CHSE Odisha Class 12 Economics Solutions Chapter 12 Money and Banking

Odisha State Board CHSE Odisha Class 12 Economics Solutions Chapter 12 Money and Banking Questions and Answers.

CHSE Odisha 12th Class Economics Chapter 12 Question Answer Money and Banking

Group – A

Short type Questions with Answers
I. Answer with in Two/Three sentence.

Question 1.
Money facilitates credit transaction.
Answer:
Money acts as standard of deferred payment & on account of this, anybody can postpone its payment for current transaction & pay it in future. It shows that money facilitates credit transaction.

Question 2.
Money is what money does.
Answer:
Money performs a wide variety of functions almost in all fields, money has got certain role to play. So it is rightly told money is what money does.

Question 3.
Bank drafts & cheques are near money.
Answer:
Bank drafts & cheques perform the functions of money; but these are not so liquid nor legal tender like money. So there are named as near money.

Question 4.
Every loan creates a deposit.
Answer:
When any person gets loan from a bank, the t^ank opens an account in the name of this borrower & frrom this account the borrower withdraws the money. So every loan creates a deposit.

Question 5.
Current deposit does not bear any interest.
Answer:
Current deposit is such a deposit which can be withdrawn at any date during the banking hours without having any restriction or early information. Because of such high frequency of withdrawal, the bank does not pay any interest.

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Economics Solutions Chapter 12 Money and Banking

Question 6.
Comercial banks are the agents of economic development.
Answer:
Commercial banks mobilises the saving of the individuals & invest money in productive channels. So commercial banks are called the agents of economic development.

Question 7.
Central bank is the lender of the last resort.
Answer:
When any commercial bank is under the crunch of financial bankruptcy, the central bank gives loan to the commercial bank for its revival. So it is called the lender of the last resort.

Question 8.
Central bank is the bankers’ bank.
Answer:
Central bank guides, advises & frames rules for the commercial banks. It also keeps a fraction of deposit of commercial banks with itself to meet the emergency & also determines the bank rate & controls the credit. So, it is called bankrs bank. .

Question 9.
Central bank is the bank of the government.
Answer:
Central bank guides, advises & suggests the government for its smooth functioning of economic system. It gives loan to the government & directly deal with the problem of the government. So, it is called as the bank of the government.

Question 10.
Central bank controls credit.
Answer:
When there is credit expansion made by the commercial banks, the central banks comes forward to control it through its monetary & fiscal operation alongwith certain selective’ credit control measures. The central bank thus, controls credit.

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Economics Solutions Chapter 12 Money and Banking

Question 11.
Central bank is the apex bank.
Answer:
In monetary affair, central bank plays a vital role in banking business. It controls, guides & advises the commercial banks. So it is called apex bank.

Question 12.
Money facilitates credit transaction.
Answer:
Money acts as a standard of deferred payment as well as a store of value. So it can facilitate credit transaction.

Question 13.
Near money is optional.
Answer:
Near money though performs certain functions of money; yet it lacks liquidity and legal approval in respect of universal acceptability. So it is optional.

Question 14.
Bank money is not legal tender.
Answer:
Bank money like draft and cheque do not have universal acceptability and also lack liquidity like money. So it is quite optional because of legal approval.

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Economics Solutions Chapter 12 Money and Banking

Question 15.
Commercial banks create credit.
Answer:
Commercial banks can give loan to the borrower which can be disburbed through opening an account. Thus commercial bank gets scope to create credit.

Question 16.
Central Bank is the bankers bank.
Answer:
Central bank guides advises and suggests the commercial banks with regard to monetary transactions. These banks keeps a fraction of their deposit with central bank to create credibility and reliability among the customers. So central bank is the bankers bank.

Question 17.
Central bank has the monopoly of note-issue.
Answer:
Central bank is the apex bank which controls the money supply in the economy. In order maintain uniformity in the money supply and to control economic hazards, the central bank enjoys the monopoly of note issue.

Question 18.
Central bank is the lender of the last report.
Answer:
Central bank gives loan to the commercial bank at the time of its need. When commercial banks becomes bankrupt, central banks comes forward to help these banks for their revival. So the central bank is called the lender of the last resort.

II. Answer with in Five/Six sentence :

Question 1.
Money acts as a standard of deferred payments. Explain.
Answer:
Money possesses the feature of ‘general acceptability’. Hence, it is quite natural that money facilitates the deferred payments. In other words, money, being the medium of exchange, facilitates the credit transaction through its function as a standard of deferred payments. But for this, money must maintain a constant value through time.

Question 2.
What is Near Money?
Answer:
Money consists of legal tender money and bank money. In case of big transactions where large payments are involved bank money in the form of bank drafts, bank cheques is used. In modem economies, bank money plays a vital role and forms a major proportion of money supply.

There are other assets which cannot be technically regarded as money but are claims to money and perform some functions of money. Such assets one called ‘ Near Money’. Near Money refers to all those assets which possess many of the features of money, have high degree of liquidity, and can be easily converted into maoney. Near money cannot be directly used for making transactions. This must be converted into money proper before use. Near money assets are highly liquid but is not as liquid as the money is. They are close substitutes of money but not the perfect substitutes. Some examples of near money are Bills of Exchange, Bonds, Debentures, shares etc.

Question 3.
Distinguish between Money and Near Money.
Answer:
The distinction between money and near money can be expressed on the following grounds.
(i) Definition – Money consists of coins, currencies and demand deposits of the banks whereas Near Money includes the financial assets like time deposits, bills of exchanges, bonds, equity shares etc.

(ii) Liquidity- Money is found to be highly liquid in comparison to Near Money.

(iii) Function – Money serves as a Unit of Account or a common measure of value. But Near Money does not perform such functions.

(iv) Transaction- Money can be spent directly for making any sorts of transaction but Near money lacks this; rather it should be converted into money proper before its use.

Question 4.
Show that Money and Near Money are similar.
Answer:
Both the Money and Near money are claims. Money proper like, coins and currency notes are claims over the government and Central Bank. Near money assets are claims over their respective parties or institutions. Secondly, liquidity is the common attribute of both money and near money. Lastly, both money and near money act as a store of value.

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Economics Solutions Chapter 12 Money and Banking

Question 5.
What is current deposit?
Answer:
Current deposit is that deposit which can be withdrawn in as many times and in as much amount as desired by the depositor. Normally no interest is paid on these deposits. Current deposits are otherwise called Demand Deposits and are very much popular among the businessmen and traders.

Question 6.
What is cash credit?
Answer:
Cash credit is a type of loan given to the borrower against his current assets such as shares, stocks, bonds etc. Such loans are not based on personal security. The bank opens an account in the name of the borrower and allows him to withdraw the sanctioned amount from time to time up to a certain limit as determined as the value of his current assets. Interest is charged only on the amount withdrawn.

Question 7.
What is overdraft?
Answer:
Overdraft is a system adopted by the Commercial Banks to advance loans to its depositors over and above their amount deposited. Under this facility, the customers of the bank are allowed to withdraw more amount than their deposits. Interest is charged from the customers on the overdrawn amount.

Question 8.
Commercial Banks create credit. Explain.
Answer:
Credit creation is a unique function of the commercial banks. Credit creation is the natural outcome of the process of advancing loans as adopted by the banks. When a bank advances a loan to its customers, it does not lend cash but opens an account in his name, and credits the amount of loan to this account. Thus, whenever a bank grants a loan, it creates an equal amount of bank deposit creation and such deposit is called credit creation which results in a net increase in the money stock of the economy.
Banks have the ability to create credit many times more than their deposits.

Question 9.
Write a short note on “Lender of the Last Resort”
Answer:
As an apex bank and banker’s bank, the Central Bank acts as the lender of the last resort. Whenever, the commercial banks are not able to meet their financial requirements from any other source, they approach the Central Bank for financial accommodation. The Central Bank provides such financial accommodation to the Commercial Banks by rediscounting their eligible securities and exchange bills. Thus, the Central Bank is considered to be the ‘Lender of the Last Resort”

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Economics Solutions Chapter 12 Money and Banking

Question 10.
Write a short note on “Banker’s Bank”.
Answer:
The Central Bank acts as the ‘Bankers’ Bank” in three capacities such as (a) a custodian of the cash reserves of the Commercial Banks, (b) the Lender of the Last Resort and (c) as clearing agent. As a custodian of the cash reserves, the Central Bank maintains the cash reserves of the Commercial Banks. Every Commercial Bank has to keep a certain percentage of its cash balances as deposits with the Central Bank. Thgse cash reserves are utilised at the time of urgency raised by the Commercial Banks. Since all the banks have their accounts with the Central Bank, the Central Bank can easily settle the claims of the commercial basis. Hence, the Central Bank acts both as the lender of the last resort and as a clearing agent for the Commercial Banks.

Question 11.
Write a short note on “Cash credit”.
Answer:
Cash credit is tfie credit granted against the borrower’s promissory notes guaranteed by at least two securities. Sometimes it is supported by a pledge of securities or goods. In such cases, if advances are sanctioned, the bank opens an account in the name of the borrower & the loan amount is credited to this account. The borrower pays the interest on the amount already withdrawn. This is very popular amongst the business man.

Question 12.
Write a short note on “Fixed deposit”.
Answer:
The deposits which are made for fixed period of time are called fixed deposits. There deposits can not be with drawn before the expiry of the period. The bank utilises these deposits in profitable channels & also pays higher rate of interest. These deposits are other wise called time deposits.

Group – B

Long Type Questions With Answers

Question 1.
What are the functions of money?
Answer:
Economic activities have become complex and aggravated the difficulties of barter. Barter has become unsuitable under the modems economic condition. So the device of money has been adopted to over come the drawbacks of the barter system. The following are the functions of money:

(i) A Medium of Exchange : The most important function of money is that it serves as a medium of exchange. Now a weaver does not directly exchange his cloth for com. He exchanges it for money. Then he converts his money into com. So if the weaver wants com, her first converts his cloth into money and then money into com. Money comes in between the exchange of the two commodities and act as a medium of exchange. Thus, it eliminates the greatest disadvantage of barter namely, the necessity of double coincidence of wants. This function of money is of greatest economic value. Now-a-days, the wheels of commerce move quickly because there is money which acts as medium of exchange.

(ii) Measure of Value : The value of commodities can be accurately expressed in terms of money. Money works as a common denominator and the values of all commodities can be compared. This facilitates exchnages – Just as we measure the cloth with a yard stick, we measure the values of commodities with money. This function of money removes another disadvantge of barter system namely, the difficulty of measuring the value of commodities. We can keep accounts and enter into contracts in terms of money. Hence money is also called standard of account.

(iii) Standard of Deferred Payments : Borrowing and lending are the important features of modem economy. Commodities and services are taken in advance and payments are made later on. Many transactions are done by means of credit. This is made possible because there is money economy. Without money, we cannot imagine borrowing and lending. Debts and interest on debts can be accurately calculated in terms of money. Uniform price (money interest) for a uniform service (money lending) is made possible by money. Comparatively great stability in value of money aids this function.

(iv) Store of value : Most of the commodities or service can not be store for long. They perish in course of time and lose their value. For e^mple, a labour can not store his labour. He can not make any provisions for old age or period of sickness, if there is no money economy. Now he can convert labour into money and store his money for any length of time. Money doesn’t easily perish and its value does not violently change. Money can also be kept as a liquid asset since it is useful for making ready payments.

There will mot be any incentive for savings and investments it there is no device of money as store of value, Money functions as a standard of store becuase it has got the quality of standard of deferred payments. These last two functions Jof money are interdependent. Without money we cannot imagine manufacture* employing thousands of workers in manufacturing automobiles or building ships. Payments are made to workers in money. Raw materials are purchased with money and the final product is sold for money. There are four functions of money. “All these so called functions money are simply different, but related aspects of the fact that the use of money is essential to a community based on division of labour and exchange.” (Benham)

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Economics Solutions Chapter 12 Money and Banking

Question 2.
What are the functions of commercial bank?
Or
Explain the services of a commercial bank.
Answer:
Commerical bank perform a number of services. Their services can be broadly classified under two heads,
(i) Primary services
(ii) Subsidiary and miscellaneous services.

Primary Services of a Commercial Bank: Banks do not borrow funds in the normal way. They adopt different types of technique. They borrow funds by accepting deposits.

These deposits are of three types. They are fixed deposits, current account deposits and savings bank deposits. Under fixed deposit system, the depositor agrees to keep his money with the bank for as agreed period. He is not allowed to withdraw the money before the expiry of the period. He gets interest on the money for the period. Rich people keep their money with the banks under fixed deposit accounts.

Under current account system, the depositor is allowed to withdraw money upto the deposit amount at any time during the banking hours. Traders and businessmen keep their money with banks under current accounts. All the depositors don’t withdraw their money at the same time. So a banker can use a large part of the money or current accounts for profitable purpose.

Savings bank deposits are intended to make small income groups save something out of their monthly incomes. Banks accept even small amounts under savings deposits. The customers are allowed to withdraw money. But restrictions are placed on such withdrawals.
The banks receive large volume of funds through these deposit accounts from a wide range of people. They pool together the small and scattered amounts of money from large number of people and make them available as loans to trade and industry. Such scattered amounts would remain idle but for banks. Thus banks render three heads. They are overdrafts, cash credits and direct loans.

Overdrafts : Sometimes a customer is allowed to withdraw more than what he has deposited. In this case the bank is said to allow overdraft. The bank charges interest on the amount which is overdrawn by the customer.

Cash Credits : The loan amount is not directly handed over to the customer. A current account is opened in his name and the loan is placed to the credit of his account. The customer can withdraw this amount by cheques according to his need. Interest is calculated not on the total amount of the loan, but oh the amount which is actually utilised by the customer. However, the bank collects some minimum interest wheather the customer makes use of the funds at his disposal or not. Traders prefer cash credits to ordinary loans. Banks also prefer cash credits because they need not pay the entire amount of the loan on the same day. The customer is asked to withdraw the amount by cheques gradually. On the whole, cash credits are very popular in India.

Ordinary Loans : the borrower lodges some securities with the bank and takes the loan amount. The borrower has to pay interest on the entire amount from the date of taking the loan to the date of repayment. Banks also provide lonas to the customers by discouting bills of exchange.

Subsidiary Services of the bankers:
Demand drafts : Banks issue drafts and facilitate remittance of funds from one place to another. When large sums of money have to be sent from one place to another. It is not economical to send them by money order. The best way is to employ the bank as the agent of remittance by purchasing demand draft. The bank collects charges for issuing drafts.

Collection of cheques, bills, pay orders etc of customers : Commercial banks undertake to pay subscriptions insurance premium, rents etc. on behalf of their customers on their standing orders. They make such payment and debit the accounts of their customers. Similarly, banks collect subscriptions, insurance premium or rent etc. on behalf of their customers and credit their accounts. Trustees, executors and attorneys etc: Banks undertake to act as trustees, executors and attorneys on behalf of their customers, if they are authorised to do so.

Purchasing ans selling Securities : Banks also undertake to purchase or sell securities on behalf of their customer. They advice their customers in the matfers of investment.

Issue of letters of credit, circular letters, traveller’s cheques etc : Banks issue letters of credit to the customers and facilitate trade connections with foreign countries. Circular letters are issued to tourists. It is not safe to carry money in person. When a circular letter is taken from a bank, the customer can get cash from banks situated at different places. The issuing bank makes previous arrangements with different banks at different places.

Safe custody deposits : Commercial banks receive valuables such as jewels etc. for safe custody. The banks maintain strong valuts for this purpose. They charges small fee for this services.

Trade references : When a trader wants to establish business connections with a new client be seeks information regarding financial standing and business reputation of his new client. Banks provide such information regarding the business reputation and the standing of their customers on thier request.

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Economics Solutions Chapter 12 Money and Banking

Question 3.
Explain the various types of deposits of a commercial bank.
Answer:
The most important function of a commercial bank is to borrow funds from the people and lend them to the people who are in need of them. Bnaks do not borrow funds from the public in the ordinary way They borrow funds through deposits. Bnaks make attempts to attract funds from a wide range of people. They offer different terms to different classes of people for attracting deposits.
The banker’s deposits may be classified under four heads depending on such terms. They are (a) fixed deposits (b) current account deposits (c) savings bank deposits and (d) seasonal deposits.

Fixed Deposits : Under this system, the customers agree to keep their funds with the bankers for a definite period say 1 month, 3 month, 6 month etc. They are not allowed to withdraw this amount within this stipulated period. These funds are at the disposal of the bank till the end of the agreed period. The banker can utillise them for profitable purposes. These deposits are also called time deposits. Some banks allow their customers to with draw these deposits after giving a week’s notice, or fifteen days notice. Banks give interest to the customers on the fixed deposit amounts. People who have surplus funds and who are not able to invest their funds otherwise, keep their money in fixed deposit accounts with a bank. Banks receive large volumes of funds on fixed deposits accounts.

Current account deposits : Under this system, the depositors are allowed to withdraw their money at any time during banking hours. There are traders, manufacturers and other people having large volume of funds. But they can not afford to lock up thier funds in fixed deposit accounts. They require money constantly for business purpose. Banks attract funds from such types of people through current account deposits, The depositor is given a cheque book. He can withdraw money any number of times through cheques.

He is also given a pass book in which all transactions between him and the banker are recorded. Traders generally keep their money in current account deposits and make their payment through cheques. Banks receive large volume of funds under this head. Though customer have a right to withdraw money from their accounts, the banker know by experience that all the customers do not withdraw on the same day. Some customers will be withdrawing and some will be depositing. When a customer pays another customer by cheque, the business of the banker is to transfer the amount of the cheque from the account of one person to that of the other. Such transfer of transactions are called transfer transactions. Such transfer transactions will be more common than actual cash transactions.

On the whole, a banker finds it possible to invest a greater portion of the funds received on current accounts for profitable purposes.
Savings bank deposits: Under this system, people with small incomes are encourged to save what all they can. Deposits of even small amounts are accepted. The depositors are allowed to withdraw money from their accounts. But the bank imposes some restrictions on their withdraw is Banks in India do not allow their customer of this class to withdraw more than twice in a week. Further they are not allowed to withdraw more than 2000 rupees in any week, unless a special notice to that effect is given.

Savings bank account faculties encourage thrift among public especially people with small incomes. Banks give intrest of 214 to 3 percent on the monthly minimum balance maintained by the customers. Commercial banks get a very large volume of funds under this head. Owing to restrictions on withdrawas they can utilize a large part of these funds for profitable purposes.

Seasonal deposits: In the agricultural countries there will be heavy demand for loans during a particular season. To meet the demand for loans, commercial banks attract deposits by special inducements in the shape of higher interest during that season. These deposits resemble fixed deposits. They are accepted for a particular period. Withdrawl are not allowed before the stipulated period. But these deposits are not allowed to stand after the season.

Briaks also attract funds by selling cash certificate. Thus Banks attract funds by way of deposits and render a very useful services to the society. But for the banks such funds would have remained scattered with the people. Banks pool such scattered funds and make them available to industry and trade.

Question 4.
Explain how banks create credit? What are the limits to the powers of the banker in creating credit?
Answer:
A Banker is said to create credit when he credits the deposit accounts of his customer on aquiring assets other than cash, such as over drafts, cash credits bills and stocks. The bank clerk simply credits the deposit accounts of the customer who take loans under overdrafts or cash credit arrangement. The credit balance with a banker is as good as money. So it is said that banks create credit is the creation of bank clerk’s pen.

A banker acquires profitable assets in the process of creation of credit. But he can not go on acquiring such assets in exchange for his credit entries. There are certain factors which limit the capacity of a banker in creating credit. Following are Such factors :

(a) Supply of legal-tender money : Credit transactions do not end by themselves. They resolve into cash transactions at one time on the other. So the banker must maintain adequate cash reserves to meet the demand obligations of his customers. The banker knows by experience, the minimum percentage of cash to deposits, which he has to maintain to meet the withdrawals of his customers. Failure to maintain this safety minimum will land the banker in troubles – For example, a banker can create credit up to ten times the cash reserve if the conventional and needed percentage of cash to deposits is ten.

So credit depends on the available supply of cash in the values o the bank. The cash reserves of the commercial banks depend on the total supply of money in circulation and its velocity. The central bank is the institution which controls the volume money and its velocity circulation. The commercial banks have no control over the legal tender money. So they have to adjust the volume of their credit to the available supply of the legal tender money which they acquire in the ordinary course of banking through share capital.

(b) Popularity of cheque currency : In countries where cheques are popular, cash withdrawals will be less. There will be more transfer transactions. So the banker can manage the business with a low percentage of cash to deposits. This enables the banker to create credit extensively. On the other hand, in a country where cheque system is not popular, more cheques will be presented at the counter for encashment. The banker must maintain a high percentage of cash to deposit. This reduces the capacity of a banker to create credit.

(c) Statutory reserve ratios : Commercial banks have to maintain some minimum percentage of cash to deposit in their accounts with the central banks. This is a statutory obligation imposed on commercial banks in several countries. The central bank can impose penalty on banks which fail to maintain the statutory mimimum. Central banks have discretion to vary the reserve ratio alos. Banks have to adjust their-deposit liabilities in conformity with the statutory ratio.

(d) Trade activity : During the periods of rising prices, the trade conditions appear rosy and traders borrow loans on a large scale to finance their trade activities. So there will be increased demand for bank credit and banks expand credit.

(e) Policy of the Central Bank: CentraTbank is armed with weapons to control the credit created by the commercial banks. Bank credit constitutes purchasing power. When banks expand credit discriminately in the prices tend to rise and the symptoms of inflation appear. The central bank is charged with the function of correcting such a situation The central bank employs its conventional weapons such as bank rate or open market operations etc and tries to control the activities of the commercial banks in creating credit. Commercial banks ultimately have to fall in line with the credit policy of the central bank.

(f) Liquidity Preference of the People : The capacity of commercial banks to create credit also depends on the degree of preference of the people to hold liquid cash. The degree of liquidity preference is influenced by certain economic and speculative considerations. Banks have to adjust their credit in accordance with the liquidity preference of the people.

So the supply of cash in the vaults of a commercial bank is influenced by the above factors and the banker has to adjust his deposit liabilities in accordance with the volume of cash reserves.

Do banks Create Credit ? : The banker creates credit when he grants a loan to a customer under overdraft or cash credit arrangement. The loan amount is not given to the customer in the shape of cash immediately. The loan amount is placed to the credit of the customer and the customer is asked to withdraw the amount through cheques whenever he needs the money. Similarly the banker creates credit when he purchases a bill or a stock from a customer and places the amount to the credit of the customer.

The customer is satisfied with the credit entry in his favour. He does not insist on immediate cash payment. So the banker is able to create credit because the customer is willing to keep the money with the banker. This willingness of the customer to retain the cash with the banker. This willingness of the customer to retain the cash with the bank enables the banker to create credit.

Certain writers like Walter leaf and Cannan say that the initiative in the creation of credit does not lne with the banker. It lies with the customer who is willing to retain the money with the banker. Hartley withers on the otherhand, says that the initiative in the creation of credit lies with the banker as “loans make deposits”. When a banker advances a loan he is crediting the deposit account of the customer. Hence loans in one shape or the other increase the deposit liabilities.

But it is true that if the customer demand cash immediately, there will not be an increase in the deposits. But in the countries where banking habit is well developed, payment are usally made through cheques. Borrowers prefer to keep the amount of loan with the banker and issue cheques against it.

If the payee of the cheque also happens to be the customer of the same bank, his deposit will increase to the extent of his cheque amount and the account of the drawer will decrease to that extent. Hence the total deposit liabilities will continue to be at the same figure, so long as the loan remains. If the payee happens to be the customer of another bank, the deposit liabilities of the second bank will rise. In either case, the increase in the deposit is the result of the loan.

But according to Walter Leaf and cannan, the initiative in the creation of credit does not lie with the banker. The banker is able to lend money because the depositors are not withdrawing cash from their accounts. So the banker is only lending what others have left with him. Leaf compares the transactions of a bank with a cloakroom. Suppose there are 100 guests to an evening party. Each of them has brought a cloak which is deposited with cloakroom attendent. Suppose the cloakroom attendend knows that the party does not break up before 10 p.m. The attendent can loam out a greater portion of the cloaks, say 80 cloaks on the conditiob that they should be returned by 9-30 p.m. If by chance any guest departs before 10 p.m. he can give one of the cloaks that arejceept in reserve.

In this case, we can not say that the cloak room attendent has created 80 cloaks. He has’ simply loaned out the cloaks that are kept with him. Similarly, we cannot say that the banker is creating deposits. He is only lending the funds that are deposited with him by some customers.

It is true that the willingness of the customers to keep their deposits with the banker is helping him to create credit. A customer keeps the money with the banker, because he has confidence in the banker’s ability to repay the amount, when he demands it. The banker is infusing confidence into the customer. Hence, we may say that the banker is creating credit.

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Economics Solutions Chapter 12 Money and Banking

Question 5.
What are the functions of a central bank?
Answer:
A central bank is the most important institution of money market. There will be one central bank for each country. The International Monetary Conference held in Brussels in 1920 recommended the establishment of a central bank in each country where there was none. A central bank is usally owhed and managed by the government. Even if is owned by private individuals, the government takes an active part in its management.

A central bank has distinct functions of its own. Generally it is not allowed to perform the functions of a commercial bank Or compete with commercial banks. The functions of a central bank are very vital to the economy of a country. It is given monopoly in the discharge of its functions. The functions of a central bank are given below.

(i) Note Issue : Issuing of notes is one of the most important functions of a central bank. It is usally given monopoly in issuing notes. A central bank as a note issuing authority is expected to maintain stability in the value of currency. There are different methods of issuing notes such as fixed fiduciary system, maximum fiduciary system, proportional reserve system, variation of the proportional reserve system and minimum reserve system.

A central bank may adopt any one of these systems depending upon the economic conditions of the counrty. A central bank issues notes consistent with the principles of safety and elasticity. Usally, the government lays down the principle of note-issue. Some countries prescribe a gold clause against note-issue. Then the central bank has to maintain the prescribed ratio of gold to notes. Whatever be the principle, it is the duty of central bank to maintain the internal and external value of its currency.

(ii) Banker to the Government: A central bank acts as a banker to the government. It maintains the accounts of the government. It enjoys monopoly in this respect. It receives the revenues and makes disbursements on behalf of the government. It maintains public debt registers, it helps the government in raising loans, in making interest payments and in redemption of loans It also grants short period loans to the government. It acts as a financial advisor and foreign exchanges.

(iii) Banker to the Commercial banks : Acentral bank is regarded as a philosopher, a guide and an advisor to other commercial banks. Commercial banks maintain accounts with the central bank either by tradition or by statutory obligation. Commercial banks consider it a matter of prestige to come into contact wih the central bank. The central bank looks into the affairs of the commercial banks and raises the general standard of banking. It offers remittance facilities to the commercial banks.

A central bank manages the clearing house. A clearing house is a place where banks settle their indebtedness arising out of inter-book transactions. The central bank provides clearance facilities by managing of the clearing house. Clearance facilities enable the commercial banks to economise the cash reserves.

Central banks acts as a lender of the last resort. It lends funds to the (pnmercial banks and helps them to tide over the difficulties. It advances loans against eligible securities or rediscounts first class bills of the commercial banks. The functions of the central bank increases the structural stability of the banking system. It also increases the liquidity of some of the bankers assets.

Central bank acts as a custodians of the national reserves. A single reserve in the hands of the central bank is not only economical but also very effective in meeting emergencies. All commercial banks have to maintain some balances in their accounts with the commercial bank. The government also maintains a minumum balance in its account with the central bank. All these funds constitute national reserves. Besides the central bank has to maintain a minimum gold reserve under statutes and also foreign currencies. These can be effectively employed to meet any national emergency.

(iv) Controlling of credit: This is another important function of a central bank. A central bank has to regulate the credit created by commercial banks. Commercial banks sometimes create credit indiscriminately in their anxiety to get more profits or to avoid losses. Such indiscriminate expansion or contraction of credit is affects price level, empolyment, foreign trade etc. So it is the duty of the central bank to regulate credit and maintain stability in the value of currency and other economic conditions. The central bank has several weapon to control credit. They are (1) the bank rate (2) open market operations (3) variation of the reserve ratios (4) rationing of the credit. (5) direct action and moral suasion.

Bank rate is the official minimum rate at which the central bank undertakes to rediscount first class bills or advance loans against eligible securities to the commercial banks. When the central bank thinks that the commercial banks are expanding credit unduly. It raises the bank rate. Commercial bank also raise their own rate of interest since the central bank is the lender of last resort. The borrowers find that the bank loans have become costly. So they reduce their borrowings from the bank. That is how credit is controlled through bank rate policy. Sometimes bank rate policy doesn’t work successfully especially when there are large volume of idle funds with the commercial banks. Then the central bank employs open market operations.

Open market operations consist of selling or buying eligible securities in the open market. The central bank withdraws money from circulation or puts more money into circulation by open market operations. When the central bank wants to curtail the bank credit, it sells securities. The investors make payments to the central bank by drawing from their deposit accounts. Thus, the central bank withdraws money from circulation. The banks find that their cash reserve have fallen. So they reduce their lendings. Similarly when the central bank wants to expand credit, it buys securities and releases more money into circulation. The money goes to the commercial banks by way of deposits. They increase their lendings as their cash reserves.

When the money market is not well organised, bank rate policy and open market operations do not work successfully.. Then the central bank employs another weapon called, the variation of the reservation. All commercial banks have to maintain on their accounts with the central bank, cash balance equal to a certain minimum percentage of their deposit liabilities. The percentage is called reservation. When the Central bank wants to control the credit changes the reserve ratio, it compels the commercial banks to maintain a higher percentage of cash balance in their accounts. The commercial banks have to remit cash to maintain the required percentage of balance. Their cash o n hand windless. So they have to reduce their lending. This is a drastic weapon in the hands of central bank to control credit.

The central banks also controls credit by the rationing of credit. The central bank fixed the quota for each commercial bank and gives accommodation only up to the quota fixed. The commercial banks adjust their loans to the traders on the basis of this quota. Sometimes the central bank may reject to rediscount certain class of trade bills. This also affect the pattern of lending of the commercial banks. This type of credit control is rarely effective and has to be used in exceptional circumstances.

A central bank can also control credit by moral persuasion. It sends directives to the commercial banks requesting them to control credit in the interest of the nation. This proves to be an effective method of credit control, if the commercial banks comply with the request of the central bank. This depends upon the prestige and the strength of central bank. If the commercial banks fail to comply with such request then the central bank may resort to direct action to control credit. Direct action involves a threat. But threats are unpopular in controlling credit.

Thus a central bank is armed with several weapons to control the credit and it is the responsibility of the central bank to regulate the credit in the best interest of the country. It safeguards the foreign trade through its credit policies. In addition to the above functions, some centra banks are charged with special functions. A central bank may be specially charged with the function of maintaining the external value of the currency. The Bank of England is asked to maintain a separ and fund called Exchange Equilisation Fund for the purpose.

The Reserve Bank of India is charged with the function of developing rural credit. It is asked to maintain a statutory department called “Agricultural credit Department” to find out ways and means to develop rural credit and to co-ordinate the activities of the various institution that supply rural credit.

Central banks are also expected to lend support to the governments in all nation-building activities and in implementing various economic plAnswer: Thus, the central bank is a very important institution and is very vital to the economic well being as a nation.

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Economics Solutions Chapter 12 Money and Banking

Question 6.
Explains the functions of a central bank as
(a) banker to the government and
(b) banker to other banks.
Answer:
(a) Banker to the Government: One of the important function of a central bank is to act as a banker to the government. The government is the lagest dealer in the currency and in foreign exchanges. So if the central bank is to maintain internal and exteranl stability in the value of currency, it must maintain the funds of the government. It is also convenient and economical to the state to entrust the management of its funds to the central bank. In some countries, the monopoly of government funds is enjoyed by the central bank as a matter of tradition. In most countries the relation between the state and bank is governed by the statutes.The government receives large revenues and spends huge amounts of money. Unless the central bank acts as a banker to the state, it cann’t adjust the supply of money to its demand and it can not fulfil some of its other functions successfully.

As a banker to the government, the central bank maintain account of various government such as the central government, state government local government etc. It receives revenues on behalf of the governments, and makes disbursements on behalf of the government, ft helps the government in raising loans. It managed the public debts and maintains transfer registers in respect of government stock and certificates. It helps the government interest payments on the loans and in the redemption of loans. It provides the government with foreign exchanges. It grants temporary loans to the governments. The receipts of the government are seasonal. But the expenditure of the government is spread out evenly throughout the year. The central bank helps the government in the adjustment of the revenue to the expenditure by granting short period loans.

Sometimes the bank also helps the government in raising short-term loans by re-discounting treasury bills directly or indirectly, when they are presented through the commercial banks. This is the easiest way for a government to raise short period loans. It manages exchange – clearances and collect statistics of various kinds of financial matters and makes them available to the government. It maintain considerable metallic reserves to meet contingencies.

It co-operates with the government in all the nation-building activities. It also help the government in the promotion of certain special interest which are necessary for the welfare of the country such as development of agricultural credit etc. as in India. It maintains research departments to study various financial problems that confront the government and it acts as a financial advisor to the government.

(b) Banker to the other banks : Commercial banks and other members of the money market maintain accounts with the central bank either by tradition or by statute. They have to maintain a certain minimum percentage of their liabilities in their accounts with the central bank.

A commercial bank derives the following advantages by maintaining an acount withe the cental bank:

  1. A central bank is the most important institution in the money market. It is regarded as a mother institution by the commercial banks. It is the banker to the government. So a commercial bank regards it as a matter of prestige to come into contact with the central bank.
  2. A bank must satisfy some conditions laid down by a central bank to become its customer.
  3. A commercial bank that maintains accounts with the central bank gains the confidence of the public.
  4. The central bank managing the clearing house. Generally a commercial bank that has an account with the central bank is eligible to become member of a clearing house. It can settle the inner bank and thus economise the use of cash reserves.
  5. The central bank also helps the commercial banks in the matter pf remittance of funds free of cost or at an exceptionally low rate of commission.
  6. A Commercial bank can secure loans from the central bank in times of need.

A central bank gets the following advantages by accepting accounts from the commercial banks :

  1. It can watch the activities of the commercial banks through their accounts.
  2. It can raise the general standard of banking by giving advices to its members.
  3. It gets large volume of cash reserves from the deposits of the commercial banks. It can employ these funds in assisting the commercial banks it times of crisis.
  4. A central bank can study the position of commercial banks at the clearing house. It can give a timely warning to a bank that faces adverse clearance continuously.
  5. A central bank can control the credit of the commercial banks through their accounts. The commercial banks have to maintain certain minimum cash balances in their accounts with the Central bank. By verifying this minimum, the central bank exercises control over the credit of the commercial banks.

The member banks have to submit periodical returns to the central bank. They enable the central bank to collect satistics of various types on banking activities. It can study the general level of banking and give advice to the members. The central bank is regarded by the commercial banks as a guide, friend and philosopher.

Question 7.
Difference between Central Bank and Commercial Banks.
Answer:
There are certain basic differences between a Central Bank and Commercial Banks. They are:

  1. The Central Bank is the apex monetary institution which has been specially empowered to exercise control over the banking system of the country. The Commercial Banks on the contrary is a constituent unit of the banking system.
  2. The Central Bank does not operate with a profit motive. The primary aim of the Central Bank is to achieve the objectives of the economic policy of the Government and maximise the public welfare through monetary measures.
  3. The Central Bank is generally a State-owned institution, while the Commercial Banks are normally privately owned institutions.
  4. The Central Bank does not deal directly with the public. The Commercial Banks, on the
    contrary, directly deal with the public.
  5. The Central Bank does not compete with the Commercial Banks. Rather it helps them by acting as the lender of the last resort.
  6. The Central Bank is the custodian of the foreign exchange reserves of the country. The Commercial Banks are only the dealers in foreign exchange.
  7. The Central Bank has the monopoly of note-issue whereas the Commercial Banks don’t enjoy such right.
  8. The Central Bank acts as the banker to the Government, the Commercial Banks act as bankers to the general public.
  9. The Central Bank acts as the bankers’ bank :
    • the Commercial Banks are required to keep a certain proportion of their reserve with Central Bank,
    • the Central Bank helps them at the time of emergency,
    • the Central Bank acts as the clearing house for the Commercial Banks. But the Commercial Banks perform to such functions.

Group – C

Objective type Questions with Answers
I. Multiple Choice Questions with Answers :

Question 1.
Which is not treated as function of money?
(i) medium of exchange
(ii) measure of value
(iii) store of value
(iv) all of the above
Answer:
(iv) all of the above

Question 2.
Which is not treated as near money?
(i) cheques
(ii) drafts
(iii) one rupee coin
(iv) bonds
Answer:
(iii) one rupee cQin

Question 3.
Bank drafts are called near money because
(i) it is easily convertible into money
(ii) it has got general acceptability
(iii) it has legal approval
(iv) all of the above
Answer:
(i) it is easily convertible into money

Question 4. Which deposit bears highest rate of interest?
(i) current deposit
(ii) fixed deposit
(iii) saving deposit
(iv) all of the above
Answer:
(ii) fixed deposit

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Economics Solutions Chapter 12 Money and Banking

Question 5.
What type of deposit is appreciated by the business man?
(i) fixed deposit
(ii) saving deposit
(iii) deposit made with bonds & securities
(iv) None of these
Answer:
(iii) deposit made with bonds & securities

Question 6.
Which deposit can be withdrawn without prior notice?
(i) saving deposit
(ii) current deposit
(iii) time deposit
(iv) fixed deposit
Answer:
(ii) current deposit

Question 7.
The deposit which does not carry any interest is called
(i) fixed deposit
(ii) current deposit
(iii) saving deposit
(iv) recurring deposit
Answer:
(ii) current deposit

Question 8.
What type of loan is familiar in trade & commerce
(i) direct loan
(ii) over draft
(iii) cash credit
(iv) both (i) and (ii)
Answer:
(iii) cash credit

Question 9.
The system through which a depositor can withdraw more money as loan than its deposit is called
(i) cash credit
(ii) discounting bills of exchange
(iii) overdraft
(iv) direct loan
Answer:
(iii) overdraft

Question 10.
Which is a function of commercial banks?
(i) Remittance of funds
(ii) payments of insurance premium
(iii) locker facility
(iv) all of the above
Answer:
(iv) all of the above

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Economics Solutions Chapter 12 Money and Banking

Question 11.
Which is the liability of commercial banks?
(i) time deposit
(ii) paid up capital
(iii) cash in hand
(iv) both (I) and (ii)
Answer:
(iv) both (I) and (ii)

Question 12.
Which is the liability of the commercial banks?
(i) all types of deposits
(ii) authorised.capital
(iii) borrowing from other banks
(iv) all of the above
Answer:
(iv) all of the above

Question 13.
Which is not the asset of the commercial banks
(i) loans & advances
(ii) cash with RBI
(iii) Reserve funds
(iv) investments
Answer:
(iii) Reserve funds

Question 14.
Which is the most liquid asset of the commercial banks?
(i) cash in hand
(ii) saving deposit
(iii) loans and advances
(iv) investments
Answer:
(i) cash in hand

Question 15.
Which is not a function of central bank?
(i) lender of the last resort
(ii) advisor to the govt.
(iii) advances loan to people
(iv) custodian of foreign exchange
Answer:
(iii) advances loan to people

Question 16.
As monopoly of note issue, RBI prints all types of notes except
(i) two rupee notes
(ii) one rupee notes
(iii) five rupee notes
(iv) fifty rupee notes
Answer:
(ii) one rupee notes

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Economics Solutions Chapter 12 Money and Banking

Question 17.
Which notes are issued by Ministry of finance?
(i) one rupee notes
(ii) two rupee notes
(iii) five rupee notes
(iv) all of the above
Answer:
(i) one rupee notes

Question 18.
Which bank controls credit?
(i) RBI
(ii) SBI
(iii) Regional rural banks
(iv) all of the above
Answer:
(i) RBI

Question 19.
Which is a method of credit control?
(i) bank rate
(ii) open market operation
(iii) variable cash reserve ratio
(iv) all of the above
Answer:
(iv) all of the above

Question 20.
When Reserve Bank of India increases bank rate, the demand for loan
(i) increases
(ii) decreases
(iii) not affected
(iv) none of the above
Answer:
(ii) decreases

Question 21.
Barteris:
(i) Indirect exchange of goods against goods is called barter
(ii) Direct exchange of goods against goods is called bartar.
(iii) Both (i) and (ii)
(iv) None of the above
Answer:
(ii) Direct exchange of goods against goods is called bartar.

Question 22.
Detinemoeny:
(i) Money is what money does
(ii) Direct exchange of goods against goods in money
(iii) Anything that possesses general acceptability is money
(iv) None of the above
Answer:
(iii) Anything that possesses general acceptability is money

Question 23.
The function of money are:
(i) A medium and a measure
(ii) A standard and a store
(iii) Both (I) and (ii)
(iv) None of the above
Answer:
(iii) Both (i) and (ii)

Question 24.
Moneyservesasalinicbetween:
(i) The present and past
(ii) The past and future :
(iii) The present and future
(iv) None of the above
Answer:
(iii) The present and future

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Economics Solutions Chapter 12 Money and Banking

Question 25.
Moeny facilities:
(i) Barter transaction
(ii) credit transaction
(iii) All of the above
(iv) None of the above
Answer:
(ii) credit transaction.

Question 26.
Example of near money is:
(i) Time or fixed deposits
(ii) BillS of exchange and Treasury bill
(iii) Stock and share
(iv) All of the above
Answer:
(i) All of the above :

Question 27.
A command Bank has:
(i) Unlimited credit creation power
(ii) Limited credit creation power
(iii) All of the above
(iv) None of the above
Answer:
(ii) Limited credit creation power

Question 28.
Primary function of a commercial bank is:
(i) To finance Internal and External trade
(ii) Creation of moeny
(iii) Acceptance of deposits
(iv) None of the above
Answer:
(iii) Acceptance of deposits

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Economics Solutions Chapter 12 Money and Banking

Question 29.
The right-hand side of the balance sheet shows the items under the:
(i) Liabilities
(ii) Assets
(iii) Cash
(iv) None of the above
Answer:
(ii) Assets.

Question 30.
Cash-in-hand is otherwise known as:
(i) Till money
(ii) Cash-rn-vault
(iii) Both (i) and (ii)
(iv) None of the above
Answer:
(iii) Both (j) and (ii)

Question 31.
Moeny at call and short-notice is a:
(i) Long period loans
(ii) Very short term loans
(iii) Both (j) and (ii)
(iv) None of the above
Answer:
(i) Very short term loans

Question 32.
One rupee not is issued by:
(i) R. B. I
(ii) Commercial Bank
(iii) Govt. of India
(iv) None of the above
Answer:
(iii) Govt. of India

Question 33.
Time deposits are withdrawn:
(i) On the demand
(ii) After the expiry of the period
(iii) All of the above
(iv) None of the above
Answer:
(i) After the expiry of the period

Question 34.
Most liquid asset of a commercial bank is:
(i) Demand deposits
(ii) Investment
(iii) Cash
(iv) None of the above
Answer:
(iii) Cash

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Economics Solutions Chapter 12 Money and Banking

Question 35.
Under which principle the central Bank of India issues notes:
(i) Proportional reserve system
(ii) Minimum reserve system
(iii) Maximum reserve system
(iv) None of the above
Answer:
(ii) Minimum reserve system

Question 36.
Quantitative credit control method refers to:
(i) Control the use of credit
(ii) Bring change in the total volume of credit in general
(iii) All of the above
(iv) None of the above
Answer:
(ii) Bring change in the total volume of credit in general

Question 37.
The selective credit control methods adopted by the central Bank to control credit are:
(i) Open market operation
(ii) Regulation of margin-requrements
(iii) Regulation on of consumers credit
(iv) Both (ii) and (iii)
Answer:
(i) Both (ii) and (iii)

Question 38.
The function of central Bank:
(i) Lender of the lust resort
(ii) Clearing agent
(iii) Banker’s Bank
(iv) All of the above
Answer:
(iv) All of the above

Question 39.
Central Bank acts as a financial advisor to the:
(i) General public
(ii) Commercial Banks
(iii) Govt.
(iv) None of the above
Answer:
(iii) Govt.

II. Fill in the blanks :

Question 1.
Money acts as a ______ of account.
Answer:
unit

Question 2.
Money acts as a ______ it facilitates credit transaction.
Answer:
standard of deferred payment

Question 3.
Near money is less liquid than ______.
Answer:
money proper.

Question 4.
Travellers’ cheque is an example of ______.
Answer:
Near money.

Question 5.
Postal savings deposits are examples of ______.
Answer:
Near-money.

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Economics Solutions Chapter 12 Money and Banking

Question 6.
______ deposit can be withdrawn at any moment.
Answer:
Current

Question 7.
______ deposit does not bear any interest.
Answer:
Current

Question 8.
______ Bank aims at the attainment of objectives of economic policy.
Answer:
Central

Question 9.
______ deposit carries the highest interest.
Answer:
Fixed

Question 10.
______ loans are very long period loAnswer:
Answer:
Term

Question 11.
______ Bank creates credit.
Answer:
Commercial

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Economics Solutions Chapter 12 Money and Banking

Question 12.
Through ______ system, the depositor can withdraw the amount in excess of his deposits.
Answer:
overdraft

Question 13.
______ Banks operate with a profit motive.
Answer:
Commercial

Question 14.
______ Bank controls credit.
Answer:
Central

Question 15.
______ Bank has got a large number of branches all over the country.
Answer:
Commercial

Question 16.
______ Bank acts as a banker to the Government.
Answer:
Central

Question 17.
______ Bank acts as a financial advisor to the Government.
Answer:
Central

Question 18.
______ Banks act as clearing agent.
Answer:
Central

Question 19.
______ Bank is the lender of the last resort.
Answer:
Central

Question 20.
______ is the primary function of the money.
Answer:
Medium of exchange

Question 21.
______ Bank draft is a Money.
Answer:
Near

Question 22.
______ deposit is called demand deposit.
Answer:
Current

Question 23.
______ deposit is appreciated by the business man.
Answer:
Current

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Economics Solutions Chapter 12 Money and Banking

Question 24.
______ deposit can be withdrawn at any moment without any notice.
Answer:
Current

Question 25.
______ deposit is kept for a particular period.
Answer:
Fixed

Question 26.
______ circulates one rupee note
Answer:
Ministry of Finance Govt, of India

Question 27.
______ Signs on the Hundred rappee note.
Answer:
Governor of Reserve Bank of India

Question 28.
______ is the Central Bank of India
Answer:
RBI

Question 29.
______ Bank formulate economic policy in India.
Answer:
RBI

Question 30.
Cheque is ______ Money
Answer:
Near

III. Correct the Sentences:

Question 1.
Money acting as a medium of exchange is known as unit of account.
Answer:
Incorrect.
Correct – Money acting as a measure of value is known as unit of account.

Question 2.
Money discourages specialisation.
Answer:
Incorrect.
Correct – Money encourages specialisation.

Question 3.
Money acting as a measure value keeps a link between present & future.
Answer:
Incorrect.
Correct – Money acting as a store of value keeps a link between present & future.

Question 4.
Money acting as measure of value facilitates credit transaction.
Answer:
Incorrect.
Correct – Money acting as a standard of deferred payment facilitates credit transaction.

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Economics Solutions Chapter 12 Money and Banking

Question 5.
Store of value is a primary function of money.
Answer:
Incorrect.
Correct – Store of value is a secondary function of money.

Question 6.
Near money is more liquid than money itself. .
Answer:
Incorrect.
Correct – Money is more liquid than near money.

Question 7.
Near money can be easily convertible into money.
Answer:
Correct.

Question 8.
Postal saving is near money.
Answer:
Correct.

Question 9.
Current deposit is money itself.
Answer:
Incorrect.
Correct – Current deposit is a near money.

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Economics Solutions Chapter 12 Money and Banking

Question 10.
Treasury bill is money.
Answer:
Incorrect.
Correct – Treasury bill is near money.

Question 11.
Fixed deposit is more popular among businessmen.
Answer:
Incorrect.
Correct – Current deposit is more popular among businessmen.

Question 12.
Current deposit bears higher rate of interest.
Answer: Incorrect.
Correct – Current deposit bears no interest.

Question 13.
Saving deposit bears the highest rate of interest.
Answer:
Incorrect.
Correct – Fixed deposit bears the highest rate of interest.

Question 14.
Central bank creates credit.
Answer:
Incorrect.
Correct – Commercial bank creates credit.

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Economics Solutions Chapter 12 Money and Banking

Question 15.
Deposits are the most liquid asset of the bank.
Answer:
Incorrect.
Correct – Cash in hand is the most liquid asset of the bank.

Question 16.
Deposits are the assets of the bank.
Answer:
Incorrect.
Correct – Deposits are the liability of the bank.

Question 17.
Loans & advances are the liabilities of the bank.
Answer:
Incorrect.
Correct – Loans & advances are the assets of the bank.

Question 18.
Commercial banks stand at the apex of the banking system.
Answer:
Incorrect.
Correct – Central bank stands at the apex of the banking system.

Question 19.
There are many Central banks in a countries.
Answer:
Incorrect.
Correct – There is a Central bank in a country.

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Economics Solutions Chapter 12 Money and Banking

Question 20.
Commercial bank controls credit.
Answer:
Incorrect.
Correct – Central bank controls credit.

Question 21.
Central bank is bankers bank.
Answer:
Correct.

Question 22.
Central bank issues one-rupee note.
Answer:
Incorrect.
Correct – Secretary, Ministry of finance issues one-rupee note.

Question 23.
Commercial bank is the lender of the last resort.
Answer:
Incorrect.
Correct – Central bank is the lender of the last resort.

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Economics Solutions Chapter 12 Money and Banking

Question 24.
Commercial bank is the custodian of cash reserve.
Answer:
Incorrect.
Correct – Central bank is the custodian of cash reserve.

Question 25.
Time deposits are withdrawn on demand.
Answer:
Incorrect.
Correct – Demand deposits are withdrawn on demand.

Question 26.
Central bank is profit motivated.
Answer:
Incorrect.
Correct – Commercial bank is profit motivated.

Question 27.
India follows branch banking system.
Answer:
Correct.

IV. Answer the following questions in one word :

Question 1.
What is money?
Answer:
Anything which is universally accepted a medium of exchange, measure of values, standard of deferred payment & store of values is called money.

Question 2.
What is primary function of money ?
Answer:
“Money acts as a medium of exchange” is the primary function of money.

Question 3.
What is a secondary function of money?
Answer:
“Money acts as a store of value” is called secondary function of money.

Question 4.
What is near money?
Answer:
Near money refers to the liquid assets which can be easily convertible into money.

Question 5.
Give on example of near money.
Answer:
Bills of exchange is an example of near money.

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Economics Solutions Chapter 12 Money and Banking

Question 6.
What is deferred payment?
Answer:
The payment not made at present but made in future for current transaction is called deferred payment.

Question 7.
Who defined money as “Money is what money does”?
Answer:
Prof. Francis Walker.

Question 8.
Which function of money facilitates purchase of goods?
Answer:
Money acting as medium of exchange facilitates the purchase of goods.

Question 9.
Which function of money treats it as a unit of account?
Answer:
When money acts as a measure of value, it is known as unit of account.

Question 10.
Which function of money shows it as a link between present?
Answer:
Money acting as a store of value signifies it as a link between present & future.

Question 11.
Which function of money signifies its role in credit transaction ?
Answer:
The function like “Standard of deferred payment, signifies its role in credit transactions.

Question 12.
Write one contingent function of money.
Answer:
Money is a basis of credit system.

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Economics Solutions Chapter 12 Money and Banking

Question 13.
Give an example of near money.
Answer:
Treasury bills of Bank Draft or Cheque or Bond is the example of near money.

Question 14.
What is bank money?
Answer:
Bank deposit is the bank money.

Question 15.
What is commercial bank?
Answer:
Commercial bank is a financial institution which collects deposits from the people, gives loan & creates credit.

Question 16.
Define Commercial bank?
Answer:
Commercial bank is an institution whose debts (bank deposits) are widely accepted in settlement of other people’s debts to each other.

Question 17.
Write an instrument of a bank through which claim of the depositor is transferred?
Answer:
Cheques.

Question 18.
From which term “Bank” has been derived?
Answer:
The term ‘bank’ has been derived from the German word Bank which means bench.

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Economics Solutions Chapter 12 Money and Banking

Question 19.
What is current deposit?
Answer:
The deposit which can be withdrawn on any day during the working hours of the bank is called current deposit.

Question 20.
What is fixed deposit?
Answer:
The deposit which can not be withdrawn before the expiry of the period of maturity is called fixed deposit.

Question 21.
Which deposit earns the highest rate of interest?
Answer:
Fixed deposit earns the highest rate of interest.

Question 22.
For which deposit no interest is paid?
Answer:
Current deposit

Question 23.
Which banks create credit?
Answer:
Commercial banks create credit.

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Economics Solutions Chapter 12 Money and Banking

Question 24.
Which deposit is called demand deposit?
Answer:
Current deposit is called demand depsit.

Question 25.
Which deposit is more popular among the traders?
Answer:
Demand or current deposit is more popular among the traders.

Question 26.
What is cash credit?
Answer:
Cash credit is a system adopted by the commercial banks to advance loans in which borrower can avail loans by opening a current
account in his name.

Question 27.
What is overdraft system?
Answer:
Overdraft system is a method of advancing loans in which the depositor of a bank can withdraw the amount in excess of its deposit made.

Question 28.
Which banks create credit?
Answer:
Commercial banks create credit.

Question 29.
What are the bank instruments through which funds can be remitted?
Answer:
Cheques & Drafts.

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Economics Solutions Chapter 12 Money and Banking

Question 30.
What is balance sheet?
Answer:
Balance sheet is a systematic record of a commercial banks showing its assets & liabilities during a particular financial year.

Question 31.
Which is the most liquid asset of the bank?
Answer:
Cash in hand is the most liquid asset of the bank.

Question 32.
Which bank is at the apex of banking system?
Answer:
Central bank.

Question 33.
Which bank is called bankers bank?
Answer:
Central bank.

Question 34.
Which bank is called bank of issue?
Answer:
Central bank.

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Economics Solutions Chapter 12 Money and Banking

Question 35.
Which bank controls credit?
Answer:
Central bank.

Question 36.
Which bank issues notes?
Answer:
Central banks.

Question 37.
Which bank is called the lender of the last resort?
Answer:
Central bank.

Question 38.
Which bank issues two-rupee notes?
Answer:
Central bank.

Question 39.
Who does issue One-rupee note in India.
Answer:
Secretary, Ministry of Fianance.

Question 40.
What is the name of the central bank in India?
Answer:
Reserve Bank of India.

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Economics Solutions Chapter 11 Theory of Income Determination

Odisha State Board CHSE Odisha Class 12 Economics Solutions Chapter 11 Theory of Income Determination Questions and Answers.

CHSE Odisha 12th Class Economics Chapter 10 Question Answer Theory of Income Determination

Group – A

Short type Questions with Answers
I. Answer with in Two/Three sentence.

Justify the statement:
Question 1.
In full employment, Aggregate Demand (AD) = Aggregate supply (AS).
Answer:
In full employment all the existing resources sum to be fully employed & hence total expenditure in final goods & services at given lenel of employment becomes equal to aggregate supply (CAS) So, in full employment, AD = AS,

Question 2.
Full employment is an Imaginary concept.
Answer:
Full employment is a situation in all resources are employed. But in this situation, there may be frictional, structural second & above all voluntary unemployment. So it is an imaginary concept.

Question 3.
Excess demand leads to inflation.
Answer:
Excess demand arises when total expenditure on goods & services (AD) exceeds the value of aggregate supply of goods & services (AS). So, it leads to inflation.

Question 4.
Deficient demand leads to depression.
Answer:
When aggregate demand for goods & services in the economy falls short of available aggregate supply (AS), it causes deficient demand. This leads to depression.

Question 5.
Full employment is an imaginary concept?
Answer:
Full employment is a situation in which there is no involuntary unemployment though there may be frictional, sturucture or voluntary unemployment, so the concept of the full employment is practically an absurd concept.

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Economics Solutions Chapter 11 Theory of Income Determination

Question 6.
Under employment is very much visible in UDCs.
Answer:
In UDCs, the persons who seem to be employed are not properly placed according to their qualification, skill experience. Besides, most of the people don’t get the job throughout the year, hence underemployment is quite visible in UDCs.

Question 7.
Aggregate demand curve slopes upward.
Answer:
Aggregate demand represents total expenditure spent on final goods and. services which increases with the increase in employment level/ income. As aggregate demand curve reveals the relationship between employment and total expenditure on final goods (C +1 + G), it slopes upward.

Question 8.
Effective demand is normally desirable.
Answer:
The demand at which AD = AS it is called effective demand and it tells about the equilibrium situation in the economy. Besides, it does not reult any economic crisis for which it is normally desirable.

Question 9.
Excess aggregate demand leads to inflation.
Answer:
If AD > AS, it indicates that the total expenditure on final goods and services exceeds the value of total goods available in the economy during a particular time. In this case, investment exceeds consumption which leads to inflation.

Question 10.
Deficient aggregate demand leads to deflation.
Answer:
In deficient aggregate demand AD < AS i.e., total expenditure on final goods & service is less than the available supply. Here, saving exceeds investment and it leads to deflation.

Question 11.
Consumption can never be zero ? .
Answer:
Consumption increases with the increase in income though consumption does not increase to the extent of increase in income. If income is zero consumption shall not be zero as the consumer can spend out of his past saving, borrowing etc.

II. Answer with in Five/Six sentence :

Write Short Notes on :
Question 1.
Agregate demand.
Answer:
Indirect tax is that tax the burden of which can be shifted or transferred from one to other. This tax is legally imposed on a person who actually does not bear the ultimate burden of such tax. Rather, he is able to shift this burden to other persons who are not aware of such tax. In economic term, the impact & incidence of such tax fall on different person. Sales tax is an example of such tax.

Question 2.
Aggregate supply
Answer:
Aggregate supply is reflected by the total volume of national product produced in the country at a given level of employment. In other words, it refers to the flow of total volume of goods & services during a particular period. It is also the aggregate cost of production which goes to the factors of production by the way of rent, wage interest & profit. It is assessed as the sum of consumption & saving.

Question 3.
Full Employment equilibrium.
Answer:
The level of equilibrium is attained at the point of interaction between aggregate demand and aggregate supply. There are three possible situations where equilibrium may be established. It may be at the level of more than full employment or less, than full employment or at full employment. Full employment refers to a situation where all the available resources get employed and production is maximum. This is an ideal situation.

Question 4.
Excess demand.
Answer:
(i) Excess demand refers to a demand condition over and above the output available under full employment condition of the economy.
(ii) In this situation aggregate demand is more than aggregate supply.
(iii) Excess demand leads to emergence of inflationary gap in the economy.
(iv) Excess demand gives rise to price rise in the economy

Question 5.
Deficit demand.
Answer:
(i) Deficit demand refers to a situation below the level of output available at full employment equilibrium.
(ii) Aggregate supply remains higher than aggregate demand.
(iii) It generates deflationary gap in the economy.
(iv) Deficit demand leads to fall in price out put and employment

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Economics Solutions Chapter 11 Theory of Income Determination

Justify the following statement:

Question 6.
The Keynesian theory of income and employment ignores aggregate supply function.
Answer:
The aggregate supply function in an economy is influenced by utilisation of available resources and state of technology. The resource base cannot be increased or decreased in the short period, so also the technical production condition. State of technology influences the productivity of man, material and machines. State of technology cannot be altered in the short period. Hence, the aggregate supply function is assumed to be constant in the short period. So in Keynesian analysis of income and employment determination the aggregate supply function has been ignored.

Question 7.
The Keynesian theory of employment is based upon rejection of the Say’s law of market.
Answer:
The classical economists, basing upon the Say’s law of market, i.e. supply creates its own demand, were of firm view that the economy tends to be in the level of full employment and if there is any disequilibrium it is automatically adjusted. Keynes rejected the classical contention. He maintained that a situation of full-employment is rarely found. There always exists involuntary unemployment because equality between aggregate demand and aggregate supply doesn’t always clear the labour market. Aggregate demand falls short of aggregate supply. Investment is not equal to savings. So there is deficiency of demand.

Question 8.
Aggregate demand function determines the level of employment and output.
Answer:
The aggregate demand function comprises (1) Private consumption expenditure, (2) Private investment expenditure, (3) Public investment, and (4) Net export. Consumption expenditure has a tendency to lag behind income. Since consumption increases less than income, the gap between income and expenditure widens as income grows. In order to maintain aggregate demand at a desired level it is necessary to increase investment. Since aggregate supply is taken to be fixed in the short period, aggregate demand is said to determine the level of employment and income.

Question 9.
Different aggregate demands are associated with different levels of output.
Answer:
The other name of aggregate demand is effective demand. The aggregate demand represents a flow of monetary expenditure on final goods and services produced during a given period. It is the total money receipts that the producers expect to get by selling the output produced at a particular level of employment. Hence, it is said that, different aggregate demands are associated with different levels of output.

Question 10.
Marginal propensity to consume is more in case of the poor as compared to the rich.
Answer:
Marginal propensity to consume is the rate of change in consumption to change in income. As income increases consumption increases but less than proportionately. The propensity to consume in case of the rich is low, but it is high in case of the poor. This is because the poor having low income cannot profit all their demand. As income is redistributed in favour of the poor their income increases and their consumption expenditure also increases in order to fulfil their demand.

Question 11.
Assumption of full employment condition in the economy is illusive.
Answer:
The assumption of full employment is illusive as all that is produced is not sold in the market nor all income is converted into expenditure. There does not prevail form competition in the product market and factor market. All that is saved is not invested. As a result aggregate demand falls short of aggregate supply and there is over production and involuntary unemployment. Hence, full employment condition in the economy is illusive.

Question 12.
The remedy for unemployment can be found in a flexible wage and price system.
Answer:
The classical economists ruled out the possibility of persistent unemployment in the economy. However, if there will be temporary unemployment it can be corrected, as asserted by Pigou, by following a flexible wage and price policy. Prof Pigou maintained that a temporary unemployment situation can be remedied by following a policy of wage cut. It would be possible if workers are made to accept lower wages. A wage cut will reduce the supply of labour and increase the demand for labour. Constantly supply of labour will be equal to demand for labour. Unemployment will thus disappear. But this is not possible as pointed out by Keynes. A wage cut while reducing costs also reduces income apd purchasing power which creates unemployment due to reduction in effective demand.

(B) Distinguish Between

Question 13.
Aggregate Demand & Aggregate Supply.
Answer:
(a) Aggregate demand refers to the total amount of expenditure spent on final goods & services at a given level of employment whereas aggregate supply refers to the total volume of goods & services supplied at a given level of employment.

(b) Aggregate demand is the maximum quantity of goods & services at a given level of
employment whereas aggregate supply is the minimum sale proceeds expected at a given level of employment.

(c) Aggregate demand is composed of consumption demand & Investment demand. On the other hand, aggregate supply is composed of consumption & saving.

Question 14.
Full employment equilibrium & Underemployment equilibrium.
Answer:
The level of equilibrium is attained at the point of interaction between aggregate demand and aggregate supply. There are three possible situations where equilibrium may be established. It may be at the level of more than full employment or less than full employment or at full employment. Full employment refers to a situation where all the available resources get employed and production is maximum, This is an ideal situation.

Under-employment equilibrium refers to a situation when available supply of goods equal to the demand but resources remain unutilised in the economy. There is excess capacity in plants and industries. This situation of equilibrium is struck not due to low level of aggregate supply but due to the low level of aggregate demand.

Question 15.
Excess demand & Deficit Demand.
Answer:
Excess demand :

  1. Excess demand refers to a demand condition over and above the output available under full employment condition of the economy.
  2. In this situation aggregate demand is more than aggregate supply.
  3. Excess demand leads to emergence of inflationary gap in the economy.
  4. Excess demand gives rise to price rise inthe economy Deficit demand:
  5. Deficit demand refers to a situation below the level of output available at full employment equilibrium.
  6. Aggregate supply remains higher than aggregate demand
  7. It generates deflationary gap in the economy
  8. Deficit demand leads to fall in price out put and employment

Group – B

Long Type Questions With Answers

Question 1.
Explain the concept of aggregate demand and aggregate supply.
Answer:
A discussion of aggregate demand and aggregate supply is relevant in the context of determination of employment and output as discussed by Keynes. According to Keynes a situation of full employment rarely comes about as aggregate demand falls short of aggregate supply. In such a situation the unemployment which arises due to deficient demand is described as involuntary unemployment. In a situation of involuntary unemployment people willing to work at current rate of wages do not find employment.

Aggregate demand – Aggregate demand or aggregate expenditure refers to total expenditure on goods and services during a year. Demand for goods and services may be for consumption, investment and net export. Consumption demand may be divided as private consumption demand and public consumption demand. Investment demand may arise from private sources and public sources. Aggregate demand depends upon level of employment and there is a direct and positive relationship between them. Aggregate demand consists of (a) Household consumption demand (b) Investment demand, (c) Government demand for goods and services, and (d) Net export demand. These elements may be discussed as under.

(a) Households’ consumption demand – Household consumption depends upon the income of the household. A house- hold pays personal taxes from its income and the remainder known as disposable income, is devoted for consumption. The relationship between disposable income and consumption is called consumption function or propensity to consume. As one’s income increases consumption increases but less than proportionately often subsistence level. Consumption function, according to Keynes, plays an important role in determination of employment. Employment depends upon effective demand and effective demand depends on consumption functions. The relationship between consumption and income is expressed in the formula C – f(Y). C stands for consumption and Y stands for income. This formula suggests that a change in income is followed by a change in consumption.

(b) Investment demand – Investment refers to that part of savings which is used for production of capital goods. All that is saved in all economy does not flow into investment channels. Investment involves risk. People want their hard earned saving to be safe in the hands of investors. Since people part with their savings they face inconvenience. So they must seek to be compensated for the risk and inconvenience they face. If investors get more return than what they sacrifice, then they can adequately compensate the savers. The return on invest expressed as a percentage of investment is termed marginal efficiency of capital. It may be defined as the expected rate of interest on all additional units of capital goods. There is an inverse relationship between rate of interest and investment demand. In other words, at higher rates of interest investment demand will be less and vice versa. The curve representing marginal efficiency of capital is therefore downward sloping.

(c) Government demand for goods and services – Like private consumption demand of households and firms, goods and services are demanded by the government for the institutions run by it. The policy and practices of the government determine the quantum of demand.

(d) Net exports demand – The difference between exports and imports represents the net exports. Net exports depend on foreign demand for domestic goods and services. Foreign demand is influenced by the foreign exchange policies of the trading countries, relative price of goods, political relations between trading countries etc.

The aggregate demand can be represented diagrammatically as follows.
CHSE Odisha Class 12 Economics Solutions Chapter 11 Theory of Income Determination -1
In the diagram employment is shown on OX axis and aggregate demand on the OY oxis. The aggregate demand function, ADF intercepts the Y axis a point P, implying that even at zero level of output and employment there is some amount of aggregate demand present in the economy. The aggregate demand which consists of all the components cited above is nothing but the proceeds expected by the entrepreneurs in the economy.

To sum up AD = C +1 + G + (x-m) = ED = Y
C – Stands for consumption expenditure
I – Stands for investment expenditure
G – Stands for government expenditure
(x-m) – Stands for net exports (exports-imports)
ED – Stands for effective demand
Y – Stands for national income.

Aggregate supply : Aggregate supply consists of goods and services produced in the economy during a year, by individuals, firms and the government. The net national products represent the aggregate supply. It is the aggregate cost of producing goods. It represents the minimum sale proceeds which the producers get. The sale proceeds constitute the income of the producers which they pay to factors as rent, wage, interest, profit. Income, thus generated is either consumed or saved.

Consumption and savings are the two constituents of income. This can be expressed as AS = C + S. Aggregate supply is influenced by additional utilisation of resources and technological improvement. Technology cannot be charged in the short period. Increase in aggregate supply is possible only through additional use of resources. So long as resources are not fully employed it is possible to increase supply of goods and services in proportion to employment of resources and vice versa.

This relationship can be expressed diagrammatically as follows :
CHSE Odisha Class 12 Economics Solutions Chapter 11 Theory of Income Determination -2
In the along side diagram the aggregate supply function is represented by AS line which starts from origin.-It shows that aggregate supply in the economy increases as employment increases. After full employment level is reached, the ASF becomes perfectly inelastic.

Question 2.
How is the equilibrium level of income determined in the economy?
Answer:
The theory of income determination forms an integral part of macro-economics. J. M. Keynes, a prominent British economists propounded this principle in his book “General Theory of Employment, Interest & Money. “According to Keynes, the level of income & employment in an economy depend on the “effective demand”. The effective demand is an integral part of the theory which consists of interaction of the two determines the effective demand as well as the equilibrium level of income.

Aggregate demand: Aggregate demand refers to the total expenditure incurred on goods & services produced in the economy at a given level of employment. It consists of household consumption demand, private investment demand, government demand & net export demand. The sum of all these components give rise to aggregate demand.

Total Household consumption demand includes the demand for goods & services made by the household for consumption purposes. This depends on the level of disposable income of the households. Similarly, the investment demand which is made for the creation of capital goods or for further production becomes another part of aggregate demand. The demand made by the government for the satisfaction of collective needs is also another part. Lastly, the net export net income from abroad (X-m) is added to all the above to have aggregate demand.

Thus AD = C + I + G + (X – M)
This aggregate demand is the function of income or employment, i.e., AD = f (N). With the increase in income or employment, the aggregate demand increases & vice-versa. This nation is described in the following aggregate demand schedule.

Aggregate Demand Schedule

Income Employment
0 20
10 25
20 30
30 35
40 40
50 45

Aggregate Supply : Aggregate supply indicates the flow of final goods & services during a . particular period at a given level of employment. It includes aggregate cost of producing the output which forms the income of the factors. Thus, the aggregate supply (AS) or the national income (Y) is the sum of consumption (C) & saving (S) that is,
AS = C + S.
Like AD, AS also depends on the level of income. There is direct relationship between the AS & level of income. The same is expressed in the following schedule.

Aggregate Supply Schedule

Income Employment
0 0
10 10
20 20
30 30
40 40
50 50

This schedule reveals the proportionate relationship between aggregate supply & level of employment or income.

Equilibrium Level of Income:
Equilibrium level of income can be determined with the interaction of aggregate demand and aggregate supply. It is determined at a point where aggregate demand is equal to aggregate supply. This point also indicates “Effective demand”.

According to this,
AD = AS
⇒ C + J = C + S
⇒ I = S

The equilibrium level of income can also be determined at a point where saving in the economy is equal to investment as presented in the above equation.

According to Keynes, effective demand is the sole determinant of income & employment. In other words, the equality between AD & AS determines the equilibrium level of income. This concept is numerically & graphically illustrated below :

Numerical Analysis:

Level of Employment (in thouseands) Aggregate Demand (in crores) Aggregate Supply in crores)
0 20 0
10 25 10
20 30 20
30 35 30
40 40 40
50 45 50
60 50 60

In the above table, equilibrium is revealed when 40,000 workers are employed. Because at this level of employment or income, AD = AS = 40 crore so the income arising from there 40,000 workers is found to be equilibrium level of income.

Graphical Analysis: The figure measures income on OX-axis & consumption & investment on OY-axis. The aggregate supply curve (AS) is a straight line drawn from the origin with 45° angle.
CHSE Odisha Class 12 Economics Solutions Chapter 11 Theory of Income Determination -3
Line AD (C+I) reflects the aggregate demand curve.

Both the lines intersects at point E resulting equilibrum level of income. E also reveals the point of effective demand corresponding to this point (E), OY – level of income is determined which is the equilibrium level of income.

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Economics Solutions Chapter 11 Theory of Income Determination

Question 3.
Explain the concept of excess deihand & deficit demand with the help of diagram.
Answer:
Deficit demand and excess demand are two terms which are frequently used in any discussion on Keyne’s theory of employment and income. According to Keynes it is the aggregate demand or effective demand which determines the level of employment and the equality between aggregate demand and aggregate supply determines the equilibrium level of employment. With regard to equilibrium three situations can be visualised viz. full employment equilibrium, less than full employment equilibrium and more than full employment equilibrium.

At the level of full employment equilibrium aggregate demand is equal to aggregate supply. At this situation all resources fully utilised and all able bodied persons willing to work at the prevailing rate of wages get employment. Otherwise there will be involuntary unemployment. This is due to inadequacy of demand which is otherwise called deficit demand.

Deficit demand: Deficit demand refers to a situation where aggregate demand falls short of aggregate supply corresponding to the level of full employment. The short fall in the aggregate demand from the level of full employment equilibrium is called the deflationary gap. The case of deficit demand is shown in the following diagram :

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Economics Solutions Chapter 11 Theory of Income Determination -4

In the diagram ON represents full employment level of output. AD represent the aggregate demand and AS represents the aggregate supply. Intersection of AD and AS and ‘E’ suggests the income at full employment equilibrium. If the level of income shifts to OM the aggregate demand becomes SM and the aggregate supply becomes EN. Excess of AS over AD at full employment indicates deficit demand or deflationary gap. A deficit demand situation arises when the total demand for goods and services is not sufficient enough to ensure the buying of the existing supply of goods coming to the market at the prevailing prices. Deflation is caused by a shortage of aggregate demand relative to the total supply at given prices. Shortage in aggregate demand may be the result of either a decline in private investment or a fall in government spending or a decrease in consumption expenditure.

Excess demand : After the stage of full employment when resources are fully utilised and there is no idle resources output and employment cannot increase in response to increase in demand. This situation is described as excess demand. This situation of excess demand may be studied with the help of following diagram:

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Economics Solutions Chapter 11 Theory of Income Determination -5

The diagram shows that OR is the level of income at full employment, the AD and AS being equal ‘E’ the equilibrium point. If the full employment position shifts to OQ the AD becomes QT and AS become SQ. Here the aggregate demand exceeds aggregate supply by TS. TS represents the degree of excess demand of extent of inflationary gap. At this situation there will be a tendency for money income prices to increase.

Group – C

Objective type Questions with Answers
I. Multiple Choice Questions with Answers :

Question 1.
Total expenditure on goods & services during a year is known as
(i) total demand
(ii) aggregate demand
(iii) Aggregate supply
(iv) all of the above
Answer:
(ii) aggregate demand

Question 2.
Aggregate demand cosists of
(i) consumption demand
(ii) investment demand
(iii) Govt, demand
(iv) all of the above
Answer:
(iv) all of the above

Question 3.
Which is not the component of aggregate demand?
(i) consumption demand
(ii) investment demand
(iii) saving
(iv) net export
Answer:
(iii) saving

Question 4.
Goods & services produced in the economy during a year indicates
(i) aggregate demand
(ii) aggregate supply
(iii) total supply
(iv) all of the above
Answer:
(ii) aggregate supply

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Economics Solutions Chapter 11 Theory of Income Determination

Question 5.
Which is the component of aggregate supply?
(i) consumption
(ii) saving
(iii) investment
(iv) both (i) and (ii)
Answer:
(iv) both (i) and (ii)

Question 6.
Equilibrium level of income is determined by
(i) aggregate demand
(ii) Aggregate supply
(iii) income of the household
(iv) Both (i) and (ii)
Answer:
(iv) Both (i) and (ii)

Question 7.
Equilibrium level of income is determined at the point where
(i) AD = AS
(ii) AD > AS
(iii) AD < AS
(iv) None of the above
Answer:
(i) AD = AS

Question 8.
Full employment is a situation in which AD is equal to
(i) AS
(ii) saving
(iii) investment
(iv) all of the above

Question 9.
It the AD > AS at full employment the effect shows
(i) increase in output
(ii) increase in national income
(iii) increase in price
(iv) all of the above

Question 10.
If AD > AS, the price-level will
(i) rise
(ii) fall
(iii) remains constant
(iv) none of the above
Answer:
(iv) all of the above

Question 11.
If AD > AS, the employment will
(i) increase
(ii) decrease
(iii) remains unchanged
(iv) Both (i) and (ii)
Answer:
(i) increase

Question 12.
If there is deficit demand, the effect on economy is .
(i) fall in price
(ii) fall in output
(iii) fall in employment
(iv) all of the above
Answer:
(iv) all of the above

Question 13.
If AD < AS at full employment, the result is ,
(i) unemployment
(ii) under employment
(iii) excess employment
(iv) disguised employment ,
Answer:
(i) unemployment

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Economics Solutions Chapter 11 Theory of Income Determination

Question 14.
It available supply of goods becomes equal to demand but some resources remain unutilised, it is a case of
(i) unemployment
(ii) under employment equilibrium
(iii) full employment equilibrium
(iv) none of the above
Answer:
(ii) under employment equilibrium

Question 15.
The under employment equilibrium results some unutilised resources, but the demand for goods becomes
(i) greater than available supply
(ii) less than available supply
(iii) equal to available supply
(iv) Both (i) and (ii)
Answer:
(iii) equal to available supply

Question 16.
Which is not the outcome of excess demand?
(i) inflation
(ii) deflation
(iii) unequal distribution of income
(iv) Both (i) and (ii)
Answer:
(ii) deflation

Question 17.
Which is not the result of deficit demand?
(i) Inflation
(ii) deflation
(iii) fall in profit
(iv) fall in national income
Answer:
(i) Inflation

Question 18.
Unemployment results due to
(i) inflation
(ii) excess demand
(iii) deficit demand
(iv) Both (i) and (ii)
Answer:
(iii) deficit demand

Question 19.
The General Theory of Employment, Interest and Money of J.M Keynes was published in the year:
(i) 1930
(ii) 1940
(iii) 1936
(iv) 1947
Answer:
(iii) 1936

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Economics Solutions Chapter 11 Theory of Income Determination

Question 20.
The Keynesian theory of employment is concerned with involuntary unemployment arising in the economy in the :
(i) Long period
(ii) Short period
(iii) Both (i) and (ii)
(iv) None of the above.
Answer:
(ii) Short period.

Question 21.
Saving and investment are brought to equality through manipulation of:
(i) Rate of interest
(ii) Saving
(iii) Income
(iv) None of the above.
Answer:
(iii) Income

Question 22.
The Marginal propensity to consume is :
(i) Equal to one
(ii) More than one
(iii) Less than one
(iv) None of the above
Answer:
(iii) Less than are

Question 23.
The propensity to consume in case of the rich is :
(i) High
(ii) Less
(iii) One
(iv) None of the above.
Answer:
(ii) Less.

Question 24.
The volume of output and employment in an economy is determined by :
(i) Saving
(ii) Income
(iii) Investment
(iv) All of the above.
Answer:
(iii) Investment

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Economics Solutions Chapter 11 Theory of Income Determination

Question 25.
As income increases consumption increases and saving :
(i) Increases
(ii) Decreases
(iii) Remains the same
(iv) None of the above.
Answer:
(i) Increases

Question 26.
Effective demand includes:
(i) Consumption demand
(ii) Investment demand
(iii) Both (1) and (ii)
(iv) None of the above.
Answer:
(iii) Both (j) and (ii)

Question 27.
At the point of equilibrium :
(i) AD > AS
(ii) AD < AS
(iii) AD = AS
(iv) None of the above
Answer:
(iii) AD = AS

Question 28.
Consumption and income are
(i) Inversely related
(ii) Directly related
(iii) Not related
(iv) None of the above
Answer:
(ii) Directly related.

Question 29.
Aggregate demand is a:
(i) Decreasing function of income
(ii) Increasing function of income
(iii) Increasing function of saving
(iv) None of the above.
Answer:
(ii) Increasing function of income.

Question 30.
Investment is the function of .
(i) Income
(ii) Rate of interest
(iii) Saving
(iv) None of the above
Answer:
(ii) Rate of interest.

II. Fill in the blanks:

Question 1.
_____ brings about equality between saving and investment.
Answer:
The income

Question 2.
_____ determines the volume of output and employment in an economy.
Answer:
Investment

Question 3.
Consumption and saving both _____ with increase in income.
Answer:
increase

Question 4.
_____ is income elastic.
Answer:
Investment

Question 5.
_____ demand includes both Consumption Demand and Investment Demand.
Answer:
Effective

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Economics Solutions Chapter 11 Theory of Income Determination

Question 6.
If income increases consumption expenditure increases but less than the _____ in income.
Answer:
increase ;

Question 7.
If the _____ increases, the aggregate supply increases in the same proportion.
Answer:
level of employment

Question 8.
At the point of equilibrium, AD = _____
Answer:
AS.

Question 9.
If AD = AS, the _____ must be equal to investment.
Answer:
Saving

Question 10.
Investment is the function of _____
Answer:
Rate of interest.

Question 11.
Equilibrium level of income is determined at the point where saving is equal to _____
Answer:
Investment

Question 12.
Aggregate demand is a _____ function of income.
Answer:
increasing

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Economics Solutions Chapter 11 Theory of Income Determination

Question 13.
Consumption and income are _____ related.
Answer:
directly

Question 14.
The theory of income determination is propounded by _____.
Answer:
JM Keynes

Question 15.
Aggregate demand and aggregate supply are two components of _____ demand.
Answer:
Affective

Question 16.
The equilibrium level of income depends on _____.
Answer:
Effective demand

Question 17.
The consumption and saving are the two components of _____.
Answer:
Aggregate supply

Question 18.
The consumption and investment are the two components of _____.
Answer:
Aggregate demand

Question 19.
_____ demand creates inflationary pressure.
Answer:
Excess demand

Question 20.
The aggregate demand curve slopes _____
Answer:
Upward

Question 21.
If aggregate demand falls short of aggregate supply the level of national income tends to _____
Answer:
Fall

III. Correct the Sentences:

Question 1.
National Income analysis is the subject matter of micro economics.
Answer:
Incorrect.
Correct – National Income analysis is the subject matter of macro economics.

Question 2.
Macro-economics deals with the economic affairs “in the large”.
Answer:
Correct.

Question 3.
Aggregate demand consists of consumption demand & saving.
Answer:
Incorrect.
Correct – Aggregate demand consists of consumption demand & investment demand.

Question 4.
Excess demand occurs prior to the full employent.
Answer:
Incorrect.
Correct – Excess demand occurs at the full employment.

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Economics Solutions Chapter 11 Theory of Income Determination

Question 5.
Deficit demand arises after the full employment.
Answer:
Incorrect.
Correct – Deficit demand arises at the full employment.

Question 6.
The demand is effective when aggregate demand is equal to aggregate supply.
Answer:
Correct.

Question 7.
Excess demand creates inflation.
Answer:
Correct.

Question 8.
Aggregate supply is inversely related to level of employment.
Answer:
Incorrect.
Correct – Aggregate supply is directly related to level of employment.

Question 9.
Aggregate demand is the function of level of employment.
Answer:
Correct.

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Economics Solutions Chapter 11 Theory of Income Determination

Question 10.
If aggregate demand is equal to aggregate supply, saving is equal to investment.
Answer:
Correct.

Question 11.
Consumption expenditure increases with the increase the income.
Answer:
Correct.

Question 12.
Consumption demand depends on price-level.
Answer:
Incorrect.
Correct – Consumption demand depands on the level of income.

Question 13.
Aggregate demand curve starts from the origin.
Answer:
Incorrect.
Correct – Aggregate supply curve starts from the origin.

Question 14.
When income is zero, consumption is zero.
Answer:
Incorrect.
Correct – When income is zero, consumption demand is positive.

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Economics Solutions Chapter 11 Theory of Income Determination

Question 15.
Net export is always positive.
Answer:
Incorrect.
Correct- Net export may be positive or negative.

Question 16.
Equilibrium level of income is determined at that point where aggregate demand is equal to aggregate supply.
Answer:
Correct.

Question 17.
Autonomous investment depends on the level of national income.
Answer:
Incorrect.
Correct – Autonomous investment is independent of the level of national income.

Question 18.
Consumption is the function of income.
Answer:
Correct.

Question 19.
The theory of income determination by J.M. Kevnes is a long-run theory
Answer:
Incorrect
Correct – The theory of income determination bv J.M. Kevnes is a long-run theorvThe theory of income determination bv J.M. Kevnes is a short-run theory

Question 20.
If aggregate supply falls short of aggregate demand the level of national income decreases.
Answer:
Incorrect
Correct – If aggregate supply falls short of aggregate demand the level of national income increases. .

Question 21.
The defict demand creates prifce rise.
Answer: Incorrect
Correct – The defict demand creates price fall.

IV. Answer the following questions in one word:

Question 1.
What is aggregate demand?
Answer:
Aggregate demand refers to the total expenditure incurred on consumption & investment at aparticular time period.

Question 2.
What is aggregate supply?
Answer:
Aggregate supply refers to the total flow of final goods & services during a particular time period with given level of employment.

Question 3.
What is effective demand?
Answer:
Effective demand refers to that demand at which aggregate demand is equal to agregate supply.

Question 4.
What are the components of aggregate demand?
Answer:
Consumption demand, investment demand & net export constitute the aggregate demand.

Question 5.
What are the components of aggregate supply?
Answer:
Consumption & saving are the components of aggregate supply.

Question 6.
What is excess demand?
Answer:
Excess demand refers to the excess of aggregate demand over aggregate supply at full employment level. .

Question 7.
What is deficit demand?
Answer:
When aggregate demand falls short of aggregate supply at full employment level, it is called deficit demand.

Question 8.
What is saving?
Answer:
Saving is a residual income left after meeting the consumption expenditure.

Question 9.
How is equilibrium level of income determined?
Answer:
Equilibrium level of income is determined at that level where aggregate demand equals to aggregate supply.

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Economics Solutions Chapter 11 Theory of Income Determination

Question 10.
From which term ‘Macro’ is derived?
Answer:
Macro is derived from the Greek word ‘Marcos’ which means large.

Question 11.
What is Net export?
Answer:
The residual amount between export & import is called Net export.

Question 12.
What is the relationship between aggregate demand and level of employment?
Answer:
There is direct functional relationship between aggregate demand & the level of employment.

Question 13.
What are the components of aggregate demand?
Answer:
Consumption demand, investment demand, government demand & net export are the components of demand.

Question 14.
What are the components of aggregate supply?
Answer:
Consumption & saving are the components of aggregate supply.

Question 15.
What do you mean by full employment?
Answer:
Full employment is a situation in which all the existing resources in the economy are fully employed.

Question 16.
What is autonomous consumption?
Answer:
Consumption which is independent of level of income is called autnomous consumption.

Question 17.
What is autonomous investment?
Answer:
The investment which is not influenced by income is called autonomous investment.

Question 18.
What happens to saving & investment at the point of equilibrium?
Answer:
Saving & investment are equal at the point of equilibrium.

Question 19.
What is investment demand?
Answer:
Investment demand refers to the demand for that part of national income which is employed to create capital for further production.

Question 20.
What is consumption function?
Answer:
The functional relationship between consumption & income is called consumption function.

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Biology Solutions Chapter 3 Human Reproduction

Odisha State Board CHSE Odisha Class 12 Biology Solutions Chapter 3 Human Reproduction Textbook Questions and Answers.

CHSE Odisha 12th Class Biology Chapter 3 Question Answer Human Reproduction

Human Reproduction Class 12 Questions and Answers CHSE Odisha

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Choose the correct option

Question 1.
Which of the following is not a gonadotropin?
(a) FSH
(b) hCG
(c) LH
(d) Testosterone
Answer:
(d) Testosterone

Question 2.
Which of the following hormones is not a steroid?
(a) Relaxin
(b) Estradiol
(c) Progesterone
(d) Testosterone
Answer:
(a) Relaxin

Question 3.
Which of the following is not secreted by the acrosome?
(a) Hyaluronidase
(b) Corona penetrating enzyme
(c) Zonalysin
(d) Fertilizin
Answer:
(d) Fertilizin

Question 4.
Blastocyst formation follows
(a) fertilisation
(b) spermatogenesis
(c) gametogenesis
(d) cleavage
Answer:
(d) cleavage

Question 5.
Placenta secretes the hormone
(a) testosterone
(b) human chorionic gonadotropin
(c) oxytocin
(d) growth hormone
Answer:
(b) human chorionic gonadotropin

Question 6.
Fallopian tube is part of
(a) ureter
(b) oviduct
(c) uterus
(d) vas deferens
Answer:
(b) oviduct

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Biology Solutions Chapter 3 Human Reproduction

Question 7.
In human, fertilisation usually occurs in the
(a) vagina
(b) cervix
(c) uterine cavity
(d) uterine tube
Answer:
(d) uterine tube

Question 8.
Which of the following is not a male secondary sexual character?
(a) Beard
(b) Enlarged penis
(c) Coarse voice
(d) Increased fat in the buttocks
Answer:
(d) Increased fat in the buttocks

Question 9.
The chief source of circulating oestrogen is
(a) theca interna
(b) granulosa
(c) theca externa
(d) stroma
Answer:
(a) theca interna

Question 10.
Which of the following is not an accessory sex organ?
(a) Testis
(b) Epididymis
(c) Bulbourethral gland
(d) Seminal vesicles
Answer:
(a) Testis

Question 11.
Delivery of a human baby following pregnancy is known as
(a) ovulation
(b) parturition
(c) abortion
(d) conception
Answer:
(b) parturition

Question 12.
Sertoli cells are regulated by
(a) GH
(b) LH
(c) FSH
(d) TSH
Answer:
(c) FSH

Question 13.
Which of the following is a source of progesterone?
(a) Corpus luteum
(b) Corpus spongiosum
(c) Corpus albicans
(d) Corpus haemorrhagicum
Answer:
(a) Corpus luteum

Question 14.
Milk ejection from the breasts of a woman following the birth of a baby is stimulated by
(a) LH
(b) FSH
(c) GH
(d) oxytocin
Answer:
(d) oxytocin

Question 15.
Find the mismatch
(a) Acrosome – Dissolution
(b) Tail – Nutrition
(c) Mitochondria – Energy production
(d) Centriole – Cleavage
Answer:
(b) Tail provides motility not nutrition.

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Biology Solutions Chapter 3 Human Reproduction

Fill in the blanks

1. All but one X-chromosomes in human female cells are condensed and inactive. Such X-chromosomes are known as ___
Answer:
Barr body

2. The Testis Determining Factor (TDF) is a polypeptide, expressed by ___ gene present on the Y-chromosome.
Answer:
sry

3. The factor responsible for the regression of the mullerian duct in the human male foetus is known as ___ secreted by ___ cell of the testis.
Answer:
AMH, Sertoli

4. Gonadotropins (FSH and LH) are secreted from ___ .
Answer:
anterior pituitary gland

5. FSH stimulates the Sertoli cells to synthesise three polypeptides, namely inhibin ___ and ___ .
Answer:
activins, transferrin

6. The early development of the ovarian follicles is stimulated by ___ and oestrogen.
Answer:
FSH

7. Luteinizing hormone stimulates ___ cells of the testis.
Answer:
Leydig

8. The final maturation of the ovarian follicles and ovulation are stimulated by ___ .
Answer:
LH

9. The prostatic fluid contains an acid called ___ .
Answer:
citric acid

10. Prostate Specific Antigens (PSA) help in the diagnosis of ___ .
Answer:
prostate cancer

11. The swollen tip of the penis is known as ___ .
Answer:
glans penis

12. The erectile tissue of the penis is constituted by ___ and ___ .
Answer:
corpus cavernosa, corpus spongiosum

13. The seminal vesicles discharge into vas deferens through ___ .
Answer:
ejaculatory duct

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Biology Solutions Chapter 3 Human Reproduction

14. The peritoneal fold by which the ovary is attached to the broad ligament is called ___ .
Answer:
mesovarium

15. The primary oocytes are arrested at ___ stage of first meiosis until the onset of puberty.
Answer:
diplotene

16. The layers of cuboidal follicular cells surrounding the primary oocyte constitutes ___ .
Answer:
granulosa cells

17. Stromal cells, surrounding the granulosa cells are known as ___ cells.
Answer:
thecal

18. The egg is ovulated at ___ stage.
Answer:
ovulatory/secretory

19. The non-cellular layer surrounding the primary oocyte is known as ___ .
Answer:
corona radiata

20. The inner epithelial lining of the uterus is known a s ___ .
Answer:
endometrium

21. The menstrual cycle spans ___ days and the ovulation occurs on the day ___ .
Answer:
28, 14

22. The secondary oocyte is arrested at ___ before fertilisation.
Answer:
metaphase-II

23. Penetration of spermatozoan into the egg at fertilisation triggers metaphase-II in the secondary oocyte. This phenomenon is known as ___ .
Answer:
egg activation

24. Following the failure of fertilisation, the corpus luteum regresses into a structure called ___
Answer:corpus albicans

25. Corpus luteum is the main source of oestrogen and ___ .
Answer:progesterone

Answer each of the following in one word or more words, whenever necessary

1. Retention of testis in the abdominal cavity.
Answer:
Cryptorchidism

2. The canal through which the testis descends into the scrotum.
Answer:
Inguinal canal

3. The plexus of blood capillaries that helps maintain the temperature of the testis for normal functioning.
Answer:
Pampiniform plexus

4. The connective tissue capsule of the testis.
Answer:
Tunica albuginea

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Biology Solutions Chapter 3 Human Reproduction

5. The seminal fluid contains a monosaccharide as the energy source.
Answer:
Fructose

6. The passage through which both the urine and semen are discharged.
Answer:
Urethra

7. The glans penis is covered by a fold of loose skin.
Answer:
Prepuce

8. The forcible expulsion of semen through the urethra.
Answer:
Ejaculation

9. The low count of sperms in human semen.
Answer:
Oligospermia

10. The mucopolysaccharide layer surrounding a primary ovarian follicle.
Answer:
Layer of granulosa cells

11.The hillock of granulosa cells connecting the granulosa cells surrounding the oocyte with the peripheral granulosa cells layer in a Graafian follicle.
Answer:
Cumulus oophorus

12.The loose mass of connective tissue, in which are present different stages of ovarian follicles.
Answer:
Medulla of ovary

13. The regressing follicles and the act of regression.
Answer:
Atretic follicles and follicular atresia

14. The uterine layer that is sloughed off during menstrual cycle.
Answer:
Endometrium

15. The arteries of the uterine wall that undergo disintegration during the menstrual cycle.
Answer:
Basal and spiral arteries

16. The height of LH secretion, 16-26 hours before ovulation.
Answer:
LH surge

17. The tissue formed by the apposition of both the maternal and foetal tissues during pregnancy.
Answer:
Placenta

18. The modified sweat glands in the female that serve as the source of food for neonatal babies.
Answer:
Alveoli

19. The fertilizin-antifertilizin reaction that stops the march of a large number of sperms towards the egg.
Answer:
Agglutination reaction

20. The penetration of the spermatozoan into the egg sets in a reaction in the cortical cytoplasm, which results in the formation of fertilisation membrane.
Answer:
Cortical reaction (slow block)

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Biology Solutions Chapter 3 Human Reproduction

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What are the disadvantages of asexual reproduction?
Answer:
Disadvantages of asexual reproduction

  • There is no mixing of genetic material, therefore, no variation takes place.
  • Since, variations do not occur, asexual reproduction has no role in evolution.
  • Due to rapid multiplication, it causes overcrowding.
  • The organisms produced through asexual reproduction have low adaptability to the changed environment.

Question 2.
Explain sexual dimorphism.
Answer:
Sexual dimorphism means presence of male and female reproductive organs in different individuals. Such individuals are called dioecious or unisexual. Male and female exhibits different body type structurally and functionally. .

Question 3.
How do gametes acquire haploid number of chromosomes?
Answer:
The haploid number of chromosomes in gametes is contributed by the process called gametogenesis from the undifferentiated diploid germ cells in the gonads.
It is called spermatogenesis in males and oogenesis in females.

Question 4.
Is a Y-chromosome essential for the development of testis in human? Explain.
Answer:
Yes, Y-chromosome is necessary for the development of testes in humans. It contains sry gene which encodes for Testis Determining Factor (TDF) in foetus. In the presence of TDF, foetus develops into male, else female sex is developed.

Question 5.
What is the role of antimullerian hormone? Where is it secreted from?
Answer:
Antimullerian Hormone (AMH) helps in the testicular descent to the inguinal region. This dimeric glycoprotein is produced by Sertoli cells throughout the childhood in males and declines after puberty.

Question 6.
Explain, what is puberty?
Answer:
Puberty is a period when reproductive organs start functioning. It is attained between 13-16 years and gonadotropins play an important role in it. This period is marked by the development of sexual secondary structures in both the sexes and menarche in females only.

Question 7.
Name two gonadotropins. Where are these secreted from?
Answer:
Luteinizing hormone and follicle stimulating hormone are the gonadotropins secreted by anterior lobe of pituitary under the influence of Gonadotropin Releasing Hormone (GnRH) secreted by hypothalamus. In females, oestrogen is also secreted along with LH and FSH.

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Biology Solutions Chapter 3 Human Reproduction

Question 8.
Describe the major role of LH in both male and female.
Answer:
In males, LH may be called Interstitial Cells Stimulating Hormone (ICSH) because it stimulates the interstitial or Leydig’s’ cells of the seminiferous tubules of the testes to secrete androgens. In females, LH stimulates the corpus luteum to secrete progesterone.
High level of LH on the day 14 of menstrual cycle results in the release of secondary oocyte from the mature Graafian follicle. This process is called ovulation which is the result of LH surge on day 14.

Question 9.
What is a cremasteric reflex?
Answer:
In cold wheather, the testes are elevated by the contraction of a band of muscle, known as cremasteric muscle to get the warmth of the trunk. This effect is called cremasteric reflex. The same effect occurs when the thigh of a man is stroked.

Question 10.
Explain the counter-current heat exchange mechanism in human testis.
Answer:
Testicular arteries that descend into the scrotum are surrounded by a plexus of veins, which ascend the testis and form a pampiniform plexus. Blood that returns from the testes through these plexus is cooler than the blood in testicular arteries.
The arterial blood is cooled by venous blood by a counter-current heat exchange mechanism.

Question 11.
Describe the functions of the Sertoli cells.
Answer:
Sertoli cells or subtentacular cells are present in between the germinal epithelial cells of seminiferous tubules.
They provide nourishment to the developing spermatozoa. These cells secrete Androgen Binding Protein (ABP) that concentrates testosterone in the seminiferous tubules. It also secretes inhibin protein which suppresses FSH synthesis.

Question 12.
What is blood testis barrier? How does it help the testis?
Answer:
The basal lamina of the germinal epithelium, muscle-like myoid cells at the base of basal lamina and tight junction between adjacent Sertoli cells constitute a blood testis barrier. This barrier prevents many macromolecules from moving into the tubular lumen.

Question 13.
What are the functions of epididymis?
Answer:
Epididymis is a mass of long narrow closely coiled tubule, which lies along the inner side of each testis. It stores the sperms and secretes a fluid which nourish the sperms.

Question 14.
Name five secondary sexual characters in human male.
Answer:
Secondary sexual characters in males include muscular build up, beard, moustaches, underdeveloped mammary glands, high BMR, predominantly abdominal breathing, etc.

Question 15.
What do you mean by accessory sex organs? Give five examples in human male.
Answer:
Accessory sex organs are those that do not produce gametes but they are essential for reproduction. In males scrotum, epididymis, vasa deferentia, ejaculatory ducts, urethra and penis are the example of accessory sex organs.

Question 16.
What is the function of the prostate glands
Answer:
The prostate gland is a single large gland that surround the urethra. It produces a milky secretion with pH 6.5 which forms 25% of the volume of semen. This secretion contains citric acid, enzymes and prostaglandins secretions of prostate gland nourishes and activates the spermatozoa to swim.

Question 17.
What is the role of corpus luteum following fertilisation and implantation?
Answer:
Corpus luteum acts as a temporary endocrine gland. It secretes large amount of progesterone which is essential for the maintenance of endometrium, necessary for implantation of the fertilised egg and other events of pregnancy. It degenerates in the absence of fertilisation.

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Biology Solutions Chapter 3 Human Reproduction

Question 18.
Explain LH surge.
Answer:
When the blood level of oestrogen rises to a peak near the middle of the cycle, it gives positive feedback and stimulates more LH secretion. It is called LH surge and it stimulates ovulation.

Question 19.
What is spermiogenesis?
Answer:
Formation of spermatozoa (Spermiogenesis) Each haploid spermatid is a typical immotile cell containing a haploid nucleus, cytoplasm and cytoplasmic organelles. The metamorphosis of spermatids into motile sperms occurs because a sperm possesses many structures which are not typical to a spermatid.

All the structures confer motility to the sperm. After spermiogenesis, sperm heads are embedded in the Sertoli cell and finally released from the seminiferous tubule by the process of spermiation.

Question 20.
What is the role of acrosome in fertilisation?
Answer:
The sperm head contains an oval haploid nucleus, the anterior part of which is capped by structure called acrosome.
The acrosome secretes enzymes that help dissolve the egg barriers during fertilisation. The sperm lysins present in acrosome include hyaluronidase, corona penetrating enzyme and acrosis. They digest zona pellucida and corona radiata and help the sperm to enter the egg.

Question 21.
Placenta is an endocrine tissue. Explain.
Answer:
The placenta acts as an endocrine tissue and produces several hormones like human Chorionic Gonadotropin (hCG), human Placental Lactogen (hPL), oestrogen, progesterone, etc. In the later phase of pregnancy, a hormone called relaxin is also secreted by the placenta. Hormones such as hCG, hPL and relaxin are produced in women only during pregnancy. In addition, during pregnancy the levels of other hormones like oestrogens, progesterone, cortisol, prolactin, thyroxine, etc., are increased several fold in the maternal blood. Increased production of these hormones is essential for supporting foetal growth, metabolic changes in the mother and maintenance of pregnancy.

Question 22.
Enlist the hormones regulating menstrual cycle and mention the role of each.
Answer:
The hormones that regulate menstrual cycle along with their functions are
1.Pituitary gonadotropins (LH, FSH and Oestrogen) These help in the proliferation of Graafian follicle and endometrium of uterus.

  • FSH Stimulates the growth of ovarian follicle and secretion of oestrogen.
  • Oestrogen Increased level of oestrogen gives positive feedback and stimulates more LH production.
  • LH Stimulates ovulation.

2. Progesterone Essential for the maintenance of endometrium.

Question 23.
What do you understand by follicular atresia? Where does it occur?
Answer:
At birth around 2.5 millions of primary follicles are found in each ovary but at puberty only 60,000-80,000 primary follicles are left. The rest degenerate, in a process called follicular atresia. It occurs in the ovaries of females.

Question 24.
Where do the granulosa and thecal cells originate from and what are their functions?
Answer:
Granulosa cells and thecal cells surround the primary follicles to form secondary follicles in the ovaries. The innermost layer of granulosa cells that surround the oocyte is known as the corona radiata. A glycoprotein protective layer, known as the zona pellucida appears between the oocyte and corona radiata. Cells from the stroma surround the granulosa cells and differentiate as the thecal cells.
During ovulation, granulosa and thecal cells proliferate and become glandular.
They collectively form luteal cells which is the source of oestrogon and progesterone.

Question 25.
How is the mammary gland hormonally regulated?
Answer:
Mammary glands are modified sweat glands that lie over the pectoral muscles. In the female, breasts are undeveloped until puberty. At puberty they begin to develop under the influence of oestrogen and progesterone.
The glands proliferate during pregnancy and start producing milk towards the end of pregnancy by the process called lactation.
It is induced by hormones like Prolactin (PRL) and oxytocin secreted from the mother’s pituitary gland. Lactation helps the mother in feeding the newborn.
Milk production is stimulated by prolactin and ejection of milk is induced by oxytocin.

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Biology Solutions Chapter 3 Human Reproduction

Write brief notes on the following

Question 1.
Secondary sexual characters
Answer:
Secondary sexual characters are those which help distinguish the two sexes morphologically. The appearance of these characteristics is influenced by the secretion of hormones at the onset of puberty. Testosterone and oestrogen are responsible for the production of secondary sexual characters in males and females, respectively.

Testosterone is involved in greater bone density, high muscle mass, larger voice box, beard and moustaches development, etc.
Oestrogen is involved in breast development, increased* fat tissue around hips, wider pelvic bone, etc. ’ .

Question 2.
Accessory sex organs
Answer:
Reproductive organs other than testes and ovaries are called accessory sex organs. These organs help in the maturation of sex cells. In males, they include seminal vesicles, prostate gland and Cowper’s/ Bulbourethral glands. In female reproductive system, accessory sex organ includes Bartholin’s gland.

Question 3.
Seminiferous tubule
Answer:
The seminiferous tubules are the site of germination, maturation and transportation of sperm cells within the male testes. They are made up of columnar Sertoli cells surrounded by spermatogenic cells on the epithelial interior. They are located within the testes and are formed from the testis cords that develop from the primitive gonadal cords formed gonadal ridge.

Question 4.
Graafian follicle
Answer:
Graafian follicle is a mature fluid-filled cavity in a mammalian ovary that ruptures during ovulation to release an egg on the day of ovulation. Graafian follicle represents the follicular stage after the first meiotic division but before ovulation.
It is characterised by a large antrum that makes up most of the follicle. The secondary oocyte is surrounded by zona pellucida and a layer of corona radiata.

Question 5.
Corpus luteum
Answer:
The corpus luteum is a temporary endocrine structure in female that is involved in ovulation and early pregnancy. This yellow body is formed in ovary Graafian follicle that has matured and released its ovum. The corpus luteum is made up of lutein cells which develop immediately following ovulation, when yellow pigment and lipids accumulate within the granulosa cells lining the follicle.

The corpus luteum secretes oestrogen and progesterone which helps in setting the suitable environment for pregnancy. In the absence of pregnancy, this structure regresses and gets converted into white body called corpus albicans.

Question 6.
Prostate gland
Answer:
The prostate gland is located between the bladder and the penis just in front of rectum in males. It secretes fluid that nourish and protect sperms. Its secretions are alkaline and milky in appearance and it constitutes about 30% of the volume of semen. The alkalinity of semen helps to neutralise the acidity of vaginal tract. Inflammation of prostate gland causes prostatitis which may be benign or cancerous.

Question 7.
Seminal vesicles
Answer:
The seminal vesicles are a pair of tube-like glands in males. They are found behind the bladder and their secretion makes about 70% of the content of semen.

The secretion of seminal vesicle is rich in sugars (especially fructose) which feeds the sperms. The fluid also has clotting properties that makes the semen sticky. Prostaglandins in seminal fluid are believed to aid fertilisation by causing the mucous lining of the cervix to be more receptive to sperm as well as by aiding the movement of sperm towards the ovum with peristalic contractions of uterus and Fallopian tubes.

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Biology Solutions Chapter 3 Human Reproduction

Question 8.
Bulbourethral gland
Answer:
The bulbourethral gland, also called Cowper’s gland are exocrine glands in males,. They are homologous to Bartholin’s glands in females. They are compound tubulo-alveolar glands located posterior and lateral to the membranous portion of the urethra at the base of penis. Their secretion contribute about 0.1-0.2 mL of the ejaculate. It is a clear fluid that is rich in mucoproteins. The secretion helps to lubricate the distal urethra and neutralise the acidic urine which remains in the urethra.

Question 9.
Blood testis barrier
Answer:
The Blood Testis Barrier (BTB) is one of the tightest blood tissue barriers in mammalian body. It divides the seminiferous epithelium into the basal and apical compartments. Meiosis-I and II, spermiogenesis and spermiation all occur in a specialised microenvironment behind BTB in the apical compartment but spermatogonial renewal and differentiation and cell cycle progression up to preleptotene spermatocyte stage takes place outside of the BTB in the basal compartment.

BTB is different from most other tissue barriers in that it is not only comprised of tight junctions. Desmosomes, gap junctions and ectoplasmic specialisations also occur in it.

Question 10.
Luteal phase
Answer:
The luteal phase is one stage of menstrual cycle. It occurs after ovulation. It begins with the formation of corpus luteum and ends in either pregnancy or luteolysis, i.e regression of corpus luteum. The main hormone associated with this stage is progesterone which is secreted by corpus luteum. This phase lasts between 10-16 days. Luteal phase of less than 12 days may make it difficult to achieve pregnancy.

Question 11.
Menopause
Answer:
Menopause (Gr. Men = month, pausis = cessation)
It is a phase in woman’s life when ovulation and menstruation stop. It occurs between 45-55 years of age. Some women have irregular cycles for, months or years prior to menopause. Others simply stop menstruating abruptly.

Cause One theory is that menopause is a result of changes in pituitary gland and the nearby hypothalamus. Another theory suggests that menopause may begin when no follicles are left in the ovaries. In fact decline in oestrogen and progesterone level leads to menopause. Symptoms The uterus and the vagina gradually become atrophic (decreased work). Women may suffer temporarily depression, hot flashes, and other physiological and psychological problems in menopause. Most of these symptoms can be relieved by taking hormones prescribed by a physician. But this replacement of hormones is not encouraged due to some side effects.

Question 12.
Gonadotropins
Answer:
Gonadotropins are glycoprotein polypeptide hormones secreted by gonadotroph cells of the anterior pituitary gland. These are stimulated by Gonadotropin Releasing Hormones (GnRH) secreted by hypothalamus. The major gonadotropins are Follicle Stimulating Hormone (FSH) and Luteinizing Hormone (LH). They stimulate the gonads, i.e. testes and ovaries in males and females, respectively.

Question 13.
Placenta
Answer:
Placenta is the intimate connection between the foetus and uterine wall of the mother to exchange the materials. In humans, chorion takes part in the formation of placenta hence called chorionic placenta. It consists of foetal part, the chorion and a maternal part, the decidua basalis.

The degree of intimacy is so strong that the blood vessels of the chorionic villi are bathed in the mother’s blood. This type of placenta which is based on the intimacy between foetal and maternal parts of the placenta is referred to as haemochorial placenta. It provides nutrition, aids in respiration and excretion of the foetus.

Question 14.
Parturition Or What is parturition?
Answer:
Parturition is the act of expelling the full term young one from the mother’s uterus at the end of gestation period.
It is induced by both nervous system and hormones secreted by the endocrine glands of the mother. The signals for childbirth (parturition) originates from the fully matured foetus and placenta which induce mild uterine contractions called foetal-ejection reflex.

This causes quick release of oxytocin from maternal posterior lobe of pituitary. The amount of oxytocin is increased just before and during labour pains which promote contractions of the uterine muscles. Relaxin increases the flexibility of the pubis symphysis and helps to dilate the uterine cervix.

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Biology Solutions Chapter 3 Human Reproduction

Question 15.
Spermiogenesis
Answer:
Spermiogenesis is the process of transformation of spermatids into spermatozoa (sperms). Four sperms are formed from one spermatogonium by the differentiation process. After spermiogenesis, sperm head becomes embedded in the Sertoli cells and are finally released from the seminiferous tubules by the process called spermiation. Spermiogenesis is also called spermateliosis.

Question 16.
Lactation
Answer:
Lactation is the process of production of milk in the mammary glands of females towards the end of pregnancy and after the birth of the young one. Secretion and storage of milk generally begins after birth of young one, usually within 24 hours under the influence of prolactin (PRL) hormone secreted by anterior lobe of pituitary gland.

However, the ejection of milk is stimulated by the Hormone Oxytocin (OT) released from the posterior lobe of pituitary gland.
The first milk which comes from the mammary glands of mother just after childbirth, for 2-3 days is called colostrum.

Differentiate between two words in the following pairs of words

Question 1.
Leydig cell and Sertoli cell
Answer:
Differences between Leydig cells and Sertoli cells are as follows

Leydig’s cells (Interstitial cells) Sertoli cells (Sustentacular cells)
They are present in between the seminiferous tubules. They are present in between the germinal epithelial cells of the seminiferous tubules.
Leydig’s cells are found in small groups and are rounded in shape. Sertoli cells are found singly and are elongated.
They secrete androgens (e.g. testosterone) male sex hormones. They provide nourishment to the developing spermatozoa (sperms), Sertoli cells secrete ABP(Androgen Binding Protein) that concentrates testosterone in the seminiferous tubules. It also secretes another protein inhibin which suppresses FSH synthesis.

 

Question 2.
Corpus haemorrhagicum and Corpus luteum
Answer:
Differences between corpus haemorrhagicum and corpus luteum are as follows

Corpus haemorrhagicum Corpus luteum
It is a temporary structure formed immediately after ovulation from the ovarian follicle as it collapses and is filled with blood that clots quickly It is formed from corpus haemorrhagicum formed after the release of secondary oocyte after ovulation.
Non- endocrine. Thmporary endocrine.

 

Question 3.
Follicular phase and Luteal phase
Answer:
Differences between follicular phase and luteal phase are as follows

Follicular phase Luteal phase
It extends for about 10-12 days usually from day 6-13 in a 25 days cycle. It extends for about 13-14 days after ovulation usually from day 15-28 in a 28 days cycle.
Primary follicle changes into Graafian follicle. Empty Graafian follicle changes into corpus luteum.
Oestrogens are secreted. Progesterone is secreted.
Endometrium is about 2-3 mm thick. The uterine glands do not secrete watery secretion. Endometrium is about 5 mm thick. The uterine glands secrete watery secretion.

 

Question 4.
Antral follicle and Graafian follicle
Answer:
Differences between antral follicle and Graafian follicle are as follows

Antral follicle Graafian follicle
Formed from secondary follicle. Formed from tertiary follicle.
Cellular differentiation are at peak. Cellular differentiation is completed.
Occur in follicular phase. Occur in ovulatory phase.
Under the influence of FSH, it gets converted in Graafian follicle. Under the influence of LH, it ruptures to release secondary oocyte and gets converted into corpus luteum.

 

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Biology Solutions Chapter 3 Human Reproduction

Question 5.
Granulosa and Thecal cells.
Answer:
Differences between granulosa cells and thecal cells are as follows

Granulosa Thecal cells
Inner,ost cells that surrounds the oocyte. Cells of that stroma surround granulosa cells.
After ovulation, they become the source of progesterone. After ovulation, they become the source of oestrogen.

 

Question 6.
First maturation division and Second maturation division.
Answer:
Differences between first maturation division and second maturation division are as follows

First maturation division Second maturation division
The primary oocyte divides into two unequal haploid daughter cells a large secondary oocyte and a very small first polar body. The first polar body may divide to form second polar bodies. The secondary oocyte again divide into unequal daughter cells a large ootid and a very small second polar body.

 

Question 7.
Spermatogenesis and Oogenesis.
Answer:
Differences between spermatogenesis and oogenesis are as follows

Spermatogenesis Oogenesis
It occurs in the testes. It occurs in the ovaries.
Spermatogonia change to primary spermatocytes. Oogonia change to primary oocytes.
A primary spermatocyte divides to form two secondary spermatocytes. A primary oocyte divides to form one secondary oocyte and one polar body.
A secondary spermatocyte divides to form two spermatids. A secondary oocyte divides to form one ootid and one polar body.
No polar body is formed. Polar bodies are formed.
A spermatogonium forms four spermatozoa. An oogonium forms one ovum.
Sperms are minute, yolkless and motile. Ova are much larger often with yolk and non-motile.
It is generally completed in the tests and thus mature, sperms are released from the tests. It is often completed in the female reproductive tract or in many animals in water because oocytes are released from the ovaries.

 

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Discuss about different methods of asexual reproduction in animal, as studied by you.
Answer:
In asexual reproduction, a single parent gives rise to two or more young ones that have hereditary – traits similar to that of parent. It occurs by various processes like fission, budding, etc. It is mostly found in lower groups of organisms like some plants, protozoans, sponges, coelenterates, etc.

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Biology Solutions Chapter 3 Human Reproduction

Question 2.
Describe the male reproductive system in human.
Answer:
Male Reproductive System:
The male reproductive system is located in the pelvis region. It consists of scrotum a pair of testes, excurrent ducts and accessory glands.
CHSE Odisha Class 12 Biology Solutions Chapter 3 Human Reproduction 1

Scrotum:
It is a pouch-like structure of pigmented skin arising from the lower abdominal wall and hanging between the leg. It is divided internally into right and left scrotal sacs by a muscular partition called septum scrota. The testis originates in the abdominal cavity, but later during the seventh month of development, it descend into the respective scrotal sacs through the passages called inguinal canals.

Testicular descent to inguinal region during gestation period is affected by Antimullerin Hormone (AMH) secreted by Sertoli cells. 90% of babies have completely descended testes, when they are born. In 10% of new-borns, testes fail to descend and retained in the abdominal cavity. This condition is called cryptochidism. It can be treated by gonadotropins or surgery.

In cold weather, the testes are elevated by the contraction of a band of muscle, known as cremasteric muscle to get the warmth of the trunk. This effect is known as cremasteric reflex.

The same effect occurs when the thigh of a man is stroked. In the baby, this stimulus causes the testes to ascend up into the abdominal cavity through the inguinal canal.

Functions of Scrotum:
Scrotum keeps the temperature of testes about 2-2.5°C lower than the internal body temperature, which is essential for the production of sperms, i.e. spermatogenesis. This temperature is maintained by perspiration and evaporation from the scrotal surface. These processes occur due to the presence of pampiniform plexus that surround testiculae arteries which ascend from the testis. Venous blood returning from testis through pampiniform plexus is cooler than the blood in testicular arteries. The countercurrent heat exchange mechanism between the arterial and venous blood cools down the arterial blood.

Testes: Microscopic Anatomy:
Testes are the primary sex organs in men. These are the male gonads, i.e. the site where the male gametes or sperms are made. A pair of testis is situated outside the abdominal cavity within the scrotum. Each testis is oval in shape and measures about 4-5 cm in length and 2-3 cm in width. These are suspended in the scrotum by spermatic cords.

Microscopic Anatomy:
The outermost covering of the testis is formed by a dense connective tissue called tunica albuginea. It thickens and extends inwardly into each testis as mediastinum testis which further forms thin connective tissue septum. The latter divides each testis into 200-300 compartments called testicular lobules. Each lobule contains 1-3 highly convoluted seminiferous tubules that is lined by stratified cuboidal epithelium.
CHSE Odisha Class 12 Biology Solutions Chapter 3 Human Reproduction 2

Seminiferous Tubule:
It is the structural and functional unit of testis in which sperms are produced. Each seminiferous tubule is present in the mass of loose connective tissue that contain fibroblast, epithelial cells, nerves, blood and lymphatic vessels, etc. Inside these tubules, two types of highly specialised cells are present namely Sertoli cells (nurse cells) and spermatogenic cells.
CHSE Odisha Class 12 Biology Solutions Chapter 3 Human Reproduction 3
Transverse section through human testis : (a) A single seminiferous tubule with cells of Leydig in the interstitial tissue, (b) A magnified part of the seminiferous tubule showing the blood-testis barrier, Sertoli cells and its relationship to the differentiating spermatogenic cells and (c) A Sertoli cell with spermatogenic cells in different stages of development

1. Spermatogenic cells These are majority of dividing cells or male germ cells (cuboidal cells) which produce spermatogonia by mitotic division. The spermatogonia further grows into primary spermatocytes and undergo meiosis producing haploid cells, first secondary spermatocytes and then spermatids.

2. Sertoli or Sustentacular cells They are tall, pyramidal, non-dividing somatic cells. They serve the supporting and nourishing function for the spermatogenic cells in different stages of their differentiation. The basal lamina of the germinal epithelium, muscle-like myoid cells at the base of the basal lamina and tight junctions between adjacent Sertoli cells constitute a blood testis barrier which performs the following functions

  • Prevents many macromolecules from moving into the tubular lumen.
  • Prevents the blood borne noxious chemical agents from entering into the tubule.
  • Prevents the passage of antigenic agents from the tubule into the blood, which are likely to generate an autoimmune response.

The region outside the seminiferous tubules called interstitial spaces contain small blood vessels and masses of cells called interstitial cells or Leydig cells. These cells synthesise and secrete the testicular hormones called androgens. Leydig cells are endocrine in function and thus, regulate and maintain male sex characteristics. Other immunologically competent cells are also present in this region.

Accessory or Excurrent Duct System:
These ducts store and transport the sperms along with other glandular secretions from the testis to the outside through urethra. The male’s sex accessory ducts include-tubuli recti, rete testis, vasa efferentia (intratesticular ducts), epididymis, vas deferens and urethra (extratesticular ducts). The ends of seminiferous tubules converge and join to form short straight tubules called tubuli recti.
CHSE Odisha Class 12 Biology Solutions Chapter 3 Human Reproduction 4
Duct system in human testis

The tubuli recti open into a network of wider, irregular tubules called rete testis, that further open into 12 short efferent ductules or ductuli efferentes.

The latter open into the epididymis and carry sperms outside the testis. Epididymis is a long tube, which is greatly coiled and tightly packed to form an elongated flattened body. It is located along the posterior surface of each testis.

Sperms undergo physiological maturation, acquiring increased motility and fertilising capacity (i.e. capacitation) in epididymis. After that, they pass down to the tail of epididymis, where they stay for a very short period before entering the two vas deferens or ductus deferens.

The vas deferens ascends to the abdomen and lopps over urinary bladder. It receives a duct from seminal vesicle to form ejaculatory duct. The ejaculatory duct enters the prostate gland and opens into the prostatic urethra.

The prostatic urethra extends through the penis to its external opening called urethral meatus or penile urethra. The urethra carries urine from bladder as well . as spermatozoa and secretions from the Cowper’s and prostate glands.

Accessory Glands:
The accessory glands or the secondary glands in males are described below
1. Prostate gland It is a single gland that lies » inferior to the bladder. It receives two ejaculatory ducts that joins to form prostatic urethra. The latter receives ductules from prostate. It secretes a milky, slightly alkaline fluid, that contains lipids, enzymes, citric acid, etc.

It is released during ejaculation and helps to neutralise the acidic medium of vagina, making sperms more active to swim. Prostatic fluid accounts for nearly 20-30% of semen volume.

2. Seminal vesicles This paired gland is present posterior to the bladder above prostate. Its ducts empties in the ampulla of ductus deferens.
They secrete mucus and a watery alkaline fluid that contains fructose (acts as an energy source for the sperms). Prostaglandins (stimulate uterine contractions for sperm movement) and a clotting protein form a temporary clot after ejaculation. Later, fibrolysins dissolves the coagulate or clot so that it assume a liquid form. Calcium and certain other enzymes are also a part of seminal plasma.

Fructose, produced by seminal vesicles, is not present elsewhere in the body. Therefore, during forensic test for rape, its presence in females genital tract confirms sexual intercourse. The seminal vesicles and prostrate degenerates or atrophy after the removal of testes because they are androgen dependent glands.

3. Bulbourethral or Cowper’s gland These are situated beneath the bladder and behind the urethra. There ductules discharge into the prostatic urethra. They secrete mucus and an alkaline fluid into the urethra. The mucus helps in the lubrication of penis and neutralises any urinary acids in urethra

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Biology Solutions Chapter 3 Human Reproduction

Questions 3.
Describe the female reproductive system in human.
Answer:
Female Reproductive System:
It consists of a pair of ovaries, glands, a duct system and many supporting structures. Its components are found in both paired and unpaired condition.
CHSE Odisha Class 12 Biology Solutions Chapter 3 Human Reproduction 5
The female reproductive system consists of the following organs
Ovaries:
Ovaries are the primary sex organs of female that is situated in the pelvic cavity.
They produce female gametes (ovum) and several steroid hormones (ovarian hormones). The ovaries are almond-shaped, lying in the lower part of the abdomen and held to the broad ligament by double folds of peritoneum called mesovarium. Each ovary is about 2-4 cm in length and is connected by an ovarian ligament to the uterus and by a suspensory ligament to the lateral pelvic wall. Each ovary is covered by a thin epithelium layer called germinal epithelium.

Next to this layer, dense irregular connective tissue mass called tunica albuginea is present. Inner to this, cortex is present which is followed by highly vascularised connective tissue called cortex or stroma ovarian stroma, which contains connective tissues, blood vessels and mature follicles. The stroma is divided into two parts, i.e. a peripheral cortex and an inner medulla or stroma. There is no distinct boundary between the cortex and medulla.

Microscopic Anatomy of Ovary:
The production of eggs in females begins before birth, i.e. during the embryonic development stage, but is completed only after fertilisation. It takes place in ovaries. Cells of germinal epithelium undergo mitotic or equational division during multiplication phase, producing undifferentiated germ cells called oogonia or egg mother cells within each foetal ovary. These cells enter into the phase of maturation and start two meiotic divisions to enter prophase-I of meiotic division as primary oocytes. They get temporarily arrested at diplotene state and remains as such until the onset of puberty.
CHSE Odisha Class 12 Biology Solutions Chapter 3 Human Reproduction 6
Primordial and primary follicles in the cortex of the ovary

Each primary oocyte then gets surrounded by a single layer of squamous follicle cells and is called the primordial follicle. About 2 million of these follicles exist in ovarian cortex of females before birth. A large number of these follicles degenerate during the phase from birth to puberty. Therefore, at puberty only 60000-80000 primary follicles are left in each ovary.

The primordial follicles get surrounded by more layers of cuboidal granulosa cells and a new theca. This process is stimulated by the pituitary gonadotropins-FSH and LH. Later the squamous follicular cells of primordial follicle changes to cuboidal or low columnar cells. This follicle is called primary follicle.

The follicular cells of primary follicle divide by mitosis and forms the new cuboidal-shaped granulosa cells. At this stage follicle is called secondary follicle.

The innermost layer of granulosa cells is corona radiata that surrounds the oocyte. Between the oocyte and eorona radiata, a glycoprotein layer called zona pellucida appears. The stromal cells that surround granulosa cells differentiate to form thecal cells. These cells differentiate as an outer theca externa and inner theca interna.

A thin basement membrane separates granulosa cells from the theca interna. This follicular stage is known as mature or Graafian follicle stage.

Structure of a Graafian (mature) follicle : A part(inset) is magnified to show the elaborate structure of the egg with the associated follicle cells

Development of Ovarian Follicle:

  1. The primary follicle grow in size and a fluid called liquor folliculi or follicular fluid accumulates in a cavity called antrum of granulosa cells. These follicles with an antrum are called antral or secondary follicles.
  2. The synthesis of liquor folliculi continues, antrum grows in volume and further segregation of granulosa cells occur. Due to this, few cells surround the oocytes and some other are displaced to periphery.
  3. Theca externa cells form multiple layers around theca interna cells which leads to the formation of mature or Graafian follicle. At this stage, the first meiosis of primary oocyte gets completed to form a secondary oocyte.
  4. The Graafian follicle, ruptures to release the secondary oocyte from the ovary.
  5. The secondary ooctye is captured by the fimbriae of Fallopian tube which transport it to the uterus.
  6. The remaining portion of Graafian follicle gets filled with blood to form corpus haemorrhagicum.
  7. The theca and granulosa cells proliferate and become glandular to form theca lutein and granulosa lutein cell, respectively. These lutein cells are the source of oestrogen and progesterone. This post ovulatory follicle is called corpus luteum (endocrine structure) which secrete estradiol, progesterone and relaxin (peptide hormone).

Fate of Corpus Luteum:

  • If fertilisation occurs Corpus luteum persist and no mensuration occurs, zygote undergoes embryonic development and implants in the endometrium of uterus.
  • If fertilisation does not occur Corpus luteum degenerates to form corpus albicans and menstruation occurs.
    CHSE Odisha Class 12 Biology Solutions Chapter 3 Human Reproduction 8

Not all ovarian follicles reach maturity. Only one dominant follicle gets matured and ovulated. Rest of them degenerates by the process called follicular atresia and the resultant follicles are known as atretic follicles which are replaced by connective tissue.

Fallopian Tube (Uterine Ducts):
These are two small accessory tubes of 10-12 cm length, lying on either sides of uterus near the kidney. These tubes carry the egg from the ovary to the uterus and also provides the appropriate environment for its fertilisation.

The Fallopian tubes or oviducts show four regions, i.e. infundibulum, ampulla, isthmus and interstitial region,
(i) Infundibulum is broad and funnel-shaped with its edges bearing motile, finger-like projections called fimbriae. It helps in the collection of ovum after ovulation.
CHSE Odisha Class 12 Biology Solutions Chapter 3 Human Reproduction 9
Female reproductive system
(ii) Ampulla is the long, wide, thin-walled part of the Fallopian tube next to the infundibulum where fertilisation takes place.
(iii) Isthmus is a short narrow lumen that follows ‘ ampulla and joins the uterus.
(iv) Interstitial region passes through the uterine wall and communicates with the uterine cavity.

Uterus (Womb):
It is about 7.5 cm long, 5 cm wide, like an inverted pear in shape. It is supported by ligaments attached to the pelvic wall. It lies between the urinary bladder and rectum.

Uterus has a thick, highly vascular wall, composed of three layers of tissues

  • Outer perimetrium A thin single-layered membranous covering of uterus wall that is composed of squamous epithelial cells.
  • Middle myometrium A thick layer of smooth muscle fibres, which contracts strongly during the delivery of the baby.
  • Inner endometrium A glandular layer with many blood vessels. It consists of simple cuboidal or columnar epithelium. It undergoes cyclic changes during the menstrual cycle.

Blood Supply to Uterus:
The arteries that supply blood to uterus gets divided into arcuate arteries and spreads in the myometrium. The arcuate arteries further gets divided into parts so as to supply blood to endometrium.
These include

  • Straight arteries These are short, supply blood to basalis layer.
  • Spiral arteries These are long and coiled, supply blood to functionalis layer. Decreased supply to this layer during menstruation causes it to degenerate and cast off.

The endometrium descends into the lamina propria and form numerous uterine glands. Functionally, the layer is divided into two layers

  • Luminal stratum functionalis During menstruation, this layer cast off along with blood vessels and uterine glands.
  • Stratum basalis It helps to form a new functionalis layer.

Functions of Utreus:
Uterus receives the ovum from the Fallopian tube, forms placenta for the development of foetus and also expels the young one at the time of birth.

Cervix:
It is the narrow entrance of the uterus into the vagina. It has strongest sphincter in its wall and is normally blocked by a plug of mucus. The cavity of cervix is called cervical canal which along with vagina forms the birth canal.

Vagina:
It is about 10 cm long and acts as a receptacle for the penis during copulation, for allowing menstrual flow and for serving as a birth canal during parturition. It opens to the exterior by an aperture called vaginal orifice situated posterior to the opening of urethra.

Accessory Glands:
1. A pair of greater vestibular or Bartholin’s gland occurs on each side of the vaginal orifice. They are small rounded bodies.
These glands correspond-to the Cowper’s gland of the male and secrete a clear, viscid fluid under sexual excitement. This fluid serves as a lubricant during copulation.
2. Numerous glands of skene are present on either sides of urethral orifice. They are homologous to male’s prostate and secrete mucus. These are also called lesser vestibular or paraurethral glands.

External Genitalia (Vulva):
The external genitalia of females consists of the following parts
1. Mons pubis It is the anteriormost structure of vulva and is covered with skin and pubic hairs.
2. Two longitudinal folds of tissue called labia majora form the boundary of the vulva. It also covers two additional folds of tissue called the labia minora.
Both labia majora and labia minora protect the vaginal and urethral openings.
3. Clitoris It is the small erectile organ, which lies at the upper junction of the labia minora above the urethral opening. It is a homologous structure to glans penis of males.
CHSE Odisha Class 12 Biology Solutions Chapter 3 Human Reproduction 10
Frontal view of vagina with its associated structures
4. Hymen The vaginal orifice is normally covered by a membrane, called hymen. It is a thin mucous membrane, which covers the vaginal opening either partly or completely. It is often torn during the first coitus (intercourse), but may be present in some women even after coitus. Hymen may also get stretched or torn by normal activities such as horseback riding and therefore, the presence or absence is not an accurate indicator of a woman’s virginity or sexual experience.
Disorders of the Female Reproductive System

Disorder Description
Breast cancer Incidence increases after menopause. Signs include lump in breast, change in breast shape, fluid from nipple, etc.
Cervical Slow growing cancer. Unnoticed until invades other tissues.
cancer Fluid filled tumours of the ovary.
Ovarian cysts Growth of endometrial tissue outside the uterus.
Endometriosis Implantation of embryo at a place other than uterus.
Ectopic Description
pregnancy Incidence increases after menopause. Signs include lump in breast, change in breast shape, fluid from nipple, etc.

 

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Biology Solutions Chapter 3 Human Reproduction

Question 4.
What is menstrual cycle? Describe the cycle in human with a reference to cyclic changes in the ovary and uterine endometrium.
Answer:
Menstrual Cycle:
It is the reproductive cycle in female primates, e.g. monkeys, apes and human beings.
The first menstruation begins at puberty and is called menarche. In human females, menstruation is repeated at an average interval of about 28/29 days. The menstrual cycle stops at around 50 years of age in human females and this stage is termed as menopause.

The cyclic menstruation is an indication of normal reproductive phase and extends between menarche and menopause. The cycle of events starting from one menstruation till the next one is called menstrual cycle. One ovum is released during the middle of each menstrual cycle.
The menstrual cycle consists of following four phases

Menstrual (Bleeding) Phase:
The cycle starts with menstrual phase. It lasts for about 3-5 days and involves the following events

  1. If fertilisation does not occur, the unfertilised egg undergoes autolysis.
  2. Reduction of LH level causes regression of corpus luteum by autolysis and thus, a consequent fall in the progesterone level occurs in the blood.
  3. The endometrial lining of the uterus breaks down due to the deficiency of progesterone and is sloughed off. Blood vessels rupture, causing bleeding through vagina. The process is called menstruation or menstrual flow. It occurs only when ovum is not fertilised.

Follicular (Proliferative) Phase:
It lasts for about 14 days and involves the following events

  1. The primary follicles in the ovary grow to become a fully mature Graafian follicle.
  2. The endometrium of uterus regenerates through proliferation.
  3. The changes in the ovary and the uterus are induced by changes in the levels of pituitary and ovarian hormones, i.e. FSH and oestrogen.
  4. The secretion of gonadotropins (LH and FSH) increases gradually during the follicular phase and stimulates follicular development as well as secretion of oestrogens by the growing follicles.
    CHSE Odisha Class 12 Biology Solutions Chapter 3 Human Reproduction 11

Ovulatory Phase:
Both LH and FSH attain a peak level in the middle of cycle (about 14th day).

  • Rapid secretion of LH leading to its maximum level during the midcycle is called LH surge. It induces rupture of Graafian follicle and thereby, the release of ovum, i.e. ovulation.
  • The ovulation (ovulatory phase) is followed by the luteal phase.

Secretory (Luteal) Phase:
This phase lasts for about 10 days and involves the following events

  1. The remaining parts of Graafian follicle transform into the corpus luteum.
  2. The corpus luteum secretes large amounts of progesterone which is essential to maintain endometrium.
  3. The endometrium is necessary for implantation of the fertilised ovum and other events of pregnancy. During pregnancy, all events of the menstrual cycle stop and there is no menstruation. In the absence of fertilisation, the corpus luteum degenerates.
  4. This causes disintegration of endometrium, leading to menstruation.
    Only the basal part of endometrium persists, which forms the source of new lining and a new cycle starts.
    CHSE Odisha Class 12 Biology Solutions Chapter 3 Human Reproduction 12

Menstrual cycle is absent temporarily during pregnancy and lactation periods and permanently after menopause. However, it can be absent due to stress, poor health, etc. Menstruation is also called ‘weeping of uterus for the lost ovum’ or ‘funeral of unfertilised egg’. Cyclic menstruation is an indicator of normal fertility period in women. It extends from menarche to menopause.

Question 5.
Draw a neat labelled diagram of the male reproductive system in human (Description is not required).
Answer:
CHSE Odisha Class 12 Biology Solutions Chapter 3 Human Reproduction 1

Question 6.
Draw a neat labelled diagram of the female reproductive system in human (Description is . not required).
Answer:
CHSE Odisha Class 12 Biology Solutions Chapter 3 Human Reproduction 5

Question 7.
Draw a neat labelled diagram of the cross-section through the human ovary (Description is not required).
Answer:
CHSE Odisha Class 12 Biology Solutions Chapter 3 Human Reproduction 8

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Biology Solutions Chapter 3 Human Reproduction

Question 8.
Draw a neat labelled diagram of seminiferous tubule (Description is not required).
Answer:
CHSE Odisha Class 12 Biology Solutions Chapter 3 Human Reproduction 3

Question 9.
Draw a neat labelled diagram of a Graafian follicle (Description is not required).
Answer:
CHSE Odisha Class 12 Biology Solutions Chapter 3 Human Reproduction 11

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Economics Solutions Chapter 10 Aggregates Related to National Incorne

Odisha State Board CHSE Odisha Class 12 Economics Solutions Chapter 10 Aggregates Related to National Incorne Questions and Answers.

CHSE Odisha 12th Class Economics Chapter 10 Question Answer Aggregates Related to National Incorne

Group – A

Short type Questions with Answers
I. Answer with in Two/Three sentence.

Question 1.
Gross National Product is always greater than Gross Domestic Product.
Answer:
Gross domestic product includes only the value of goods and services produced within the domestic territory of a country, but GNP, net factor income from abroad is another component which is added to GDP to determine GNP.

Question 2.
Net National Income is a part of gross national income.
Answer:
Net national income can be obtained by deducting value of depreciation from gross national income. So, it is a part of gross national income.

Question 3.
Personal income always exceeds disposable income.
Answer:
Disposable income is obtained by deducting direct tax from personal income. So it is a part of personal income. .

Question 4.
Output method Income method and Expenditure method are somehow similar.
Answer:
In an economy, there are three simultaneous flows i.e., output flow, income flow and expenditure flow. Thus the value of output is identical with income earned by the factors as well as the expenditure incurred.

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Economics Solutions Chapter 10 Aggregates Related to National Incorne

Question 5.
Transfer payment is excluded from the computation at National Income.
Answer:
Transfer payment is made without having any productive contribution. It is exclusively meant for social security. Hence, it is not included in the national income.

Question 6.
Sale of second hand car does not constitute a part of national income?
Answer:
The amount received from the sale is not the result of any production. Rather, the production of the car has already created income which has been computed earlier. So it does not constitute a part of national income.

Question 7.
GNP at market price exceeds GNP at factor cost?
Answer:
GNP at market price is valued at prevailing price level which includes indirect tax. But GNP at factor cost is exclusive of indirect tax hence the GNP at market price is greater than GNP at factor cost.

Question 8.
Net national product is a part of the Gross National Product.
Answer:
Gross National Product is the total amount of goods & services produced in the country during a year along with the net income from abroad. Net National product is the residual of GNP left after meeting the value of depreciation & hence it is a prt of GNP.

Question 9.
Old age pension is a transfer payment.
Answer:
Transfer payment is made without having any productive contribution. As the old age pension is paid without any productive contribution, it comes under the category of transfer payment.

Question 10.
Personal income is more than the disposable income.
Answer:
Personal income is the income earned by the individual from all of his sources. But disposable income is the income left after the payment of direct tax. So it is a part of the personal income.

II. Answer with in Five/Six sentence :

(A) write short notes on :

Question 1.
National Income.
Answer:
Income is generated in the production process. Production units employ factors of production and make payment for their services. The sum total of income earned by various factors of production constitute the national income. It can, therefore, be said that national income of a country can be calculated either by taking the sum of income paid by the producing units or by the income received by the factors. In simpler words, the income method consists of the sum total of net income and payments received by the citizens of a country during a year.

In calculation of national income, according to income method, wages and salaries, compensation of employees, employers contribution towards social security, mixed income of self-employed, rent, interest, divided, surplus earning of public enterprises and net factor income from abroad are added up. The sum total of all these represent the gross national income of which net national income is apart. National income in the latter sense is arrived at by deducting the cost of depreciation from the gross national’income.

Question 2.
Gross National Product.
Answer:
Gross National product is the money value of total goods & services produced in a country during year along with the net factor income from abroad. It comprises of two aspects ; Gross domestic product at market price & net factor income from about. Thus GNP = GDP + Net factor income from abroad. In computing GNP, only the money value of final goods & services is taken into account. GNP is accepted as an indicator of economic development.

Question 3.
Domestic Income.
Answer:
Domestic income refers income earned by the factors in the domestic territory of the contry. It indicates that the income from three sectors like primary, secondary & tertiary sectors constitutes national income. All those three sector employ different factors of production which in turn, earn income. There are in form of rent, wage, interest & profit. Along with this surplus of public sector is added. With this addition, domestic income can be determined.

Question 4.
Per-capita Income.
Answer:
Per-capita income is calculated by dividing the national income by the number of people in a particular year. The per capita income may be estimated at current prices as well as constant prices. Sometimes the per capita income may not increase or may even fall if national income increase is less than the rate of increase in population. Per-capita increase in income at current prices may not present a correct picture of economic growth and standard of living in the county. Increase in per-capita income at constant prices indicates the economic growth.

Question 5.
Personal Income.
Answer:
Personal income refers to the current income of the persons or households from all sources. It includes the actual income earned by the members of the households of the economy. In order to determine the personal income the undistributed profit and tax payable should be deducted. Personal income is viewed as the aggregate of all types of factor incomes earned by the house holds.

Question 6.
Disposable income:
Answer:
The income which is left after the payment of payable tax is called disposable income. Personal disposable income is the personal income minus income tax & property taxes. Thus disposable income is that income which is left for spending. All the taxes payable & the different government obligations are deducted from the personal income so as to determine disposable income.

Question 7.
Intermediate Product.
Answer:
Intermediate products are bought and sold between producers as they are used for further production. Such goods like cotton and wheat are used for manufacture of cloth and flour respectively and as such these are called secondary inputs. The value of intermediate product is not taken into account in estimation of national income. These products remain within production boundary.

Question 8.
Transfer Payment.
Answer:
The payments which are made without having any productive contribution is called transfer payment. It is the transfer receipts like unemployment allowances, old-age pensions sickness benefits etc. These payments are made to the persons who are not rendering. Hence transfer payments are unilateral payments.

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Economics Solutions Chapter 10 Aggregates Related to National Incorne

(B) Distinguish Between

Question 1.
National Income & National Product:
Answer:
National income is the factor income accruing to the normal residents of a country. It includes both domestic factor income an net factor income from abroad. National income is equal to net national product at factor cost. National product is the sum of total money value of final goods and services produced by a nation during a year. It is calculated by multiplying the quantities or different goods and services with their respective prices. The cost of depreciation, transfer payments, capital gains andi the value of intermediate goods are not taken in to account in computation of gross national income.

Question 2.
GDP&GNP:
Answer:
(i) Gross domestic product is the market value of final goods & services produced within the domestic territory during a year. But Gross national product refers to the total money value of gods & services produced in the country during a year along with the net factor income from abroad.

(ii) GDP is relatively a narrower concept & GNP is a broader concept.

(iii) Both the GD & GNP take the final goods & services into account & ignores the intermediate goods.

Question 3.
National income & Personal Income :
Answer:
National Income refers to the income of the country as a whole whereas personal income is the income received by the individuals or house holds. National income is a broader cohcept but personal income is a narrower concept. The sum of personal incomes becomes a form of national income. Personal income is never equal to national income. Thus national has several components which are most in the personal income.

Question 4.
Intermediate goods & final goods:
Answer: Intermediate goods are those goods Which are used for further production. But final goods are meant for direct consumption. Intermediate goods are generally preducers goods that

provide indirect satisfaction to the consumer whereas the final goods provide the direct satisfaction to the consumer. In case of national income accounting, the money value of final goods is taken into consideration & the value of intermediate gods is deducted in national income accounting. It is very difficult to treat one good as intermediate or final goods.

Question 5.
National income in constant price and current price.
Answer:
National income may be calculated at current and constant prices. The value of goods and services measured at base year prices is called national income at constant prices. When goods and services are valued at prevailing prices of a particular year the national income at current price. Since prices have a tendency to rise in modem times national income is valued at current price does not indicate the actual growth of an economy. National income at constant price reveals the real national income and the standard of living of the people.

Question 6.
Personal income and disposable income.
Answer:
Personal income is the current income received by persons from all sources including transfer income from government and business. It includes direct taxes. Disposable income refers to that part of personal income which an individual can spend or save. Disposable income is arrived at by deducting all taxes from personal income.

Group – B

Long Type Questions With Answers

Question 1.
What is National Income ? What are its related concepts?
Answer:
The concept ‘National income’ has been defined in a number of ways. However the definitions of national income can be grouped under two heads, namely the traditional definition and modem definition.

The traditional definition was advanced by Alfred Marshall, A.C. Pigou and Fisher. According to Marshall, “The labour and capital of a country acting on its natural resources, produce annually a certain net aggregate of commodities material and non-material including services of all kinds…. this is the true net annual income or revenue of the country or national devidend.”

According to Pigou, “National income is that part of objective income of the community, including of course income derived from abroad which can be measured in money.” According to Central Statistical Organisation, “national income is the sum of factor income earned by the normal residents of a country in the form of wages, rent, interest and profit in an accounting year.”

However, national income may be defined as the sum of factor incomes, viz., wages, rent, interest and profit accming to the normal residents of a country for their productive activities during a definite period of time, say a year. National income refers to the sum of the factor rewards, namely wages, rent, interest and profit accruing to the citizens of a country for their productive activities during a year.

National product refers to the sum of the market value of final goods and services produced by the citizens of a country during a year. National expenditure refers to the sum of expenditures on consumption investment, government purchase of goods and services, and net foreign investment.

There are various related concepts of national income. These are explained below :
1. Gross Domestic Product at Market Price : Gross domestic product at market price is defined as the market value of the final goods and services produced by all the producers in the domestic territory of a country during an accounting year. Thus, Gross Domestic Product at Market Price = Value of output in domestic territory – value of intermediate consumption. GDP at market price can also be calculated by adding net indirect taxes to GDP at factor cost i.e.; GDP at market prices = GDP at factor cost + Net indirect taxes.

2. Net domstic Product at Market Price : Net domestic product at market price is the market value of final goods and services produced by all the producers in the domestic territory of a country during an accounting year exclusive of consumption of fixed capital. It is equal to the net value added at market price. Thus the net domestic product at market price includes all those items which are included in gross domestic product at market price except the consumption of fixed capital. So, Net Domestic Product at Market Price = Gross Domestic Product at Market Price – consumption of Fixed Capital.

3. Gross National Product at Market Price : Gross national product at market price is defined as the market value of the final goods and services produced in the domestic territory of a country by normal residents during an accounting year including net factor, income from abroad. Thus gross national product at market price includes all the constituents of gross domestic product at market price and net factor income from abroad. In other words, Gross National Product at Market Price = Domestic Product at Market Price + Net Factor-Income abroad.

4. Net National Product at market Price : Net national product at market price is the market value of the final goods and services produced by normal residents of an economy in its domestic territory during an accounting year exclusive of depreciation and inclusive of net factor income abroad. Net national product at market price is nothing but gross national product at market price less consumption of fixed capital or depreciation. Thus, Net National Product at Market Price = Gross National Product at Market Price – Consumption of fixed Capital (depreciation).

5. Gross Domestic Product at Factor Cost: Gross domestic product at factor cost or gross domestic income is the sum of net values added by all the producers in the domestic territory of the country and the value of consumption of fixed capital during an accounting year. Thus, gross domestic product at factor cost is the sum of net value added by all the producers in the domestic territory of the country and the consumtion of fixed capital. As such,
Gross Domestic Product at Factor Cost = Sum of net values added + consumption of fixed capital.
Similarly,
Gross Domestic Product at factor cost = Gross Domestic factor income + consumption of fixed capital.

Gross Domestic Product at factor cost can also be estimated by deducting net indirect taxes from gross domestic product at market price. As such,
Gross Domestic Product at factor cost = Gross Domestic Product at Market Price – Net Indirect taxes.

6. Net Domestic Product at Factor Cost: Net domestic product at factor cost is nothing but gross domestic product at factor cost less depreciation. As such,
Net Domestic Product at Factor Cost = Gross Domestic product at factor cost – Depreciation.

Net domestic product at factor cost can also be estimated by deducting net indirect taxes from net domestic product at market price.
As such,
Net Domestic Product at factor Cost = Net Domestic Product at Market Price – Net Indirect taxes.

7. Gross National Product at Factor Cost: Gross National Product at factor cost is the difference between gross national product at market price and net indirect taxes. It is also called gross national income. It is nothing but the sum of domestic factor income and net factor income from abroad. According to Peterson, “Gross National Product at factor cost is the sum of gross value added at factor cost by the normal residents of the country during a year and net factor income from abroad.

Gross National Product at Factor cost = Gross Domestic Product at factor cost + Net factor income from abroad.
Similarly,
Gross National Product at factor cost can also be calculated by deducting net indirect taxes from gross national product at market price.
GNP at factor cost = Net national product at factor cost + Depreciation.

Gross National Product at factor cost can also be calculated by deducting net indirect taxes from gross national product at market price.
Gross National Product at Factor cost = Gross National Product at Market Price – Net Indirect Taxes.

8. Net National Product at Factor Cost: Net National Product at factor cost is the sum of net value added at factor cost by normal residents in the domestic territory of a country and net factor income from abroad in an accounting year. Net national product at factor cost is nothing but gross national product at factor cost less depreciation or consumption of fixed capital. As such.

Net National Product at Factor Cost = Gross National Product at factor cost – Depreciation.
Net national product at factor cost can also be calculated by the sum of net domestic product, at factor cost and net factor income from abroad. As such,
Net National Product at Factor Cost = Net Domestic Product at Factor Cost + Net Factor Income from Abroad.

Net national product at factor cost can also be calculated by deducting net indirect taxes from net national product at market price. As such,
Net National Product at factor cost = Net National Product at Market Price – Net Indirect taxes.

Net national product at factor cost is equal to national income. Two points have to be carefully noted :
(i) the difference between gross and net agregates is the value of consumption of fixed capital, and
(ii) the difference between market prices and factor cost is the value of net indirect taxes.

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Economics Solutions Chapter 10 Aggregates Related to National Incorne

Question 2.
Describe the income method for calculation of National Income.
Answer:
National income refers to the money value of all goods & services produced in the country during a particular year along with the net income from abroad. In other words, it is conceived as sum of all factor incomes earned by the different factors during a particular year to measure the national income, generally three methods like Income method, expenditre method & output method are adopted.

Income Method : In income method, the factor incomes like rent, wage, interest & profit are added together to defermine the national income in a particular year. In other words, the rewards to land-lords, labourers, capitalists & entrupreneurs are added together. It is a fact that the production of goods & services generates income simultaneously which is equal to the value of the product. So by adding up rent, wage, interest & profit, national income can be found out.

To find out national income, just two sectors like private sectors & Govt, sectors are considered & in open economy, the net income from abroad is added to the income of these two sectors. Thus, according to income method, the income accruing to private sector, government sector & foreign sector are added. So, calculation of national income under income method covers up domestic sector (Private sector & Public Sector) & foreign sector.

Income from domestic sector : Domestic income refers income earned by the factors in the domestic territory of the contry. It indicates that the income from three sectors like primary, secondary & tertiary sectors constitutes national income. All those three sector employ different factors of production which in turn, earn income. There are in form of rent, wage, interest & profit. Along with this surplus of public sector is added. With this addition, domestic income can be determined.

Income from Foreign Sector : Anoter constituent of national income is the income from foreign sectors. It is expressed as Net Factor Income from Fbroad. In an open economy, certain factors of the country may be employed in foreign countries which earn income. Besides, in the process of international trade, there may emerge certain net exports. All these become a part of national income & hence added to the domestic income of calculate the national income. Thus,
National Income = Domestic Income + Net Factor income from Abroad.

Precautions : In income method, some precautionary measures are taken while calculating national Income. There are mentioned below:
(a) Value of the goods used by the producer or income from the self owned land, (rent), from the self-management wage), from the self invested capital (interust) should be carefully taken into consideration.

(b) Transfer income which is paid without having any productive contribution must be deducted.

(c) Black Moey & Income from illegal sources should not be considered.

(d) Public debts incurred in unproductive purpose is not included in national income. With all these precautions, national income can be calculated. But, this method can not alone determine the national income correctly.

Question 3.
Explain the expenditure method for the estimation of National Income.
Answer:
Expenditure method is also used to measure national income. In this method final expenditure on gross domestic product is taken into account. Expenditure on final consumption of goods is called final consumption expenditure, government final consumption expenditure, gross captial formation (investment), change in stock and net exports. Households and general government make purchases of goods and services in the market for final consumption.

Household enterprises and general government purchase capital goods for replacement of worn out parts. Government and consumer households make purchase from outside the country which is termed as imports. Similarly domestic goods and services are sold outside the country which is termed as imports. Similarly domestic goods and services are sold outside the country which is called exports. The difference between value of exports and the value of imports constitutes the net exports which form part of expenditure on gross domestic product.

To measure the final expenditure on gross domestic product, it is necessary to ascertain the retail price and quantity of goods and services, by to the household and private non-profit organisations the final consumption expenditure is known. Resident households also make direct purchases abroad. Expenditure on this account has to be added to final consumption expenditure. Non-resideni households make direct purchases in the domestic market which has to be deducted from therate final consumption expenditue.

The final consumption expenditure of the government is known by adding the net purchases of goods and services by the government and payment made as compensation of employees. By multiplying the quantity of sales with the retail price the expenditure of the government in the domestic market is known. Government also makes purchases from abroad. Thus by adding the government’s expenditure on purchases in the domestic market, purchases from abroad and compensation of employees the final consumption expenditure of the government is arrived at.

The next item is gross fixed capital formation. Capital formation refers to excess of production over consumption during a year. Capital formation takes places in shape of gross fixed capital formation and change in stocks. Expenditure on these two accounts show the total expenditure on gross capital formation. Gross fixed capital formation consists of construction and acquisition of machinery and equipment. Expenditure on construction can be found out by multiplying the price of exports with the volume of inputs used plus compensation of employees’ rent, interest and profits. Care should be taken to include own account productional of fixed assets, purchase of new houses by households, work in progress and renovation of old buildings in the final expenditure.

Similarly, final expenditure on machinery and equipment is found out by multiplying the quantity of machinery and equipment produced during the year with the market price. The value of own account production is added to the expenditure. As regards expenditure on change in stocks, the physical change in stocks in multiplied with the market prices. The total expenditure on gross capital formation is thus, arrived at by adding expenditure on gross fixed capital and change in stocks of the domestically produced goods and services.

The next item to be considered is net exports. Net exports is the difference between the exports and imports during a year. Expenditure on net exports forms a part of expenditure on gross domestic product.

While estimating national income on the basis expenditure method care should be taken not to include expenditure on the second-hand goods, expenditure on purchase of shares, debentures and bonds, transfer payments like pensions, unemployment allowances and contribution to social security schemes. Cost of intermediate goods etc. However, the value of products for self consumption expenditure. Similarly expenditure on imputed rent of the owner occupied houses is also included in the final consumption expenditure.

The expenditure method sugggests the gross domestic product at market prices. The .gross national product at market prices is arrived at by adding net factor income from abroad to the gross domestic product. The net national product at factor cost which is same as national income is arrived at by deducting net indirect taxes and the cost of depreciation from the gross national product.

Difficulties in expenditure method : Measurement of national income through expenditure method, though appears, simple, is beset with certain practical difficulties. First of all, expenditure method will deliver correct information, provided correct data ar available. Generally, data on expenditure, at different stages are not fully available. As a result, there is liselhood of underestimation of national income. Similarly national figures may be exaggerated of double counting is not avoided.

Secondly, in case of consumer durables it is difficult to distinguish between consumption expenditure and investment expenditure. Such goods render services over a long period of time. In such cases it is difficult to measure the value of services rendered every year and include the same in the expenditure of a particular year.

Thirdly, some times, it is difficult to differentiate between consumption expenditure and investment expenditure of the Government. For example, defence expenditure is treated as consumption whereas expenditure on infrastructure development is considered as investment expenditure. Lastly, a correct picture of change in stock may not be available for the purpose of national income calculation.

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Economics Solutions Chapter 10 Aggregates Related to National Incorne

Question 4.
Describe the product method (output method) for the calculation of National Income.
Answer:
Product method is a method which measures the national income by estimating the contribution of each producing enterprise to production in the domestic territory of the country in an accounting year. Product method is also known as value added method of net output method or industrial origin method. The measurement of national income using product method involves the following steps.

The first step of this method involves in identifying all those producing enterprises which employ factor inputs. All the producing enterprises are broadly classified into the following three industrial sectors.

(a) Primary Sector: Primary sector is that sector which produces goods by exploiting natural resources. The sector including agriculture and allied activities like fishing, mining and quarrying. All these sub sectors produce goods by exploiting natural resources like land, water, forests mines, etc.

(b) Secondary Sector : Secondary sector is one in which the enterprises trasform one type of commodity into another type of commodity, e.g., manufacturing cloth from cotton, sugar from sugarcane, etc. This is also called manufacturing sector.

(c) Tertiary Sector : Tertiary sector is one in which the enterprises produce services only, such as banking, insurance, transport, communications, trade, commerce, etc. this sector is also known as service sector.

The second step of this method involves in the estimation of net value added. In this connection, values of certain parameters like value of output, value of intermediate consumption and consumption of fixed capital, need to be estimated.

Estimating value of output across primary, secondary and tertiary sectors of the economy involves its own problems. In fact, one may estimate value of output using two different techniques or methods. These are final output method and value added method.

According to final output method, the value of output is estimated as the sum of sales and change in stock of the producing units. Value of output thus estimated should not be taken to mean as the value of final output. Value of output includes the value of final goods as well as the value of intermediate goods, while the value of final output refers to the value of final goods and services in isolation from the value of intermediate consumption. Thus final output is estimated as the difference between the value of total output and intermediate consumption. Thus, value of final output = Value of total output – Intermediate consumption. Using this method one might encounter the problem of double counting.

According to the value added method, each producing unit of the economy is required to furnish data not on the value of output but on value added which is estimated as the difference between value of output and intermediate consumption, thus, value added = Value of output – Intermediate consumption. Value added obviously refers to the value of final goods and services produced by each producing unit of the country. We get domestic product at market price by adding ‘value added’ of all the producing units within the domestic territory. Thus the method of value added is preferable to the method of final output in estimating national income.

The final step is the estimation of national income. Gross value added by all the producing units across three sectors of the economy is added up to obtain gross domestic product at market price. Consumption of fixed capital or the value of depreciation is deducted from gross value added at market price to obtain net value added at market price or net domestic product at market price.

Net indirect taxes may be deducted from net domestic product at market-price in order to obtain net domestic product at factor cost or net value added at factor cost. It is also called net domestic income. By adding net factor income from abroad to net domestic product at factor cost we get net national product at factor cost or national income.

Precautions regarding value Added Method:

While estimating national income through value added method, following important precautions must be taken.

  1. Value of the sale and purchase of second hand goods is not included in value added.
  2. Commission earned on accounting of the sale and purchase of second hand goods is included in the estimation of value added.
  3. Own-account production of goods of the producing units is taken into account while estimating value added.
  4. Value of intermediate goods is not included in the estimation of value added.
  5. Imputed value of production for self-consumption is taken into account.
  6. Imputed rent on the owner occupied house is also taken into account.
  7. Production of services for self-consumption is not considered while estimating value added.
  8. The value added method gives us the domestic product only. The national product is calculated by adding net factor income from abroad.
  9. The value added in the government sector is equal to compensation of employees. It is because the data regarding rent and interest are not available in this sector, and profit does not exist because all that is produced is meant for collective consumption, and is not sold in the market.

Group – C

Objective type Questions with Answers
I. Multiple Choice Questions with Answers :

Question 1.
The value of goods & services produced within the territory of a country is known as
(i) GNP
(ii) GDP
(iii) NNP
(iv) None of the above
Answer:
(ii) GDP

Question 2.
GDP becomes equals to GNP if
(i) Depreciation is added
(ii) import is added
(iii) export is added
(iv) net export is added
Answer:
(iv) net export is added

Question 3.
The money value of national product produced during a year is known as
(i) GNP
(ii) National income
(iii) GDP
(iv) NNP
Answer:
(iii) GDP

Question 4.
The physical quantities of goods multiplied with prevailing price level gives rise to
(i) national income at current price
(ii) national income at constant price
(iii) per capital income
(iv) Both (i) and (ii)
Answer:
(i) national income at current price

Question 5.
If national income of a country increases in proportion to increase in population, the per capital income.
(i) increases
(ii) decreases
(iii) remains same
(iv) none of the above
Answer:
(iii) remains same

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Economics Solutions Chapter 10 Aggregates Related to National Incorne

Question 6.
Average income of the people in the country is termed as
(i) per capital income
(ii) national income
(iii) net national income
(iv) average real income
Answer:
(i) per capital income

Question 7.
Which is the element that influences the per capital income?
(i) population of the country
(ii) national income
(iii) GNP
(iv) Both (i) and (ii)
Answer:
(iv) Both (i) and (ii)

Question 8.
The goods which are not meant for production nor for resale is called
(i) intermediate goods
(ii) final goods
(iii) goods for self consumption
(iv) All of the above
Answer:
(ii) final goods

Question 9.
The goods which are exchanged between the producers are
(i) final goods
(ii) consumer goods
(iii) intermediate goods
(iv) all of the above
Answer:
(iii) intermediate goods

Question 10.
Which is not the element of domestic factor income?
(i) compensation of employees
(ii) operating surplus
(iii) mixed income
(iv) net income from abroad
Answer:
(iv) net income from abroad

Question 11.
Which is not included in compensation of employees.
(i) salaries
(ii) wages
(iii) travelling allwance
(iv) insurance premium of workers
Answer:
(iii) travelling allwance

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Economics Solutions Chapter 10 Aggregates Related to National Incorne

Question 12.
Which is not included in operating surplus?
(i) Rent
(ii) wage
(iii) interest
(iv) profit
Answer:
(ii) wage

Question 13.
The income of self-employed individuals is called
(i) mixed income
(ii) operating surplus
(iii) compensation of employees
(iv) income of individuals
Answer:
(i) mixed income

Question 14.
Old age pension is included in
(i) compensation of employees
(ii) mixed incon
(iii) transfer payments
(iv) operating surplus
Answer:
(iii) transfer payments

Question 15.
Which is included as transfer payments?
(i) old age pensions
(ii) gifts
(iv) all of the above
(iii) donations
Answer:
(iv) all of the above

Question 16.
Which is not included in private income?
(i) profit of public undertakings
(ii) transfer payments
(iii) “net factor income from abroad
(iv) interest on national debt.
Answer:
(i) profit of public undertakings

Question 17.
Which is not included inn personal income?
(i) salary
(ii) wage
(iii) transfer payment
(iv) saving
Answer:
(iv) saving

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Economics Solutions Chapter 10 Aggregates Related to National Incorne

Question 18.
Disposable income is the personal income left after debucting
(i) direct tax
(ii) indirect tax
(iii) subsidy
(iv) interest on debt
Answer:
(i) direct tax

Question 19.
Which is included in compensation of employees
(i) bonus
(ii) dearness allowance
(iii) sick leave allowance
(iv) all of the above
Answer:
(iv) all of the above

Question 20.
In which category insurance premium & provident fund contribution are included
(i) mixed income
(ii) operating surplus
(iii) compensation of employees
(iv) personal income
Answer:
(iii) compensation of employees

Question 21.
Royalties are included in
(i) mixed income
(ii) operating surplus
(iii) disposable income
(iv) private income
Answer:
(ii) operating surplus

Question 22.
The income received by the lawyers, doctors etc are
(i) personal income
(ii) disposable income
(iii) private income
(iv) mixed income
Answer:
(iv) mixed income

Question 23.
The output method used for measuring national income is otherwise known as
(i) income method
(ii) value added method
(iii) expenditure method
(iv) both (i) and (ii)
Answer:
(iii) expenditure method

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Economics Solutions Chapter 10 Aggregates Related to National Incorne

Question 24.
The common difficulty taken place in measuring national income is
(i) double counting
(ii) selection of price
(iii) distinction between quantum of final goods & intermediate goods
(iv) all of the above
Answer:
(iv) all of the above

Question 25.
Which income is not counted in measuring national income?
(i) transfer payments
(ii) income from second hand sale
(iii) income from robbery
(iv) all of the above
Answer:
(iv) all of the above

Question 26.
Which tax should not be included in national income?
(i) wealth tax
(ii) estate duty
(iii) gift tax
(iv) all of the above
Answer:
(iv) all of the above

Question 27.
Undistributed profit is an element of:
(i) Personal income
(ii) Private income
(iii) National income
(iv) None of the above
Answer:
(ii) Private income

Question 28.
Personal income is more than :
(i) Personal disposable income
(ii) Private income
(iii) All of the above
(iv) None of the above
Answer:
(i) Personal disposable income

Question 29.
An example of operating surplus is:
(i) wage of salary
(ii) Rent or interest
(iii) Firms and household
(iv) None of the above
Answer:
(ii) Rent or interest

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Economics Solutions Chapter 10 Aggregates Related to National Incorne

Question 30.
Mixed income earned by :
(i) An industrialist
(ii) A self employed
(iii) All of the above
(iv) None of the above
Answer:
(ii) A self employed

Question 31.
Under expenditure method, National Income is measured at:
(i) Cost price
(ii) Market price
(iii) Both A and B
(iv) None of the above
Answer:
(ii) Market price

Question 32.
G D. P. is the collective effort of:
(i) Domestic factors
(ii) Both domestic and foreign factors
(iii) Foreign factos
(iv) All of the above
Answer:
(ii) Both domestic and foreign factors

Question 33.
G. N. P. at factor cost is equal to :
(i) G N. P. at market price – Net indirect taxes
(ii) G N. P. at factor cost + Net indirect taxes
(iii) G N. P. at cost factor cost – Depreciation
(iv) None of the above
Answer:
(i) G N. P. at market price – Net indirect taxes

Question 34.
G N. Pat factor cost is :
(i) Net national product at factor cost – depreciation
(ii) Net national product at factor cost + depreciation.
(iii) G. N. P. at factor cost + depreciation
(iv) None of the above
Answer:
(ii) Net national product at factor cost + depreciation.

Question 35.
Net national product at factor cost is
(i) G N. P. at factor cost + Depreciation
(ii) G N. P. at factor cost – Depreciation
(iii) G N. P. at factor cost – Net indirect taxes
(iv) None of the above
Answer:
(ii) G N. P. at factor cost – Depreciation

Question 36.
Interest paid on public debt is a :
(i) Factor payment
(ii) Transfer payment
(iii) Capital payment
(iv) None of the above
Answer:
(ii) Transfer payment

II. Fill in the blanks :

Question 1.
_____ refers to the income accruing from property and from work of self-employed persons.
Answer:
Mixed income

Question 2.
_____ is that part of profit of a firm which is distributed among the share-holders.
Answer:
Dividend

Question 3.
Indirect taxes are not included in national income as it is not a _____ income.
Answer:
Factor

Question 4.
_____ income being an unilateral payment falls outside generated income.
Answer:
Transfer

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Economics Solutions Chapter 10 Aggregates Related to National Incorne

Question 5.
National product of country becomes lesser than the domestic product when net factor income from abroad is _____ .
Answer:
negative

Question 6.
Capital transfers are met from _____ savings.
Answer:
Past

Question 7.
Personal disposable income excludes _____ taxes.
Answer:
Direct

Question 8.
Interest on public debt is a _____ payment.
Answer:
Transfer

Question 9.
Pension is _____ a income.
Answer:
Transfer

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Economics Solutions Chapter 10 Aggregates Related to National Incorne

Question 10.
Old age pension is an example of _____ payment.
Answer:
Transfer

Question 11.
Real percapita income is measured in _____ price.
Answer:
Constant .

Question 12.
Income earn by the factor of production is _____ at factor cost.
Answer:
Net National Product

Question 13.
Disposal income is a part of _____ income.
Answer:
Personal

Question 14.
The income earned by the self employed person is _____ income.
Answer:
Mixed .

Question 15.
_____ is deducted from the personal income so as to get disposable income.
Answer:
Direct tax .

Question 16.
The average annual income of the residents of a country is called _____.
Answer:
Percapita income

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Economics Solutions Chapter 10 Aggregates Related to National Incorne

Question 17.
increase in _____ income indicates economic growth of a country.
Answer:
Real percapita income

Question 18.
Expenditure for the advertisement is a part of _____ consumption.
Answer:
Interview

Question 19.
_____ goods is accepted for the estimation of National income.
Answer:
Final good.

Question 20.
The income cam by a lawer is _____ income.
Answer:
Mixed

III. Correct the Sentences:

Question 1.
National income is the value of goods & services produced in the country during a year.
Answer:
Incorrect.
Correct – National income is the value of goods & services produced in the country during a year including the net income from abroad.

Question 2.
Gross Domestic product is greater than Gross national product.
Answer:
Incorrect.
Correct – Gross Domestic product is less than Gross national product.

Question 3.
National income is calculated for a particular year.
Answer:
Correct.

Question 4.
GNP at market price is less than GNP at factor cost.
Answer:
Incorrect.
Correct – GNP at factor cost is less than GNP at market price.

Question 5.
GDP at market price = GDP at factor cost – Net Indirect Tax.
Answer:
Incorrect.
Correct – GDP at market Price = GDP at factor cost + Net Indirect Tax.

Question 6.
The difference between market prices & factor cost is the net income from abroad.
Answer:
Incorrect.
Correct – The difference between market prices & factor cost is the net indirect tax.

Question 7.
Net aggregates are always greater than gross aggregates.
Answer:
Incorrect.
Correct – Net aggregates are always less than gross aggregates.

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Economics Solutions Chapter 10 Aggregates Related to National Incorne

Question 8.
Private income is less than personal income.
Answer:
Incorrect.
Correct – Private income is greater than personal income.

Question 9.
Personal income is less than disposable income.
Answer:
Incorrect.
Correct – Personal income is greater -than disposable income.

Question 10.
Personal income is the sum of all types of factor income.
Answer:
Correct.

Question 11.
Disposable income = Personal income – indirect tax.
Answer:
Incorrect.
Correct – Disposable income = Personal income – direct tax.

Question 12.
Undistributed profits are the savings of house hold.
Answer:
Incorrect.
Correct – Undistributed profits are the savings of the enterprises.

Question 13.
Product method is called output method.
Answer:
Correct.

Question 14.
The value of final goods are added in product method to calculate national income.
Answer:
Incorrect.
Correct – The value of final goods are added in product method to calculate national incoem.

Question 15.
The value of intermediate consumption is added to the value of final goods to calculate national income.
Answer:
Incorrect.
Correct – The value of intermediate consumption is deducted from the value of final goods to calculate national income.

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Economics Solutions Chapter 10 Aggregates Related to National Incorne

Question 16.
Income method is value added method.
Answer: Incorrect.
Correct – Product method is value added method.

Question 17.
Factor incomes are added in the income method for estimating national income.
Answer: Incorrect.
Correct – Factor incomes are added in the income method for estimating national income.

Question 18.
Operating surplus includes the income of self employed persons.
Answer: Incorrect.
Correct – Operating surplus includes income from property & entrepreneurship.

Question 19.
Rent is an operating surplus.
Answer: Correct.

Question 20.
Salaries & wages are the mixed income.
Answer:
Incorrect.
Correct – Salaries & wages are compensation of employees.

Question 21.
Old age pension is a transfer income.
Answer: Correct.

Question 22.
Incomes of the self employed person is an operating surplus.
Answer:
Incorrect.
Correct – Incomes of the self employed person is mixed income.

Question 23.
National product is greater than national income.
Answer:
Incorrect.
Correct – National product is equal to national income.

Question 24.
GNP is greater than NNP.
Answer:
Correct.

Question 25.
Operating surplus does not occur in government sector.
Answer:
Correct.

II. Answer the following questions in one word :

Question 1.
What is National Income?
Answer:
National income refers to the money value of total goods & services produced during a year alongwith net income from abroad.

Question 2.
What is GNP?
Answer:
GNP refers to the total volume of goods & services produced during a year along with the net exports.

Question 3.
How can be Net National Product be found, out?
Answer:
GNP – value of depreciation = NNP.

Question 4.
What is Gross Domestic Product?
Answer:
Gross Domestic Product is the market value of all final goods & services produced within the domestic territory of a counry during a year.

Question 5.
What is Private Income?
Answer:
Private income refers to the income of Private individuals from all the sources.

Question 6.
What is Personal Income?
Answer:
Personal Income refers to the income received by the individual from all sources.

Question 7.
What is disposable income?
Answer:
The income which can be spent on consumption by the individuals is called disposable income.

Question 8.
What is per capita income?
Answer:
Percapita income is an average income of an indiviudual in a particular year.

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Economics Solutions Chapter 10 Aggregates Related to National Incorne

Question 9.
What is Product method?
Answer:
Product method is a method adopted for measuring the national income by estimating the contribution of each producing enterprise to production during a year.

Question 10.
Which method is called value-added method?
Answer:
Product method is called value-added method.

Question 11.
What is income method?
Answer:
Income method is adopted for measurin national income by adding the factor incomes like rent, wage, interest & profit during a particular year.

Question 12.
What is operating surplus?
Answer:
The operating surplus includes income from property & entrepreneurship.

Question 13.
What are the examples of operating surplus?
Answer:
Rent, interest, profit etc. are the examples of operating surplus.

Question 14.
What is transfer income?
Answer:
The income which is earned without any productive contribution is called transfer income.

Question 15.
What is compensation of employees?
Answer:
The compensation of employees includes wages & salaries in cash & inland, payment for social csecurity etc.

Question 16.
What is mixed income?
Answer:
Mixed income refers to the incomes of the self employed persons.

Question 17.
What is expenditure method?
Answer:
Expenditure method measures the national income by adding final expenditure on GDP at market price dring a year.

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Economics Solutions Chapter 10 Aggregates Related to National Incorne

Question 18.
What is transfer income?
Answer:
The income which is earned without any productive contribution is called transfer income.

Question 19.
What is value added method ?
Answer:
Value added method is a method for the estimation of national income in which the national income is calculated by adding the value of final goods & services produced in an economy during a year.

Question 20.
What is intermediate goods?
Answer:
The goods which are used for further production is called intermediate goods.

Question 21.
Give an example of transfer payment.
Answer:
Old age pension.

Question 22.
What is net exports?
Answer:
The difference between the value of exports & imports is called net exports.

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Biology Solutions Chapter 2 Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants

Odisha State Board CHSE Odisha Class 12 Biology Solutions Chapter 2 Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants Textbook Questions and Answers.

CHSE Odisha 12th Class Biology Chapter 2 Question Answer Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants

Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants Class 12 Questions and Answers CHSE Odisha

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Fill in the blanks with correct answer from the choices given in the bracket

Question 1.
When gynoecium matures first it is called ………… to effect cross-pollination. (protogyny, protandry, herkogamy, unisexuality)
Answer:
protogyny

Question 2.
In ornithophily, the agents for cross-pollination are ………….. . (ants, birds, snails, rats)
Answer:
birds

Question 3.
Zygote develops from …………. cell of the embryo sac. (egg, synergid, antipodal, nucellus)
Answer:
egg

Question 4.
Fertilisation was discovered by …………. (Strasburger, Mendel, Nitsch, Bower)
Answer:
Strasburger

Question 5.
Due to triple fusion, ……….. is formed.
(zygote, embryo, endosperm, zoospore)
Answer:
endosperm

Question 6.
The innermost layer of wall layers is ………….. (tapetum, epidermis, endodermis, endothecium)
Answer:
tapetum

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Biology Solutions Chapter 2 Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants

Question 7.
Straight ovules are called ……………… (anatropous, campylotropous, orthotropous, hemitropous)
Answer:
orthotropous

Question 8.
Contrivance of self-pollination is ………….. (dicliny, herkogamy, self-sterility, cleistogamy)
Answer:
cleistogamy

Answer each of the following in one word or more words

Question 9.
Androecium and gynoecium whorls are present in the same flower.
Answer:
Bisexual flower

Question 10.
Both the essential whorls are absent in a flower.
Answer:
Neuter flower

Question 11.
Petals are united in a flower.
Answer:
Gamopetalous

Question 12.
Free carpels in a flower.
Answer:
Apocarpous

Question 13.
Transfer of pollen grains from anther to stigma of the same flower.
Answer:
Self-pollination

Question 14.
The process in which the’male gamete fertilises with egg.
Answer:
Fertilisation

Question 15.
Pollination in aquatic plants.
Answer:
Hydrophily

Question 16.
Fusion of one male gamete with definitive nucleus.
Answer:
Triple fusion

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Biology Solutions Chapter 2 Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants

Correct the statements without changing underlined words only

Question 17.
Anemophilous flowers are pollinated by ants.
Answer:
Anemophilous flowers are pollinated by wind.

Question 18.
Dichogamy is found in bisexual flowers where stamens and carpels mature at same time.
Answer:
Dichogamy is found in bisexual flowers where stamens. and carpels mature at different time.

Question 19.
The ovule is attached to the placenta of ovary by means of nucellus.
Answer:
The ovule is attached to the placenta of ovary by means of a stalk called funiculus.

Question 20.
Animals acting as agents of pollination are called anemophily.
Answer:
Animals acting as agents of pollination are called zoophily.

Question 21.
Polyembryony involves development of one embryo.
Answer:
Polyembryony involves development of more than one embryo from a single fertilised ovum.

Fill in the blanks

Question 22.
The cells present on two sides of egg in the egg apparatus are called ……………..
Answer:
synergids

Question 23.
The outer wall of the pollen grain is called …………..
Answer:
exine

Question 24.
The male gametes are formed from …………. cell.
Answer:
generative

Question 25.
Parthenogenesis means development of fruits without ……………….
Answer:
fertilisation

Question 26.
The endosperm in which first division is cellular and subsequential cellular is called ……………… endosperm.
Answer:
cellular

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Biology Solutions Chapter 2 Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants

Question 27.
In grafting, the part of the plant detached is called ………….
Answer:
scion

Question 28.
In self-pollination, pollen is transferred to stigma of the ………….. flower.
Answer:
same

Question 29.
The fertile cells from which microspores or megaspores developed are called ………….. cells.
Answer:
diploid mother

Question 30.
In maize plant, male inflorescence is borne at portion of the plant.
Answer:
tassel

Question 31.
The fusion product of male gamete and egg cell in angiosperms form …………….
Answer:
zygote

Short Answer Type Questions

Write notes on the following with at least 2 valid points

Question 1.
Parthenogenesis
Answer:
The word parthenogenesis is derived from two Greek words, parthenos means ‘virgin’ and genesis means ‘origin’. It can be defined as the formation of embryo from an unfertilised egg or female gamete. In plants, parthenogenesis is a component process of apomixis.
In parthenogenesis, the haploid egg in which no ‘ fertilisation occurs, develop into an embryo. This forms – viable seed which can give rise to a new plant. In , contrast, in parthenocarpy if seeds develop, they are abortive and do not give rise to new plants.

Question 2.
Allogamy
Answer:
Cross-pollination is also called allogamy. It is the transfer of pollen grains from anther of flower to stigma of flower on another plant of same or allied species.

Question 3.
Herkogamy
Answer:
Herkogamy is seen in orchids where male or female sex organs themselves prove as a barrier to prevent self-pollination by some structural abnormalities.

Question 4.
Geitonogamy
Answer:
It is a kind of pollination where the pollen grains from the anther of a flower are transferred to the stigma of another flower borne on the same plant but at different branches. It usually occurs in plants which show monoecious condition, e.g. Cucurbita. It is functionally a type of cross-pollination (involving a pollinating agent), but genetically it is similar to autogamy (since pollen grains come from same plant).

Adaptations (Contrivances) for Self-Pollination
The contrivances of self-pollination include homogamy, dichogamy and cleistogamy.

  • Homogamy In this condition, both anther and stigma mature at the same time, e.g. Mirabilis.
  • Dichogamy In this condition, anther and stigma mature at different times, e.g. sunflower.
  • Cleistogamy The flowers which are always closed are known as deistogamous, e.g. Oxalic
    CHSE Odisha Class 12 Biology Solutions Chapter 2 Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants 1

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Biology Solutions Chapter 2 Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants

Advantages of SeLf-PoLlination

  • Fertilisation and production of the progeny are always certain by this method.
  • It maintains purity of race and superiority of the variety.
  • Here there is less wastage of pollens.

Disadvantages of SeLf-Pollination

  • It leads to loss of viability and vigour of the plant in the long run.
  • If lethal genes become homozygous, the effect may be disastrous.

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Biology Solutions Chapter 2 Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants

Question 5.
Xenogamy
Answer:
Cross-pollination within a species (different variety) is called xenogamy and it results in production of hybrids.

Question 6.
Self-sterility
Answer:
Self-incompatibility or Self-sterility is the third device to prevent inbreeding. It is a genetic phenomenon of preventing the pollen from fertiismg ovules by the same flower by inhibiting pollen germination or pollen tube growth în the pistil.
Self-incompatibility may be due to genotype of sporophyte known as sporophytic incompatability whereas if it is due to genotype of pollen, it is known as gametophytic incomparibility.

Question 7.
Entomophily
Answer:
Pollination taking place under water is known as hypohydrogamous whereas pollination taking place on surface of water is cailed epihydrogamous.

Question 8.
Embryo sac
Answer:
Embryo sac refers to female gametophyte of a plant.
Organisation of Female Gametophyte (Embryo Sac)
In general, the development of embryo sac is monosporic, e.g. in Polygonum. In this type of development, only one megaspore situated towards chalazal end remains functional, while the remaining three megaspores gradually degenerate and finally disappear. Following are the different stages in development of female gametophyte

  1. The functional haploid megaspore is the first cell of female gametophyte of angiosperm.
  2. It enlarges in size to form the female gametophyte, also called embryo sac.
  3. Its nucleus undergoes mitotic division to form 2-nuclei that move to opposite poles forming 2-nucIeate embryo sac.
  4. The 2-nucleate embryo sac undergoes two more sequential mitotic divisions giving rise to the 4-nucleate stage and later 8-nucleate stage of embryo sac. This stage comprises of a micropylar end and a chalazal end with four nuclei at each end.
  5. Six of the eight nuclei are surrounded by cell walls and get organised into cells. Three cells present towards the micropylar end grouped together, constitute the egg apparatus, i.e. two synergids and one egg cell.
  6. Three cells of the chalazal end are called the antipodals. The large central cell is formed by the fusion of 2-polar nuclei. Thus, a typical angiospermic embryo sac or female gametophyte at maturity consists of 8-nuclei and 7-cells.

The egg cell combines with a male gamete to form zygote which becomes the embryo. The pollen tube makes its way through the synergids releasing the male gametes.

One male gamete fuses with female gamete (egg) called syngamy. The two polar nuclei which have fused to form secondary nucleus combine with second male gamete and form primary endosperm cell. This primary endosperm cell develops into endosperm which provides nutrition to the developing embryo. The antipodal cells degenerate.
CHSE Odisha Class 12 Biology Solutions Chapter 2 Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants 2
CHSE Odisha Class 12 Biology Solutions Chapter 2 Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants 3

Question 9.
Embryo
Answer:
Development of an Embryo: The first stage in the development of a plant zygote is a pre-determined mode of development (embryogeny).

It gives rise to an organised mass of cells called the embryo, that has the potentiality to form a complete plant. Most zygotes divide only after certain amount of endosperm is formed to assure proper nutrition is provided to the developing embryo.
In the majority of angiosperms, the zygote (fertilised egg) divides by an asymmetric mitotic division and generates two cells with two different fates

  1. The smaller daughter cell with dense cytoplasm is situated towards the chalazal pole side. It is called terminal cell or apical cell or embryonal cell.
  2. Another comparatively larger daughter cell situated towards the micropylar cell is called basal cell. This cell divides transversely and gives, rise to suspensor cells. The zygote gives rise to the proembryo anti subsequendy to the globular, heart-shaped and mature embryo.

Though the seeds differ greatly, the early stages of embryo development (embryogeny) are similar in monocots and dicots.

Question 10.
Micropropagation
Answer:
Micropropagation It is the production of large number of individual plants from a small piece of plant tissue cultured in a nutrient medium. It leads to formation of clones. It is a fast method of plant production.

Question 11.
Polyembryony
Answer:
Polyembryony
In general, each seed bears an embryo, but sometimes there are found more than one embryo in a single seed. The occurrence of more than one embryo in a seed is called polyembryony. It was first time observed in orange seeds by Antony van Leeuwenhoek in 1719.
On a broad basis, polyembryony is of two types

  • Spontaneous It includes naturally occurring polyembryony.
  • Induced This type of polyembryony is induced experimentally.

Question 12.
Incompatibility
Answer:
Incompatibility It is the inability of the pollen grains to germinate on the stigma of genetically similar plants or the failure of gametes to fuse or inability of the zygote to develop into a mature sporophyte.

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Biology Solutions Chapter 2 Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants

Differentiate the following with at least three valid and meaningful points.

Question 1.
Pollination and Fertilisation.
Answer:
Differences between pollination and fertilisation are as follows

Pollination Fertilisation
It refers to the transfer of pollen grains from an anther to stigma. It refers to the fusion of male and female
It is a physical process. It is cellular, genetic, biochemical process.
It can be achieved by various agents such as wind, insect, etc. It is assisted by the plant itself.

 

Question 2.
Dichogamy and Herkogamy.
Answer:
Differences between dichogamy and herkogamy are as follows

Dichogamy Herkogamy
When stamens and carpels of bisexual flowers mature at different times to prevent self-pollination, it is called dichogamy. When some sort of barrier develops between stamens and pistil of same flowers and prevents self-pollination, it is called herkogamy.
It is of two types, i.e. protogyny and protoandry. It is seen in Calotropis, etc.
It is seen in banana, coriander, etc. It also prevents cross-pollination.
It prevents self-pollination. Herkogamy

 

Question 3.
Protogyny and Protandry.
Answer:
Differences between protogyny and protandry are as follows

Protandry Protogyny
In this, the anthers mature earlier so that its stigma is not ready to receive pollen from its anther. In this, stigmas mature earlier so that they get pollinated before the anthers of the same flower mature and develop pollen grains.
e.g. in Salvia, sunflower, cotton, jasmine, etc. e.g. in Plantago, Mirabilis jalapa, peepal, banyan, etc.

 

Question 4.
Self-pollination and Cross-pollination.
Answer:
Differences between self-pollination and cross-pollination are as follows

Self-pollination Cross-pollination
Pollen grains are transferred from anther to stigma of the same flower (autogamy) or another flower borne on the same plant (geitonogamy). Pollen grains are transferred from anther of one flower to stigma of another flower borne on a different plant of the same species (allogamy).
Both anthers and stigma mature at the same time. The anthers and stigma of a flower mature at different times.
External agent is not required for self-pollination. An external agent is essential for cross-pollination.
It is economical for the plant. Cross-pollination is not economical as the plant has to produce a large number of pollen grains, nectar, ‘ scent and bright coloured corollas, etc.
It results in progenies which are purelines, e.g. homozygous. It results in hybrids, e.g. heterozygous. They show variations in characters.

 

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Biology Solutions Chapter 2 Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants

Question 5.
Embryo and Endosperm.
Answer:
Differences between embryo and endosperm are as follows

Embryo Endosperm
It is formed by fertilised egg. (syngamy). It is formed by fusion of secondary nucleus (triple fusion).
It is always diploid. It is triploid. ‘
It gives rise to new plant. It provides nutrition to the developing embryo.
Cotyledons, plumule and radicle are formed in embryo. There is no formation of such structures.
Embryo is seen in seed. It is only seen in endospermic seeds. Otherwise it degenerates with the formation of seed.

 

Question 6.
Gamete and Zygote.
Answer:
Differences between gamete and zygote are as follows

Gamete Zygote
It is the cell that fuses with another cell in order to form zygote during fertilisation, It is the fused product between an egg and a sperm.
Ploidy level of gametes is haploid. Ploidy level of zygote is diploid.
Gamete is found in both male and female. Zygote is only present in female.

 

Question 7.
Micropyle end and Chalazal end.
Answer:
Differences between micropyle end and chalazal end are as follows

Micropyle end Chalazal end
In seed bearing plants, a small opening in the integuments of the ovule through which sperms are able to access the ovum. In seed bearing plants, the location where the nucellus attaches to the integuments, opposite the micropyle.

 

Question 8.
Zoophily and Anemophily.
Answer:
Differences between zoophily and anemophily are as follows

Zoophily Anemophily
Animal pollination is termed as zoophily. These animals can be bats, insects, birds, ants, etc. Wind pollination is also termed as anemophily.
These flowers are large, colourful, fragrance and rich in nectar. These flowers are small, colourless, inconspicuous and nectarless.
The pollen grains are produced in less number. The pollar grains produced are more in number.

 

Question 9.
Double fertilisation and Triple fusion.
Answer:
Differences between double fertilisation and triple fusion are as follows

Double fertilisation Triple fusion
It involves two processes, i.e. triple fusion and syngamy. It is a process in angiosperms which occurs along with syngamy in the embryo.
It involves two sperm cells or male gametes. It involves a single male gamete.
After double fertilisation zygote and an endosperm is formed. It involves fusion of a male gamete with polar nuclei to form triploid endosperm.

 

Question 10.
Porogamy and Chalazogamy
Answer:
Differences between porogamy and chalazogamy are as follows

Porogamy Chalazogamy
It is the condition when the pollen tube enters the ovule from the micropylar end during fertilisation. It is the condition of entering of pollen tube from chalazal end during fertilisation.
e.g. in lily, etc. e.g. in Casuarina, Jug Ians, etc.

 

Question 11.
Apospory and Apogamy.
Answer:
Differences between apospory follows and apogamy are as

Apospory Apogamy
It is a type of reproduction in which gametophyte develops from sporophyte without meiosis and involvement of spores. The gametophyte usually develops from vegetative cells of sporophyte. It is a type of reproduction in which sporophyte develops from gametophyte without fertilisation or fusion of gametes. The sporophyte usually develops from vegetative cells of gametophyte.

 

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Biology Solutions Chapter 2 Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants

Question 12.
Monocot and Dicot embryo.
Answer:
Differences between monocot and dicot embryo are as follows

Monocot embryo Dicot embryo
Basal cell forms a 6-10 celled suspensor. Basal cell produces a single-celled suspensor.
Terminal cell produces embryo except the radicle. It forms the whole of the embryo.
The first division of terminal cell is generally longitudinal. It is transverse.
It has two cotyledons. There is a single cotyledon.
Plumule is terminal and lies in between the two elongated cotyledons. Plumule appears lateral due to excessive growth of the single cotyledon.

 

Question 13.
Nuclear and Cellular endosperm. (2018)
Answer:
Differences between nuclear and cellular endosperm are as follows

Nuclear endosperm Cellular endosperm
Nuclear divisions are not followed by cell divisions. Each division of nuclei is immediately followed by cell divisions.
The nuclear mass is then pushed to periphery and cell walls are laid. Mostly cell wall formation remains incomplete. Complete cell walls are laid from the very beginning and a solid cellular mass is obtained,
A central vacuole is formed initially which ultimately disappears with a few exceptions. No such vacuole is formed generally.
e.g. wheat, maize, rice, etc. e.g. balsam, Datura, Petunia, etc.

 

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Distinguish between self and cross-pollination. Describe three conditions that favour cross-pollination.
Answer:
1. Autogamy (Self-Pollination)
It is the kind of pollination achieved within the same flower. The pollens from the anthers of a flower are transferred to the stigma of the same flower, e.g. wheat, rice, pea, etc., almost all the cleistogamous flowers are invariably autogamous as there is no chance of cross-pollination.

2. Geitonogamy
It is a kind of pollination where the pollen grains from the anther of a flower are transferred to the stigma of another flower borne on the same plant but at different branches. It usually occurs in plants which show monoecious condition, e.g. Cucurbita. It is functionally a type of cross-pollination (involving a pollinating agent), but genetically it is similar to autogamy (since pollen grains come from same plant).
Adaptations (Contrivances) for Self-Pollination The contrivances of self-pollination include homogamy, dichogamy and cleistogamy.

  • Homogamy In this condition, both anther and stigma mature at the same time, e.g. Mirabilis.
  • Dichogamy In this condition, anther and stigma mature at different times, e.g. sunflower.
  • Cleistogamy The flowers which are always closed are known as cleistogamous, e.g. Oxalis.CHSE Odisha Class 12 Biology Solutions Chapter 2 Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants 1
    Self-pollination

Advantages of Self-Pollination

  • Fertilisation and production of the progeny are always certain by this method.
  • It maintains purity of race and superiority of the variety.
  • Here there is less wastage of pollens.

Disadvantages of Self-Pollination

  • It leads to loss of viability and vigour of the plant,in the long run.
  • If lethal genes become homozygous, the effect may be disastrous.

3. Xenogamy (Cross-Pollination)
It involves the transfer of pollen grains from the anther of one plant to the stigma of another plant. This is the only type of pollination which brings genetically different types of pollen grains to the stigma during pollination, e.g. papaya, maize, etc.
CHSE Odisha Class 12 Biology Solutions Chapter 2 Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants 4

Advantages of Cross-Pollination

  • This always results in much healthier offsprings.
  • The offsprings produced in this method are better adapted ones.
  • As a result of the cross-pollination, hybrids are produced.
  • More abundant and viable seeds are produced which store greater quantities of food material.
  • The process eliminates defective characters and is helpful in production of new varieties.

Disadvantages of Cross-Pollination

  • This is wasteful process, as large number of pollen grains get damaged in the course of pollination.
  • The chance of fertilisation is limited here since it can be affected only if the pollen reaches the matured stigma.

Adaptations (Contrivances) for Cross-Pollination or Outbreeding Devices
Continued self-pollination leads to chances of inbreeding depression. Thus, flowering plants have developed many devices to discourage self-pollination and to encourage cross-pollination. These include
1. Dichogamy In some plant species, receptivity of stigma and pollen release is not synchronised, i.e. often the pollen is released before the stigma becomes receptive (protandry) or stigma becomes receptive before the release of pollen (protogyny). This condition is called dichogamy.

2. Heterostyly In some other species, the anther and stigma are placed at different positions, so that the pollen cannot come in contact with the stigma of same flower. This condition is called heterostyly.
Both the above mentioned methods will prevent autogamy.

3.Self-incompatibility or Self-sterility is the third device to prevent inbreeding. It is a genetic phenomenon of preventing the pollen from fertilising ovules by the same flower by inhibiting pollen germination or pollen tube growth in the pistil. Self-incompatibility may be due to genotype of sporophyte known as sporophytic incompatibility, whereas if it is due to genotype of pollen, it is known as gametophytic incompatibility.

4.Dicliny or Unisexuality effectively prevents self-pollination. It is the presence of unisexual flowers in plants that prevents autogamy but not geitonogamy, e.g. castor, maize, etc.

5.Herkogamy is seen in orchids where male or female sex organs themselves prove as a barrier to prevent self-pollination by some structural abnormalities.

6.Dioecy Both autogamy and geitonogamy is prevented in several species like papaya, where male and female flowers are present on different plants, i.e. each plant is either male or female (dioecy).

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Biology Solutions Chapter 2 Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants

Question 2.
What is cross-pollination? Give an account of the contrivances of cross-pollination.
Answer:
Xenogamy (Cross-Pollination)
It involves the transfer of pollen grains from the anther of one plant to the stigma of another plant. This is the only type of pollination which brings genetically different types of pollen grains to the stigma during pollination, e.g. papaya, maize, etc.
CHSE Odisha Class 12 Biology Solutions Chapter 2 Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants 4

Advantages of Cross-Pollination

  • This always results in much healthier offsprings.
  • The offsprings produced in this method are better adapted ones.
  • As a result of the cross-pollination, hybrids are produced.
  • More abundant and viable seeds are produced which store greater quantities of food material.
  • The process eliminates defective characters and is helpful in production of new varieties.

Disadvantages of Cross-Pollination

  • This is wasteful process, as large number of pollen grains get damaged in the course of pollination.
  • The chance of fertilisation is limited here since it can be affected only if the pollen reaches the matured stigma.

Adaptations (Contrivances) for Cross-Pollination or Outbreeding Devices
Continued self-pollination leads to chances of inbreeding depression. Thus, flowering plants have developed many devices to discourage self-pollination and to encourage cross-pollination. These include
1. Dichogamy In some plant species, receptivity of stigma and pollen release is not synchronised, i.e. often the pollen is released before the stigma becomes receptive (protandry) or stigma becomes receptive before the release of pollen (protogyny). This condition is called dichogamy.

2. Heterostyly In some other species, the anther and stigma are placed at different positions, so that the pollen cannot come in contact with the stigma of same flower. This condition is called heterostyly.
Both the above mentioned methods will prevent autogamy.

3.Self-incompatibility or Self-sterility is the third device to prevent inbreeding. It is a genetic phenomenon of preventing the pollen from fertilising ovules by the same flower by inhibiting pollen germination or pollen tube growth in the pistil. Self-incompatibility may be due to genotype of sporophyte known as sporophytic incompatibility, whereas if it is due to genotype of pollen, it is known as gametophytic incompatibility.

4.Dicliny or Unisexuality effectively prevents self-pollination. It is the presence of unisexual flowers in plants that prevents autogamy but not geitonogamy, e.g. castor, maize, etc.

5.Herkogamy is seen in orchids where male or female sex organs themselves prove as a barrier to prevent self-pollination by some structural abnormalities.

6.Dioecy Both autogamy and geitonogamy is prevented in several species like papaya, where male and female flowers are present on different plants, i.e. each plant is either male or female (dioecy).

Question 3.
Describe how different agents help in cross-pollination.
Answer:
Agents of Cross-Pollination
The agents responsible for pollination in angiospermshave been grouped into two main categories
CHSE Odisha Class 12 Biology Solutions Chapter 2 Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants 5
To compensate for the chances of contact of pollen grains with stigma and associated loss of pollen grains, the plants have adopted various ways.
Some of them are
Adaptations for Wind Pollination
Wind pollination is also termed as anemophily and is the most common amongst abiotic pollinations.
The adaptations of wind pollinated flowers are

  • Flowers are small, colourless, inconspicuous and nectarless.
  • Wind pollinated flowers often have a single ovule in each ovary and numerous flowers packed into an inflorescence like in tassels of corn cob (i.e. stigma and style).
  • The anthers are well-exposed for the easy dispersal of pollen grains.
  • Pollen grains are small, light, dry, dusty, non-sticlcy and sometimes even winged.
  • The stigma are large, hairy and feathery or branched to catch the air-borne pollen grains.
  • Common examples of wind pollinated flowers are grasses, sugarcane, bamboo, coconut, etc.
    CHSE Odisha Class 12 Biology Solutions Chapter 2 Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants 6

Adaptations for Water Pollination
Water pollination is also termed as hydrophily. It is quite rare in flowering plants and is limited to about 30 genera, mostly monocotyledons.
The adaptations of water pollinated flowers are

  • It is very common in lower plant groups such as algae, bryophytes and pteridophytes. Flowers are small, colourless, inconspicuous, odourless and nectarless.
  • The stigmas are long and sticky, e.g. Vallisneria, Hydrilla and Zostera (sea-grasses).
  • In most of the water pollinated species, pollen grains are protected from getting wet by mucilaginous covering.
  • Not all aquatic plants use water for pollination. In a majority of aquatic plants, the flowers emerge above the level of water and are pollinated by insects or wind as in land plants, e.g. water hyacinth and water lily.
  • In Vallisneria, the female flowers reach the surface of water by the long stalk and male flowers or pollen grains are released on to the surface of water. They are then carried passively by water currents.
  • In plants like sea grasses, female flowers remain submerged in water and the pollen grains are released inside the water. In such species, pollen grains are long, ribbon-like and are carried passively inside the water to reach stigma and achieve pollination.
  • Pollination taking place under water is known as hypohydrogamous whereas pollination taking place on surface of water is called epihydrogamous.
    CHSE Odisha Class 12 Biology Solutions Chapter 2 Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants 7

Adaptations for Insect Pollination
Insect pollination is also termed as entomophily.
The adaptations of insect pollinated flowers are

  • Insect pollinated flowers are large, colourful, fragrant and rich in nectar.
  • A number of flowers are clustered into an inflorescence to make them conspicuous, when the .flowers are small.
  • Flowers have nectar glands and are highly fragrant to attract insects.
  • The surface of pollen grains is sticky due to exine layer and stigma is sticky due to mucilaginous layer.
  • To sustain animal visits, flowers have to provide rewards. Nectar and pollen grains are floral rewards for the insect pollinators.
  • In some species, floral rewards are to provide safe place for laying eggs, e.g. Amorphophalius (the tallest flower abput 6 feet in height).
  • In plant Yucca, moth and the plant cannot complete their life cycles without each other. The moth deposits its eggs in the locule of the ovary and the flower, in turn, gets pollinated by the moth. The larvae of the moth come out of the eggs as the seeds start developing.
  • Many insects may consume pollen or the nectar without bringing about pollination. These floral visitors are referred to as pollen/nectar robbers.

Some special mechanisms in case of insect pollination are as follows

  1. In case of Bignonia where the stigma gets exposed by opening the flap closed by visit of insect.
  2. In hypanthodium inflorescence, the insects enter through ostiole which is a pore which opens the inflorescence to outside.
    In this inflorescence, three types of flowers occur. The insect when visits, it passes through anthers of male flowers and then reaches female flowers which are present in middle part of inflorescence. This results in pollination.
  3. Another adaptation occurs in Salvia where there is the presence of a bilabiate corolla with two epipetalous stamens.
    CHSE Odisha Class 12 Biology Solutions Chapter 2 Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants 8
    Insect pollination in Salvia-, (a) A structure of flower, (b) Diagrammatic representation of changes taking place in the position of anther lobes during the entry of insect in the flower, (c) Entry of insect in the flower [note the dusting of pollen grains on the back of the insect], (d) Insect entering another flower and the pollens on its back being collected by stigma

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Biology Solutions Chapter 2 Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants

Question 4.
Discuss the important outbreeding devices for cross-pollination.
Answer:
Adaptations (Contrivances) for Cross-Pollination or Outbreeding Devices
Continued self-pollination leads to chances of inbreeding depression. Thus, flowering plants have developed many devices to discourage self-pollination and to encourage cross-pollination. These include
1. Dichogamy In some plant species, receptivity of stigma and pollen release is not synchronised, i.e. often the pollen is released before the stigma becomes receptive (protandry) or stigma becomes receptive before the release of pollen (protogyny). This condition is called dichogamy.

2. Heterostyly In some other species, the anther and stigma are placed at different positions, so that the pollen cannot come in contact with the stigma of same flower. This condition is called heterostyly.
Both the above mentioned methods will prevent autogamy.

3.Self-incompatibility or Self-sterility is the third device to prevent inbreeding. It is a genetic phenomenon of preventing the pollen from fertilising ovules by the same flower by inhibiting pollen germination or pollen tube growth in the pistil. Self-incompatibility may be due to genotype of sporophyte known as sporophytic incompatibility, whereas if it is due to genotype of pollen, it is known as gametophytic incompatibility.

4.Dicliny or Unisexuality effectively prevents self-pollination. It is the presence of unisexual flowers in plants that prevents autogamy but not geitonogamy, e.g. castor, maize, etc.

5.Herkogamy is seen in orchids where male or female sex organs themselves prove as a barrier to prevent self-pollination by some structural abnormalities.

6.Dioecy Both autogamy and geitonogamy is prevented in several species like papaya, where male and female flowers are present on different plants, i.e. each plant is either male or female (dioecy).

Question 5.
Describe how double fertilisation and triple fusion occur in the angiosperms.
Answer:
Double Fertilisation
Fertilisation was discovered by Strasburger. But the process of double fertilisation was demonstrated for the first time by Nawaschin in 1898 in Lilium and Fritillaria. The most important and unique characteristic feature of angiosperms is the participation of both male gametes in the act of fertilisation.

The pollen tube releases the two male gametes into the cytoplasm of one of the synergids, then the penetrated synergid starts degenerating. One male gamete fuses With the egg cell to form a diploid(2«) zygote. This process is called syngamy or generative fertilisation.

  1. The diploid zygote finally develops into’the embryo.
  2. The second male gamete fuses with the two polar nuclei or secondary nucleus in the central cell to form the triploid Primary Endosperm Nucleus (PEN).
  3. The process is called triple fusion as three haploid nuclei are involved in the fusion. After triple fusion, the central cell becomes the Primary Endosperm Cell (PEC) which gives rise to the endosperm, while the zygote develops into the embryo. As both the fusions, syngamy and triple fusion, occur in an embryo sac, the phenomenon is termed as double fertilisation.

Question 6.
With diagrams, describe the development of male and female gametophyte in angiosperms.
Answer:
Development of a Male Gametophyte
Microspore is the first cell of male gametophyte. It involves formation of microsporangium and development of male gametophyte at pre-pollination and post-pollination events. The structures are stages which lead to development of male gametophyte are as follows
Stamen:
It is the male reproductive unit of angiosperm.
It consists of two parts

  • The long and slender stalk called the filament.
  • The terminal generally bilobed structure called the anther.

The anther and filament are connected by a connective.
CHSE Odisha Class 12 Biology Solutions Chapter 2 Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants 9

Structure of an Anther
A typical angiosperm anther is bilobed structure with each lobe having two theca (dithecous) and separated by a longitudinal groove running lengthwise.
In a cross-section, the anther is a four-sided (tetragonal) structure consisting of four microsporangia located at the corners, two in each lobe. Later, the microsporangia develop and become pollen sacs, which are packed with the pollen grains.

Formation of Microsporangium (Pollen Sacs)
A typical microsporangium is surrounded by four wall layers, i.e. the epidermis, endothecium, middle layer and the tapetum. The outer three wall layers are protective in function and help in dehiscence of anther to release pollen grains. Tapetum (innermost layer) nourishes the developing microspores or pollen grains and the cells of tapetum possess dense cytoplasm and generally have more than one nucleus. When the anther is young, a group of compactly arranged homogenous cells called the sporogenous tissue occupies the centre of each microsporangium.
CHSE Odisha Class 12 Biology Solutions Chapter 2 Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants 10

A young anther possesses a homogenous mass of hypodermal cells bounded by epidermis. After some time, this homogenous mass appears like a tetra-angular mass. Inner to this epidermis, some cells at each angle contain a prominent nucleus and abundant protoplasm, they are . called archesporial cells.
CHSE Odisha Class 12 Biology Solutions Chapter 2 Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants 11
Development of microsporangium (a-e) successive stages of the development of microsporangium, (f) A mature pollen sac in a

Development of a Female Gametophyte:
The process of female gametophyte formation is called megagametogenesis. The process involves pistil which is the female reproductive part.
The stages like development of ovule, megasporogenesis followed by organisation of female gametophyte complete the process.
These structures and stages are discussed as follows

Pistil:
The gynoecium represents the female reproductive part of the flower. It may consist of one pistil or carpel (monocarpellary), two carpels (bicarpellary), three carpels (tricarpellary) or many carpels (multicarpellary). Pistil may be syncarpous (i.e. more than one pistils are fused together) as in Papaver, Solanum, etc., or may be apocarpous (i.e. carpels remain free) as in Michelia, rose, etc.
CHSE Odisha Class 12 Biology Solutions Chapter 2 Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants 12
(a) Multicarpellary, syncarpous pistil of Papaver and (b) Multicarpellary, apocarpous gynoecium of Michelia

A typical pistil consists of a hollow basal swollen ovary, an elongated style and a terminal stigma (serves as a landing platform for pollen grains). Inside the ovary is the ovarian cavity (locule) in which placenta is located. Megasporangia (ovules) arise from placenta.
CHSE Odisha Class 12 Biology Solutions Chapter 2 Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants 13
Gynoecium: (A) External view, (B) Transverse section of ovary

The mode of arrangement of ovule along the placenta in the cavity of the ovary is known as placentation (axile, parietal, free-central, etc).

Megasporangium (Ovule):
The ovule is an integumented megasporangium within which the meiosis and megaspore formation take place. It is attached to the placenta by means of a stalk called funicle. It develops into a seed after fertilisation. The junction between an ovule and funicle is called hilum, which later becomes a scar on the seed. Each ovule has one or two protective envelopes called integuments, which encircle the ovule except at a tip where a small opening called micropyle is located.
CHSE Odisha Class 12 Biology Solutions Chapter 2 Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants 14
Ovule : Structure tAnatropous ovule

The basal part of an ovule just opposite to micropyle is called chalaza. Enclosed within the integuments is a mass of cells called nucellus. Cells of the nucellus are rich in reserve food materials. An ovule generally has a single embryo sac or female gametophyte developed from a megaspore through reductional division and located within the nucellus.

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Biology Solutions Chapter 2 Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants

Structure of Ovule:
Depending upon the shape and orientation, the ovules of angiosperms are classified into following types

  1. Orthotropous or atropous where the micropyle, chalaza and funicle are in a straight line, e.g. Piper.
  2. Anatropous where the body of the ovule is completely inverted, e.g. 82% of angiosperms.
  3. Hemianatropous where ovule turns at the angle of 90° upon the funicle, e.g. Ranunculus.
    CHSE Odisha Class 12 Biology Solutions Chapter 2 Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants 15
    (a-f) Various types of ovules : (a) Orthotropous, (b) Anatropous, (c) Hemianatropous, (d) Campylotropous, (e) Amphitropous, (f) Circinotropous
  4. Campylotropous where ovule is circled more or less at right angle to funicle, e.g. legumes.
  5. Amphitropous where the embryo sac becomes curved like horse-shoe, e.g. Lemna.
  6. Circinotropous where funicle completely surrounds the body of the ovule, e.g. Opuntia.

Development of the Ovule:
The development of ovule starts with the formation of a primordium on the placenta first periclinal divisions occur which are followed by anticlinal divisions which cause enlargement of the protruberance. An archesporial cell gets differentiated by acquiring size and dense cell contents. This is followed by initiation of formation of outer and inner integuments.
CHSE Odisha Class 12 Biology Solutions Chapter 2 Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants 16
(A-D) Successive stages in the development , of ovule

These integuments appear as a complete ring and cover the whole nucellus except at the micropylar opening. These integuments enclose the central part of ovule which is a parenchymatous mass of cells. This region gets differentiated to form mature nucellus enclosing a female gametophyte. At the end, the ovule consists of integuments and nucellus which possess embryo sac.

Organisation of Female Gametophyte (Embryo Sac):
In general, the development of embryo sac is monosporic, e.g. in Polygonum. In this type of development, only one megaspore situated towards chalazal end remains functional, while the remaining three megaspores gradually degenerate and finally disappear. Following are the different stages in development of female gametophyte

  1. The functional haploid megaspore is the first cell of female gametophyte of angiosperm.
  2. It enlarges in size to form the female gametophyte, also called embryo sac.
  3. Its nucleus undergoes mitotic division to form 2-nuclei that move to opposite poles forming 2-nucIeate embryo sac.
  4. The 2-nucleate embryo sac undergoes two more sequential mitotic divisions giving rise to the 4-nucleate stage and later 8-nucleate stage of embryo sac. This stage comprises of a micropylar end and a chalazal end with four nuclei at each end.
  5. Six of the eight nuclei are surrounded by cell walls and get organised into cells. Three cells present towards the micropylar end grouped together, constitute the egg apparatus, i.e. two synergids and one egg cell.
  6. Three cells of the chalazal end are called the antipodals. The large central cell is formed by the fusion of 2-polar nuclei. Thus, a typical angiospermic embryo sac or female gametophyte at maturity consists of 8-nuclei and 7-cells.

The egg cell combines with a male gamete to form zygote which becomes the embryo. The pollen tube makes its way through the synergids releasing the male gametes.

One male gamete fuses with female gamete (egg) called syngamy. The two polar nuclei which have fused to form secondary nucleus combine with second male gamete and form primary endosperm cell. This primary endosperm cell develops into endosperm which provides nutrition to the developing embryo. The antipodal cells degenerate.
CHSE Odisha Class 12 Biology Solutions Chapter 2 Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants 2
CHSE Odisha Class 12 Biology Solutions Chapter 2 Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants 3

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Education Solutions Chapter 20 Graphical Representation of Data and Measures of Central Tendency

Odisha State Board CHSE Odisha Class 12 Education Solutions Chapter 20 Graphical Representation of Data and Measures of Central Tendency Questions and Answers.

CHSE Odisha 12th Class Education Chapter 20 Question Answer Graphical Representation of Data and Measures of Central Tendency

Group – A

Short type Questions with Answers,
I. Answer with in Two/Three sentence:

Question 1.
Why is it essential for a measure of central tendency to be rightly defined?
Answer:
A precisely defined measure ensures uniform interpretation by all individuals, promoting clarity and consistency in its application.

Question 2.
What does it mean for a measure of central tendency to be based on all observations?
Answer:
The measure should consider all data points to accurately represent the central tendency, ensuring that no scores are excluded or ignored.

Question 3.
Why is simplicity in calculation considered a crucial characteristic of a good measure?
Answer:
Simplicity in calculation ensures practicality and ease of use, making the measure accessible and efficient for a wide range of applications.

Question 4.
In statistics, what is sampling, and why should a good measure of central tendency be least affected by fluctuations in sampling?
Answer:
Sampling involves selecting a subset from a population. A good measure should be robust against fluctuations in sampling to ensure its reliability across different subsets, providing consistent results.

Question 5.
What is the primary symbol used to represent the mean of a population, and what symbol is used for the mean of a sample?
Answer:
The mean of a population is denoted by the Greek letter p (pronounced “mue”), while the mean of a sample is represented by X-bar or M.

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Education Solutions Chapter 20 Graphical Representation of Data and Measures of Central Tendency

Question 6.
What distinguishes the median from the mean in terms of sensitivity to extreme- values?
Answer:
The median is less sensitive to extreme values compared to the mean, making it a more robust measure in the presence of outliers.

Question 7.
How is the median defined in a continuous series, and what does it represent in terms of percentile?
Answer:
The median in a continuous series is the 50th percentile, dividing the distribution into two halves. It represents the value below which 50% of cases lie and above which 50% lie.

Question 8.
What is an outlier, and why might the median be preferred over the mean in the presence of outliers?
Answer:
An outlier is an extreme score in a distribution. The median is less influenced by outliers, making it a suitable choice when extreme values may distort the mean.

Question 9.
What is the mode, and why is it considered easy to obtain?
Answer:
The mode is the value with the highest frequency in a distribution. It is easy to obtain as it can often be identified through observation without complex calculations.

Question 10.
In what situations is the mode particularly useful, and what type of variables can it be applied to?
Answer:
The mode is useful for nominal level variables and can describe the most common scores in a distribution, making it suitable for non-numeric categories such as religion.

II. Answer with in Five/Six sentence :

Question 1.
What are the characteristics of a good measure of central tendency?
Answer:
A good measure of central tendency should be rightly defined, simple to calculate, easy to understand, based on all observations, and least affected by fluctuations in sampling. Rigid definition ensures consistent interpretation, simplicity facilitates practical application, and consideration of all observations enhances representativeness.

Question 2.
Why is the Mean considered the most commonly used measure of central tendency?
Answer:
The Mean is widely used due to its responsiveness to the exact position of each score, sensitivity to extreme scores, and ability to reflect the total of all scores. It is symbolized by ‘M’ or ‘p’ for the population and ‘X-bar’ or ‘M’ for a sample. Additionally, its mathematical properties make it suitable for statistical computations and comparisons.

Question 3.
What is the main limitation of the Mean, and how does it impact its accuracy ? Answer: The Mean is highly sensitive to extreme scores, and a single outlier can significantly distort its value. This sensitivity can lead to a misleading representation of the average, especially when extreme values are present, as demonstrated by its vulnerability to substantial changes based on a single outlier.

Question 4.
How is the Median defined, and what makes it less sensitive to extreme values?
Answer:
The Median is the middle value of a distribution, less sensitive to extreme scores titan the Mean. It represents the 50th percentile, dividing the data into two halves. It is less affected by extreme values, making it a robust measure of central tendency in situations with outliers.

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Education Solutions Chapter 20 Graphical Representation of Data and Measures of Central Tendency

Question 5.
What are the properties of the Median, and why might it be preferred in certain scenarios?
Answer:
The Median is less sensitive to extreme values, making it suitable for distributions with outliers. It offers a better representation of most scores in cases where extreme values may disproportionately influence the Mean. Its calculation is based on the central item rather than each individual score.

Question 6.
How is the Mode defined, and what role does it play in a distribution?
Answer:
The Mode is the score with the highest frequency in a distribution. It reflects the most common value and can be easily identified through observation. Unlike other measures, the Mode is applicable to nominal level variables, such as the most prevalent religion in a population.

Question 7.
What are the limitations of the Mode and why may it not be stable across different samples?
Answer:
The Mode may not be stable across different samples as it is influenced by sampling fluctuations. It can have more than two modes in a set of scores, and its representation is limited to the most frequent value, ignoring the entire dataset.

Question 8.
How does the Mean respond to changes in the exact position of each score?
Answer:
The Mean is highly responsive to changes in the exact position of each score. Any increase or decrease in the value of a score directly impacts the Mean, reflecting its sensitivity to the position of individual scores.

Question 9.
Why might the Median be preferred over the Me’an in certain situations?
Answer:
The Median might be preferred over the Mean when dealing with distributions that have extreme values. Its resistance to the influence of outliers makes it a more reliable measure in situations where extreme scores could distort the overall central tendency.

Question 10.
What is the significance of having a well-defined measure of central tendency in statistical analysis?
Answer:
A well-defined measure of central tendency ensures consistency in interpretation, simplifies calculations and provides a clear understanding of the average or central value, in a distribution. It enhances the reliability of statistical analyses and supports meaningful comparisons across different datasets.

Group – B

Long Type Questions With Answers

Question 1.
How to calculate the Mean from the dara grouped into a Frequency Distribution?

Scores Mid-point X f fX
120-122

117-119

114-116

111-113

108-110

105-107

102-104

99-101

96-98

93-95

90-92

121

118

115

112

109

106

103

100

97

94

91

2

2

2

4

5

9

6

3

4

2

1

242

236

230

448

545

954

618

300

388

188

91

N = 40 Σfx = 4240

Answer:
Mean of M = \(\frac{\Sigma f X}{N}=\frac{4240}{40}\) = 106

Question 2.
Calculation of the Mean by the Method of “Assumed Mean” or Short Method.
CHSE Odisha Class 12 Education Solutions Chapter 20 Graphical Representation of Data and Measures of Central Tendency - 1
Answer:
M = A.M + ci
M = A.M + \(\frac{\Sigma \mathrm{fx}^{\prime}}{\mathrm{N}}\)i
= 106 + \(\frac{0}{40}\) × 3 = 106

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Education Solutions Chapter 20 Graphical Representation of Data and Measures of Central Tendency

Question 3.
Calculating Median for Ungrouped Data.
Answer:
For example, the Median of 7, 9, 8, 6, 4, 5, 3 has to be found out. In such condition, the following things shall have to be kept in mind:

(a) The figures shall have to be put in a serial order like this: 3,4,5,(6),7,8,9.

(b) The number of the figures shall be counted. Then one should be added to the number of ligures, and this total will be divided by 2. The figure situated on the spot is Median of the given figures.

(c) A formula for finding the Median of a series of ungrouped scores is:

Median = the \(\left(\frac{\mathrm{N}+1}{2}\right)^{\text {th }}\) measure in order of size

In our illustration, the Median is on the or \(\left(\frac{\mathrm{7}+1}{2}\right)^{\text {th }}\) score, counting, from either end of the series, i.e. 6.0.

Now, If we drop the first score of 3, our series contains six scores.
4,5,6, ↓ 7,8,9
6.5
In this case our median will be the \(\left(\frac{\mathrm{6}+1}{2}\right)^{\text {th }}\) or 3.5<sup>th</sup> score i.e 6.5

Question 4.
Calculating Median for Grouped Data.
CHSE Odisha Class 12 Education Solutions Chapter 20 Graphical Representation of Data and Measures of Central Tendency - 2
Answer:
In case of Grouped Data, the formula is
Mdn = L + \(\left(\frac{\mathrm{N} / 2-\mathrm{F}}{\mathrm{fm}}\right)\) × i
where, L = Lower limit of the class interval on which the Median lies.
N/2 = One half of the total number of scores or 1/2 of N.
F = Sum of the scores of all intervals below L
fm = Frequency (No. of scores) within the interval upon which the Median falls.
i = Length of class interval.
Here L = 104.5 N = 40 F = 16 fm = 9 i = 3

Mdn = L + \(\left(\frac{\mathrm{N} / 2-\mathrm{F}}{f m}\right)\) × i
= 104.5 + \(\left(\frac{20-16}{9}\right)\)3
= 104.5 + \(\left(\frac{4}{9}\right)\) × 3
= 104.5 + 1.33
= 105.83

Group – C

Objective type Questions with Answers
I. Multiple Choice Questions with Answers :

Question 1.
What is the primary purpose of measures of central tendency?
(i) To create data distributions
(ii) To identify outliers
(iii) To describe the characteristics of the entire dataset
(iv) To calculate the range of the data
Answer:
(iii) To describe the characteristics of the entire dataset

Question 2.
How did English & English (1958) define a measure of central tendency?
(i) A numerical value calculated from a set of related observations
(ii) A statistic derived from a set of distinct and independent observations
(iii) A data point representing the center of the dataset
(iv) A descriptive value calculated from a population sample
Answer:
(ii) A statistic derived from a set of distinct and independent observations

Question 3.
According to Chaplin (1975), what does central tendency refer to?
(i) The average of a distribution of scores
(ii) The spread of data points
(iii) The outliers in a dataset
(iv) The range of a dataset
Answer:
(i) The average of a distribution of scores

Question 4.
What is one function of measures of central tendency?
(i) Generating diverse data points
(ii) Reducing large data into a single value
(iii) Highlighting outliers in the dataset
(iv) Compiling a variety of descriptive statistics
Answer:
(ii) Reducing large data into a single value

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Education Solutions Chapter 20 Graphical Representation of Data and Measures of Central Tendency

Question 5.
In psychology, what does the mean of a sample provide insight into?
(i) The outliers in the population
(ii) The distribution of scores
(iii) The mean of the population
(iv) The standard deviation of the population
Answer:
(iii) The mean of the population

Question 6.
How do measures of central tendency aid in decision-making?
(i) By creating variability in data
(ii) By providing a single representative value
(iii) By emphasizing outliers
(iv) By calculating the standard deviation
Answer:
(ii) By providing a single representative value

Question 7.
What does the concept of central tendency help in estimating and planning?
(i) Identifying outliers
(ii) Planning for water resources
(iii) Creating diverse datasets
(iv) Generating multiple summary figures
Answer:
(ii) Planning for water resources

Question 8.
How do measures of central tendency facilitate comparison?
(i) By highlighting outliers
(ii) By providing a single value to represent data
(iii) By creating variability in datasets
(iv) By emphasizing extreme values
Answer:
(ii) By providing a single value to represent data

Question 9.
In the example with the IQ test and video games, what did the average IQ suggest?
(i) Video games have no impact on mental functioning
(ii) Video games negatively impact mental functioning
(iii) Video games improve mental functioning
(iv) Video games are unrelated to IQ
Answer:
(iii) Video games improve mental functioning

Question 10.
How can measures of central tendency be used for comparing groups over time?
(i) By focusing on extreme values
(ii) By calculating the range of the data
(iii) By providing a single representative value
(iv) By emphasizing outliers in each group
Answer:
(iii) By providing a single representative value

Question 11.
What is the purpose of statistical distribution in statistics?
(i) Representing gender ratios
(ii) Describing the properties of data distribution
(iii) Calculating probability density functions
(iv) Arranging data in a frequency table
Answer:
(ii) Describing the properties of data distribution

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Education Solutions Chapter 20 Graphical Representation of Data and Measures of Central Tendency

Question 12.
In statistical distributions, what are the two main types mentioned?
(i) Discrete and Continuous
(ii) Male and Female
(iii) Mean and Median
(iv) Odd and Even
Answer:
(i) Discrete and Continuous

Question 13.
What characterizes a discrete random variable distribution?
(i) Precise, isolated numerical values
(ii) Values within an interval or span
(iii) Male and female categories
(iv) Probability density functions
Answer:
(i) Precise, isolated numerical values

Question 14.
In a continuous random variable distribution, what is another term used for it?
(i) Discrete distribution
(ii) Median distribution
(iii) Probability density function
(iv) Range distribution
Answer:
(iii) Probability density function

Question 15.
How is the mean calculated for discrete data?
(i) Adding middle items and dividing by two
(ii) Using a formula with an unbroken interval
(iii) Adding up all scores and dividing by the number of scores
(iv) Dividing scores by the sum of X1 + X2 +
Answer:
(iii) Adding up all scores and dividing by the number of scores

Question 16.
What is the midpoint of a series of data called?
(i) Range
(ii) Mode
(iii) Median
(iv) Mean
Answer:
(iii) Medina

Question 17.
If a discrete data set has an even number of scores, how is the median calculated?
(i) Taking the average of the middle two items
(ii) Adding the middle two items
(iii) Using the formula X1 + X2 +… / Xn
(iv) Ignoring the middle two items
Answer:
(i) Taking the average of the middle two items

Question 18.
What is the mode of a distribution with a discrete random variable?
(i) Value that occurs the most often
(ii) Average of all scores
(iii) Middle item in a series
(iv) Probability density function
Answer:
(i) Value that occurs the most often

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Education Solutions Chapter 20 Graphical Representation of Data and Measures of Central Tendency

Question 19.
How is the mode calculated for a distribution with a continuous random variable?
(i) Using the formula X1 + X2 + …
(ii) Taking the average of the middle two items
(iii) Using a specific formula (to be covered in another unit)
(iv) Ignoring the middle two items
Answer:
(iii) Using a specific formula (to be covered in another unit)

Question 20.
What is a distribution with two modes called?
(i) Unimodal
(ii) Bimodal
(iii) Trimodal
(iv) Multimodal
Answer:
(ii) Bimodal

Question 21.
In a continuous distribution, what is the 50th percentile item called?
(i) Mean
(ii) Median
(iii) Mode
(iv) Range
Answer:
(ii) Median

Question 22.
What is the primary difference between discrete and continuous random variable distributions?
(i) Discrete has isolated values, while continuous has values within an interval
(ii) Discrete is for males, while continuous is for females
(iii) Discrete is for mode, while continuous is for mean
(iv) Discrete is for median, while continuous is for range
Answer:
(i) Discrete has isolated values, while continuous has values within an interval

Question 23.
Which term refers to the average of all the scores in a distribution?
(i) Mode
(ii) Median
(iii) Mean
(iv) Range
Answer:
(iii) Mean

Question 24.
If a distribution with a discrete random variable has more than one mode, what is it called?
(i) Bimodal
(ii) Unimodal
(iii) Trimodal
(iv) Multimodal
Answer:
(i) Bimodal

II. Fill in the Blanks

Question 1.
The definition of the measure of Central tendency should be so clear that it should lead to _____ by all persons.
Answer:
one interpretation

Question 2.
A good measure should be possible to calculate in a simple manner, avoiding too many _____ calculations.
Answer:
complex and high

Question 3.
The measure of central tendency, irrespective of it being mean, mode, or median, must be easily understandable in terms of what it conveys.
Answer:
True

Question 4.
A good measure of central tendency should be based on _____ .
Answer:
all observations

Question 5.
The central tendency should take into consideration all the scores to avoid bias in the measure. Leaving out extreme scores may lead to an incorrect _____.
Answer:
measure

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Education Solutions Chapter 20 Graphical Representation of Data and Measures of Central Tendency

Question 6.
Sampling is the term used when taking a _____ from a population for study.
Answer:
sample

Question 7.
The most commonly used measures of central tendency in psychology are the _____, _____, and _____.
Answer:
Mean,- Median, and Mode

Question 8.
The arithmetic mean is the sum of all scores divided by the total number of scores. The symbol for the mean is _____ for the population and _____ for a sample.
Answer:
μ(mue), X(X-bar or M)

Question 9.
The mean is responsive to the exact position of each score, and it is sensitive to the presence (or absence) of _____ scores.
Answer:
extreme

Question 10.
The mean is the best choice when a measure of central tendency should reflect the _____ of the scores.
Answer:
total

Question 11.
The mean is often incorporated implicitly or explicitly in further statistical computations because it fits well with other _____ and _____.
Answer:
formulas, procedures

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Education Solutions Chapter 20 Graphical Representation of Data and Measures of Central Tendency

Question 12.
One of the important limitations of the mean is its sensitivity to _____.
Answer:
extreme scores

Question 13.
The median is the value that divides the distribution into two halves and is less sensitive to in _____ the distribution.
Answer:
extreme values

Question 14.
The median is less sensitive to extreme values in the distribution, making it a better choice when dealing with _____.
Answer:
Outliers

Question 15.
The mode is the only measure of central tendency that can be used for _____ level variables.
Answer:
Nominal

Question 16.
Mode is not stable from sample to sample and is more affected by _____.
Answer:
Sampling fluctuation

Question 17.
There may be more than two modes for a particular set of scores, creating a _____ distribution.
Answer:
Multimodal

II. Correct the Sentences:

Question 1.
A good measure of central tendency should be rightly defined.
Answer:
A good measure of central tendency should be rigidly defined.

Question 2.
Definitions of measures of central tendency should be so clear that it leads to one interpretation by all persons.
Answer:
Definitions of measures of central tendency should be so clear that they result in one interpretation by all persons.

Question 3.
Measures of central tendency should be possible to calculate in a simple manner; too many complex calculations will not make the measure good.
Answer:
Measures of central tendency should be possible to calculate in a simple manner; too many complex calculations will hot make the measure good.

Question 4.
The central tendency should be based on all observations.
Answer:
The central tendency should be based on all observations.

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Education Solutions Chapter 20 Graphical Representation of Data and Measures of Central Tendency

Question 5.
The measure of central tendency must be based on all obseryations; leaving out extreme values may lead to incorrect results.
Answer:
The measure of central tendency must be based on all observations; leaving out extreme values may lead to incorrect results.

Question 6.
In sampling, if two samples are randomly selected from the same population, the value of average for both of them should be exactly the same.
Answer:
In sampling, if two samples are randomly selected from the same population, the values of average for both of them should be near to each other.

Question 7.
The mean is the sum of all the scores in a distribution divided by the total number of scores.
Answer:
The mean is the sum of all the scores in a distribution divided by the total number of scores.

Question 8.
The mean is not responsive to the exact position of each score.
Answer:
The mean is responsive to the exact position of each score.

Question 9.
The median is the value that divides the distribution into two halves.
Answer:
The median is the value that divides the distribution into two halves.

Question 10.
The median is less sensitive to extreme values in the distribution.
Answer:
The median is less sensitive to extreme values in the distribution.

IV. Answer the following questions in one word :

Question 1.
What is statistical distribution used to describe in a population?
Answer:
Data distribution

Question 2.
What are the two main types of statistical distributions?
Answer:
Discrete and continuous

Question 3.
What does the mean represent in a distribution?
Answer:
Average

Question 4.
In a continuous distribution, what is another term for the mean 7
Answer:
Probability density function

Question 5.
How is the mean calculated for discrete data?
Answer:
Sum of scores divided by the number of scores What is the midpoint of a series of data called?
Answer:
Median

Question 6.
If a data set has an even number of scores, how is the median calculated?
Answer:
Average of the middle two items

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Education Solutions Chapter 20 Graphical Representation of Data and Measures of Central Tendency

Question 7.
What does the mode represent in a distribution?
Answer:
Most frequent value

Question 8.
What is a distribution with two modes called?
Answer:
Bimodal

Question 9.
What is the 50th percentile item in a series called?
Answer:
Median

Question 10.
What term is used when taking a sample from a population for study?
Answer:
Sampling

Question 11.
What does the mean symbol (p) represent in a population?
Answer:
Mean of the population

Question 12.
What is the primary limitation of the mean?
Answer:
Sensitivity to extreme values

Question 13.
What is the median value in a series that divides it into two halves?
Answer:
Median

Question 14.
What does the mode measure in a distribution?
Answer:
Maximum frequency

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Education Solutions Chapter 20 Graphical Representation of Data and Measures of Central Tendency

Histogram : A histogram is the graphical description of data and is constructed from a frequency table. It displays the distribution method of a data set and is used for statistical as well as mathematical calculations. The word histogram is derived from the Greek word histos which means ‘anything set upright’ and gramma which means ‘drawing, record, writing’. It is considered as the most important basic tool of statistical quality control process. In this type of representation, the given data are plotted in the form of a series of rectangles.

Class intervals are marked along the X-axis and the frequencies along the Y-axis according to a suitable scale. Unlike the bar chart, which is one-dimensional, meaning that only the length of the bar is important and not the width, a histogram is two-dimensional in which both the length and the width are important. A histogram is constructed from a frequency distribution of a grouped data where the height of the rectangle is proportional to the respective frequency and the width represents the class interval.

Each rectangle is joined with the other and any blank spaces between the rectangles would mean that the category is empty and there are no values in that class interval. As an example, let us construct a histogram for our example of ages of 30 workers. For convenience sake, we will present the frequency distribution along with the mid-point of each interval, where the mid-point is simply the average of the values of the lower and upper boundary of each class interval. The frequency distribution table is shown as follows:

The frequency distribution table is shown as follows :

Class Interval (Years) Mid-point f
15 and upto 25 20 5
25 and upto 35 30 3
35 and upto 45 40 7
45 and upto 55 50 5
55 and upto 65 60 3
65 and upto 75 70 7

Histogram of Age Distrubution
CHSE Odisha Class 12 Education Solutions Chapter 20 Graphical Representation of Data and Measures of Central Tendency - 3

Constructing a Frequency Distribution :

Age Group (Years) Frequency
20 to less than 25 5
25 to less than 30 15
30 to less than 35 25
35 to less than 40 30
40 to less than 45 15
45 to less than 50 10
Total 100

The number of groups and the size of class interval are more or less arbitrary in nature within the general guidelines established for constructing a frequency distribution. The following guidelines for such a construction may be considered:

(i) The classes should be clearly defined and each of the observations should be included in only one of the class intervals. This means that the intervals should be chosen in such a manner that one score cannot belong to more than one class interval, so that there is no overlapping of class intervals.

(ii) The number of classes should neither be too large nor too small. Normally, between 6 and 15 classes are considered to be adequate. Fewer class intervals would mean a greater class interval width with consequent loss of accuracy. Too many class intervals result in a greater complexity.

(iii) All intervals should be of the same width. This is preferred for easy computations. A suitable class width can be obtained by knowing the range of data (which is the absolute difference between the highest value and the lowest value in the data) and the number of classes which are predetermined, so that: The width of the interval = Range / Number of classes In the case of ages of factory workers where the youngest worker was 20 years old and the oldest was 50 years old, the range would be 50-20 = 30. If we decide to make 10 groups then the width of each class would be: 30/10 = 3 Similarly, if we decide to make 6 classes instead of 10, then the width of each class interval would be: 30/6 = 5

(iv) Open-ended cases where there is no lower limit of the first group or no upper limit of the last group should be avoided since this creates difficulty in analysis and interpretation. (The lower and upper values of a class interval are known as lower and upper limits.)

(v) Intervals should be continuous throughout the distribution. For example, in the case of factory workers, we could group them in groups of 20 to 24 years, then 25 to 29 years, and so on, but it would be highly misleading because it does not accurately represent the person who is between 24 and 25 years or between 29 and 30 years, and so on. Accordingly, it is more representative to group them as: 20 years to less than 25 years, 25 years to less than 30 years. In this way, everybody who is 20 years and a fraction less than 25 years is included in the first category and the person who is exactly 25 years and above but a fraction less than 30 years would be included in the second category, and so on. This is especially important for continuous distributions.

(vi) The lower limits of class intervals should be simple multiples of the interval width. This is primarily for the purpose of simplicity in construction and interpretation. In our example of 20 years but less than 25 years, 25 years but less than 30 years, and 30 years but less than 35 years, the lower limit values for each class are simple multiples of the class width which is 5.

Frequency polygon : A frequency polygon is a line chart of frequency distribution in which either the values of discrete variables or mid-points of class intervals are plotted against the frequencies and these plotted points are joined together by straight lines. Since the frequencies generally do not start at zero or end at zero, this diagram as such would not touch the horizontal axis.

However, since the area under the entire curve is the same as that of a histogram which is 100 per cent of the data presented, the curve can be enclosed so that the starting point is joined with a fictitious preceding point whose value is zero, so that the start of the curve is at horizontal axis and the last point is joined with a fictitious succeeding point whose value is also zero, so that the curve ends at the horizontal axis. This enclosed diagram is known as the frequency polygon.

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Education Solutions Chapter 20 Graphical Representation of Data and Measures of Central Tendency - 5

Pie chart: This type of diagram enables us to show the partitioning of a total into its component parts. The diagram is in the form of a circle and is also called a pie because the entire diagram looks like a pie and the components resemble slices cut from it. The size of the slice represents the proportion of the component out of the whole.

Item % Expenditure
Labour 25
Cement, Bricks 30
Steel 15
Timber, Glass 20
Miscellaneous 10

 

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Education Solutions Chapter 19 Frequency Distribution

Odisha State Board CHSE Odisha Class 12 Education Solutions Chapter 19 Frequency Distribution Questions and Answers.

CHSE Odisha 12th Class Education Chapter 19 Question Answer Frequency Distribution

Group – A

Short type Questions with Answers
I. Answer with in Two/Three sentence :

Question 1.
What is a frequency distribution, and why is it used in statistics?
Answer:
A frequency distribution is a tabular representation of statistical data that lists the values of a variable along with their respective frequencies. It is used to organize and summarize data, providing insights into the distribution and patterns within the dataset.

Question 2.
What is the difference between ungrouped and grouped frequency distributions?
Answer:
An ungrouped frequency distribution lists individual values and their frequencies, suitable for a small set of data. In contrast, a grouped frequency distribution organizes data into intervals or classes, making it more practical for larger datasets.

Question 3.
How can class intervals be determined in a frequency distribution?
Answer:
Class intervals should be clearly defined, not too large or too small, and of the same width. The width of each interval is calculated using the formula: Width = Range / Number of classes.

Question 4.
Why should open-ended cases in class intervals be avoided in a frequency distribution?
Answer:
Open-ended cases, where there is polower limit of the first group or no upper limit of the last group, should be avoided because they create difficulties in analysis and interpretation, hindering the accurate representation of data.

Question 5.
What is the significance of having a suitable number of classes in a frequency distribution?
Answer:
The number of classes should be neither too large nor too small; typically, between 6 and 15 classes are considered adequate. Fewer classes result in wider intervals, leading to loss of accuracy, while too many classes complicate the distribution.

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Education Solutions Chapter 19 Frequency Distribution

Question 6.
How is cumulative frequency related to a frequency distribution?
Answer:
Cumulative frequency represents the sum of consecutive frequencies in a frequency distribution. It provides information about the total number of units below or above specified values of class intervals.

Question 7.
Why should class intervals be continuous throughout a frequency distribution?
Answer:
Continuous intervals ensure that every data point falls into precisely one class, avoiding misrepresentation. For example, age groups like 20-24 and 25-29 are more representative than 24-25 and 29-30.

Question 8.
What is the purpose of a less than cumulative frequency distribution?
Answer:
A less than cumulative frequency distribution focuses on determining the number of units below a specified upper limit of a class interval, aiding in analyzing data distribution.

Question 9.
How is the width of class intervals calculated in a frequency distribution?
Answer:
The width of class intervals is determined by dividing^the range of data (difference between highest and lowest values) by the number of classes.

II. Answer with in Five/Six sentence :

Question 1.
What is a frequency distribution, and how does it organize statistical data?
Answer:
A frequency distribution organizes statistical data by listing the values of a variable and their corresponding frequencies in a tabular form. It provides a clear summary of how often each value occurs in the data set. For instance, if we survey 20 families to determine the number of children they have, the resulting raw data can be organized into an ungrouped frequency distribution by listing the frequencies against each unique value.

Question 2.
What are the guidelines for constructing a frequency distribution?
Answer:
Constructing a frequency distribution involves defining clear classes, determining an appropriate number of classes (usually between 6 and 15), ensuring uniform class width, avoiding open-ended cases, and maintaining continuity throughout the distribution. The lower limits of class intervals should be simple multiples of the interval width for simplicity in construction and interpretation. These guidelines contribute to a meaningful and accurate representation of the data.

Question 3.
How can class intervals be determined in a frequency distribution?
Answer:
Class intervals in a frequency distribution are determined by considering the range of data (difference between the highest and lowest values) and the number of desired classes. The formula for the width of each interval is Width = Range / Number of classes. This ensures that the intervals are of equal width, facilitating easy computation and interpretation.

Question 4.
What is the importance of cumulative frequency in a distribution?
Answer:
Cumulative frequency provides information about the total number of units below or above specified values in a distribution. Less than cumulative frequency distribution focuses on the number of items below a specified upper limit, while greater than cumulative frequency distribution focuses on the number of cases above a specified lower limit. It aids in understanding the distribution’s cumulative impact and is useful for various analytical purposes.

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Education Solutions Chapter 19 Frequency Distribution

Question 5.
Why are relative frequency and percentage frequency useful in statistical analysis?
Answer:
Relative frequency, obtained by dividing the frequency in each class by the total number of observations, allows for comparing distributions of different sizes. Percentage frequency, derived from relative frequency by multiplying by 100, expresses the proportion of cases in each group. These measures are particularly helpful in meaningful comparisons when dealing with unequal sample sizes, as percentages make the comparison independent of the total number of case.

Question 6.
What is the purpose of cumulative relative frequency distribution?
Answer:
Cumulative relative frequency distribution indicates the proportion or percentage of cases falling below or above a specific score point. A less than cumulative relative frequency distribution shows the proportion of cases below the upper limit of a class interval, while a greater than cumulative relative frequency distribution shows the proportion above the lower limit. These distributions provide valuable insights into the cumulative distribution pattern of the data.

Question 7.
How is a percentage frequency distribution calculated, and why is it beneficial?
Answer:
A percentage frequency distribution is obtained by multiplying each relative frequencyby 100. It expresses the proportion of cases in each class interval as a percentage of the total. This is beneficial for comparing distributions, as percentages make the comparison independent of the total number of cases. In the context of the example, it helps understand the distribution of the number of children in families as a percentage of the total surveyed.

Question 8.
Why should open-ended cases in constructing frequency distributions be avoided?
Answer:
Open-ended cases, where there is no lower limit for the first group or no upper limit for the last group, should be avoided in constructing frequency distributions. This avoidance is crucial because open-ended cases create difficulties in analysis and interpretation. Clearly defined class intervals with both lower and upper limits ensure accuracy and consistency in representing the data.

Question 9.
What role does class interval width play in constructing a frequency distribution?
Answer:
Class interval width, determined by the range of data and the number of classes, plays a crucial role in constructing a frequency distribution. It influences the clarity of representation, ease of computation, and the overall accuracy of the distribution. Uniform class interval width is preferred for simplifying calculations and facilitating a meaningful interpretation of the data.

Question 10.
In what scenarios can a relative frequency distribution be particularly helpful?
Answer:
Relative frequency distributions are particularly helpful when comparing two or more distributions with different sample sizes. By expressing the frequency of each class as a proportion of the total, relative frequency allows for a fair comparison regardless of the overall size of the samples or populations under consideration. This makes it a valuable tool for researchers and analysts seeking meaningful comparisons in diverse data sets.

Group – B

Long Type Questions With Answers

Question 1.
How is a frequency distribution constructed?
Answer:
Statistical data can be organized into a frequency distribution which simply lists the value of the variable and frequency of its occurrence in a tabular form. A frequency distribution can be defined as the list of all the values obtained in the data and the corresponding frequency with which these values occur in the data. The frequency distribution can either be ungrouped or grouped. When the number of values of the variable is small, then we can construct an ungrouped frequency distribution which is simply listing the frequency of occurrence against the value of the given variable. As an example, let ns assume that 20 families were surveyed to find out how many children each family had. The raw data obtained from the survey is as follows: 0,2,3,1,1,3,4,2,0,3,4,2,2,1,0,4,1,2,2,3

This data can be classified into an ungrouped frequency distribution. The number of children becomes our variable (X) for which we can list the frequency of occurrence (f) in a tabular form as follows:

Constructing a Frequency Distribution :

Age Group (Years) Frequency
20 to less than 25 5
25 to less than 30 15
30 to less than 35 25
35 to less than 40 30
40 to less than 45 15
45 to less than 50 10
Total 100

The number of groups and the size of class interval are more or less arbitrary in nature within the general guidelines established for constructing a frequency distribution. The following guidelines for such a construction may be considered:

(i) The classes should be clearly defined, and each of the observations should be included in only one of the class intervals. This means that the intervals should be chosen in such a manner that one score cannot belong to more than one class interval, so that there is no overlapping of class intervals.

(ii) The number of classes should neither be too large nor too small. Normally, between 6 and 15 classes are considered to be adequate. Fewer class intervals would mean a greater class interval width with consequent loss of accuracy. Too many class intervals result in a greater complexity.

(iii) All intervals should be of the same width. This is preferred for easy computations. A suitable class width can be obtained by knowing the range of data (which is the absolute difference between the highest value and the lowest value in the data) and the number of classes which are predetermined, so that: The width of the interval = Range / Number of classes In the case of ages of factory workers where the youngest worker was 20 years old and the oldest was 50 years old, the range would be 50-20 = 30. If we decide to make 10 groups then the width of each class would be: 30/10 = 3 Similarly, if we decide to make 6 classes instead of 10, then the width of each class interval would be: 30/6 = 5

(iv) Open-ended cases where there is no lower limit of the first group or no upper limit of the last group should be avoided since this creates difficulty in analysis and interpretation. (The lower and upper values of a class interval are known as lower and upper limits.)

(v) Intervals should be continuous throughout the distribution. For example, in the case of factory workers, we could group them in groups of 20 to 24 years, then 25 to 29 years, and so on, but it would be highly misleading because it does not accurately represent the person who is between 24 and 25 years or between 29 and 30 years, and so on. Accordingly, it is more representative to group them as: 20 years to less than 25 years, 25 years to less than 30 years. In this way, everybody who is 20 years and a fraction less than 25 years is included in the first category and the person who is exactly 25 years and above but a fraction less than 30 years would be included in the second category, and so on. This is especially important for continuous distributions.

(vi) The lower limits of class intervals should be simple multiples of the interval width. This is primarily for the purpose of simplicity in construction and interpretation. In our example of 20 years but less than 25 years, 25 years but less than 30 years, and 30 years but less than 35 years, the lower limit values for each class are simple multiples of the class width which is 5

Group – C

Objective type Questions with Answers
I. Multiple Choice Quotums with Answers

Question 1.
What is a frequency distribution?
(i) A summary of raw data
(ii) A collection of unorganized data
(iii) A representation Of qualitative information
(iv) An individual data point
Answer:
(i) A summary of raw data

Question 2.
In constructing a frequency distribution, when is an ungrouped frequency distribution suitable?
(i) When the number of values’is large
(ii) When the data is continuous
(iii) When the number of values is small
(iv) When the data is categorical
Answer:
(iii) When the number bf values is small

Question 3.
What guidelines are considered for determining the number of classes in a frequency distribution?
(i) Between 1 and 5 classes are considered adequate
(ii) Between 6 and 15 classes are considered adequate
(iii) As many classes as possible for accuracy
(iv) No specific guidelines for the number of classes
Answer:
(ii) Between 6 and 15 classes are considered adequate

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Education Solutions Chapter 19 Frequency Distribution

Question 4.
How is the width of a class interval determined in a frequency distribution?
(i) It is arbitrary and depends on personal preference
(ii) Width = Range / Number of classes
(iii) It is always the same for all distributions
(iv) It is irrelevant in frequency distribution construction
Answer:
(ii) Width = Range / Number of classes

Question 5.
Why should open-ended cases in class intervals be avoided in frequency distribution?
(i) They provide more flexibility in analysis
(ii) They simplify computations
(iii) They create difficulties in analysis and interpretation
(iv) They are necessary for continuous distributions
Answer:
(iii) They create difficulties in analysis and interpretation

Question 6.
What is cumulative frequency in a frequency distribution?
(i) The total number of units in each class interval
(ii) The sum of consecutive frequencies
(iii) The highest frequency in the distribution
(iv) The average frequency per class
Answer:
(ii) The sum of consecutive frequencies

Question 7.
What does a less than cumulative frequency distribution represent?
(i) The number of cases above a specified value
(ii) The proportion of cases below the upper limit of a class interval
(iii) The percentage of cases falling between two values
(iv) The average frequency in a distribution
Answer:
(ii) The proportion of cases below the upper limit of a class interval

Question 8.
What does a greater than cumulative frequency distribution represent?
(i) The total number of cases in the distribution
(ii) The proportion of cases above the lower limit of a class interval
(iii) The cumulative frequency of the highest class interval
(iv) The percentage of cases falling between two values
Answer:
(ii) The proportion of cases above the lower limit of a class interval

Question 9.
What does a relative frequency distribution represent?
(i) The total number of observations in a distribution
(ii) The proportion of cases in each class relative to the total
(iii) The sum of frequencies in a distribution
(iv) The cumulative frequency of the highest class interval
Answer:
(ii) The proportion of cases in each class relative to the total

Question 10.
How is a percentage frequency calculated in a frequency distribution?
(i) By dividing the frequency by the total number of observations
(ii) By multiplying the frequency by the class width
(iii) By dividing the cumulative frequency by the total number of observations
(iv) By multiplying the relative frequency by 100
Answer:
(iv) By multiplying the relative frequency by 100

II. Fill in the blanks :

Question 1.
Statistical data can be organized into a _____ distribution, which lists the value of the variable and the frequency of its occurrence in a tabular form.
Answer:
Frequency

Question 2.
When the number of values is small, an _____ frequency distribution can be constructed by listing the frequency of occurrence against the value of the given variable.
Answer:
Ungrouped

Question 3.
The width of each class interval in a frequency distribution can be calculated using the formula: Width of the interval = _____
Answer:
Range / Number of classes

Question 4.
In constructing a frequency distribution, it is important that all intervals should be of _____.
Answer:
The same width

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Education Solutions Chapter 19 Frequency Distribution

Question 5.
The lower and upper values of a class interval are known as _____ and _____ respectively.
Answer:
Lower limits, Upper limits

Question 6.
Intervals in a frequency distribution should be continuous throughout to accurately represent individuals within each _____.
Answer:
Category

Question 7.
Cumulative frequency distribution helps determine the total number of units that lie or _____ the _____ specified values of class intervals.
Answer:
Below, Above

Question 8.
The cumulative frequency distribution with interest in the number of items below a specified value is known as a _____ cumulative frequency distribution.
Answer:
Less than

Question 9.
Percentage frequency distribution is obtained by multiplying each relative frequency by _____
Answer:
100

Question 10.
A _____ relative frequency distribution shows the proportion of cases lying below the upper limit of a specific class interval:
Answer:
Less than

III. Answer the following questions in one word:

Question 1.
What is a frequency distribution?
Answer:
A frequency distribution is a tabular representation of statistical data, listing values of a variable along with the corresponding frequencies of their occurrence.

Question 2.
How is an ungrouped frequency distribution different from a grouped frequency distribution?
Answer:
An ungrouped frequency distribution lists frequencies for individual values, while a grouped frequency distribution categorizes values into intervals and lists the frequencies for each interval.

Question 3.
What is the purpose of constructing a frequency distribution?
Answer:
The purpose of constructing a frequency distribution is to organize and summarize data, making it easier to analyze and interpret patterns.

Question 4.
What is the range of data, and how is it calculated?
Answer:
The range of data is the absolute difference between the highest and lowest values. It is calculated as Range = Highest Value – Lowest Value.

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Education Solutions Chapter 19 Frequency Distribution

Question 5.
Why is it important to avoid open-ended cases in constructing a frequency distribution?
Answer:
Open-ended cases create difficulty in analysis and interpretation as they lack either a lower limit for the first group or an upper limit for the last group.

Question 6.
What does the term “cumulative frequency” represent in a distribution?
Answer:
Cumulative frequency represents the running total of frequencies in a distribution up to a specific point, either less than or greater than a specified value.

Question 7.
How is the width of a class interval determined in constructing a frequency distribution ? Answer: The width of a class interval is determined by dividing the range of data by the number of classes: Width = Range / Number of Classes.

Question 8.
Why should intervals be continuous in a frequency distribution?
Answer:
Continuous intervals ensure that each observation is accurately represented, avoiding misleading representations in the distribution.

Question 9.
What is the purpose of a cumulative relative frequency distribution?
Answer:
A cumulative relative frequency distribution provides the proportion or percentage of cases below or above specific score points in a distribution.

Question 10.
How is the percentage frequency calculated in a relative frequency distribution?
Answer:
Percentage frequency is calculated by multiplying each relative frequency by 100 in a relative frequency distribution.

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Education Solutions Chapter 19 Frequency Distribution

Statistical data can be organized into a frequency distribution which simply lists the value of the variable and frequency of its occurrence in a tabular form. A frequency distribution , can be defined as the list of all the values obtained in the data and the corresponding frequency with which these values occur in the data.

The frequency distribution can either be ungrouped or grouped. When the number of values of the variable is small, then we can construct an ungrouped frequency distribution which is simply listing the frequency of occurrence against the value of the given variable. As an example, let us assume that 20 families were surveyed to find out how many children each family had. The raw data obtained from the survey is as follows: 0,2,3, 1,1,3,4,2,0,3,4,2,2,1,0,4,1,2,2,3

This data can be classified into an ungrouped frequency distribution. The number of children becomes our variable (X) for which we can list the frequency of occurrence (f) in a tabular form as follows:
Constructing a Frequency Distribution :

Age Group (Years) Frequency
20 to less than 25 5
25 to less than 30 15
30 to less than 35 25
35 to less than 40 30
40 to less than 45 15
45 to less than 50 10
Total 100

The number of groups and the size of class interval are more or less arbitrary in nature within the general guidelines established for constructing a frequency distribution. The following guidelines for such a construction may be considered:

(i) The classes should be clearly defined and each of the observations should be included in only one of the class intervals. This means that the intervals should be chosen in such a manner that one score cannot belong to more than one class interval, so that there is no overlapping of class intervals.

(ii) The number of classes should neither be too large nor too small. Normally, between 6 and 15 classes are considered to be adequate. Fewer class intervals would mean a greater class interval width with consequent loss of accuracy. Too many class intervals result in a greater complexity.

(iii) All intervals should be of the same width. This is preferred for easy computations.’A suitable class width can be obtained by knowing the range of data (which is the absolute difference between the highest value and the lowest value in the data) and the number of classes which are predetermined, so that:

Range Number of classes In the case of ages of factory workers where the youngest worker was 20 years old and the oldest was 50 years old, the range would be 50-20 = 30. If we decide to make 10 groups then the width of each class would be: 30/10 = 3 Similarly, if we decide to make 6 classes instead of 10, then the width of each class interval would be: 30/6 = 5.

(iv) Open-ended cases where there is no lower limit of the first group or no upper limit of the last group should be avoided since this creates difficulty in analysis and interpretation. (The lower and upper values of a class interval are known as lower and upper limits.)

(v) Intervals should be continuous throughout the distribution. For example, in the case of factory workers, we could group them in groups of 20 to 24 years, then 25 to 29 years, and so on, but it would be highly misleading because it does not accurately represent the person who is between 24 and 25 years or between‘29 and 30 years, and so on. Accordingly, it is more representative to group them as: 20 years to less than 25 years, 25 years to less than 30 years. In this way, everybody who is 20 years and a fraction less than 25 years is included in the first category and the person who is exactly 25 years and above but a fraction less than 30 years would be included in the second category, and so on. This is especially important for continuous distributions.

(vi) The lower limits of class intervals should be simple multiples of the interval width. This is primarily for the purpose of simplicity in construction and interpretation. In our example of 20 years but less than 25 years, 25 years but less than 30 years, and 30 years but less than 35 years,, the lower limit values for each class are simple multiples of the class width which is 5.

Cumulative Frequency:
While the frequency distribution table tells us the number of units in each class interval, it does not tell us directly the total number of units that lie below or above the specified values of class intervals. This can be determined from a cumulative frequency distribution. When the interest of the investigator focusses on the number of items below a specified value, then this specified value is the upper limit of the class interval. It is known as less than cumulative frequency distribution. Similarly, when the interest lies in finding the number of cases above a specified value, then this value is taken as the lower limit of the specified class interval and is known as more than cumulative frequency distribution. The cumulative frequency simply means summing up the consecutive

Class Interval (Years) Frequency (f) Cumulative Frequency (Greater Than)
15 and up to 25

25 and up to 35

35 and up to 45

45 and up to 55

55 and up to 65

65 and up to 75

5

3

7

5

3

7

30 (greater than 15)

25 (greater than 25)

22 (greater than 35)

15 (greater than 45)

10 (greater than 55)

7 (greater than 65)

 

Class Interval (Years) Frequency (f) Cumulative Frequency (Greater Than)
15 and up to 25

25 and up to 35

35 and up to 45

45 and up to 55

55 and up to 65

65 and up to 75

5

3

7

5

3

7

30 (greater than 15)

25 (greater than 25)

22 (greater than 35)

15 (greater than 45)

10 (greater than 55)

7 (greater than 65)

Percentage Frequency :
The frequency distribution, as defined earlier, is a summary table in which the original data is condensed into groups and their frequencies. But if a researcher would like to know the proportion or the percentage of cases in each group, instead of simply the number of cases, he can do so by constructing a relative frequency distribution table. The relative frequency distribution can be formed by dividing the frequency in each class of the frequency distribution by the total number of observations.

It can be converted into a percentage frequency distribution by simply multiplying each relative frequency by 100. The relative frequencies are particularly helpful when comparing two or more frequency distributions in which the number of cases under investigation is not equal. The percentage distributions make such a comparison more meaningful, since percentages are relative frequencies and hence the total number in the sample or population under consideration becomes irrelevant. Carrying on with the earlier example:

Class Interval (Years) Frequency (f) Relative Frequency (Rel. Freq.) Percentage Frequency (% Freq.)
15 and up to 25

25 and up to 3535 and up to 45

45 and up to 55

55 and up to 65

65 and up to 75

5

3

7

5

3

7

5/30 = 1/6

3/30 = 1/10

7/30 = 7/30

5/30 = 1/6

3/30 = 1/10

7/30 = 7/30

16.7

10.0

23.3

16.7

10.0

23.3

Total 30 1.0 100.0

Cumulative relative frequency distribution :
It is often useful to know the proportion or the percentage of cases falling below a particular score point or falling above a particular score point. A less than cumulative relative frequency distribution shows the proportion of cases lying below the upper limit of specific class interval. Similarly, a greater than cumulative frequency distribution shows the proportion of cases above the lower limit of a specified class interval. We can , develop the cumulative relative frequency distributions from the less than and greater than cumulative frequency distributions constructed earlier. By following the earlier example, we get:

Class Interval (Years) Cumulative Frequency (Cum. Freq.) Cumulative Relative Frequency (Cum. Rel. Freq.)
Less than 25 5 5/30 or 16.7%
Less than 35 8 8/30 or 26.7%
Less than 45 15 15/30 or 50.0%
Less than 55 20 20/30 or 66.7%
Less than 65 23 23/30 or 76.7%
Less than 75 30 30/30 or 100%

 

Class Interval (Years) Cumulative Frequency (Cum. Freq.) Cumulative Relative Frequency (Cum. Rel. Freq.)
15 and above 30 30 30/30 or 100%
25 and above 35 25 25/30 or 83.3%
35 and above 45 22 22/30 or 73.3%
45 and above 55 15 15/30 or 50.0%
55 and above 65 10 10/30 or 33.3%
65 and above 75 7 7/30 or 23.3%

In this example, 100 per cent of the persons are above 15 years of age, 73.3 per cent are above 35 years of age and so on. (It should be noted that the less than cumulative frequency distribution is summed up from top downwards and the greater than cumulative frequency distribution is summed from bottom upwards).

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Education Solutions Chapter 18 Statistics: Meaning, Nature, and Uses

Odisha State Board CHSE Odisha Class 12 Education Solutions Chapter 18 Statistics: Meaning, Nature, and Uses Questions and Answers.

CHSE Odisha 12th Class Education Chapter 18 Question Answer Statistics: Meaning, Nature, and Uses

Group – A

Short type Questions with Answers
1. Answer with in Two/Three sentence :

Question 1.
What distinguishes statistics from isolated facts or figures?
Answer:
Statistics involve aggregates of facts, where data is collected and compared from multiple related figures within the same framework, providing a basis for analysis and interpretation.

Question 2.
Why are statistics considered numerically expressed?
Answer:
Statistics are presented in numerical figures to ensure quantitative information, allowing for accurate interpretation and comparison; qualitative statements are not classified as statistics.

Question 3.
What is the primary purpose of collecting data in statistics?
Answer:
Data in statistics is collected for a predetermined purpose, with clearly defined objectives, facilitating the collection of relevant information for analysis and decision-making.

Question 4.
According to Croxton and Cowden, what is the most comprehensive definition of statistics?
Answer:
Croxton and Cowden define statistics as the collection, presentation, analysis, and interpretation of numerical data, covering all aspects and fields of statistical inquiry.

Question 5.
Why is classification important in statistics?
Answer:
Classification in statistics organizes collected data, making it easier to draw conclusions and facilitate further analysis; tabulation and presentation in tables enhance data intelligibility.

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Education Solutions Chapter 18 Statistics: Meaning, Nature, and Uses

Question 6.
How does statistics contribute to policy planning in organizations?
Answer:
Statistics aids policy planning by providing data from previous or expected environments, enabling organizations to develop effective strategies based on analyzed information.

Question 7.
In what way is statistics useful in behavioral and social sciences?
Answer:
In social sciences, statistics helps researchers comprehensively alter both quantitative and qualitative information to explain and predict behavioral patterns, contributing to a deeper understanding.

Question 8.
What is the role of statistics in problem-solving?
Answer:
Statistics assists in problem-solving by enabling individuals to identify useful differences between variables, helping analyze response patterns and minimizing error in decision-making.

Question 9.
How does statistics contribute to predicting future trends?
Answer:
Statistical methods analyze past data to predict future trends, allowing for informed decision-making; for example, predicting product sales for the next year based on historical data and market trends.

Question 10.
What is a limitation of statistics in dealing with individual values?
Answer:
Statistics does not deal with individual values; it focuses on aggregate values and requires comparison with standards or other data points for meaningful interpretation.

II. Answer with in Five/Six sentence:

Question 1.
What distinguishes statistics from single or isolated facts?
Answer:
Statistics are aggregates of facts, meaning they involve the collection and comparison of related figures within the same framework. Unlike single or isolated facts, statistics provide a broader perspective by considering multiple data points, allowing for analysis and meaningful interpretation. For example, stating one’s individual income is not statistics, but providing the average salary of a group of individuals constitutes statistical information.

Question 2.
Why are statistics numerically expressed, and why is this important?
Answer:
Statistics are numerically expressed to ensure quantitative information. This numerical format allows for accurate interpretation, comparison, and analysis. Unlike qualitative statements, numerical figures provide a measurable basis for understanding trends, making informed decisions, and drawing meaningful conclusions. For instance, comparing per capita income between countries or expressing a person’s height in numbers involves statistical considerations.

Question 3.
What is the significance of predetermined purpose in statistics?
Answer:
Statistics are collected for a predetermined purpose, meaning the objective of gathering data must be defined before collection. This clarity ensures the relevance and appropriateness of the data collecte(iv) For instance, if collecting data on hospital in-patients waiting for X-rays, the predetermined purpose may be to establish the average waiting time. This focus ensures that data collection aligns with the specific goals, enabling meaningful analysis and interpretation.

Question 4.
How does statistics contribute to policy planning in organizations?
Answer:
Statistics play a crucial role in policy planning by providing data from previous or expected environments. Organizations analyze data, such as sales figures, to formulate effective strategies and policies for future endeavors. For instance, understanding previous sales data allows organizations to develop strategies that maximize product sales and overall benefit.

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Education Solutions Chapter 18 Statistics: Meaning, Nature, and Uses

Question 5.
What functions does statistics perform in condensing and summarizing data?
Answer:
Statistics condenses and summarizes voluminous data into few presentable, understandable, and precise figures. This process transforms raw and complex data into manageable forms, making it easier to draw conclusions. For example, deriving the average salary from a mass of survey data provides a concjse and informative representation of income for a particular group.

Question 6.
How does statistics contribute to predicting future trends?
Answer:
Statistical methods are instrumental in analyzing past data to predict future trends. For example, by examining sales data for a product over previous years and considering current market trends, organizations can predict future sales patterns. This predictive capability aids in making informed decisions and planning for the future.

Question 7.
What are the limitations of statistics?
Answer:
Statistics has limitations, including its.inability to deal with individual values, qualitative characteristics, and the fact that statistical conclusions are.not universally true. It also requires a high degree of skill for accurate interpretation. For instance, statistics cannot capture individual values effectively and may not be applicable to qualitative traits such as honesty or beauty. Additionally, statistical conclusions are only approximations, and the interpretation demands expertise to avoid fallacious conclusions.

Group – B

Long Type Questions With Answers

Question 1.
What are the various functions of statistics?
Answer:
Statistics is no longer confined to the domain of mathematics. It has spread to most of the branches of knowledge including social sciences and behavioural sciences. One of the reasons for its phenomenal growth is the variety of different functions attributed to it. Some of the most important functions of statistics are described as follows:

• It condenses and summarizes voluminous data into a few presentable, understandable and precise figures: The raw data, as is usually available, is voluminous and haphazard. It is generally not possible to draw any conclusions from the raw data as collected. Hence, it is necessary and desirable to express this data in few numerical values. For example, the average salary of a policeman is derived from a mass of data from surveys. But just one summarized figure gives us a pretty good idea about the income of police officers. Similarly, stock market prices of individual stocks and their trends are highly complex to comprehend, but a graph of price trends gives us the overall picture at a glance.

• It facilitates classification and comparison of data: Arrangement of data with respect to different characteristics, facilitates comparison and interpretation. For example, data on age, height, sex and family income of college students gives us a much better picture of students when the data is categorized relative to these characteristics. Additionally, simply the statements about these figures don’t convey any significant meaning. It is their comparison that helps us draw conclusions.

• It helps in determining functional relationships between two or more phenomenon: Statistical techniques such as correlational analysis assist in establishing the degree of association between two or more independent variables. For example, the coefficient of correlation between literacy and employment gives us the degree of association between extent of training and industrial productivity. Similarly, correlation between average rainfall and agricultural productivity can be obtained by using such statistical tools. Some statistical methods can also be used in formulating and testing hypothesis about a certain phenomenon. For example, it can be tested whether a credit squeeze is effective in controlling prices of consumer goods or whether tenured professors are more motivated to improve their teaching than untenured professors.

• It helps in predicting future trends: Statistical methods are highly useful tools in analysing the past data and predicting some future trends. For example, the sales for a particular product for the next year can be computed by knowing the sales for the same product over the previous years, the current market trends and the possible changes in the variables that affect the demand of the product.

Discuss the limitations of statistics in detail: The field of statistics, though widely used in all areas of human knowledge and widely applied in a variety of disciplines such as business, economics and research, has its own limitations. Some of these limitations are:

• It does not deal with individual values: As discussed earlier, statistics only deals with aggregate values. For example, the marks obtained by one student in a class does not carry any meaning in itself, unless it can be compared with a set standard or with other students in the same class or with his own marks obtained earlier.

• It cannot deal with qualitative characteristics: Statistics is not applicable to qualitative characteristics such as honesty, integrity, goodness, colour, poverty, beauty and so on, since these cannot be expressed in quantitative terms. These characteristics, however, can be statistically dealt with if some quantitative values can be assigned to these with logical criterion. For example,
intelligence may be compared to some degree by comparing IQs or some other scores in certain intelligence tests.

• Statistical conclusions are not universally true: Since statistics is not an exact science, as is the case with natural sciences, the statistical conclusions are true only under certain assumptions. Also, the field deals extensively with the laws of probability which at best are educated guesses. For example, if we toss a coin 10 times, where the chances of a head or a tail are 1:1, we cannot say with certainty that there will be 5 heads and 5 tails. Thus the statistical laws are only approximations.

• Statistical interpretation requires a high degree of skill and understanding of the subject: In . order to get meaningful results, it is necessary that the data be properly and professionally collected and critically interpreted. It requires extensive training to read and analyse statistics in its proper context. It may lead to fallacious conclusions in the hands of the inexperienced. Describe the areas in which statistics have been extensively and effectively used :

Statistics has emerged as a versatile tool and has found extensive and effective applications across various domains. The utilization of statistical methods has significantly contributed to decision¬making, analysis, and understanding complex phenomena in the following areas:

• Economics and Business : In economics, statistical techniques are widely employed to analyze economic trends, forecast market behavior, and inform policy decisions. Businesses utilize statistics for market research, demand forecasting, cost-benefit analysis, and financial planning. Stock markets rely on statistical models to analyze stock prices, trends, and risks.

• Healthcare and Medicine : Statistical ihethods are crucial in medical research for clinical trials, drug development, and epidemiological studies. They help analyze the effectiveness of treatments, assess the impact of risk factors on health outcomes, and understand disease patterns. Public health officials use statistics to make informed decisions about healthcare resource allocation and disease prevention strategies.

• Social Sciences : Statistics play a vital role in sociology, psychology, political science, and other social sciences. Researchers use statistical methods to analyze survey data, study human ffehavior, and draw conclusions about social trends. Polls and surveys rely on statistical sampling techniques to ensure representative results.

• Education : In education, statistics are employed to assess student performance, evaluate teaching methods, and make data-driven decisions for curriculum development. Educational researchers use statistical analysis to identify factors influencing academic achievement and to gauge the effectiveness of educational interventions.

• Government and Public Policy: Governments utilize statistics for policy formulation, implementation, and evaluation. Census data, labor statistics, and economic indicators provide crucial information for understanding population dynamics, employment trends, and economic health. Statistical models help assess the impact of policy interventions.

• Environmental Science : Statistical methods are applied in environmental science to analyze climate data, assess the impact of pollution, and model ecological systems. Environmental researchers use statistics to study trends in deforestation, biodiversity loss, and climate change.

• Marketing and Advertising : Businesses use statistics to analyze consumer behavior, conduct market research, and tailor advertising strategies. A/B testing, a statistical method, is commonly employed to assess the effectiveness of marketing campaigns and website designs.

• Quality Control in Manufacturing : Statistical process control (SPC) is extensively used in manufacturing to monitor and improve production processes. It helps identify variations, reduce defects, and ensure consistent product quality.

• Sports Analytics : Statistics have revolutionized sports analysis, helping teams make informed decisions about player performance, strategy, and game outcomes. In sports like baseball, basketball, and soccer, advanced statistical models are employed for player
evaluation and team optimization.

• Finance and Banking: Financial institutions rely on statistical models for risk assessment, portfolio management, and fraud detection. Credit scoring, a statistical method, is used to evaluate the creditworthiness of individuals and businesses.
The widespread and effective use of statistics in these diverse areas underscores its significance in contemporary decision-making and research. As technology advances and data availability increases, the role of statistics is likely to expand even further across various disciplines.

Group – C

Objective type Questions with Answers
I. Multiple Choice Questions with Answers:

Question 1.
Why is a single birth in a hospital not considered statistics?
(i) Lack of numerical expression
(ii) Absence of predetermined purpose
(iii) Inadequate causes
(iv) Inability to compare with other births
Answer:
(iv) Inability to compare with other births

Question 2.
According to L. Bowley, what is one aspect of statistics?
(i) Science of measurement
(ii) Science of average
(iii) Science of counting
(iv) Science of enumeration
Answer:
(ii) Science of average

Question 3.
Which definition of statistics is considered most appropriate among the given options?
(i) “Science of counting”
(ii) “Science of measurement of social organism”
(iii) “Collection, presentation, analysis, and interpretation of numerical data”
(iv) “Science of average”
Answer:
(iii) “Collection, presentation, analysis, and interpretation of numerical data”

Question 4.
What is the first basic step in any statistical inquiry?
(i) Analysis of Data
(ii) Collection of Data
(iii) Interpretation of Data
(iv) Presentation of Data
Answer:
(ii) Collection of Data What is tabulation in the context of statistics?
(i) Collection of Data
(ii) Presentation of Data
(iii) Analysis of Data
(iv) Arrangement of classified data in the form of a table
Answer:
(iv) Arrangement of classified data in the form of a table

Question 5.
Which field uses statistics for predicting future trends based on past data?
(i) Commerce and Accounts
(ii) Industries
(iii) Behavioural and Social Sciences
(iv) Pure Sciences and Mathematics
Answer:
(i) Commerce and Accounts

Question 6.
What is one of the functions of statistics in determining relationships between phenomena?
(i) Condensing data
(ii) Predicting future trends
(iii) Classifying and comparing data
(iv) Establishing functional relationships
Answer:
(iv) Establishing functional relationships

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Education Solutions Chapter 18 Statistics: Meaning, Nature, and Uses

Question 7.
Which area of human knowledge has statistics not widely spread to?
(i) Mathematics
(ii) Social Sciences
(iii) Natural Sciences
(iv) Economics
Answer:
(iii) Natural Sciences

Question 8.
What is a limitation of statistics in dealing with individual values?
(i) Lack of universal truth
(ii) Inapplicability to qualitative characteristics
(iii) Requirement of numerical expression
(iv) Only dealing with aggregate values
Answer:
(iv) Only dealing with aggregate values

Question 9.
Why are statistical conclusions not universally true?
(i) Lack of precision
(ii) Dependence on probability
(iii) Inability to deal with qualitative characteristics
(iv) Requirement of numerical expression
Answer:
(ii) Dependence on probability

Question 10.
What is essential for meaningful statistical interpretation?
(i) Lack of skill
(ii) Inexperienced handling
(iii) Proper collection and professional interpretation
(iv) Numerical expression
Answer:
(iii) Proper collection and professional interpretation

Question 11.
In which field is statistics considered a basic tool for handling daily matters?
(i) Education
(ii) Pure Sciences and Mathematics
(iii) Industries
(iv) Policy planning
Answer:
(iii) Industries

Question 12.
Which function of statistics involves predicting future trends based on past data?
(i) Condensation of data
(ii) Classification and comparison of data
(iii) Determining functional relationships
(iv) Predicting future trends
Answer:
(iv) Predicting future trends

Question 13.
What does the science of statistics primarily deal with?
(i) Individual values
(ii) Quantitative information
(iii) Qualitative characteristics
(iv) Random facts and figures
Answer:
(ii) Quantitative information

II. Fill in the blanks:

Question 1.
Statistics are aggregates of facts: Single or isolated facts cannot be called statistics as they need to be ______ for meaningful comparison and analysis.
Answer:
Aggregated or combined

Question 2.
Statistics are numerically expressed: All statistics are stated in ______ figures, emphasizing the quantitative nature of the information.
Answer:
Numerical

Question 3.
Statistics, generally, are not the outcome of a single cause but are affected by ______ causes working together.
Answer:
Multiple or various

Question 4.
L. Bowley gave several definitions of Statistics: One definition emphasizes enumeration, stating “Statistics may be called the science of ______.”
Answer:
Counting

Question 5.
Statistics are collected for a predetermined purpose: The purpose of collecting pertinent data must be clearly defined ______ data collection.
Answer:
Prior to

Question 6.
Classification and Presentation: The process of presenting classified data in the form of a table is known as ______.
Answer:
Tabulation

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Education Solutions Chapter 18 Statistics: Meaning, Nature, and Uses

Question 7.
Functions of Statistics: It condenses and summarizes voluminous data into a few presentable, understandable, and precise ______ .
Answer:
Figures

Question 8.
It helps in determining functional relationships between two or more phenomena: Statistical techniques such as correlational analysis assist in establishing the degree of association between independent ______.
Answer:
Variables

Question 9.
Scope and Use of Statistics: In social sciences, where both quantitative and qualitative information are used, statistics helps researchers to alter the information in a comprehensive way to explain and predict ______.
Answer:
Patterns of behavior/trends

Question 10.
Limitations of Statistics: Statistical conclusions are not universally true, as they are only ______ under certain assumptions and are approximations.
Answer:
True

III. Answer the following questions in one word:

Question 1.
What is the primary characteristic that distinguishes statistics from isolated facts?
Answer:
Aggregation

Question 2.
Why are single or isolated facts not considered statistics?
Answer:
Lack of comparability or relation to other figures.

Question 3.
What is the key feature of statistics in terms of expression?
Answer:
Numerical representation

Question 4.
According to L. Bowley, what did he emphasize in his definition of statistics?
Answer:
Enumeration aspect

Question 5.
What is the first basic step in any statistical enquiry?
Answer:
Collection of data

Question 6.
Which definition of statistics is considered most appropriate as it covers all aspects?
Answer:
Croxton and Cowden’s definition

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Education Solutions Chapter 18 Statistics: Meaning, Nature, and Uses

Question 7.
In which field does statistics help in determining functional relationships between variables?
Answer:
Social sciences

Question 8.
What is the purpose of condensing and summarizing voluminous data in statistics?
Answer:
To make it presentable, understandable and precise

Question 9.
What is a significant limitation of statistics in terms of dealing with values?
Answer:
It does not deal with individual values.

Question 10.
Why are statistical conclusions not universally true?
Answer:
They are based on assumptions and probabilities.

Meaning of Statistics:

• Statistics are aggregates of facts: Single or isolated facts or figures cannot be called statistics as these cannot be compared or related to other figures within the same framework. Accordingly, there must be an aggregate of these figures. For example, if I say that I earn $30,000 per year, it would not be considered statistics. On the other hand, if I say that the average salary of a professor at our college is $30,000 per year, then this would be considered statistics since the average has been computed from many related figures such as yearly salaries of many professors. Similarly, a single birth in a hospital is not statistics, as it has no significance for analytical purposes. However, when such information about many births in the same hospital or birth information for different hospitals is collected, then this information can be compared and analysed, and thus this data would constitute statistics.

• Statistics, generally are not the outcome of a single cause, but are affected by multiple causes: There are a number of forces working together that affect the facts and figures. For example, when we say that the crime rate in New York city has increased by 15 per cent over the last year, a number of factors might have affected this change. These factors may be: general level of economy such as state of economic recession, unemployment rate, extent of use of drugs, areas affected by crime, extent of legal effectiveness, social structure of the family in the area and so on.

While these factors can be isolated by themselves, the effects of these factors cannot be isolated and measured individually. Similarly, a marked increase in food grain production in India may have been due to combined effect of many factors such as better seeds, more extensive use of fertilizers, mechanisation in cultivation, better institutional framework and governmental and banking support, adequate rainfall and so on. It is generally not possible to segregate and study the effect of each of these forces individually.

• Statistics are numerically expressed: All statistics are stated in numerical figures which means that these are quantitative information only. Qualitative statements are not subject to accurate interpretations and hence cannot be called statistics. For example, qualitative statements such as India is a developing country or Jack is very tall would not be considered statistical statements. On the other hand, comparing per capita income of India with that of America would be considered statistical in nature. Similarly, Jack’s height in numbers compared to average height in America would also be considered statistics.

• Statistics are collected for a predetermined purpose: The purpose and objective of collecting pertinent data must be clearly defined, decided upon and determined prior to data collection. This would facilitate the collection of proper and relevant data. For example, data on the heights of students would be irrelevant if considered in connection with the ability to get admission in a college, but may be relevant when considering qualities of leadership. Similarly, collective data on the prices of commodities in itself does not serve any purpose unless we know, for the purpose of comparison, the type of commodities under investigation and whether these relate to producer, distributor, wholesale or retail prices. As another example, if you are collecting data on the number of in-patients in the hospital waiting to be X-rayed, then the pre-determined purpose may be to establish the average time for the patients before X-ray and what can be done to reduce this waiting time.

Definition of Statistics :
L. Bowley gave several definitions of Statistics :

  1. “Statistics may be called the science of counting”. This definition emphasises enumeration aspect only.
  2. In another definition he describes it as “ Statistics may rightly be called the science of average”.
  3. At another place Statistics is defined as, “Statistics is the science of measurement of social organism regarded as a whole in all its manifestations”.

• All three definitions given by Bowely seem to be inadequate because these do not include all aspects of statistics.

• According to Selligman “Statistics is the science which deals with the methods of collecting, classifying, presenting, comparing and interpreting numerical data collected to throw some light on any sphere of enquiry”.

• Croxton and Cowden defined “statistics as the collection , presentation, analysis ,and interpretation of numerical data”. Among all the definitions , the cme given by Croxton and Cowden is considered to be most appropriate as it covers all aspects and field of statistics.

These aspects are given below:
• Collection of Data : Once the nature of study is decided , it becomes essential to collect information in form of data about the issues of the study. Therefore, the collection of data is the first basic step. Data may be collected either from primary source or secondary or from both the sources depending upon the objective/s of the investigation

• Classification and Presentation : Once data are collected , researcher has to arrange them in a format from which they would be able to draw some conclusions. The arrangement of data in groups according to some similarities is known as classification. Tabulation is the process of presenting the classified data in the form of table. A tabular presentation of data becomes’ more intelligible and fit for further statistical analysis. Classified and Tabulated data can be presented in diagrams and graphs to facilitate the understanding of various trends as well as the process of comparison of various situations.

• Analysis of Data: It is the most important step in any statistical enquiry. Statistical analysis is carried out to process the observed data and transform it in such a manner as to make it suitable for decision making.

• Interpretation of Data : After analysing the data, researcher gets information partly or wholly about the population. Explanation of such information is more useful in real life. The quality of interpretation depends more and more on the experience and insight of the researcher.

Scope and use of Statistics :

• Policy planning: To finalise a policy, it requires some data from previous or expected environment that the policy can be effectively utilised with maximum favourable results. For example, in an organisation the previous sales data are analysed to develop future strategies in the field to obtain maximum benefit in terms of product sale.

• Management: Statistics is very useful tool in an organisation to view various aspects of work and well being of the employees as well as keeping an eye on the progress trend of the organisation.

• Behavioural and Social Sciences : In social sciences where both types (quantitative and qualitative) of information are used, statistics helps the researchers to alter the information in a comprehensive way to explain and predict the patterns of behaviour/ tren(iv) Where the characteristics of the population being studied are normally distributed, the best and statistically important decision about variables being investigated is possible by using parametric statistics or nonparametric statistics to explain the pattern of activities.

• Education : If education is intended to be well dispersed and effective in the interest of the population, the characteristics of students, instructor’s contents and infrastructure are very important to understand and again statistics enable these characteristics being analysed in context of needs of the nation. Once the parameters of all components are analysed, areas needing more emphasis become obvious.

• Commerce and Accounts : Where money matters are involved, it is essential to take extra care to manage the funds properly enabling efforts in various sectors. The cost and benefit analysis helps to decide putting money and regulating it for maximum benefit at minimum cost.

• Industries : Statistics is a basic tool to handle daily matters not only in big organisations but also in small industries. It is required, at each level, to keep data with care and look at them in different perspectives to mitigate the expenditure and enable each employee to have his/ her share in the benefit. Psychologists/ personnel officers dealing with selection and training in industries also use statistical tools to differentiate among employees.

• Pure sciences and Mathematics : Statistical tools are also instrumental to have precise measures in pure sciences and to see differences .on different occasions in various conditions. Statistics itself is a branch of mathematics which helps them understand differences among properties of various applications in mathematics.

• Problem solving : Knowing the useful difference between two or more variables enable the individual to find out the best applicable solution to a problem situation and it is possible because of statistic?. During problem solving statistics helps the person analyse his/ her pattern of response and the correct solution thereby minimising the error factor.

• Theoretical researches: Theories evolve on the basis of facts obtained from the fiel(iv) Statistical analyses establish the significance of those facts for a particular paradigm or phenomen(i) Researchers are engaged in using the statistical measures to decide on the facts and data whether a particular theory can be maintained or challenge(iv) The significance between the facts and factors help them to explore the connectivity among them.

Functions of Statistics :
Statistics is no longer confined to the domain of mathematics. It has spread to most of the branches of knowledge including social sciences and behavioural sciences. One of the reasons for its phenomenal growth is the variety of different functions attributed to it. Some of the most important functions of statistics are described as follows:

• It condenses and summarizes voluminous data into a few presentable, understandable and precise figures: The raw data, as is usually available, is voluminous and haphazar (iv) It is generally not possible to draw any conclusions from the raw data as collecte (iv) Hence, it is necessary and desirable to express this data in few numerical values. For example, the average salary of a policeman is derived from a mass of data from surveys. But just one summarized figure gives us a pretty good idea about the income of police officers. Similarly, stock market prices of individual stocks and their trends are highly complex to comprehend, but a graph of price trends gives us the overall picture at a glance.

• It facilitates classification and comparison of data: Arrangement of data with respect to different characteristics, facilitates comparison and interpretation. For example, data on age, height, sex and family income of college students gives us a much better picture of students when the data is categorized relative to these characteristics. Additionally, simply the statements about these figures don’t convey any significant meaning. It is their comparison that helps us draw conclusions.

It helps in determining functional relationships between two or more phenomenon:
Statistical techniques such as correlational analysis assist in establishing the degree of association between two or more independent variables. For example, the coefficient of correlation between literacy and employment gives us the degree of association between extent of training and industrial productivity.

Similarly, correlation between average rainfall and agricultural productivity can be obtainedby using such statistical tools. Some statistical methods can also be used in formulating and testing hypothesis about a certain phenomenon. For example, it can be tested whether a credit squeeze is effective in controlling prices of consumer goods or whether tenured professors are more motivated to improve their teaching than untenured professors.

• It helps in predicting future trends: Statistical methods are highly useful tools in analysing the past data and predicting some future trends. For example, the sales for a particular product for the next year can be computed by knowing the sales for the same product over the previous years, the current market trends and the possible changes in the variables that affect the demand of the product.

Limitations of Statistics :
The field of statistics, though widely used in all areas of human knowledge and widely applied in a variety of disciplines such as business, economics and research, has its own limitations. Some of these limitations are:

• It does not deal with individual values: As discussed earlier, statistics only deals with aggregate values. For example, the marks obtained by one student in a class does not carry any meaning in itself, unless it can be compared with a set standard or with other students in the same class or with his own marks obtained earlier.

• It cannot deal with qualitative characteristics: Statistics is not applicable to qualitative characteristics such as honesty, integrity, goodness, colour, poverty, beauty and so on, since these cannot be expressed in quantitative terms. These characteristics, however, can be statistically dealt with if some quantitative values can be assigned to these with logical criterion. For example, intelligence may be compared to some degree by comparing IQs or some other scores in certain intelligence tests.

• Statistical conclusions are not universally true: Since statistics is not an exact science,, as is the case with natural sciences, the statistical conclusions are true only under certain assumptions. Also, the field deals extensively with the laws of probability which at best are educated guesses. For example, if we toss a coin 10 times, where the chances of a head or a tail are 1:1, we cannot say with certainty that there will be 5 heads and 5 tails. Thus the statistical laws are only approximations.

Statistical interpretation requires a high degree of skill and understanding of the subject: In order to get meaningful results, it is necessary that the data be properly and professionally collected and critically interpreted. It requires extensive training to read and analyse statistics in its proper context. It may lead to fallacious conclusions in the hands of the inexperienced.

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Education Solutions Chapter 17 Life Skills Education

Odisha State Board CHSE Odisha Class 12 Education Solutions Chapter 17 Life Skills Education Questions and Answers.

CHSE Odisha 12th Class Education Chapter 17 Question Answer Life Skills Education

Group – A

Short type Questions with Answers
Answer with in Two/Three sentence:

Question 1.
What is Life Skill Education?
Answer:
Life Skill Education involves developing competencies among adolescents to efficiently deal with biological, psychological, and social challenges, translating knowledge, attitudes, and values into practical actions.

Question 2.
How is Life Skill Education viewed in the context of adolescents?
Answer:
In the context of adolescents, Life Skill Education is often associated with generating awareness about health issues, HIV/AIDS, sexual orientation, and providing guidance to cope with these challenges.

Question 3.
What does a Life Skill Education program aim to achieve?
Answer:
A Life Skill Education program aims to develop competencies that enable adolescents to efficiently deal with biological, psychological, and social constraints, translating knowledge, attitudes, and values into relevant actions.

Question 4.
What is the basis of a Life Skill Education program?
Answer:
A Life Skill Education program is generally based on the social learning theory, considering learning as actively acquiring, processing, and structuring experiences, and is seen as an essential component of quality education.

Question 5.
How does Life Skill Education contribute to the prevention of social problems among adolescents?
Answer:
Life Skill Education contributes to preventing social problems such as substance abuse, alcoholism, sexual exploitation, bullying, and suicide by enhancing personal, social, and emotional development and increasing psychosocial competencies.

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Education Solutions Chapter 17 Life Skills Education

Question 6.
Why is there a need for Life Skill Education?
Answer:
Life Skill Education is necessary due to varying levels of emotional maturity and coping mechanisms exhibited by individuals in response to stressful situations, emphasizing the enhancement of psycho-social competence.

Question 7.
What does the United Nations recognize about Life Skill Education?
Answer:
The United Nations recognizes the significance of Life Skill Education in promoting healthy child and adolescent development, preventing key reasons for mortality and disabilities, and preparing youth for evolving social circumstances.

Question 8.
According to the National Education Policy (2020), what are considered fundamental guiding principles?
Answer:
According to the National Education Policy (2020), fundamental guiding principles include creativity, critical thinking, ethical values, communication, cooperation, teamwork, and resilience, all essential for both individuals and the broader education system.

Question 9.
What are some teaching approaches for Life Skill Education?
Answer:
Teaching approaches for Life Skill Education include content-based, thematic, and activity-based approaches, with content-based focusing on generating awareness, thematic integrating various subjects, and activity-based involving hands-on skills development.

Question 10.
What strategies contribute to effective Life Skill Education?
Answer:
Strategies such as group discussions, debates, cooperative learning, role-play, and analyzing situations and case studies contribute to effective Life Skill Education by stimulating critical thinking, enhancing social and communication skills, and providing real-life situational understanding.

II. Answer within Five/Six sentence :

Question 1.
What is the primary focus of life skill education in the context of adolescents?
Answer:
Life skill education in the context of adolescents primarily focuses on generating awareness about health issues such as HIV/AIDS, sexual orientation, and equipping adolescents with the necessary guidance to cope with these issues. It aims to develop competencies to efficiently deal with biological, psychological, and social constraints, translating knowledge, attitude, and values into practical actions.

Question 2.
How does life skill education contribute to personal, social, and emotional development among adolescents?
Answer:
Life skill education contributes to personal, social, and emotional development by practicing and reinforcing skills in a culturally and developmentally appropriate manner. It increases the psychosocial Competencies of adolescents, preventing high-risk social behaviors and problems like substance abuse, alcoholism, bullying, and suicide. The program also aims to protect the human rights of each child, fostering positive interpersonal relationships and promoting healthy behavior and mental well-being.

Question 3.
What are the needs for life skill education in the contemporary educational landscape?
Answer:
The need for life skill education arises from the varying levels of emotional maturity and coping mechanisms exhibited by individuals in response to stressful situations. Factors like globalization, cultural intermixing, and easy access to Information and Communication Technology (ICT) have heightened challenges faced by adolescents, including violence, emotional outbursts, academic stress, and substance abuse. Life skills education is essential for enhancing psycho¬social competence, fostering emotional intelligence, promoting positive decision-making, and preparing youth for the complexities of modern life.

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Education Solutions Chapter 17 Life Skills Education

Question 4.
How does life skill education align with the National Education Policy (2020)?
Answer:
The National Education Policy (2020) recognizes life skills as fundamental guiding principles, emphasizing creativity, critical thinking, ethical values, communication, cooperation, teamwork, and resilience. These skills are considered essential for both individual institutions and the broader education system. Life skills education is acknowledged as a deliberate and planned skill development program, contributing to the mental health and well-being of adolescents, fostering critical thinking, empathy, communication skills, and preparing individuals for the challenges of contemporary life.

Question 5.
What are the different approaches that can be employed for imparting life skills education?
Answer:
Various teaching approaches, including content-based, thematic, and activity-based approaches, can be employed for imparting life skills education. The content-based approach focuses on generating awareness and increasing knowledge about a specific topic, while the thematic approach integrates contents from various subjects and activities to ensure comprehensive knowledge and the development of relevant attitudes, values, and skills. The activity-based approach involves hands-on skills development, such as discussions^ debates, role-plays, and social media, to enhance skills required for preventing the disease, fostering informed and mature responses.

Question 6.
How do group discussions and debates contribute to life skills education?
Answer:
Group discussions and debates contribute significantly to life skills education by providing opportunities for critical thinking, moral judgment, and addressing various adolescent issues. These activities stimulate higher-order thinking skills, encouraging students to analyze, synthesize, and reflect on different perspectives. Group discussions and debates foster active participation, motivation, and the development of social and communication skills, contributing to the effective teaching of life skills.

Question 7.
What role does emotional intelligence play in life skills development?
Answer:
Emotional intelligence plays a significant role in life skills development. Teachers need to consciously help students acquire and enhance emotional intelligence. Emotional intelligence involves recognizing, understanding, and managing one’s own emotions, as well as empathizing with others. Life skills education aims to cultivate adaptive behaviors, positive decision-making, and resilience, and emotional intelligence is crucial for navigating the complexities of modem life, fostering effective conflict management, and promoting positive development.

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Education Solutions Chapter 17 Life Skills Education

Question 8.
How can role-playing enhance life skills among adolescents?
Answer:
Role-playing enhances life skills among adolescents by providing real-life situational understanding, boosting confidence, and strengthening communication and human interaction skills. Through role-playing, students can actively engage in scenarios that mimic challenges they may face in everyday life. This practical approach allows them to apply theoretical knowledge, develop problem-solving skills, and gain hands-on experience, contributing to the holistic development of life skills.

Question 9.
According to the Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE), how is life skill education structured?
Answer:
The Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE) has devised a matrix based on WHO’s matrix for teaching life skills, which is available at www.cbse.nic.in. The matrix outlines various strategies for life skills education, including group discussions, debates, cooperative learning, role-play, and analysis of situations and case studies. This structured approach emphasizes the intentional learning of life skills, acknowledging that capabilities such as creativity, critical thinking, and resilience require deliberate efforts and planning.

Question 10.
How does life skill education extend beyond classroom boundaries according to the Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE)?
Answer:
Life skills education extends beyond classroom boundaries, according to the Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE), by integrating activities into all subject areas of the secondary school curriculum. Activities such as painting/poster competitions, debates, dramas, community service, and guest lectures contribute to the development of life skills. These experiences, combined with knowledge, skills, and attitudes acquired, form the foundation for success in personal, academic, professional, and community life, emphasizing the broad scope and applicability of life skills education.

Group – B

Long Type Questions With Answers

Question 1.
Define life skill education and discuss strategies for implementing it effectively in schools.
Answer:
Life skill education is an essential and dynamic process that equips individuals, especially adolescents, with a set of competencies and skills necessary for navigating the challenges of modem life successfully. It goes beyond traditional academic learning, focusing on developing practical skills, positive attitudes, and a resilient mindset. Life skill education aims to empower individuals to cope with the complexities of personal, social, and professional life, fostering emotional intelligence, critical thinking, problem-solving, communication, and interpersonal skills.

Strategies for Implementing Life Skill Education Effectively in Schools:
Incorporate Life Skills into Curriculum:
Embed life skills seamlessly into the existing academic curriculum, ensuring that students encounter these skills in various subjects. This integration helps reinforce the practical application of life skills in real-life scenarios.

Thematic Approaches : Adopt thematic approaches that revolve around specific life skill themes. For example, a theme like ‘emotional intelligence’ can be integrated into subjects like psychology, literature, and social studies. This approach ensures, a comprehensive understating of life skills.

Activity-Based Learning : Emphasize hands-on and activity-based learning methods. Role-playing, group discussions, debates, and problem-solving activities actively engage students, providing them with practical experiences to apply and enhance life skills.

Teacher Training and Development: Conduct regular training programs for teachers to enhance their understanding of life skills and equip them with effective teaching methodologies. Teachers serve as role models and facilitators, guiding students in developing and practicing life skills.

Interactive Workshops and Seminars : Organize interactive workshops and seminars involving experts, counselors, and professionals to provide insights into various life skill components. Such sessions can focus on communication skills, decision-making, conflict resolution, and emotional -well-being.

Guest Lectures and Role Models : Invite guest speakers and role models who have excelled in various aspects of life. Their experiences and success stories can inspire students, providing real-world examples of how life skills contribute to personal and professional growth.

Integration with Co-Curricular Activities : Integrate life skills into co-curricular activities such as sports, arts, and community service. Participation in these activities enhances teamwork, leadership, and communication skills, fostering a holistic development approach.

Interactive Learning Resources : Utilize interactive learning resources, including multimedia presentations, educational videos, and online platforms. These resources cater to different learning styles and provide additional avenues for students to explore and practice life skills.

Peer Mentoring Programs : Establish peer mentoring programs where older students mentor younger ones in life skills. This fosters a sense of responsibility, leadership, and mutual support among students, creating a positive peer culture.

Parental Involvement : Engage parents in the life skill education process through regular communication, workshops, and collaborative initiatives. When parents are aware of and supportive of life skill development, the reinforcement at home complements the efforts made in schools.

Assessment and Feedback: Develop an assessment framework to evaluate students’ progress in acquiring life skills. Provide constructive feedback to students, acknowledging their strengths and identifying areas for improvement, creating a continuous improvement cycle.

Counseling Services : Establish counseling services within schools to address individual student needs. Counselors play a vital role in supporting students’ emotional well-being and guiding them through challenges, complementing the broader life skill education initiative.

In conclusion, life skill education is an integral aspect of holistic development, and its effective , implementation in schools requires a multifaceted approach. By incorporating these strategies, educational institutions can create an environment that not only imparts academic knowledge but also cultivates the essential life skills needed for success in various facets of life.

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Education Solutions Chapter 17 Life Skills Education

Question 2.
Examine the historical roots of life skills education and elucidate its significance in contemporary education.
Answer:
The concept of life skills education can be traced back to various educational philosophies and psychological theories that underscore the importance of holistic development. Ancient educational systems, such as those in ancient Greece and India, recognized the need for cultivating not only academic knowledge but also virtues, character, and practical skills. Philosophers like Aristotle emphasized the importance of developing moral virtues, reasoning abilities, and practical wisdom.

In the early 20th century, educational theorists like John Dewey advocated for experiential learning and the integration of practical skills into the curriculum. Dewey’s emphasis on learning by doing and connecting education to real-life experiences laid the groundwork for the incorporation of life skills into educational practices.

The evolution of life skills education gained momentum in the mid-20th century with the emergence of theories on social and emotional intelligence. Psychologists like Daniel Goleman highlighted the significance of emotional intelligence in personal and professional success. This shift in focus from purely academic achievement to a more comprehensive understanding of intelligence contributed to the conceptualization of life skills as essential components of education.

Importance of Life Skills Education in Contemporary Education :
Holistic Development: Life skills education fosters holistic development by addressing various dimensions of an individual’s personality. It goes beyond academic knowledge to encompass social, emotional, and practical competencies, preparing individuals for the complexities of modern life.

Adaptability and Resilience : In the rapidly changing landscape of the 21st century, life skills such as adaptability and resilience are crucial. Life skills education equips individuals with the ability to navigate challenges, cope with uncertainties, and bounce back from setbacks.

Effective Communication: Communication skills are fundamental in personal and professional life. Life skills education emphasizes effective communication, including verbal and non-verbal communication, active listening, and the ability to express oneself clearly.

Problem-Solving and Critical Thinking : Life skills education cultivates problem-solving and critical thinking abilities. Individuals learn to analyze situations, make informed decisions, and approach challenges with a solution-oriented mindset, enhancing their problem-solving capabilities.

Emotional Intelligence : Emotional intelligence, a key component of life skills, is crucial for interpersonal relationships and personal well-being. Individuals with high emotional intelligence can manage their emotions, understand others’ emotions, and navigate social situations effectively.

Social Competence : Life skills education promotes social competence, including teamwork, collaboration, and conflict resolution. These skills are essential in both personal relationships and the professional world, contributing to a harmonious and cooperative society.

Prevention of High-Risk Behaviors : Adolescents, in particular, face various social challenges. Life skills education plays a preventive role in addressing high-risk behaviors such as substance abuse, bullying, and delinquency. It provides individuals with the tools to make responsible and informed choices.

Career Readiness : In the contemporary workforce, employers seek individuals with a diverse skill set, including not only technical skills but also interpersonal and communication skills. Life skills education enhances students’ readiness for the workforce by developing these sought.

Positive Mental Health: Life skills education contributes to positive mental health by addressing issues related to stress, anxiety, and emotional well-being. Individuals learn coping mechanisms, stress management techniques, and strategies for maintaining mental wellness.

Global Citizenship : As societies become more interconnected, global citizenship becomes increasingly important. Life skills education instills qualities such as cultural sensitivity, empathy, and open,-mindedness, fostering a sense of responsibility toward global issues.

In conclusion, life skills education has deep historical roots in educational philosophies that recognize the need for comprehensive development. Its contemporary importance lies in preparing individuals for the multifaceted challenges of the modem world, promoting resilience, interpersonal effectiveness, and a well-rounded approach to personal and professional success.

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Education Solutions Chapter 17 Life Skills Education

Question 3.
Explore the fundamental components of life skills, delving into their core aspects.
Answer:
Life skills encompass a broad set of competencies that empower individuals to effectively navigate the challenges of daily life, contribute to personal growth, and thrive in various social and professional contexts. Delving into the core aspects of life skills reveals a multifaceted set of abilities that go beyond academic knowledge and technical expertise.

Critical Thinking : At the core of life, skills is critical thinking, which involves the ability to analyze information, evaluate situations, and make reasoned decisions. Critical thinking allows individuals to approach problems with a logical and reflective mindset, enhancing problem-solving capabilities.

Communication Skills : Effective communication is a foundational life skill. It includes not only verbal expression but also active listening, non-verbal communication, and the ability to articulate thoughts and ideas clearly. Strong communication skills are vital for building positive relationships and navigating social interactions.

Problem-Solving : Life skills emphasize problem-solving abilities, encouraging individuals to approach challenges with a solution-oriented mindset. Problem-solving involves identifying issues, evaluating potential solutions, and implementing strategies to address problems effectively.

Decision-Making : Decision-making is a crucial aspect of life skills, requiring individuals to make informed choices based on available information and personal values. The ability to weigh options, anticipate consequences, and commit to decisions contributes to responsible and effective decision-making.

Adaptability : Life skills include adaptability, the capacity to adjust to changing circumstances and navigate uncertainties. Individuals with strong adaptability skills can thrive in dynamic environments, embracing change and responding positively to new situations.

Emotional Intelligence : Central to life skills is emotional intelligence, encompassing self-awareness, self-regulation, empathy, and effective interpersonal relationships. Emotional intelligence enables individuals to understand and manage their emotions while empathizing with others, fostering positive social interactions.

Time Management: Time management is a practical life skill that involves the efficient use of time to achieve goals and balance various responsibilities. Effectively managing time enhances productivity, reduces stress, and contributes to overall well-being.

Stress Management: Life skills include stress management techniques to cope with challenges and pressures. Stress management involves identifying stressors, developing coping strategies, and maintaining mental and emotional well-being during demanding situations.

Collaboration and Teamwork: Collaboration and teamwork are social life skills that promote effective interaction with others. The ability to work collaboratively, contribute to group goals, and communicate within a team setting is essential in both personal and professional contexts.

Leadership Skills : Leadership skills are integral to life skills, emphasizing qualities such as vision, initiative, and the ability to motivate and influence others positively. Leadership skills contribute to personal growth, effective team management, and the ability to inspire positive change.

Resilience : Resilience is a core aspect of life skills, representing the ability to bounce back from setbacks, cope with adversity, and maintain a positive outlook in challenging situations. Resilient individuals can adapt to difficulties and continue moving forward.

Cultural Competence : With increasing globalization, cultural competence has become a crucial life skill. It involves an understanding and appreciation of diverse cultures, perspectives, and backgrounds, fostering open-mindedness and effective communication in a multicultural world.

In conclusion, the core of life skills lies in a comprehensive set of abilities that enhance individual well-being, promote positive relationships, and contribute to success in diverse life situations. These skills, encompassing critical thinking, communication, adaptability, and emotional intelligence, form the foundation for personal growth, effective decision-making, and meaningful contributions to society.

Group – D

Objective type Questions with Answers
II. Multiple Choice Questions with Answers:

Question 1.
What does Life Skill Education aim to develop among adolescents?
(i) Academic excellence
(ii) Social awareness and emotional competence
(iii) Technical skills
(iv) Physical fitness
Answer:
(ii) Social awareness and emotional competence

Question 2.
Which teaching approach focuses on generating awareness and increasing knowledge about a specific topic?
(i) Content-based approach
(ii) Thematic approach
(iii) Activity-based approach
(iv) Interactive approach
Answer:
(i) Content-based approach

Question 3.
During the COVID-19 pandemic, what approach could be employed to teach life skills related to preventive measures?
(i) Only content-based approach
(ii) Only thematic approach
(iii) Only activity-based approach
(iv) Integrated approach with content, thematic, and activity-based methods
Answer:
(iv) Integrated approach with content, thematic, and activity-based methods

Question 4.
What is the significance of Emotional Intelligence in Life Skill Education?
(i) It enhances academic knowledge
(ii) It is irrelevant to life skills
(iii) It helps in the development of social and emotional competencies
(iv) It focuses on physical well-being
Answer:
(iii) It helps in the development of social and emotional competencies

Question 5.
Which strategy involves hands-on skills development, such as using masks, hand sanitizers, and understanding social distancing norms?
(i) Group discussion
(ii) Role-play
(iii) Cooperative learning
(iv) Activity-based approach
Answer:
(iv) Activity-based approach

Question 6.
According to the National Education Policy (2020), what are considered fundamental guiding principles for life skills education?
(i) Creativity and critical thinking
(ii) Memorization and repetition
(iii) Rote learning and competition
(iv) Only academic excellence
Answer:
(i) Creativity and critical thinking

Question 7.
What is the objective of teaching life skills through group discussions and debates?
(i) Enhancing physical fitness
(ii) Developing critical thinking and moral judgment
(iii) Memorizing facts
(iv) Promoting rote learning
Answer:
(ii) Developing critical thinking and moral judgment

Question 8.
Which organization has devised a matrix for teaching life skills based on WHO’s matrix?
(i) UNESCO
(ii) CBSE
(iii) WHO
(iv) UNICEF
Answer:
(ii) CBSE

Question 9.
Why is the surge in challenges faced by adolescents considered a factor necessitating life skills education?
(i) To promote academic excellence
(ii) To enhance physical fitness
(iii) To address violence, emotional outbursts, and substance abuse
(iv) To focus on rote learning
Answer:
(iii) To address violence, emotional outbursts, and substance abuse

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Education Solutions Chapter 17 Life Skills Education

Question 10.
What does the thematic approach in life skills education involve?
(i) Generating awareness
(ii) Focusing on a specific theme
(iii) Hands-on skills development
(iv) Memorization
Answer:
(ii) Focusing on a specific theme

Question 11.
How can teachers stimulate higher-order thinking skills in life skills education?
(i) Encourage rote learning
(ii) Promote critical thinking, analysis, and reflection
(iii) Focus on memorization
(iv) Disregard emotional intelligence
Answer:
(ii) Promote critical thinking, analysis, and reflection

Question 12.
According to the United Nations, what is the role of life skills education in promoting youth development?
(i) Focusing on academic excellence
(ii) Preparing youth for evolving social circumstances
(iii) Encouraging rote learning
(iv) Ignoring mental health issues
Answer:
(ii) Preparing youth for evolving social circumstances

Question 13.
Which teaching method contributes to active involvement, motivation, and the development of social and communication skills?
(i) Memorization
(ii) Cooperative learning
(iii) Rote learning
(iv) Group discussions
Answer:
(ii) Cooperative learning

Question 14.
What is the primary focus of life skills education strategies in the teaching-learning process?
(i) Memorization
(ii) Physical fitness
(iii) Psycho-social competence and higher-order thinking skills
(iv) Rote learning
Answer:
(iii) Psycho-social competence and higher-order thinking skills

Question 15.
How does life skills education contribute to the mental health and well-being of adolescents?
(i) By promoting rote learning
(ii) By fostering emotional intelligence, critical thinking, and resilience
(iii) By focusing solely on academic excellence
(iv) By ignoring personal and social issues
Answer:
(ii) By fostering emotional intelligence, critical thinking, and resilience

II. Fill in the blanks :

Question 1.
Life skill education aims to develop competencies among adolescents to deal with _____ constraints more efficiently.
Answer:
Biological.

Question 2.
Life skill education ensures that adolescents are aware of both ‘what to do’ and ‘how to do’ through the translation of knowledge, attitude, and values into _____.
Answer:
Reality.

Question 3.
Life skills education is based on the _____ theory, where learning is considered actively acquiring, processing, and structuring experiences.
Answer:
Social Learning.

Question 4.
Life skills education is a dynamic and evolving process that seeks the active participation of the school, teachers, parents, and the _____ community.
Answer:
Local.

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Education Solutions Chapter 17 Life Skills Education

Question 5.
Life skills education contributes to the personal, social, and emotional development, increasing the psychosocial competencies of _____ .
Answer:
Adolescents.

Question 6.
Life skills education contributes to the protection of human rights of each and every child and _____.
Answer:
Adolescents.

Question 7.
The ultimate goal is the development of mature and socially productive citizens of the _____.
Answer:
Country.

Question 8.
Life skills education promotes healthy behavior and _____ well-being among adolescents.
Answer:
Mental.

Question 9.
In everyday life, individuals exhibit varying levels of emotional maturity and coping mechanisms, indicating differences in their _____ competence.
Answer:
Psycho-social.

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Education Solutions Chapter 17 Life Skills Education

Question 10.
Life skills education fosters emotional intelligence, encouraging resilience, positive development, and effective _____ management,
Answer:
Conflict.

Question 11.
The National Education Policy (2020) recognizes life skills as fundamental guiding principles, emphasizing creativity, critical thinking, ethical values, _____ and resilience.
Answer:
Communication.

Question 12.
Life skills education is pivotal in shaping well-rounded individuals capable of navigating the challenges of contemporary life and contributing positively to _____.
Answer:
Society.

III. Correct the Sentences :

Question 1.
Life skill education primarily focuses on academic achievements and subject-specific knowledge.
Answer:
Life skill education aims to enhance psycho-social competence, emotional intelligence, and adaptive behaviors in adolescents, extending beyond academic achievements.

Question 2.
Life skills are only relevant for addressing individual concerns and do not contribute to the broader societal context.
Answer:
Life skills education fosters socially responsive citizens, promoting positive interpersonal relationships, conflict management, and community engagement.

Question 3.
The National Education Policy (2020) does not recognize the significance of life skills in shaping well-rounded individuals.
Answer:
The National Education Policy (2020) emphasizes life skills such as creativity, critical thinking, ethical values, communication, cooperation, teamwork, and resilience.

Question 4.
Life skills education is static and does not evolve with changing societal and technological landscapes.
Answer:
Life skills education is a dynamic and evolving process, adapting to changes in society and technology to equip adolescents for contemporary challenges.

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Education Solutions Chapter 17 Life Skills Education

Question 5.
Life skills education does not address global issues such as the COVID-19 pandemic.
Answer:
Life skills education can address global issues like the COVID-19 pandemic through
various teaching approaches, fostering informed anc) mature responses among adolescents.

Question 6.
Life skills education does not contribute to the prevention of high-risk social behavior and problems such as substance abuse, alcoholism, and bullying.
Answer:
Life skills education plays a role in preventing high-risk social behavior and social problems, including substance abuse, alcoholism, sexual exploitation, bullying, and suicide.

Question 7.
The United Nations does not recognize the significance of life skills education in promoting healthy child and adolescent development.
Answer:
The United Nations recognizes the importance of life skills education in promoting healthy child and adolescent development, preventing key reasons for mortality and disabilities, and facilitating socialization.

Question 8.
Answer:
Life skills education does not contribute to the development of positive interpersonal relationships with peers, teachers, and family members.
Answer: Life skills education contributes to the development’of positive interpersonal relationships, enhancing communication and understanding among peers, teachers, and family members. .

Question 9.
Life skills education is exclusively theoretical and does not involve practical skill development.
Answer:
Life skills education involves practical skill development through approaches like thematic teaching, activity-based learning, and hands-on experiences.

Question 10.
Life skills education is confined to the classroom and does not extend beyond academic boundaries.
Answer:
Life skills education extends beyond the classroom, encompassing activities like debates, dramas, community service, and guest’ lectures to provide practical and experiential learning opportunities.

IV. Answer the following questions in one word:

Question 1.
What is Life Skill Education?
Answer:
Holistic development through competency-building.

Question 2.
How does Life Skill Education benefit adolescents?
Answer:
Enhances psycho-social competence.

Question 3.
What is the aim of Life Skill Education from a social learning perspective?
Answer:
Translate knowledge into relevant actions.

Question 4.
What is a key component of Life Skill Education based on social learning theory?
Answer:
Active participation.

Question 5.
How does Life Skill Education contribute to personal development?
Answer:
Develops emotional intelligence.

Question 6.
What does the National Education Policy (2020) emphasize regarding life skills?
Answer:
Fundamental guiding principles.

Question 7.
What is the significance of life skills in addressing challenges faced by adolescents?
Answer:
Fosters resilience and positive decision-making.

Question 8.
According to the United Nations, what does Life Skill Education promote?
Answer:
Healthy child and adolescent development.

Question 9.
What is the focus of a content-based approach in Life Skill Education?
Answer:
Generating awareness and; increasing knowledge.

Question 10.
How can life skills be developed through the thematic approach?
Answer:
Integrating contents from various subjects and activities.

Question 11.
What is a strategy for teaching life skills involving hands-on skills development?
Answer:
Activity-based approach.

Question 12.
According to the CBSE, what is the scope of life skills education beyond classrooms?
Answer:
Integration into all subject areas.

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Education Solutions Chapter 17 Life Skills Education

Life skill education in the context of adolescents is often linked with adolescence education which generates awareness among them about health issues and health hazards such as HIV/ AIDS, sexual orientation and issues and guidance required by adolescents to cope with it. Life skills education viewed from this perspective aims to develop competencies among adolescents to deal with the biological, psychological and social constraints more efficiently. Life skills education helps the adolescent to translate knowledge, attitude and values into reality thrpugh relevant actions.

In other words, life skill education ensures that the adolescent is aware of both i.e. ‘what to do and how to do’. A life skill education programme is generally based on social learning theory wherein learning is considered to be actively acquiring, processing and structuring experiences and considered as an essential component of quality education. Life skill education is therefore a dynamic and evolving process which seeks active participation and involvement of tire school, teachers, parents and the local community.

It facilitates:

  1. the practice and reinforcement of skills in a culturally and developmcntally appropriate manner,
  2. the personal, social and emotional development, and an increase in the psychosocial competencies of adolescents,
  3. the prevention of high risk social behaviour and social problems such as substance abuse, alcoholism, sexual exploitation, bullying and suicide, etc.,
  4. the protection of human rights of each and every child and adolescents,
  5. the development of mature and socially productive citizens of the country,
  6. the development of positive interpersonal relationships with peers, teachers and tamily members,
  7. the promotion of healthy behaviour and mental wellbeing,
  8. the channelisation of aggression and violence, the prevention of teen pregnancy, and improves social and emotional adjustment.

Need for life skill Education :
• In everyday life, individuals exhibit varying levels of emotional maturity and coping mechanisms in response to stressful situations, indicating differences in their psycho-social competence. The last decade of the twentieth century saw a heightened focus on mental health, particularly among adolescents, due to factors like globalization, cultural intermixing, and easy access to Information and Communication Technology (ICT). The surge in challenges faced by adolescents, such as violence, emotional outbursts, academic stress, and substance abuse, necessitates the enhancement of psycho-social competence through life skills education. This approach aims to equip young people with adaptive behaviors, positive decision-making, and resilience to navigate the complexities of modem life.

• The United Nations recognized the significance of life skills education, highlighting its role in promoting healthy child and adolescent development, preventing key reasons for mortality and disabilities, facilitating socialization, and preparing youth for evolving social circumstances. Life skills education fosters emotional intelligence, encouraging resilience, positive development, and effective conflict management. The need for teaching life skills is underscored by its contribution to the mental health and well-being of adolescents, fostering critical thinking, addressing personal and social issues objectively, developing empathy, enhancing communication skills, boosting self-confidence, and cultivating emotionally balanced and socially responsive citizens.

• The National Education Policy (2020) recognizes life skills as fundamental guiding principles, emphasizing creativity, critical thinking, ethical values, communication, cooperation, teamwork, and resilience. These skills are considered essential for both individual institutions and the broader education system. Life skills education is acknowledged as a deliberate and planned skill development program, acknowledging that the mentioned capabilities require intentional learning. Overall, life skills education is pivotal in shaping well-rounded individuals capable of navigating the challenges of contemporary life and contributing positively to society.

Approaches of life skill education:
• Various teaching approaches, including content-based, thematic, and activity-based approaches, can be employed for imparting life skills education. In a content-based approach, the focus is on generating awareness and increasing knowledge about a specific topic. On the other hand, the thematic approach centers around a particular theme, integrating contents from various subjects and activities to ensure comprehensive knowledge and the development of relevant attitudes, values, and skills among adolescents.

• For instance, during the COVID-19 pandemic, a teacher can utilize these approaches to help students understand and take necessary precautions. The content-based approach may create awareness about the virus, its nature, and preventive measures. The thematic approach can explore the consequences of the disease on health, mental well-being, and its broader societal impacts. An activity-based approach may involve hands-on skills development, such as using masks, hand sanitizers, proper handwashing, and understanding social distancing norms. Techniques like discussions, debates, role-plays, and social media can further enhance skills required for preventing the disease, fostering informed and mature responses.

• Organizing sessions around thematic themes, such as ‘understanding the self’ or ‘reflecting on one’s experiences during the lockdown,’ provides adolescents with an opportunity to view their lives from different perspectives and develop a new vision. Life skills can be developed by addressing various adolescent issues like HIV/AIDS, delinquent behavior, bullying, violence, disciplinary problems, and gender issues through these versatile teaching approaches. Overall, these methods offer a dynamic and integrated approach to life skills education, addressing both awareness and practical skill development in a holistic manner.

Strategies for life skill Education :
• For the healthy development of adolescents, the cultivation of various life skills is essential. Teaching methods that focus on social competence, problem-solving skills, resilience, and positive coping mechanisms are crucial. Emotional intelligence also plays a significant role in life skills development, requiring conscious efforts from teachers to help students acquire and enhance emotional intelligence. Employing strategies in the teaching-learning process that stimulate higher-order thinking skills such as analysis, synthesis, inference, predictions, critical, and reflective thinking is vital for life skills development.

• Several strategies, including group discussion and debate, cooperative learning, role-play, analysis of situations and case studies, contribute to the effective teaching of life skills. Group discussions and debates provide opportunities for critical thinking, moral judgment, and addressing various adolescent issues. Cooperative learning strategies ensure active involvement, motivation, and the development of social and communication skills. Role-playing enhances real-life situational understanding, boosts confidence, and strengthens communication and human interaction skills. Analyzing situations and case studies allows students to explore, challenge, collaborate, and gain new insights into the discussed issues.

• The Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE) has devised a matrix based on WHO’s matrix to teach life skills, including various strategies available at www.cbse.nic.in. Life skills education goes beyond theoretical discussions in classrooms; students need exposure to lived experiences and active learning opportunities. Activities like painting/poster competitions, debates, dramas, community service, and guest lectures contribute to the development of life skills. These experiences, combined with knowledge, skills, and attitudes acquired, form the foundation for success in personal, academic, professional, and community life. The scope of life skills education extends beyond classroom boundaries and should be integrated into all subject areas of the secondary school curriculum.

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Education Solutions Chapter 16 Information and Communication Technology (ICT) in Education

Odisha State Board CHSE Odisha Class 12 Education Solutions Chapter 16 Information and Communication Technology (ICT) in Education Questions and Answers.

CHSE Odisha 12th Class Education Chapter 16 Question Answer Information and Communication Technology (ICT) in Education

Group – A

Short type Questions with Answers
I. Answer with in Two/Three sentence:

Question 1.
How does IT contribute to education?
Answer:
IT enhances education by providing access to various learning resources, enabling immediate access to information, and supporting collaborative learning.

Question 2.
What is the significance of multimedia in education?
Answer:
Multimedia in education facilitates audio-visual learning, offering an authentic and updated approach to information delivery.

Question 3.
Define Educational Technology (ET).
Answer:
Educational Technology is the application of scientific knowledge to improve the efficiency of teaching and training through technological processes and resources.

Question 4.
What are the characteristics of Educational Technology?
Answer:
Characteristics of Educational Technology include being a practical and modern discipline, promoting the science of techniques and methods, and being a continuous and dynamic process.

Question 5.
How does Educational Technology contribute to self-paced learning?
Answer:
Educational Technology provides a self-paced learning environment, allowing students to learn at their convenience and engage in trial-and-error approaches.

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Education Solutions Chapter 16 Information and Communication Technology (ICT) in Education

Question 6.
What are the objectives of Educational Technology?
Answer:
Objectives of Educational Technology include identifying educational needs, developing technology-based teaching models, and enhancing digital literacy skills among learners.

Question 7.
How does Educational Technology improve collaboration among students?
Answer:
Educational Technology fosters collaboration by allowing students to work together in groups, share knowledge, and assist each other in learning.

Question 8.
What role does ICT play in higher education?
Answer:
ICT in higher education facilitates blended learning, collaborative techniques, and instant access to vast knowledge resources.

Question 9.
How does ICT enhance the efficiency of learning for teachers?
Answer:
ICT allows teachers to control lesson pace, sequence, and content, improving the efficiency of learning and creating an interactive environment.

Question 10.
What is the transformation brought by ICT in teacher’s education?
Answer:
ICT transforms teacher’s education by promoting interactive learning environments, enhancing professional development, and making teachers facilitators in learner-centered classrooms.

II. Answer with in Five/Six sentence :

Question 1.
How has Information Technology (IT) impacted education, particularly in terms of learning resources and immediacy of information?
Answer:
information Technology in education has revolutionized learning by providing access to a variety of resources, facilitating audio-visual education, and ensuring immediate access to information. Learners now perceive computers as essential tools across all study areas, utilizing multimedia technologies for effective communication and information organization.

Question 2.
What is the significance of collaborative learning facilitated by IT in the educational context?
Answer:
Information Technology has made collaborative learning seamless, allowing students and teachers to study and teach in groups or clusters through the internet and various web platforms. This collaborative approach enhances engagement, interaction, and knowledge sharing, fostering a more dynamic and effective learning environment.

Question 3.
How does Educational Technology (ET) contribute to modern teaching methods, and what are some characteristics of Educational Technology?
Answer:
Educational Technology (ET) plays a pivotal role in improving teaching methods by providing a science-based, practical approach. ET is characterized by being a modern, dynamic, and fast-growing discipline, focusing on the application of scientific knowledge to enhance the efficiency of teaching and training. It brings together teachers, students, and technology effectively.

Question 4.
What are the objectives of Educational Technology, and how does it help in overcoming barriers in education?
Answer:
The objectives of Educational Technology include identifying educational needs, developing technology-based teaching models, extending educational opportunities, and analyzing the teaching-learning process. It helps overcome barriers through distance learning, administering managing strategies, and providing a self-paced learning environment.

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Education Solutions Chapter 16 Information and Communication Technology (ICT) in Education

Question 5.
How does Educational Technology (ET) improve collaboration, innovation, and accommodate different learning styles in classrooms?
Answer:
ET enhances collaboration and coordination among teachers and students, fosters innovation by replacing traditional methods, and accommodates diverse learning styles by identifying and modifying lessons based on individual preferences.

Question 6.
What role does ICT play in higher education, and how does it transform traditional assessment methods?
Answer:
ICT in higher education introduces blended learning, facilitating a combination of face- to-face and self-learning approaches. It transforms assessment methods by providing tools for compiling results, quizzes, portfolios, and other assessments in a more manageable and effective manner.

Question 7.
How does ICT contribute to the transformation of teacher education, and what advantages does it offer for both pre-service and in-service teachers?
Answer:
ICT enhances the efficiency of learning, promotes an interactive learning environment, and aids in the professional development of teachers. It plays a crucial role in pre-service and in-service teacher training, offering tools for assignments, documentation, and facilitating a shift towards learner-centered classrooms.

Question 8.
In what ways does ICT act as an assisting tool for teachers, and how does it promote teachers to be facilitators and guides in the learning process?
Answer:
ICT serves as an assisting tool for teachers in creating assignments, documentation, lesson plans, and other educational materials. It promotes teachers to act as facilitators by providing tools such as digital libraries, smart boards, audio-video chats, and e-leaming.

Question 9.
How does ICT contribute to self-learning among teachers, and what are the advantages of incorporating digital literacy skills in education?
Answer:
ICT provides teachers with unlimited access to updated and additional learning resources, fostering self-learning. Incorporating digital literacy skills in education promotes informativeness, creativity, collaboration, versatility, engagement, trustworthiness, and availability.

Question 10.
What is the significance of Educational Technology in achieving learning objectives, and how does it contribute to the management of learning resources?
Answer:
Educational Technology plays a vital role in achieving learning objectives by providing a technology-assisted environment, integrating technological skills with teaching, and managing learning resources efficiently. It contributes to the development of outlined learning resources and enhances the digital literature among masses.

Group – C

Long Type Questions With Answers

Question 1.
Explore the impact of information technology on education by discussing its applications and contributions.
Answer:
Information technology (IT) has significantly transformed the landscape of education, revolutionizing traditional teaching methods and fostering a more dynamic and interactive learning environment. This essay explores the profound impact of information technology on education, highlighting its diverse applications and valuable contributions.

• One of the primary applications of information technology in education is the advent of online learning platforms. These platforms enable students to access educational resources and participate in virtual classrooms from anywhere with an internet connection. This flexibility has democratized education, breaking down geographical barriers and providing learning opportunities to individuals who may not have had access to traditional educational institutions.

• Moreover, IT has enhanced the efficiency of educational administration through the implementation of management information systems. These systems facilitate seamless communication between educational institutions, students, and parents, streamlining processes such as enrollment, grading, and attendance tracking. Automation of administrative tasks allows educators to focus more on teaching and mentoring students, ultimately improving the overall quality of education.

• The integration of multimedia elements in educational materials is another noteworthy contribution of information technology. Interactive e-books, educational videos, and multimedia presentations engage students more effectively, catering to diverse learning styles. This not only makes learning more enjoyable but also enhances comprehension and retention of information.

• Furthermore, the emergence of virtual reality (VR) and augmented reality (AR) technologies has brought about immersive learning experiences. Students can explore historical events, dissect virtual organisms, or even simulate scientific experiments in a controlled and risk¬free environment. These technologies bridge the gap between theoretical concepts and practical application, providing a holistic understanding of subjects.

• Collaborative tools and communication platforms have also been instrumental in fostering a sense of community among students and educators. Discussion forums, video conferencing, and collaborative document editing enable seamless interaction and knowledge-sharing, creating a globalized and interconnected educational ecosystem. Students can engage in collaborative projects, share insights, and learn from diverse perspectives, preparing them for a globally connected workforce.

• In conclusion, information technology has revolutionized education by offering diverse applications and valuable contributions. From online learning platforms to multimedia- enhanced materials and immersive technologies, IT has made education more accessible,
engaging, and efficient. As technology continues to advance, the educational landscape will likely witness even more transformative changes, ensuring that learners are equipped with the skills needed for success in the digital age.

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Education Solutions Chapter 16 Information and Communication Technology (ICT) in Education

Question 2.
Distinguish between information technology (IT) and instructional technology, and explore the advantages and limitations of employing IT in the field of education.
Answer:
• Information technology (IT) and instructional technology are two distinct but interconnected concepts in the realm of education. While both involve the use of technology to enhance learning, they serve different purposes and focus on distinct aspects of the educational process.

• Information technology (IT) refers to the broader application of technology to manage and process information. It encompasses a wide range of tools and systems designed to store, retrieve, transmit, and manipulate data. In the context of education, IT includes the use of computers, networks, software applications, and other digital resources to support administrative tasks, communication, and information dissemination within educational institutions.

• On the other hand, instructional technology specifically targets the design and implementation of instructional materials and strategies to facilitate effective learning. It is a more focused subset of IT, emphasizing the use of technology to enhance teaching and learning experiences. Instructional technology encompasses the development of multimedia content, interactive learning materials, educational software, and other technological tools tailored to meet educational objectives.

• Now, exploring the advantages of employing IT in education, one key benefit is enhanced accessibility. The use of IT tools enables remote learning, breaking down geographical barriers and providing educational opportunities to a wider audience. Online courses, digital textbooks, and educational websites make learning resources available anytime, anywhere, fostering a more inclusive educational environment.

• Additionally, IT facilitates personalized learning experiences. Adaptive learning platforms and educational software can be tailored to individual student needs, allowing for a more customized and adaptive’ approach to education. This helps students progress at their own pace, addressing gaps in understanding and providing additional challenges as needed.

• Moreover, IT promotes collaboration and interactive learning. Virtual classrooms, discussion forums, and collaborative online projects enable students to engage with peers, share ideas, and work together on assignments, promoting a sense of community and enhancing the overall learning experience.

• However, the use of IT in education also comes with limitations. One significant concern is the digital divide, whefre disparities in access to technology and the internet create inequalities in educational opportunities. Not all students have equal access to devices or reliable internet connections, potentially excluding some from the benefits of IT-driven education.

• Security and privacy issues are also challenges associated with IT in education. Protecting sensitive student data and ensuring the security of online learning environments are crucial considerations. Additionally, the rapid pace of technological advancements can pose challenges for educators in terms of keeping up with the latest tools and effectively integrating them into the curriculum.

• In conclusion, while information technology and instructional technology share common ground in leveraging technology for educational purposes, they differ in their focus. The advantages of employing IT in education include enhanced accessibility, personalized learning, and collaborative opportunities. However, limitations such as the digital divide and security concerns must be carefully addressed to ensure equitable and secure educational experiences for all students.

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Education Solutions Chapter 16 Information and Communication Technology (ICT) in Education

Question 3.
Define the concept of information technology and How it impacts on education.
Answer:
Information technology (IT) refers to the utilization Of computer systems, networks, software, and digital resources for the acquisition, storage, processing, transmission, and management of information. It encompasses a wide range of technologies and tools designed to facilitate the handling of data in various sectors, including business, healthcare, education, and more.

Impact of Information Technology on Education in India:- Access to Educational Resources :
Advantage : Information technology has democratized education by providing access to a vast array of educational resources. Online platforms, digital libraries, and e-books offer students and educators a wealth of information, irrespective of their geographical location.

Challenge : Disparities in internet access and digital infrastructure may create a digital divide, affecting students in remote or economically disadvantaged areas.
Online Learning Platforms:

Advantage : Information technology has facilitated the growth of online learning platforms, enabling flexible and remote education. Students can engage in virtual classrooms, access lectures, and participate in discussions, promoting a more inclusive learning environment.

Challenge: The effectiveness of online learning depends on factors such as internet reliability, digital literacy, and the ability of educators to adapt to new teaching methodologies.

E-Learning Content:
Advantage : IT has revolutionized the creation and delivery of educational content through e-leaming modules, multimedia presentations, and interactive simulations. This dynamic and engaging content caters to diverse learning styles, enhancing comprehension and retention.

Challenge : Developing high-quality e-leaming content requires significant investment and expertise. Ensuring content relevance and keeping it updated can be ongoing challenges. Administrative Efficiency :

Advantage : Educational institutions in India leverage information technology for administrative tasks, such as student enrollment, grading, and record-keeping. This streamlines processes, reduces paperwork, and enhances overall administrative efficiency.

Challenge : Implementation of IT systems may face resistance or challenges in adapting to new administrative procedures.
Communication and Collaboration:

Advantage : Information technology facilitates seamless communication and collaboration among students, educators, and parents. Communication tools, video conferencing, and collaborative platforms foster an interconnected educational ecosystem.

Challenge : Ensuring a secure and private communication environment and addressing potential misuses of technology are ongoing concerns.

Skill bevelopment:
Advantage : IT in education contributes to skill development by exposing students to digital tools and technologies. This prepares them for a technology-driven workforce and aligns with India’s focus on skill development for economic growth.

Challenge: Bridging the gap between urban and rural areas in terms of IT infrastructure and access to skill development opportunities remains a challenge.

In conclusion, the impact of information technology on education in India is multifaceted, offering numerous advantages while presenting challenges that need careful consideration and strategic solutions to ensure equitable and effective educational outcomes for all.

Group – B

Objective type Questions with Answers
I. Multiple Choice Questions with Answers:

Question 1.
What is the role of IT in providing educational resources?
(i) Limited access
(ii) No impact
(iii) Access to a variety of resources
(iv) Print-based resources only
Answer:
(iii) Access to a variety of resources

Question 2.
How does IT contribute to the immediacy of information in education?
(i) Slows down the learning process
(ii) No impact on information access
(iii) Provides immediate access to information
(iv) Restricts information availability
Answer:
(iii) Provides immediate access to information

Question 3.
In the context of IT, what does “Any time learning” refer to?
(i) Learning restricted to specific hours
(ii) Learning anytime, anywhere
(iii) Learning only during school hours
(iv) Learning limited to weekends
Answer:
(ii) Learning anytime, anywhere

Question 4.
How does IT support collaborative learning?
(i) Restricts group activities
(ii) No impact on collaboration
(iii) Makes group study difficult
(iv) Facilitates studying and teaching in groups
Answer:
(iv) Facilitates studying and teaching in groups

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Education Solutions Chapter 16 Information and Communication Technology (ICT) in Education

Question 5.
What is the essence of the multimedia approach to education facilitated by IT?
(i) Exclusive reliance on print materials
(ii) Limited use of technology
(iii) Integration of audio-visual elements
(iv) Ignoring technological advancements
Answer:
(iii) Integration of audio-visual elements

Question 6.
Which statement accurately describes the role of technology in education today?
(i) Technology has no impact on education
(ii) Technology has negatively affected education
(iii) Technology is a boon, aiding effective teaching
(iv) Technology limits education to traditional methods
Answer:
(iii) Technology is a boon, aiding effective teaching

Question 7.
What was the primary means of learning in the Gurukul system?
(i) Technological tools
(ii) Oral teaching method
(iii) Writing and textbooks
(iv) Audio-visual aids
Answer:
(ii) Oral teaching method

Question 8.
How does educational technology differ from traditional teaching methods?
(i) It is less practical
(ii) It is more theoretical
(iii) It is a modern discipline
(iv) It excludes science
Answer:
(iii) It is a modern discipline

Question 9.
What characterizes educational technology as a discipline?
(i) Static and rigid
(ii) Dynamic and continuous
(iii) Theoretical and impractical
(iv) Irrelevant and outdated
Answer:
(ii) Dynamic and continuous

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Education Solutions Chapter 16 Information and Communication Technology (ICT) in Education

Question 10.
What is the objective of identifying educational needs and aspirations of learners in educational technology?
(i) To limit educational opportunities
(ii) To ignore learner preferences
(iii) To improve the efficacy of education
(iv) To discourage feedback
Answer:
(iii) To improve the efficacy of education

Question 11.
How does educational technology contribute to overcoming barriers in education?
(i) By creating more barriers
(ii) By promoting traditional methods
(iii) Through distance learning
(iv) By limiting access to information
Answer:
(iii) Through distance learning

Question 12.
What does educational technology encompass in terms of learning resources?
(i) Human resources only
(ii) Limited resources
(iii) Nori-human resources only
(iv) Human and non-human resources
Answer:
(iv) Human and non-human resources

Question 13.
How does educational technology provide a self-paced learning environment to pupils?
(i) By imposing a fixed pace
(ii) By restricting learning options
(iii) Through rigid schedules
(iv) By allowing students to learn at their own pace
Answer:
(iv) By allowing students to learn at their own pace

Question 14.
What does ICT stand for in the context of higher education?
(i) International Communication Tools
(ii) Integrated Curriculum Technology
(iii) Information and Communication Technology
(iv) Inclusive Classroom Teaching
Answer:
(iii) Information and Communication Technology

Question 15.
How does ICT contribute to assessment in higher education?
(i) By complicating assessment methods
(ii) By limiting assessment options
(iii) By making assessment more manageable and effective
(iv) By excluding assessment practices
Answer:
(iii) By making assessment more manageable and effective

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Education Solutions Chapter 16 Information and Communication Technology (ICT) in Education

Question 16.
What is blended learning in the context of higher education?
(i) Single approach to learning
(ii) Exclusive use of technology
(iii) Combination of multiple learning approaches
(iv) Limited to face-to-face learning only
Answer:
(iii) Combination of multiple learning approaches

Question 17.
How does ICT enhance Collaboration in higher education?
(i) By discouraging teamwork
(ii) By limiting access to information
(iii) By promoting teamwork projects and collaborative learning
(iv) By excluding collaborative techniques
Answer:
(iii) By promoting teamwork projects and collaborative learning

Question 18.
What does ICT offer in terms of access to knowledge in higher education?
(i) Restricted access
(ii) Limited information
(iii) Immediate access to a vast amount of information
(iv) No impact on access to knowledge
Answer:
(iii) Immediate access to a vast amount of information

Question 19.
How does ICT contribute to the learner-centered approach in higher education?
(i) By limiting individual uniqueness
(ii) By ignoring learner preferences
(iii) By promoting a learner-centered approach
(iv) By excluding individual needs
Answer:
(iii) By promoting a learner-centered approach

Question 20.
What role does ICT play in self-learning techniques in higher education?
(i) It hinders self-learning
(ii) It limits self-study opportunities
(iii) It promotes self-learning
(iv) It discourages digital literacy skills
Answer:
(iii) It promotes self-learning

Question 21.
How does ICT enhance the efficiency of learning in teacher’s education?
(i) By impeding learning efficiency
(ii) By promoting traditional methods
(iii) By facilitating control on lessons and feedback
(iv) By excluding feedback mechanisms
Answer:
(iii) By facilitating control on lessons and feedback

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Education Solutions Chapter 16 Information and Communication Technology (ICT) in Education

Question 22.
What is the role of ICT in promoting interactive learning environments for teachers?
(i) It restricts interaction
(ii) It hampers motivation and interest
(iii) It promotes interactivity and individual uniqueness
(iv) It ignores learner preferences
Answer:
(iii) It promotes interactivity and individual uniqueness

Question 23.
How does ICT contribute to the professional development of teachers?
(i) By hindering professional development
(ii) By excluding training opportunities
(iii) By acting as a tool for training and support
(iv) By limiting access to technology
Answer:
(iii) By acting as a tool for training and support

Question 24.
What role does ICT play in pre- and in-service teachers’ training?
(i) It limits training opportunities
(ii) It excludes new tools for learning
(iii) It promotes efficient and productive training
(iv) It hinders teachers’ education programs
Answer:
(iii) It promotes efficient and productive training

Question 25.
How does ICT contribute to making teachers facilitators and guides in the classroom?
(i) By discouraging facilitation
(ii) By promoting traditional leadership
(iii) By providing facilities for digital literacy
(iv) By excluding technological tools
Answer:
(iii) By providing facilities for digital literacy

II. Fill in the blanks :

Question 1.
Access to a variety of learning resources in the era of technology enhances _____ skills and learning ability.
Answer:
teaching

Question 2.
Immediacy to information provided by IT has resulted in a fast pace of imparting knowledge, allowing education to be acquired anywhere at _____.
Answer:
any time

Question 3.
Collaborative learning is made easy by IT, allowing students to study and teach in groups or _____.
Answer:
clusters

Question 4.
The multimedia approach to education involves the use of devices such as still and motion pictures, Filmstrips, television, audiotapes, records, computers, and _____.
Answer:
video discs

Question 5.
Educational Technology (ET) is a more practical discipline rather than a purely _____ one.
Answer:
theoretical

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Education Solutions Chapter 16 Information and Communication Technology (ICT) in Education

Question 6.
ET brings together teachers, pupils, and technology in an effective way to improve the efficiency of _____!
Answer:
teaching and training

Question 7.
The basis of Educational Technology is rooted in _____ .
Answer:
science

Question 8.
ET is concerned with the improvement of the teaching-learning _____.
Answer:
process

Question 9.
Educational Technology is a continuous and dynamic _____.
Answer:
process

Question 10.
The objectives of Educational Technology include the identification of educational needs, the development of technology-based teaching models, and the analysis of the teaching-learning _____.
Answer:
process

Question 11.
ET provides a self-paced learning environment, allowing students to engage in _____ and error approaches.
Answer:
trial

Question 12.
ET incorporates different learning styles to modify lessons and activities based on individual _____.
Answer:
learning styles

Question 13.
Technology helps in overcoming barriers in traditional _____ methods.
Answer:
classroom

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Education Solutions Chapter 16 Information and Communication Technology (ICT) in Education

Question 14.
Educational Technology promotes an environment that facilitates the achievement of learning _____.
Answer:
objectives

Question 15.
ET provides unlimited access to information from any location at any _____.
Answer:
time

Question 16.
Educational Technology is more informative, creative, collaborative, Versatile, engaging, trustworthy, available, and _____ .
Answer:
reliable

Question 17.
ICT in higher education allows instant access to _____ from the internet.
Answer:
knowledge

Question 18.
Blended learning, a combination of face-to-face and self-learning, is useful for higher studies as it emphasizes _____ approaches.
Answer:
self-learning

Question 19.
ICT in teacher’s education enhances the efficiency of learning and promotes a(n) _____ environment.
Answer:
interactive

Question 20.
ICT in teacher’s education promotes teachers to act as facilitators, providing facilities such as digital libraries, smart boards, and _____.
Answer:
E-leaming

III. Correct the Sentences :

Question 1.
“Now in the year of computers and web networks the pace of imparting knowledge is very fast and one can be educated anywhere at any time.”
Answer:
“Now, in the era of computers and web networks, the pace of imparting knowledge is very fast, and one can be educated anywhere at any time.”

Question 2.
“This is an advent in Technology.”
Answer:
“This is an advancement in technology.”

Question 3.
“Therefore, the scope of life skill education programme is very wide and extends beyond the boundaries of the classroom or the school.”
Answer:
“Therefore, the scope of the life skills education program is very wide and extends beyond the boundaries of the classroom or the school.”

Question 4.
“Meaning And Scope Of Educational Technology (ET)”
Answer:
“Meaning And Scope Of Educational Technology (EdTech)”

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Education Solutions Chapter 16 Information and Communication Technology (ICT) in Education

Question 5.
“The result is a large number of learners are pursuing their studies through technology (online/ offline).”
Answer:
“The result is a large number of learners are pursuing their studies through technology (online/offline).”

Question 6.
“It became very much essential for all who are members in the field of education to get familiar with the use of technology in education.”
Answer:
“It became essential for all who are members in the field of education to get familiar with the use of technology in education.” .

Question 7.
“The growth of audio-visual education has reflected developments in both technology and learning theory.”
Answer:
“The growth of audio-visual education has reflected developments in both technology and learning theories.” ‘

Question 8.
“The Internet and its Web sites provide this facility.”
Answer:
“The Internet and its websites provide this facility.”

Question 9.
“The more emphasis on students practice was memorization, the oral teaching method was maintained traditionally in the Gurukul system.”
Answer:
“While the Gurukul system traditionally maintained oral teaching methods, there was more emphasis on students practicing memorization.”

Question 10.
“This concept get broadened with new innovations in CAI (Computer Assisted Instructions).” Answer: “This concept gets broadened with new innovations in CAI (Computer Assisted Instruction).”

IV. Answer the following questions in one word:

Question 1.
What is the primary benefit of IT in education?
Answer:
Access to a variety pf learning resources.

Question 2.
How has IT impacted the pace of imparting knowledge?
Answer:
It has provided immediacy to education.

Question 3.
In what ways does IT support collaborative learning?
Answer:
It makes studying and teaching in groups or clusters easy.

Question 4.
What does the term ET stand for in education?
Answer:
Educational Technology.

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Education Solutions Chapter 16 Information and Communication Technology (ICT) in Education

Question 5.
According to Shiv K. Mitra, how can Educational Technology be conceived?
Answer:
As a science of techniques and methods for realizing educational goals.

Question 6.
What is the basis of Educational Technology?
Answer:
Science.

Question 7.
How does ET impact the teaching-learning process?
Answer:
It aims to improve the efficiency of teaching and training.

Question 8.
What is one characteristic of Educational Technology?
Answer:
It is a modem discipline.

Question 9.
How does ET provide trial-and-error learning?
Answer:
It offers a self-paced learning environment with immediate feedback.

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Education Solutions Chapter 16 Information and Communication Technology (ICT) in Education

Question 10.
What does ICT stand for in the context of higher education?
Answer:
Information and Communication Technology.

Question 11.
What is a key role of ICT in teacher’s education?
Answer:
Enhancing the professional development of teachers.

Question 12.
How does ICT contribute to interactive learning environments?
Answer:
It promotes motivation and interest among learners. .

Question 13.
What does MOOC stand for in the realm of online platforms for higher education?
Answer:
Massive Open Online Courses.

Question 14.
What is the emphasis of learner-centered approaches in education?
Answer:
Allowing learners to have control over the learning process.

Question 15.
How does ICT impact the role of teachers in the classroom?
Answer:
It transforms teachers into facilitators and guides.

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Education Solutions Chapter 16 Information and Communication Technology (ICT) in Education

Role of IT in Education:
• Access to a variety of learning resources – In the era of technology, IT aids have plenty of resources to enhance teaching skills and learning ability. With the help of IT now it is easy to provide audio visual education. Learners are encouraged to regard computers as tools to be used in all aspects of their studies. In particular, they need to make use of the new multimedia technologies to communicate ideas, describe projects, and order information in their work.

• Immediacy to information – IT has provided immediacy to education. Now in the year of computers and web networks the pace of imparting knowledge is very fast and one can be educated anywhere at any time.

• Any time learning – Now in the year of computers and web networks the pace of imparting knowledge is very fast and one can be educated. One can study whenever he wants irrespective of geographical conditions.

• Collaborative learning – Now IT has made it easy to study as well as teach in groups or in clusters. The Internet and its Web sites provide this facility.

• Multimedia approach to education – Audio- Visual education, planning, preparation, and use of devices and materials for educational purposes. Among the devices used are still and motion pictures, filmstrips, television, transparencies, audiotapes, records, teaching machines, computers, and video discs. The growth of audio-visual education has reflected developments in both technology and learning theory. IT provides authentic and updated information.

Educational Technology:
Technology is becoming a boon for teachers as it is helping them to teach more effectively. Education has been benefited by technology in differentays, and at various levels. Technology has made an impact on education training. If we talk about the current situation, many institutes worldwide are offering courses through various technologies such as Internet, multimedia, live TV, computer (Audio/video conferencing) etc. The result is a large number of learners are pursuing their studies through technology (online/ offline).

• It became very much essential for all who are members in the field of education to get familiar with the use of technology in education. In the early period when writing was unknown, verbal communication was the part of learning. The more emphasis on students practice was memorization, the oral teaching method was maintained traditionally in the Gurukul system.

• Later writing developed & different means of communication materials were used like writing on leaves, tree – trunks, engraving on metals, engraving on rocks and gradually paper and ink got introduced which helped in development of printing materials, textbooks.
production of different materials like chalk-board, pictures, charts, diagrams, graphs and graphics. This concept get broadened with new innovations in CAI (Computer Assisted Instructions).

Meaning and Scope of Educational Technology (ET):
Technical equipment such as electronic media (OHP, Computer, Television, Radio etc.).Scientific and systematic analysis of the teaching learning process to improve its effectiveness.

Characteristics of Education Technology:

  1. The basis of Educational Technology is science.
  2. It is more practical discipline rather a less theoretical one.
  3. It is a modern discipline.
  4. It brings teachers, pupils & technology together in an effective way.
  5. It is the science of techniques and methods.
  6. It is concerned with improvement in the teaching learning process.
  7. ET is a continuous and dynamic process.
  8. New innovations are possible due to technological intervention.
  9. Educational Technology is the practical aspect of science.
  10. Synchronized with learning theories and the art of teaching.

Objectives Of Educational Technology:
The following are the objectives of Educational Technology.

  1. To identify educational needs and aspirations of the learners.
  2. To identity the aims of education with its structure.
  3. To develop man-made resources and the process to utilize them.
  4. To develop technology-based teaching models to improve the efficacy of education.
  5. To help in extending educational opportunities to the masses.
  6. To overcome the barriers in education through distance learning.
  7. To administer managing strategies in the educational system such as planning, implementation, evaluation and feedback phases.
  8. To analyze the teaching learning process.
  9. Development of curriculum and courses.
  10. Development of teaching – learning materials.

To impart training to teachers.
Role of ICT In Higher Education:
• Advancement in assessment : Assessment in the classical education system was limited to ” several examinations at the end of completing syllabus. But the adaptation of ICT in higher education makes assessment more manageable and effective. MCQ test, quiz, results, portfolios, work in progress, feedback etc. can be compiled in a desired format.

• Blended learning : Gives the combination of multiple approaches to learning. This method is useful for higher studies as it includes a mixture of face-to-face learning, self-learning. Higher education mostly emphasizes self-learning approaches.

• Incorporates collaborative Techniques : It promotes teamwork projects, collaborative learning. Students can discuss topics with their peers. They help each other learn in a safe environment.

• Instant access to knowledge : uses of the internet gives a chance for a holistic view of any subject content. Students as well as teachers are able to overcome the restriction of one¬sided textbook materials. A large amount of information is retrieved and explored as and when required.

• Learner centered approach : Allows learners to learn effectively and also explore the new things as per their interest.
Role of ICT In Teacher’s Education :

• ICT enhances the efficiency of learning : ICT facilitates the learners to have control on lesson, pace the sequence, content and feedback which improves the efficiency in learning.

• ICT promotes interactive learning environment : unlike books, it is interactive in nature and creates motivation and interest among the learners. It includes the individual unique need of a learner.

• ICT enhances the professional development of teachers : ICT has become an important and integral part of the curriculum of teacher’s education. ICT can be used as a tool for training and support of teachers, regardless of geographical area restrictions.

• ICT helps teachers in Pre- and In-service teachers training : ICT can make education more efficient and productive, it is a tool used to enhance and facilitate teachers’ professional activities. It is essential that pre- and in-service teachers have basic ICT skills and competencies. To obtain these things teachers’ education institutions need to plan education programs and make them well prepared to use new tools for learning.

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Education Solutions Chapter 15 Value Education and Human Rights Education

Odisha State Board CHSE Odisha Class 12 Education Solutions Chapter 15 Value Education and Human Rights Education Questions and Answers.

CHSE Odisha 12th Class Education Chapter 15 Question Answer Value Education and Human Rights Education

Group – A

Short type Questions with Answers
I. Answer with in Two/Three sentence :

Question 1.
What was the defining goal of education according to the National Commission of Secondary Education (1952-53)?
Answer:
The defining goal of education, according to the National Commission of Secondary Education, was character building.

Question 2.
What shift in focus occurred over the decades in the context of education for peace and value education?
Answer:
The shift in focus moved from religious and moral education to education for peace, reflecting changing societal sensibilities.

Question 3.
According to the National Policy on Education (1986 and 1992), why is value education urgently needed?
Answer:
The National Policy on Education emphasizes the urgent need for value education due to the growing erosion of essential values and increasing cynicism in society.

Question 4.
What role does education play in promoting universal and eternal values, according to the National Policy on Education?
Answer:
Education is seen as a forceful tool for the cultivation of desirable ethical, moral, spiritual, and social values, fostering universal and eternal values like compassion, courage, honesty, tolerance, and truthfulness.

Question 5.
What does the National Policy on Education express concern about in relation to value crisis’?
Answer:
The National Policy on Education expresses concern over the ‘value crisis and the role of education,’ highlighting the need for readjustments in the curriculum to cultivate social and moral values.

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Education Solutions Chapter 15 Value Education and Human Rights Education

Question 6.
What basic right does Article 26 of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights confer?
Answer:
Article 26 confers the basic right to education to everyone, stating that education shall be free at least in the elementary and fundamental stages, and elementary education shall be compulsory.

Question 7.
According to Article 26, what should education be directed towards?
Answer:
Education should be directed towards the full development of the human personality and the strengthening of respect for human rights and fundamental freedoms.

Question 8.
What does the article emphasize about the purpose of education according to Swami Vivekananda?
Answer:
The article emphasizes that education should serve a particular purpose, aligning with the philosophy advocated by Swami Vivekananda, focusing on values, morals, and the needs of both society and the individual.

Question 9.
What role does education play in promoting understanding, tolerance, and global friendship?
Answer:
Education fosters understanding and tolerance, encouraging individuals to embrace diversity and cultivate friendships across the world, promoting a global perspective and mutual respect.

Question 10.
How does education contribute to the participation of individuals in societal development?
Answer:
Education empowers individuals to actively participate in the development of society by providing the knowledge and skills needed for economic, political, social, legal, and cultural engagement.

II. Answer with in Five/Six sentence :

Question 1.
Why is value education considered crucial in the context of national policies, and how has its focus evolved over the decades?
Answer:
Value education is deemed essential due to its role in character building and addressing societal concerns. Over the years, the focus has shifted from religious and moral education to education for peace, reflecting changing sensibilities and a need for holistic development. The emphasis on character, morality, and the development of ideal citizens aligns with the evolving educational landscape, mirroring global trends towards addressing violence and fostering social harmony.

Question 2.
According to the National Policy on Education (1986 and 1992), why is there an urgent need for value education ?
Answer:
The NPE underscores the urgent need for value education in response to the growing erosion of essential values and increasing cynicism in society. It recognizes education as a powerful tool for cultivating ethical, moral, spiritual, and social values. The policy aims to eliminate obscurantism, religious fanaticism, violence, superstition, and fatalism through a curriculum that promotes universal and eternal values. TheNPE highlights education’s acculturating role in refining sensitivities and perceptions, acknowledging the imperative of addressing the contemporary value crisis.

Question 3.
What goals does Human Rights Education aim to achieve, according to the provided text?
Answer:
Human Rights Education seeks to achieve several goals, including the promotion of human rights and fundamental freedoms, the development of human personality and dignity, fostering understanding, tolerance, and global friendship, promoting compassionate behavior and social inclusion, encouraging participation in societal development, inculcating values and morals,, and contributing to global peace and security.Through education, individuals are empowered to be aware of their rights, embrace diversity, and actively engage in societal development, aligning with the objectives of human rights at both national and international levels.

Question 4.
How does education contribute to the promotion of human rights and fundamental freedoms?
Answer:
Education is a fundamental tool in promoting human rights and fundamental freedoms by imparting knowledge, fostering critical thinking, and instilling a sense of justice. It contributes to creating a society where individuals are aware of their rights and responsibilities. Education empowers individuals to advocate for human rights, fostering a culture of respect and protection for all members of society.By promoting awareness and understanding of human rights principles, education equips individuals with the skills needed to address violations, advocate for justice, and contribute to the establishment of a society that upholds the dignity and rights of every individual.

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Education Solutions Chapter 15 Value Education and Human Rights Education

Question 5.
How does education contribute to the development of human personality and dignity?
Answer:
The full development of the human personality and the realization of its dignity are closely linked to education. Through education, individuals gain self-awareness, critical thinking skills, and a broader perspective, contributing to personal growth and a profound sense of dignity. Education plays a transformative role in shaping individuals, enabling them to navigate the complexities of life with confidence and integrity. By fostering a sense of self-worth and respect for others, education contributes significantly to the development of a dignified and well-rounded personality.

Question 6.
In what ways does education promote understanding, tolerance, and global friendship?
Answer:
Education fosters understanding and tolerance by providing a platform for cultural exchange and awareness. It encourages individuals to embrace diversity and cultivate friendships across the world. By imparting knowledge about different cultures, histories, and perspectives, education promotes a global outlook and mutual respect among people of various backgrounds.Through education, individuals learn to appreciate differences, break down stereotypes, and contribute to the creation of a more tolerant and interconnected global community.

Question 7.
How does education contribute to compassionate behavior and social inclusion?
Answer:
Education plays a crucial role in promoting compassionate behavior by encouraging empathy and social inclusion. It equips individuals with the understanding and awareness needed to advocate for the rights and well-being of vulnerable groups, including refugees, the elderly, and children.By instilling a sense of responsibility and ethical-coriuc Vedueatjon; shapes individuals who actively engage in efforts to created more inclusive and compassionate society.

Question 8.
How does education align with the objectives of global peace and security, according to the text?
Answer:
Education aligns with the objectives of global peace and security by contributing to conflict
resolution, dialogue, and diplomatic efforts. Informed and educated individuals are more likely to engage in peaceful initiatives, understanding the importance of maintaining global peace.Through education, individuals develop the skills and knowledge required to address conflicts, promote diplomacy and contribute to the overarching goal of creating a peaceful and secure global environment.

Group – B

Long Type Questions With Answers

Question 1.
Define values and elaborate on their classification.
Answer:
Values are fundamental beliefs or principles that guide our attitudes, behaviors, and decision-making. They serve as a compass, influencing our choices and actions, and they play a pivotal role in shaping our character and identity. Values are deeply ingrained and often derive from a combination of cultural, societal, familial, and personal influences.

Classification of Values :
Personal Values : Personal values are unique to individuals and are shaped by personal experiences, upbringing, and individual preferences. These values reflect an individual’s beliefs about what is important in life, such as honesty, integrity, personal growth, or freedom. Personal values provide a foundation for personal identity and the way individuals navigate their lives.

Cultural Values : Cultural values are shared by a particular group, community, or society. They encompass the beliefs, norms, and traditions that are collectively held and passed down through generations. Cultural values play a significant role in shaping societal norms, behaviors, and expectations. Examples include respect for elders, community harmony, or the importance of family.

Ethical Values : Ethical values relate to principles of right and wrong, governing moral conduct. These values guide individuals and societies in determining what is considered morally acceptable or unacceptable. Ethical values often underpin professional codes of conduct and ethical decision-making frameworks. Examples include honesty, fairness, and justice.

Religious Values : Religious values are derived from religious teachings, doctrines, and beliefs. They guide individuals in their spiritual and moral conduct based on the tenets of their faith. Different religions may emphasize distinct values, such as compassion, humility, or devotion, contributing to the moral framework of.their followers.

Social Values : Social values pertain to the expectations and norms within a social context. They shape interpersonal relationships, community dynamics, and societal structures. Examples include tolerance, inclusivity, and cooperation. Social values play a crucial role in fostering a sense of community and shared responsibility.

Professional Values : Professional values are specific to various professions and industries. They define the ethical standards and behaviors expected within a professional setting. Integrity, accountability, and competence are examples of professional values that guide individuals in their careers and interactions within the workplace.

Environmental Values : With an increasing focus on sustainability and environmental consciousness, these values center around the responsibility to protect and preserve the environment. Environmental values include ecological awareness, conservation, and sustainable practices that aim to mitigate human impact on the planet.

Political Values : Political values are associated with political ideologies and beliefs about governance and societal organization. Concepts such as democracy, freedom, and justice are political values that guide individuals in their political affiliations and engagement.

In conclusion, values are multifaceted and can be classified into various categories based on their origin, influence, and application. Understanding the diverse classifications of values provides insight into the complex interplay of beliefs that shape individuals, communities, and societies at large.

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Education Solutions Chapter 15 Value Education and Human Rights Education

Question 2.
Examine the necessity and significance of value-oriented education. Explore strategies for implementing value-oriented education in school settings.
Answer:
Value-oriented education is imperative in nurturing well-rounded individuals who not only possess academic knowledge but also uphold ethical principles, moral integrity, and a sense of social responsibility. In a world characterized by diverse cultures, rapid technological advancements, and evolving societal norms, the need for value-oriented education becomes paramount. Such education plays a pivotal role in developing the character of students, fostering empathy, and instilling a strong moral compass. Beyond academic achievements, individuals equipped with values contribute positively to society, promoting harmony, ethical decision-making, and a collective commitment to social welfare.

Strategies for Implementing Value-Oriented Education in School Settings:
Incorporate Values Across the Curriculum: Integrate values seamlessly into various subjects, creating opportunities for students to understand and apply ethical principles in different contexts. For instance, literature classes can explore characters’ moral dilemmas, while science lessons may delve into environmental ethics.

Promote Experiential Learning : Emphasize experiential learning by organizing field trips, community service projects, or collaborative activities that provide students with practical experiences to apply values in real-life situations. These experiences enhance understanding and foster a sense of responsibility.

Establish a Values-Based School Culture : Cultivate a school culture that emphasizes and rewards positive values. Recognize and celebrate instances of kindness, honesty, and collaboration. This not only reinforces the importance of values but also creates a supportive environment for their cultivation.

Encourage Open Dialogue and Reflection : Create spaces for open dialogue where students can discuss ethical dilemmas, societal issues, and personal values. Engage in reflective activities, such as journaling or group discussions, to help students articulate their values and understand the perspectives of others.

Model Values through Educators : Educators serve as role models for students. It is crucial that teachers embody the values they aim to impart. Consistent demonstration of values through actions, decisions, and interactions establishes a powerful example for students to emulate.

Integrate Character Education Programs: Implement structured character Education programs that explicitly teach and reinforce values. These programs can include age-appropriate lessons, activities, and discussions designed to develop specific virtues and ethical behaviors.

Involve Parents and the Community: Collaborate with parents and the community to create a cohesive approach to values education. Workshops, seminars, and community events can v provide opportunities for sTiared discussions and strategies to reinforce values both at home atid in school.

Use Technology Responsibly: Leverage technology to rejn’force positive values. Incorporate educational apps, online resources, or virtual platforms that emphasize moral and ethical themes. Utilize multimedia presentations and discussions to explore the ethical implications . of digital citizenship.

In conclusion, the necessity of value-oriented education lies in its ability to shape individuals who not only excel academically but also contribute meaningfully to society. By employing comprehensive strategies that embed values across the curriculum, promote experiential learning, and involve all stakeholders, schools can foster an environment where values are not just taught but are lived and embraced as an integral part of personal and societal development.

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Education Solutions Chapter 15 Value Education and Human Rights Education

Question 3.
Define and explore the dimensions of Human Rights Education.
Answer:
Human Rights Education (HRE) is a transformative and holistic approach thatmO 10 seeks to empower individuals with the knowledge, skills, and values necessary to promote and protect human rights. At its core, HRE aims to foster a culture of respect, dignity, and equality, emphasizing the inherent worth and rights of every individual. This educational paradigm encompasses various dimensions that collectively contribute to the development of informed, responsible, and socially conscious global citizens.

Foundational Principles : At the heart of Human Rights Education are foundational principles rooted in international human rights instruments. These principles include the universality, indivisibility, interdependence, and inalienability of human rights. HRE seeks to instill an understanding that human rights are applicable to all individuals, regardless of their background, and are interconnected, forming an integral framework for a just and equitable society.

Knowledge and Understanding: One crucial dimension of HRE involves equipping individuals with a comprehensive understanding of human rights concepts, historical developments, and the international legal framework. This knowledge empowers individuals to recognize rights violations, understand the historical context of human rights struggles, and appreciate the significance of legal mechanisms in safeguarding human dignity.

Critical Thinking and Analysis : HRE goes beyond rote memorization, encouraging critical thinking and analytical skills. It prompts individuals to question societal norms, challenge discriminatory practices, and analyze the root causes of human rights violations. By developing critical perspectives, individuals become proactive advocates for justice and social change.

Skills Development: Human Rights Education emphasizes skill development to enable individuals to translate knowledge into action. This includes communication skills for effective advocacy, conflict resolution skills to address human rights issues peacefully, and the ability to engage in constructive dialogue to promote understanding and tolerance.

Promotion of Values and Attitudes : Values form a fundamental dimension of HRE, focusing on cultivating attitudes such as empathy, respect for diversity, and a commitment to social justice. It aims to instill a deep sense of responsibility towards protecting the rights of others and fostering a culture of inclusivity and solidarity.

Participation and Civic Engagement : HRE encourages active participation in civic life and human rights advocacy. It empowers individuals to engage with local and global communities, fostering a sense of agency and responsibility for creating positive change. Civic engagement becomes a tangible expression of the principles and values learned through human rights education.

Integration into Formal and Informal Education : HRE is integrated into formal education systems, curricula, and educational policies. It is also promoted through nformal channels such’as community-based initiatives, non-governmental organizations, and media. This dual approach ensures a broad reach, reaching diverse audiences across different settings.

Lifelong Learning and Continuous Engagement: Human Rights Education is viewed as a lifelong process, extending beyond formal education. Continuous engagement in human rights issues through ongoing learning, activism, and participation in civil society activities ensures that individuals remain informed, committed, and responsive to evolving human rights challenges.

In conclusion, Human Rights Education is a multifaceted approach that encompasses knowledge, critical thinking, skills development, values promotion, and active civic engagement. By addressing these dimensions, HRE equips individuals with the tools and perspectives needed to contribute to the promotion and protection of human rights in their communities and beyond.

Group – C

Objective type Questions with Answers
I. Multiple Choice Questions with Answers :

Question 1.
What was the defining goal of education according to the National Commission of Secondary Education (1952-53)?
(i) Vocational efficiency
(ii) Material prosperity
(iii) Character building
(iv) Religious education
Answer:
(iii) Character building

Question 2.
What does value education contribute to the development of an individual?
(i) Financial success
(ii) Balanced personality
(iii) Vocational efficiency
(iv) All of the above
Answer:
(ii) Balanced personality

Question 3.
According to the National Policy on Education (1986 and 1992), what is the urgent need for value education due to?
(i) Technological advancements
(ii) Growing erosion of essential values
(iii) Economic challenges
(iv) Political instability
Answer:
(ii) Growing erosion of essential values

Question 4.
Which values does the National Policy on Education aim to inculcate through value education?
(i) Competition and individualism
(ii) Courage and honesty
(iii) Secularism and nationalism
(iv) All of the above
Answer:
(iv) All of the above

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Education Solutions Chapter 15 Value Education and Human Rights Education

Question 5.
What is the role of education according to the National Policy on Education (1986 and 1992)?
(i) Economic development
(ii) Acculturating and refining sensitivities
(iii) Technological innovation
(iv) Cultural preservation
Answer:
(ii) Acculturating and refining sensitivities

Question 6.
What fundamental right does the article on Human Rights Education emphasize for everyone?
(i) Right to freedom of speech
(ii) Right to education
(iii) Right to property
(iv) Right to privacy
Answer:
(ii) Right to education

Question 7.
According to the article on Human Rights Education, what does education promote among nations, racial or religious groups?
(i) Conflict and rivalry
(ii) Understanding, tolerance, and friendship
(iii) Cultural isolation
(iv) Religious fanaticism
Answer:
(ii) Understanding, tolerance, and friendship

Question 8.
What does education contribute to in terms of human rights and fundamental freedoms?
(i) Suppression of rights
(ii) Promotion of rights and freedoms
(iii) Selective rights for certain groups
(iv) Violation of rights
Answer:
(ii) Promotion of rights and freedoms

Question 9.
How is the development of the human personality linked to education?
(i) It hinders personal growth
(ii) It is unrelated to personal dignity
(iii) It contributes to personal growth and dignity
(iv) It limits self-awareness
Answer:
(iii) It contributes to personal growth and dignity

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Education Solutions Chapter 15 Value Education and Human Rights Education

Question 10.
What role does education play in promoting compassionate behavior?
(i) Encourages indifference
(ii) Discourages empathy
(iii) Promotes compassionate behavior
(iv) Advocates for violence
Answer:
(iii) Promotes compassionate behavior

Question 11.
How does education empower individuals in societal development?
(i) By promoting isolation
(ii) By discouraging participation
(iii) By providing knowledge and skills
(iv) By limiting cultural engagement
Answer:
(iii) By providing knowledge and skills

Question 12.
What is one goal of education in relation to societal development?
(i) Encouraging discrimination
(ii) Limiting political engagement
(iii) Economic progress
(iv) Cultural stagnation
Answer:
(iii) Economic progress

Question 13.
What values does education aim to instill according to the objectives of human rights?
(i) Deception and dishonesty
(ii) Responsibility and ethical conduct
(iii) Individualism and selfishness
(iv) Superiority and arrogance
Answer:
(ii) Responsibility and ethical conduct

Question 14.
How does education contribute to global peace and security?
(i) By promoting conflict
(ii) Through conflict resolution and dialogue
(iii) By encouraging violence
(iv) By fostering isolationism
Answer:
(ii) Through conflict resolution and dialogue

Question 15.
What is the overall impact .of an informed and educated population on global peace?
(i) Increased likelihood of conflict
(ii) Maintenance of peace and security
(iii) Escalation of violence
(iv) Cultural homogenization
Answer:
(ii) Maintenance of peace and security

II. Fill in the blanks :

Question 1.
The National Commission of Secondary Education (1952-53) emphasized _____ as the defining goal of education.
Answer:
Character building

Question 2.
The shift of focus over the decades has moved from religious and moral education to education for _____.
Answer:
Peace

Question 3.
Value education helps develop a healthy and balanced _____.
Answer:
Personality

Question 4.
It enables a child to earn his livelihood and acquire material _____.
Answer:
Prosperity

Question 5.
Value education promotes _____ efficiency.
Answer:
Vocational

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Education Solutions Chapter 15 Value Education and Human Rights Education

Question 6.
The National Policy on Education highlights the urgent need for value education due to the growing erosion of essential _____.
Answer:
Values

Question 7.
Education should foster universal and eternal _____.
Answer:
Values

Question 8.
According to the National Policy on Education, education has an acculturating role that refines _____ and perceptions.
Answer:
Sensitivities

Question 9.
Human Rights Education aims to prompte understanding, tolerance, and friendship among all nations, racial, or _____ groups.
Answer:
Religious

Question 10.
Parents have a prior right to choose the kind of _____ that shall be given to their children.
Answer:
Education

Question 11.
Education contributes to creating a society where individuals are aware of their rights and _____.
Answer:
Responsibilities

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Education Solutions Chapter 15 Value Education and Human Rights Education

Question 12.
The full development of the human personality and the realization of its dignity are linked to _____ .
Answer:
Education

Question 13.
Education fosters understanding and tolerance, encouraging individuals to embrace diversity and cultivate _____ across the world.
Answer:
Friendships

Question 14.
Education empowers individuals to actively participate in the development of society, contributing to the overall progress of _____.
Answer:
Communities

Question 15.
Education aligns with international law by contributing to the establishment of global _____ and security.
Answer:
Peace

III. Correct the Sentences:

Question 1.
The National Commission of Secondary Education (1952-53) emphasized vocational efficiency as the defining goal of education.
Answer:
The National Commission of Secondary Education (1952-53) was a significant landmark in emphasizing character building as the defining goal of education.

Question 2.
The National Policy on. Education (1986 and 1992) does not highlight the urgent need for value education in view of the growing erosion of essential values.
Answer:
The National Policy on Education (1986 and 1992) highlights the urgent need for value education in view of the growing erosion of essential values and increasing cynicism in society.

Question 3.
The National Policy on Education (1986 and 1992) does not observe the concern over ‘value crisis and the role of education.
Answer:
The National Policy on Education (1986 and 1992) observes the concern over ‘value crisis and the role of education.

Question 4.
According to the Universal Declaration of Human Rights, parents do not have a prior right to choose the kind of education that shall be given to their children.
Answer:
According to the Universal Declaration of Human Rights, parents have a prior right to choose the kind of education that shall be given to their children.

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Education Solutions Chapter 15 Value Education and Human Rights Education

Question 5.
The article on Human Rights Education does not emphasize the importance of education as a tool to enrich people to enjoy their rights guaranteed both nationally and internationally.
Answer:
The article on Human Rights Education emphasizes the importance of education as a tool to enrich people to enjoy their rights guaranteed both nationally and internationally.

Question 6.
Education does not contribute to the establishment of global peace and security according to the goals mentioned.
Answer:
Education aligns with the United Nations’ objectives and international law by contributing to the establishment of global peace and security.

Question 7.
The National Policy on Education (1986 and 1992) does not mention the need for readjustments in the curriculum to make education a forceful tool for the cultivation of social and moral values.
Answer:
The National Policy on Education (1986 and 1992) mentions the need for readjustments in the curriculum to make education a forceful tool for the cultivation of social and moral values.

Question 8.
Education is not directed to the full development of the human personality and the strengthening of respect for human rights and fundamental freedoms.
Answer:
Education is directed to the full development of the human personality and the strengthening of respect for human rights and fundamental freedoms.

Question 9.
The National Policy on Education (1986 and 1992) does not express concern over ‘value crisis and the role of education.’
Answer:
The National Policy on Education (1986 and.1992) expresses concern over ‘value crisis and the role of education.’

Question 10.
The shift of focus, over the decades, from religious and moral education to education for peace, does not parallel the shifting sense and sensitivities in the larger context of education. Answer: The shift of focus, over the decades, from religious and moral education to education for peace, parallels the shifting sense and sensitivities in the larger context of education.

IV. Answer the following questions in one word :

Question 1.
What was the defining goal of education according to the National Commission of Secondary Education in 1952-53?
Answer:
Character building.

Question 2.
What is the primary objective of value education in the western context?
Answer:
Education for peace.

Question 3.
According to the National Policy on Education (1986), what values should education foster?
Answer:
Compassion, courage, honesty, tolerance, and truthfulness.

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Education Solutions Chapter 15 Value Education and Human Rights Education

Question 4.
What is the urgent need highlighted by the NPE (1986) in relation to values in society?
Answer:
Growing erosion of essential values and increasing cynicism.

Question 5.
What role does education play in promoting human rights and fundamental freedoms?
Answer:
Fundamental tool.

Question 6.
According to the article, what is education directed towards?
Answer:
Full development of the human personality and strengthening respect for human rights.

Question 7.
Who has a prior right to choose the kind of education for children, according to the article?
Answer:
Parents.

Question 8.
What does education contribute to personal growth and a profound sense of?
Answer:
Dignity.

Question 9.
What does education encourage individuals to embrace and cultivate across the world?
Answer:
Diversity and friendships.

Question 10.
What crucial role does education play in societal development?
Answer:
Empowering individuals.

Question 11.
What does education contribute to the establishment of on a global scale?
Answer:
Peace and security.

Question 12.
According to the article, what values does education serve as a platform for inculcating?
Answer:
Values, morals, and ethical perspectives.

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Education Solutions Chapter 15 Value Education and Human Rights Education

Value Education :
The concern for value education is reflected in our key policy documents from time to time. After independence, the National Commission of Secondary Education (1952- 53) was a significant landmark in emphasizing character building as the defining goal of education. The shift of focus, over the decades, from religious and moral education to education for peace, via value education, parallels the shifting sense and sensitivities in the larger context of education. The acceptance of education for peace as a necessary ingredient of holistic education in the western context was driven by deepening anxieties about the rise and spread of violence. A similar pattern is obtained in our context as well.

Importance of Value Education :

  1. Value education helps develop a healthy and a balanced personality.
  2. It enables a child to earn his livelihood and to acquire material prosperity.
  3. It develops vocational efficiency.
  4. It develops character and morality in children.
  5. It makes children ideal citizens.
  6. It helps in reconstruction of experiences.
  7. It enables children to adjust to their environment.
  8. It promotes social efficiency.

National Policy on Education (1986 and 1992) on the Need and Significance of Value Education:
The National Policy on Education (NPE; 1986) highlights the urgent need for value education in view of the growing erosion of essential values and increasing cynicism in society. With a well- designed system of curriculum, it is possible to make education a forceful tool for the cultivation of desirable ethical, moral, spiritual and social values. Education should foster universal and eternal values. Value education should help to eliminate obscurantism, religious fanaticism, violence, superstition and fatalism. Education which inculcates universal and eternal values like compassion, courage, honesty, and tolerance and truthfulness, will help in developing balanced individuals and in creating a humane society.

The National Policy on Education (1986 and as amended in 1992) observes, ‘Every country develops its system of education to express and promote its unique socio-cultural identity and also to meet the challenges of the times. There are moments in history when a new direction has to be given to an age-old process. That moment is today.’ NPE has further observed, ‘Education has an acculturating role. It refines sensitivities and perceptions.’ The NPE has further expressed its concern over ‘value crisis and the role of education’ as, ‘The growing concern over the erosion of essential values and an increasing cynicism in society has brought to focus the need for readjustments in the curriculum in order to make education a forceful tool for the cultivation of social and moral values.

Human rights education :
Everyone has the right to education. Education shall be free at least in the elementary and fundamental stages. Elementary education shall be compulsory. Technical and professional education shall be made generally available and higher education shall be equally accessible to all on the basis of merit. Education shall be directed to the full development of the human personality and to the strengthening of respect for human rights and fundamental freedoms. It shall promote understanding, tolerance and friendship among all nations racial or religious groups and shall further the activities of the United Nations for the maintenance of peace.

Parents have a prior right to choose the kind of education that shall be-given to their children. This article confers the basic right to education to everyone. According to this, education should serve the purpose for which it is to pursue. This conjoins the saying and the philosophy advocated by Swami Vivekanda educating ourselves with values, morals and with a particular purpose to serve the needs of the society and as well oneself. Knowledge is inherent in every body. It can be sharpened only when it is tapped in a proper perspective. This article emphasis the importance of education as a tool to enrich people to enjoy their rights guaranteed both nationally and internationally. Accordingly, it aims to achieve the following goals.

They are:
• Promotion of Human Rights and Fundamental Freedoms: Education is a fundamental tool in promoting human rights and fundamental freedoms for all. By imparting knowledge, fostering critical thinking, and instilling a sense of justice, education contributes to creating a society where individuals are aware of their rights and responsibilities.

• Development of Human Personality and Dignity: The full development of the human personality and the realization of its dignity are intricately linked to. education. Through education, individuals gain self-awareness, critical thinking skills, and a broader perspective, contributing to personal growth and a profound sense of dignity.

• Understanding, Tolerance, and Global Friendship: Education fosters understanding and tolerance, encouraging individuals to embrace diversity and cultivate friendships across the world. By providing a platform for cultural exchange and awareness, education promotes a global perspective and mutual respect among people of different backgrounds.

• Compassionate Behavior and Social Inclusion: Education plays a crucial role in promoting compassionate behavior, especially towards vulnerable groups. It encourages empathy and social inclusion, urging individuals to advocate for the rights and well-being of refugees, the elderly, children, and other socially disadvantaged sections.

• Participation in Societal Development: Education empowers individuals to actively participate in the development of society and states. It provides the knowledge and skills needed for economic, political, social, legal, and cultural engagement, contributing to the overall progress of communities.

• Inculcation of Values and Morals: Education serves as a platform for inculcating values, morals, and ethical perspectives. By instilling a sense of responsibility and ethical conduct, education shapes individuals who contribute positively to society, aligning with the objectives of human rights.

• Contribution to Global Peace and Security: Education aligns with the United Nations’ objectives and international law by contributing to the establishment of global peace and security. Informed and educated individuals are more likely to engage in conflict resolution, dialogue, and diplomatic efforts to maintain peace on a global scale.