India
(c) Vice President
(d) Speaker of Lok Sabha
Answer:
(d) Speaker of Lok Sabha

Question 30.
What is the maximum strength of a Legislative Assembly?
(a) 485
(b) 450
(c) 500
(d) 600
Answer:
(c) 500

Question 31.
The Union Council of Ministers is responsible to
(a) Lok Sabha
(b) Rajya Sabha
(c) Union Parliament .
(d) President of India
Answer:
(a) Lok Sabha

Question 32.
Who prorogues the session of Parliament?
(a) Speaker of Lok Sabhas
(b) Prime Minister
(c) President
(d) Vice President
Answer:
(c) President

Question 33.
A money bill is introduced into?
(a) The Lok Sabha
(b) The Rajya Sabha
(c) Into either House of Parliament
(d) Union Cabinet
Answer:
(a) The Lok Sabha

Question 34.
Which House can initiate proposals of amendment?
(a) Lok Sabha
(b) Rajya Sabha
(c) Either Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha
(d) State Legislative Assembly
Answer:
(c) Either Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha

Question 35.
The Rajya Sabha is
(a) The Second Chamber of Parliament
(b) The Upper House of Parliament
(c) A Permanent Chamber
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above

Question 36.
Who acts as a link between the President and Union Parliament?
(a) Prime Minister
(b) Vice President
(c) Home Minister
(d) Speaker of Lok Sabha
Answer:
(d) Speaker of Lok Sabha

Question 37.
Who protects the privileges of members of Parliament?
(a) President
(b) Vice President
(c) Prime Minister
(d) Speaker
Answer:
(d) Speaker

Question 38.
Which is not a duty of the Speaker of Lok Sabha?
(a) To maintain discipline
(b) To interpret the rules of business of the House.
(c) To introduce bills
(d) To certify the money bills
Answer:
(c) To introduce bills

Question 39.
On whose recommendation the Governor dissolves the State Legislative Assembly?
(a) Prime Minister
(b) chief minister
(c) President
(d) State Council of Minister
Answer:
(c) President

Question 40.
On which items the State Legislature can make law?
(a) State List
(b) State List & Concurrent List
(c) Union List and State List
(d) State List and residuary matters
Answer:
(d) State List and residuary matters

Question 41.
How many S.C. and S.T. members are there in the Odisha Legislative Assembly?
(a) 22 and 34
(b) 34 and 22
(c) 32 and 24
(d) 24 and 32
Answer:
(a) 22 and 34

Question 42.
What is the strength of Odisha Vidhan Sabha?
(a) 155
(b) 165
(c) 149
(d) 147
Answer:
(d) 147

Question 43.
How many members represent Odisha in the Lok Sabha?
(a) Ten
(b) Twenty
(c) Twenty one
(d) Twenty-five
Answer:
(c) Twenty one

Question 44.
What is the term of the Legislative Assembly?
(a) five years
(b) six years
(c) one year
(d) four years
Answer:
(a) five years

Question 45.
Out of the 21 seats how many seats are reserved for SC and ST candidates representing Odisha in the Lok Sabha?
(a) 3 and 4
(b) 3 and 5
(c) 4 and 5
(d) 5 and 7
Answer:
(b) 3 and 5

Question 46.
When does the question hour start?
(a) 10 AM to 11 AM
(b) 11 AM to 12 Noon
(c) 12 Noon to 1 PM
(d) 4 PM to 5 PM
Answer:
(d) 4 PM to 5 PM

Question 47.
When the zero-hour starts?
(a) 9AMto 10 AM
(b) 10 AM to 11 AM
(c) 11 AM to 12 Noon
(d) 12 Noon to 1 PM
Answer:
(d) 12 Noon to 1 PM

Question 48.
Out of 147 members in Odisha Vidhan Sabha how many seats are reserved for SC and ST candidates?
(a) 23 and 27
(b) 21 and 25
(c) 23 and 34
(d) 27 and 39
Answer:
(c) 23 and 34

Question 49.
Who presides over the meeting of the Rajya Sabha?
(a) President of India
(b) Vice President
(c) Speaker
(d) Home Minister
Answer:
(b) Vice President

Question 50.
What is the maximum strength of Lok Sabha?
(a) 547
(b) 545
(c) 550
(d) 552
Answer:
(d) 552

Question 51.
When does the financial year start?
(a) January 1st
(b) March 1st
(c) April 1st
(d) June 1st
Answer:
(c) April 1st

Question 52.
Who certifies whether a bill is a money bill or not?
(a) President of India
(b) Speaker of Loksabha
(c) Finance Minister
(d) Prime Minister
Answer:
(b) Speaker of Loksabha

Question 53.
Who convinces the sessions of Parliament?
(a) President of India
(b) Prime Minister
(c) Speaker
(d) Secretary of Loksabha
Answer:
(a) President of India

Question 54.
In which part of the constitution there is mention of the election commission?
(a) Part-VIII
(b) Part – XI
(c) Part – XIV
(d) Part-XV
Answer:
(d) Part-XV

Question 55.
By which amendment Act the voting age of voters is reduced from 21 to 18 years?
(a) 59th
(b) 60th
(c) 61st
(d) 62nd
Answer:
(c) 61st

Answer the following questions in one word or digit

Question 1.
Who was the first Chief Election Commissioner of India?
Answer:
Sukumar Sen

Question 2.
Who is responsible for conducting a free and fair pool in India?
Answer:
Election Commission of India.

Question 3.
From which year EVMs are being used in Elections?
Answer:
14th March 1989

Question 4.
How many proposers and seconders sign the presidential nomination?
Answer:
50 and 50

Question 5.
For which posts direct election is held in India?
Answer:
Membership of Loksabha and Vidhansabha

Question 6.
For which posts indirect election is held?
Answer:
President, Vice-President’ & Rajya Sabha members.

Question 7.
From which date the voting age of voters is reduced from 21 to 18 years?
Answer:
21st March 1989.

Question 8.
What is the tenure of office of the members of the Election Commission?
Answer:
6 yrs or attaining 65 yrs which is earlier.

Question 9.
Which chamber of the legislature safeguards the interests of a federation?
Answer:
Upper Chamber

Question 10.
Which one is the primary organ of government?
Answer:
Legislature

Question 11.
The council Ministers in a parliamentary system remain answerable to which house of the legislature?
Answer:
Lower

Question 12.
From which word has the term Parliament has been derived?
Answer:
Latin word ‘Parle’

Question 13.
How many nominated members are there in the Rajya Sabha?
Answer:
12

Question 14.
How many members of Loksabha represent the Union Territories?
Answer:
13

Question 15.
Besides the Union List on which list can, the Parliament make law during normalcy?
Answer:
Concurrent List

Question 16.
By which power, the President can return an ordinary bill back to the Parliament for reconsideration?
Answer:
Suspensive Veto

Question 17.
Who gives the certificate to a money bill?
Answer:
Speaker

Question 18.
Who presides over the Rajya Sabha?
Answer:
Vice President

Question 19.
Who elects the members of the Rajya Sabha?
Answer:
Members of Vidhan Sabha

Question 20.
When was the first election to the Parliament in India held?
Answer:
1952

Question 21.
Who reads out the Oath of office and secrecy to the members of the Rajya Sabha?
Answer:
Chairman or Vice Chairman of the house

Question 22.
Which house of parliament can initiate proposals for the removal of the Vice President?
Answer:
Upper House

Question 23.
Which house of parliament initiates A confidence motion against the union council ministers
Answer:
LokSabha

Question 24:
For how many days can the Rajya Sabha detain a money bill?
Answer:
14 days.

Question 25.
Who acts is the leader of Lok Sabha?
Answer:
Prime Minister

Question 26.
Who acts as a link between the Parliament and President?
Answer:
Speaker

Question 27.
Who introduces the Annual Budget into the Lok Sabha?
Answer:
Finance Minister of India

Question 28.
For how many days the Rajya Sabha can delay an ordinary bill?
Answer:
Six Months

Question 29.
What is the hour just after the question hour is called?
Answer:
Zero hour

Question 30.
Who exercises casting vote in case of a tie?
Answer:
Speaker

Question 31.
Can there be a joint sitting for a constitutional amendment bill?
Answer:
No

Question 32.
Which constitutional authority can enhance the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court?
Answer:
Parliament

Question 33.
When the Lok Sabha is dissolved who approves the emergency proclamations?
Answer:
Rajya Sabha

Question 34.
Who Presides over the Lok Sabha during the absence of the Speaker?
Answer:
Deputy Speaker

Question 35.
What is the maximum limit of expenditure of a member of Lok Sabha during elections?
Answer:
25 lakhs

Question 36.
What is the maximum election expenditure limit of a member of Vidhan Sabha?
Answer:
15 lakhs

Question 37.
In which court of law the electoral disputes between the President and Vice President are settled?
Answer:
Supreme Court of India

Question 38.
In which court of law the electoral disputes of MPs and MLAs are settled?
Answer:
High Court

Question 39.
What is the amount of security deposit a presidential candidate must pledge?
Answer:
Rs. 15,000/

Question 40.
Who reads the oath of office of the member of parliament?
Answer:
President of India or his representative

Question 41.
What is the amount of the MP LAD fund?
Answer:
Rs.5 crores

Question 42.
What is the amount of the MLA LAD fund?
Answer:
One crore

Question 43.
How many members are there in the Rajya Sabha?
Answer:
233+12 = 245

Question 44.
When does the financial year start?
Answer:
April 1st

Question 45.
By which motion, the Union Council of ministry can be removed?
Answer:
No confidence motion.

Question 46.
Who casts the casting vote in case of a tie in the Loksabha?
Answer:
Speaker of Loksabha

Question 47.
What is the monthly salary of the Vice President?
Answer:
Rs. 1,25,000

Question 48.
What is the constitutional name of the budget?
Answer:
Annual Financial Statement

Fill in the blanks

1. Free and fair elections are indispensable for a ____ state.
Answer: Democracy.

2.The Indian constitution under Art._____ provides for an election commission.
Answer: Art. 324.

3. The membership of the election commission has increased to three from _____ general election.
Answer: Xth.

4. The tenure of office of the election commission is ____ years.
Answer: Six.

5. The members of the election commission retire at the age of ______ years.
Answer: 65.

6. The Chief Election Commissioner can be removed from office on the ground of _____.
Answer: Proved misbehavior and incapacity.

7._____ removes the members of the Election Commission?
Answer: President.

8. Seats have been reserved for the SC and STs in the Loksabha under Art. ______
Answer: Art. 330.

9. Under Art. _____ spats have been reserved for SC and ST candidates in the Vidhansabha.
Answer: Art. 332.

10. The president nominates two members from Anglo Indian Community to the Loksabha under Art._______
Answer: Art. 331.

11.______ Allots symbols to different political parties.
Answer: Election Commission.

12. Art. _____ provides for a joint sitting of the parliament.
Answer: Art. 108.

13. The Legislative Council can be created or abolished under Art. ______ of the constitution?
Answer: Art. 169.

14.Art._____ provides for consolidated fund of India.
Answer: Art. 266.

15. The constitution under Art. ______ provides for the emergency funds of India.
Answer: Art. 267.

16.______ sanctions fund out of the contingency fund of India.
Answer: President of India.

17. The parliament consists of the Loksabha. The Rajyasabha and the _____.
Answer: President of India.

18. Odisha sends ____ members to Rajyasabha.
Answer: 10.

19. The maximum strength, of Loksabha, is ____.
Answer: 552.

20. The maximum strength of the Rajya Sabha is _____.
Answer: 250.

21._____ members from Odisha represent the Parliament.
Answer: 31.

22. The members of Rajya Sabha are ____ elected.
Answer: Indirectly.

23. The minimum age of a member of Lok Sabha is _____ years.
Answer: 25 years.

24. A member of the Rajya Sabha must be above _____ years of age.
Answer: 30.

25. One-third members of the Rajya Sabha retire every ____ years
Answer: Two.

26. Rajya Sabha can detain an ordinary bill for not more than ______.
Answer: Six months.

27. Money bills are introduced into the ______.
Answer: Lok Sabha.

28.No Money Bill can be introduced into the Parliament without ______.
Answer: Prior permission of the President.

29.The Lok Sabha represents ___SC and ___ST candidates.
Answer: 79 & 40.

30. ______ is the Presiding Officer of the Lok Sabha.
Answer: Speaker.

31. The Lok Sabha is summoned for at least a ____ year.
Answer: Twice.

32. The ______ casts his vote in case of a tie.
Answer: Speaker.

33. So far National Emergency has been declared in India for _____ times.
Answer: Three.

34. The Lok Sabha can be dissolved by the _____ on the advice, of the-Prime Minister.
Answer: President.

35. The _____ can initiate proposals for the removal of the Vice-President.
Answer: Rajya Sabha.

36.No confidence motion is introduced only in the ______ house of parliament.
Answer: Lower.

37. Indian Parliament is ______.
Answer: Bicameral.

38._____ is the federal chamber of the Union Parliament.
Answer: Rajya Sabha.

39. The last National Emergency in India is declared on the ground of ______.
Answer: Internal disturbance.

40.______ is the final authority to decide on the disqualification of a member.
Answer: Speaker.

41. The President nominates ______ members from the Anglo-Indian Community to the Lok Sabha if the said community has not been adequately represented in the House.
Answer: Two.

42. The Indian President exercises only _____ veto power.
Answer: Suspensive.

43. The Quorum of the Lok Sabha is ______ of the total membership.
Answer: One-tenth.

44._____ was the only Prime Minister of India who never faced the Parliament.
Answer: Charan Singh.

45._____ members of the Rajya Sabha are elected.
Answer: 238.

46. The Union Territories represent ______ members to the Upper House.
Answer: Six.

47. Proposals of the constitutional amendment are initiated by _______ house of parliament.
Answer:
Either.

48. Under Art _____the Rajya Sabha can pass a resolution and empower the Parliament to create or abolish All India Services.
Answer: 249.

49. A legislative proposal before final approval is known as _______.
Answer: Bill.

50. All money bills are _______ bills.
Answer: Public.

51. The President of India can not withhold assent to a ______bill.
Answer: Money.

52. There is a bicameral legislature in ______ states of India.
Answer: Five.

53. The state legislature in Orissa is ______.
Answer: Unicameral.

54. The second chamber of the State Legislature in India is known as _____.
Answer: Vidhan Parishad.

55. The Presiding officer of the state legislative council is known as ______.
Answer: Chairman.

56. A member of the Legislative Council must be above years of age.
Answer: 30.

57. The legislative Council can delay an ordinary bill for a maximum period of ______.
Answer: Four months.

58. A member of the State Legislative Assembly must be not less than _____ years of age.
Answer: 25.

59. The Speaker of the Legislative Assembly determines the agenda in consultation with the ______.
Answer: Chief Minister.

60. The maximum strength of the Odisha Legislative Assembly is ______.
Answer:147.

61.Out of 147 members _____ seats have been reserved for the SC and ______seats for ST candidates.
Answer:23 and 34.

62. Provision for the creation of abolition of the Legislative Council has been mentioned under Art. ______ of the Constitution.
Answer:169.

63. The members of the State Legislative Council are ______ elected.
Answer: Indirectly.

64. The second chamber of the state legislature can retain money bills for ______ days.
Answer:14 days.

65._____ legislature is suitable for a small & poor country.
Answer: Unicameral.

66. The term of the Indian Parliament is ______.
Answer:5 years.

67. There are ______ Scheduled Caste and Scheduled Tribe members in the Lok Sabha from Odisha.
Answer:3 and 5.

68. There ____ SC and _____ ST members in the Lok Sabha.
Answer:79 and 40.

69. The Speaker of Lok sabha gets a monthly salary of _____ rupees.
Answer:55,000.

70. Odisha Vidhansabha is _____ in structure.
Answer: Unicameral.

71. The second chamber of the state legislature is called ______.
Answer: Vidhan Parishad

72. A _______ legislature is useful for a federal state.
Answer: Bicameral.

73. Under Art. ______ the Rajya Sabha can recommend the creation of posts for All India Services.
Answer:312.

74. The Legislative Council should not have less than _____ members.
Answer:40.

75. Money bills are introduced into the Lok Sabha as per Art. ______.
Answer:109 .

76. Railway budget is being introduced separately from the year_______.
Answer:1925.

77. Art. ______ provides for a vote on Account.
Answer:116.

78.Art._____ of the constitution deals with state legislature.
Answer:168.

79. The minimum age required for membership in Vidhansabha is _____.
Answer:25 yrs.

80. Universal franchise is extended under Art. ______.
Answer: Art. 326.

81. Anybody contesting for membership in Lok Sabha has to deposit _______ rupees as a security deposit.
Answer:10,000.

82. Anybody contesting for a seat in the Vidhan Sabha has to deposit Rs. _______ as security.
Answer:5000.