CHSE Odisha Class 12 Psychology Unit 1 Long Answer Questions Part – 1

Odisha State Board CHSE Odisha Class 12 Psychology Solutions Unit 1 Long Answer Questions Part-1.

CHSE Odisha 12th Class Psychology Unit 1 Long Answer Questions Part-1

Long answers with questions

Question 1:
What do mean by Life span development? Explain the same on today’s concept.
Answer:
Life Span Development or Developmental psychology is the branch of psychology that studies intraindividual changes and interindividual changes within these intraindividual changes. Its task, as La Bouvier has pointed out, is “not only description but also explication of age-related changes in behavior in terms of antecedent-consequent relationships”.

Developmental psychologists study developmental change covering the life span horn conception to death. By so doing, they attempt to give a complete picture of growth and decline. Others cover only a segment of the life span-childhood, adulthood, or old age. In this book, an attempt will be made to cover all segments and show the important developmental changes at different periods during the entire life span.

Siegel during the early years, as has explained, “Life span psychology was preoccupied with ages and stages. Investigators sought to learn the typical age at which various stages of development occurred”. The areas inr which research was mainly concentrated were those considered significant for human evolutional adaptation. For the most part, research studies were concentrated on preschool and school-age children and on adolescents. Only later did research extend downward, first to birth and then to conception and later upward, to adulthood, old age and finally to middle age.

The two major reasons for the uneven emphasis of developmental psychology,

The study of a particular period in the developmental pattern has been greatly influenced by the desire to solve some practical problem or problems associated with that period. Research in the area of middle age, for example, is an outgrowth of the realization that good adjustments in the latter years of life depend on how well one has adjusted to the physical; and psychological changes, that normally occur in the middle years.

Since the focus of interest in life span psychology has changed over the years, there are gaps in our knowledge of the different developmental phenomena characteristic of the different periods. These gaps are also due in part to difficulties in studying the different patterns of behavior characteristic of a given period, especially difficulties in getting representative samplings of subjects of a given age and in finding a suitable method for the study of behavior patterns.

The reason for the uneven emphasis is that it is – harder to study people at some stages of life than at others. Getting middle-aged and elderly subjects, for example, is far more difficult than getting preschool or school-age children or even adolescents.

Life Span psychologists have six major objectives:

  • to find out what are the common and characteristic age changes in appearance, in behavior, in interests, and in goals from one developmental period to another;
  • to find out when these changes occur;
  • to find out what causes them;
  • to find out how they influence behavior;
  • to find out whether they can or cannot be predicted and
  • to find out whether they are individual or universal.

Question 2:
Discuss the early approaches towards Life span development.
Answer:
Early forerunners of the scientific study of development were baby biographies, journals kept to record the early development of a child. One early journal, published in 1787 in Germany, contained Dietrich Tiedemann’s (1897/1787) observations of his son’s sensory, motor, language and cognitive behavior during the first 21/2 years. Typical of the speculative nature of such observations was Tiedemann’s erroneous conclusion, after watching the infant suck more on a cloth tied around something sweet than on a nurse’s finger, that sucking appeared to be “not instinctive, but acquired”.

It was Charles Darwin, the originator of the theory of evolution, who first emphasized the developmental nature of infant behavior. In 1877 Darwin published notes on his son Doddy’s sensory, cognitive and emotional development, during his first twelve months. Darwin’s journal gave “baby biographies” scientific respectability; about thirty more were published during the next three decades.

By the end of the nineteenth century, several important trends in the western world were preparing the way for the scientific study of development. Scientists had unlocked the mystery of conception and were arguing about the relative importance of “nature” and “nurture” (inborn characteristics and experiential influences). The discovery of germs and immunization made it possible for many more children to survive infancy.

Laws protecting children from long workdays let them spend more time in school and parents and teachers became more concerned with identifying and meeting children’s developmental needs. The new science of psychology taught that people could understand themselves by learning what had influenced them as children. Still, this new discipline had far to go.

For example, adolescence was not considered a separate period of development until the early twentieth century, when G. Stanley Hall, a pioneer in child study, published a popular (though unscientific) book called Adolescence (1904/1916). Hall also was one of the first psychologists to become interested in aging. In 1922, at age 78, he published Senescence: The Last Half of Life. Six years later, Stanford University opened the first major scientific research unit devoted to aging. But not until a generation later did the study of aging blossom.

Since the late 1930s a number of important long-term studies discussed in the second half of this book, such as those of K. Warner Schaie, George Vaillant, Daniel Levinson and Ravenna Helson, have focused on intelligence and personality development in adulthood and old age.

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Psychology Unit 1 Long Answer Questions Part-I

Question 3:
Explain the meaning and development of changes.
Answer:
Development means a progressive series of changes that occur as a result of maturation and experience. As Van den Daele has pointed out, “development implies qualitative change”. This means that development does not consist merely of adding inches to one’s height or of improving one’s ability. Instead, it is a complex process of integrating many structures and functions.

There are two essentially antagonistic processes in development take place simultaneously throughout life – growth, or evolution and atrophy, or involution. Both begin at conception and end at death. In the early years, growth predominates, even though atrophic changes occur as early as embryonic life. In the latter part of life, atrophy predominates, though growth does not stop; hair continues to grow and cells continue to be replaced. With aging, some parts of the body and mind change more than others.

The human being is never static. From conception to death, change is constantly taking place in physical and psychological capacities. As Piaget has explained, structures are “far from being static and given from the start.” Instead, a maturing organism undergoes continued and progressive changes in response to experiential conditions and these result in a complex network of interaction.

As development is continuous, as Bower has pointed out, in the sense that it is a cyclic process with competencies developing and then disappearing, only to appear at a later age, it is not continuous in the sense that it increases constantly but rather in a series of waves with whole segments of development reoccurring repetitively. Bower has explained, newborns walk if held and then this ability disappears only to reappear at eight or ten months of age.

He explains that the “various explanations of repetitive processes in development thus seem to differ depending on the specific repetition to be explained. What all the explanations have in common, however, is that they preserve the assumption that psychological growth, in spite of its apparent reversals, is a continuous and additive process”. When regression to an earlier stage occurs, there is usually a cause for it, as in the regression to the awkwardness that occurs with the rapid growth at puberty.. ‘

The pattern of change resembles a bell-shaped curve, rising abruptly at the start and then flattening out during the middle years, only to decline slowly or abruptly in old age. It is important to recognize that at no time can this pattern be represented by a straight line, though plateau periods of short or long duration may occur in the development of different capacities.

Question 4:
What is the Goal of Life span Changes?
Answer:
It is to enable people to adapt to the environment in which they live. To achieve this goal, self-realization, or, as it is sometimes called, ‘Self-actualization,” is essential. However, this goal is never static. It may be considered an urge-the urge to do what one is fitted to do, the urge to become the person, both physically and psychologically, that one wants to be.

The way people express this urge depends on the individual’s innate abilities and training, not only during the early, formative years of childhood but also as he or she grows older and comes under greater pressures to conform to social expectations. Since self-realization plays an important role in mental health, people who ‘make good personal and social adjustments must have opportunities to express their interests and desires in ways that give them satisfaction but, at the same time, conform to accepted standards. Lack of these opportunities will result in frustrations and generally negative attitudes toward people and toward life in general.

Question 5:
Discuss Researches on Life span Change.
Answer:
Research on developmental changes during childhood and adolescence has been far more extensive than studies of changes that occur during the later years. Among the reasons for this uneven emphasis is the fact that the many prevailing traditional beliefs about children and adolescents have acted as a spur to researchers, who have set up studies designed to prove or disprove these beliefs.

Traditional beliefs concerning the post-adolescent years are less numerous and have had less impact on the direction of research. Further, developmental changes occurring at middle age were regarded as purely physiological and, therefore, outside the scope of psychological research. Changes occurring in old age affected a relatively small percentage of the population and were thus considered less important than changes that occur during the early years. It is now recognized that changes occurring at any developmental stage are worthy of study.

The most important incentive to research about developmental changes has been the nature-nurture controversy which has raged for decades. How important a role maturation based on genetic factors plays in bringing about developmental changes as compared with environmental pressures and experiences has been the focal point of interest and many research studies have been devoted to trying to find a satisfactory solution to this controversy.

The research on developmental changes at all stages has been the emergence of a large number of new theories about the causes and effects of such changes. These theories are not always backed up by adequate evidence and a great deal of research is motivated by the desire to substantiate or refute material that has widespread acceptance in the field.

Any new theory can lead to controversy and experimentation, but of all theories, none have provided a more powerful incentive to research than Piaget’s developmental theories, especially his theories about cognitive development. Other views that have inspired numerous studies are Kohlberg’s stages of moral development and Gesell’s stages of equilibrium and disequilibrium.

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Psychology Unit 1 Long Answer Questions Part-I

Question 6:
Attitudes toward Life span Changes
Answer:
Changes of a physical or psychological nature are constantly taking place; many people are only vaguely aware of them unless they occur abruptly or markedly affect the pattern of their lives. The changes of old age, for example, usually occur at a much slower pace than those of childhood or adolescence. However, they still require readjustments on the part of all individuals. But, when individuals can make these adjustments relatively slowly, they themselves or others may not be conscious of them.

Thus when changes are rapid, on the other hand, the individual is only too well aware of them, as are others. During the puberty growth spurt at the end of childhood and the beginning of adolescence, such comments as “My, how you have grown since last saw you!’’ are evidence of how others notice these changes. Similarly, in senescence, when the downward movement begins to accelerate, the elderly are aware of the fact that their health is “failing” and that their minds are “slipping.” Constant readjustment to these changes is necessary in the scheduled pattern of their lives.

They must slow down as the incapacities and infirmities of old age catch up with them and they must frequently forgo some of the activities that formerly played important roles in their lives. As there is, a tendency for most people to regard the past as better than the present. And even though most children look forward to the day when they will be “teenagers,” when that time comes they often long for the carefree days of their childhood.

Similarly, many men who look forward to retirement wish, when the mandatory age for retirement arrives, that they could go back to earlier years when their usefulness and prestige were recognized by the social group. As and when people become aware of the changes taking place in them, they develop definite attitudes toward these changes. Whether these attitudes will be favorable or unfavorable depends on a number of factors, the most important of which are described below.

Question 7:
Write the aspects that influence attitudes toward Life span changes.
Answer:

Appearance:
Developments that improve one’s appearance are welcome and lead to favorable attitudes while those that detract from one’s appearance are resisted and every possible attempt is made to camouflage them.

Behavior:
As and when behavior changes are disconcerting, as during puberty and senescence, they affect attitudes toward the changes unfavorably. The reverse is true when changes are favorable, as occurs, for example, when the helplessness of babyhood gradually gives way to the independence of childhood.

Cultural Stereotypes:
From mass media, people learn cultural stereotypes associated with different ages and they use these stereotypes to judge people of those ages.

Cultural Values:
Each culture has certain values associated with different ages. Because maximum productivity is associated with young through early middle-age adulthood, attitudes toward this age group are more favorable than attitudes toward other ages.

Role Changes:
Attitudes toward people of different ages are greatly influenced by the roles they play. When people change their roles to less favorable ones, as in the case of retirement or widowhood, social attitudes toward them are less sympathetic.

Personal Experiences:
Personal experiences have a profound effect on an individual’s attitude toward developmental changes. Since the authority and prestige of middle-aged executives decreases as they approach retirement their attitudes toward aging are, for example, unfavorably affected. These attitudes are intensified by unfavorable social attitudes.

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Psychology Unit 1 Long Answer Questions Part-I

Question 8:
What are the Obstacles in Studying Life-Span Development?
Answer:
All studies of the Life span are beset by obstacles in varying degrees. The five most common and most serious of these are discussed below.

Representative Samples of Subjects:

The first obstacle scientists encounter in studying development during the life span is securing representative samples of subjects at different age levels, although it is relatively easy to get representative samples of subjects from among schoolchildren and college students. In the case of newborn infants, however, researchers often meet with strong parental objections.

Getting older adolescents and young adults who are not attending school to volunteer as subjects is also difficult because they may not be available for study at any one particular place. This difficulty increases with advancing age, which is why so many of the studies relating to the latter years of life have been made on men and women living in institutions, people who unQably are not representative of the general population.

Recruiting young adults, middle-aged adults, or the elderly as voluntary participants in experiments has likewise been a difficult task, even when they are paid for their time. Many persons shy away from any testing programme, partly because of a lack of personal interest but mainly because they are afraid they will not do well and, as a result, create an unfavorable impression. Relying on those who are willing to participate may be creating a bias just as using institutional cases does.

Establishing Rapport with Subjects:

The second obstacle scientists encounter in studying development during the lifespan is establishing rapport with subjects at different age levels. There is no guarantee that scientists will be able to elicit the information they are seeking from any group unless they are able to establish rapport with their subjects. Therefore, there is no guarantee that the data they obtain is as accurate or as comprehensive as it might have been had a better relationship existed between subjects and experimenters.

The reason for this is that obtaining information from subjects of any age is extremely difficult because most people resent having a stranger pry into their personal affairs. Even schoolchildren and college students, who often take tests or fill out Qnaires as part of their classroom work* show their resentment by being uncooperative or even by falsifying the information they give. This is even truer of adults of all ages. Their resentment at participating in a scientific study may be partially overcome if they are paid to do so, but they tend to regard the experimenter as an invasion of privacy.

As a result, it is questionable whether data obtained from many studies is a true picture of the involved individuals’ attitudes, feelings and values. Only when good rapport can be established with the subjects and when there is evidence of cooperation on their part can great confidence be placed in the results of these studies.

Methodology:

The third obstacle scientists encounter in studying development during the life span is securing a satisfactory method. This is because no one method can be used satisfactorily for studying people at all ages or for investigating all areas of development. Some of the methods that must be resorted to, for lack of better ones, are of dubious scientific value.

Because of the wide age range of subjects and the variety of different areas of development that must be studied to give a composite picture, assorted methods have had to be used. Some have been borrowed from medicine, from the physical sciences and from related social sciences, especially anthropology and sociology. Some have made use of laboratory settings and others of the naturalistic settings of the home, school, community, or work environment. Some are regarded as reliable, while others, especially the retrospective and introspective techniques, are of questionable value.

Regardless of the method used, most of the studies have been cross-sectional comparisons of the same abilities at different stages of development. As such, they do not give evidence about developmental trends or about intraindividual variability. Nor is it possible, when using cross-sectional comparisons, to assess the relative behaviour constellations of individuals at an early age and similar behavior in adult life. One of the most serious problems connected with the cross-sectional approach is that it is almost impossible to get comparable groups of subjects for study at different age levels.

This can bias the result of studies, especially studies of old age. When mental abilities are studied using the cross-sectional approach, mental decline is reported to be far greater than when the same mental abilities are studied using the longitudinal approach. This, in turn, has given scientific backing to the popular belief that mental decline in old age is not only great but also universal.

Another serious problem associated with the cross-sectional approach is that it does not take into consideration cultural changes which always play a major role in the patterns of physical and mental development. This results in a tendency to interpret any change that may appear as an age change. Cultural changes affect values, among other things. A comparison of adolescents of today with members of the older generation showed that the latter tend to disapprove more strongly of extravagance than adolescents do.

This might be interpreted to mean that members of the older generation have become rigid with age. In reality, the difference is one of cultural values. When members of the older generation were growing up, high value was placed on prudent spending of money and on having a nest egg for the proverbial rainy day. Today, adolescents are growing up in a culture dominated by the philosophy of “earn more and spend more”. Because of the rapid change in cultural values taking place at the present time, children often consider their parents’ values old-fashioned.

Accuracy of Data Obtained:

The fourth obstacle scientists encounter in studying development during the life span is ensuring that the data obtained from the studies will be accurate. Inaccuracies may result when a biased sampling of subjects gives a false picture of the normal developmental pattern at a particular age. This can happen, for example, when institutionalized elderly people are used for the study and the subjects try to present as favorable a picture of them as they can and either consciously or unconsciously, distort their introspective or retrospective reports.

It can also occur when the only method available for studying a certain area of development is less than satisfactory. In the measurement of intelligence, it is still questionable if the results are accurate for the first two years of life. There is even controversy about the accuracy of intelligence tests for older age levels. Observational techniques for the study of behavior during the preschool years are Qed for accuracy because of the tendency of observers to draw inferences from their study of children’s behavior and speech.

Ethical Aspects of Research:

The fifth obstacle scientists encounter in studying development during the lifespan involves the ethical aspects of research. Today there is a growing trend to take this into account and it has been a stumbling block to certain kinds of studies, which, in the past, were made without consideration of their fairness to the subjects studied. With the trend nowadays toward considering the rights of subjects, emphasis in being placed on asking their consent to participate in experiments, or, for the very young, the consent of their parents or guardians.

Such consideration also applies to high school and college students; they no longer are expected to take time from their studies to participate in experiments unless they are paid to, do so. Thus there is a tendency to bias the sampling because only those who need the money or those who feel that the money is worth their while are willing to accommodate the researcher.

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Psychology Unit 1 Long Answer Questions Part-I

Question 9:
Write characteristics of the pre-natal period.
Answer:
In spite of the fact that the first developmental period in the life span is next to the shortest of all-the shortest is the period of the newborn or infancy- it is in many respects one of the most, if not the most, important periods of all. This period, which begins at conception and ends at birth, is approximately 270 to 280 days in length, or nine calendar months.

Although it is relatively short, the prenatal period has six important characteristics, each of which has a lasting effect on development during the life span. They are as follows:

The hereditary endowment, which serves as the foundation for later development, is fixed, once and for all, at this time. While favorable or unfavorable conditions, both before and after birth may and probably will affect too. some extent the physical and psychological traits that make up this hereditary endowment, the changes will be quantitative, not qualitative.

Favorable conditions in the mother’s body can foster the development of hereditary potentials while unfavorable conditions can stunt their development, even to the point of distorting the pattern of future development. At few, if any other times in the life span are hereditary potentials so influenced by environmental conditions as they are during the prenatal period.

The sex of the newly created individual is fixed at the time of conception and conditions within the mother’s body will not affect it, as is true of the hereditary endowment. Except when surgery is used in sex transformation operations, the sex of the individual, determined at the time of conception, will not change. Such operations are rare and only partially successful.

Proportionally greater growth and development take place during the prenatal period than at any other time throughout the individual’s entire life. During the nine months before birth, the individual grows from a microscopically small cell to an infant who measures approximately twenty inches in length and weighs, on average, 7 pounds. It has been estimated that weight during this time increases eleven million times. Development is likewise phenomenally rapid. From a cell that is round in shape, all the bodily features, both external and internal, of the human being develop at this time. At birth, the newly born infant can be recognized as human even though many of the external features are proportionally different from those of an older child, an adolescent, or an adult.

The prenatal period is a time of many hazards, both physical and psychological. While it cannot be claimed that it is the most hazardous period in the entire life span-many believe that infancy’s more hazardous-it certainly is a time when environmental or psychological hazards can have a marked effect on the pattern of later development or may even bring development to an end.

The prenatal period is the time when significant people form attitudes toward newly created individuals. These attitudes will have a marked influence on the way these individuals are treated, especially during their early, formative years. If the attitudes are heavily emotionally weighted, they can and often do play havoc with the mother’s homeostasis and, by so doing, upset the conditions in the mother’s body that are essential to the normal development of the newly created individual.

Question 10:
What is the importance of conception?
Answer:
At the time of conception, four important conditions are determined that influence the individual’s later development. What role each of these conditions plays in the individual’s development will explain why the time of conception is probably the most important period in the life span.

Hereditary Endowment:

The first important happening at the time of conception is the determination of the newly created individual’s hereditary endowment. The contributions to this endowment from both parents and from both maternal and “paternal ancestors. Because the hereditary endowment is determined once and for all at the time of conception, its importance is far greater than it Would be if it were subject to later change.

The determination of hereditary endowment affects later development in two ways. First, heredity places limits beyond which individuals cannot go. If prenatal and postnatal conditions are favorable and if people are strongly motivated, they can develop their inherited physical and mental traits to their maximum potential, but they can go no further. Montagu has stressed, “Where we control the environment, we to some extent control heredity. Heredity, it has been said, determines what we can do and environment what we do do”.

The second important thing about the hereditary endowment is that it is entirely a matter of chance: there is no known way to control the number of chromosomes from the maternal or paternal side that will be passed on to the child. Scheinfeld has pointed out that the birth of a given individual depends on the union of a particular ovum with a particular sperm.

Sex:
Determination of the individual’s sex happens during conception. It is known that the sperm cell-that is, the father-determines the sex of a child. At conception, the zygote receives 23 chromosomes from the sperm and 23 from the ovum. (Figure 1 and 2)They align themselves in pairs: 22 pairs are autosomes, or nonsex chromosomes; the twenty-third pair is sex chromosomes, which determine if the new human being will be male or female. In females, this pair is called XX; in males, it is called XY.

The X is a relatively long chromosome, whereas the Y is short and carries little genetic material. When gametes are formed in males, the X and Y chromosomes separate into different sperm cells. In females, all gametes carry an X chromosome. Therefore, the sex of the new organism is determined by whether an X-bearing or a Y-bearing sperm fertilizes the ovum.

Sex depends on the kind of spermatozoon that unites with the ovum. Once the male and female cells have united, nothing can be done to change the sex of the newly formed individual. Whether this individual is male or female will have a lifelong effect on the individual’s patterns of behavior and personality.
There are three reasons why the sex of an individual is important to lifelong development.

First, each year children come under increasing cultural pressures from parents, teachers, their peer group and society at large to develop attitudes and behavior patterns that are considered appropriate for members of their sex. Children who learn to behave in ways that are considered appropriate for their sex are assured of social acceptance. By contrast, children who fail to conform are subjected to criticism and social ostracism.

Second, learning experiences are determined by the individual’s sex. In the home, at school and in playgroups, children learn what is considered appropriate for members of their sex. A boy who learns to play girls’ games is labeled a “sissy” and girls who prefer boys games are known as “tomboys.”Third and perhaps most important of all, is the attitude of parents and other significant family members toward individuals because of their sex.

Studies of sex preferences for offspring have revealed that the traditional preference for a boy, especially for the firstborn, still persists. Strong preferences for a child of a given sex have marked influences on parents’ attitudes, which in turn affect their behavior toward the child and their relationships with the child. Number of Offspring:

The third important happening at the time of conception or shortly thereafter is the determination of the number of offspring there will be. While most humans are singletons, multiple births also occur. Meredith has reported that out of 80 births is twins, 1 out of every 9,000 is triplets and 1 out of every 570,000 is quadruplets. There are more frequent multiple births among blacks and fewer among Chinese, Japanese and other Mongoloid- race groups than there are among whites.

When a ripe ovum is fertilized by one spermatozoon, the result will be a singleton, unless the fertilized ovum (zygote) splits into two or more distinct parts during the early stages of cell cleavage. When this happens, the result will be identical (uniovular) twins, triplets, or other multiple births. If two or more ova are released simultaneously and are fertilized by different spermatozoa, the result will be nonidentical {also called biovular or fraternal) twins, triplets, or other multiple births.

Approximately one-third of all twins are identical. Because the chromosomes and genes of the two or more zygotes from which individuals of nonidentical multiple births develop are not the same, their mental and physical make-ups are different. By contrast, those of identical multiple births come from the same zygote and consequently, they have the same assortment of chromosomes and genes. Children of identical multiple births are always of the same sex, while those of nonidentical multiple births may be of the same or opposite sex. Effects on Development:

Most studies of the effects of multiple births on development have been limited to twins for the reason that triplets, quadruplets and other multiple births occur very infrequently and the mortality rates among them are much higher than among twins, thus making studios of them difficult if not impossible.

However, there is reason to assume that the effects of multiple birth on triplets, quadruplets, and other multiples is much the same as on twins though the former feel these effects to a greater extent. The reason that multiple births affect the pattern of development is not only that there are differences in heredity but that both the prenatal environment and the postnatal environment of singletons are different from those of children of multiple births. This contributes to different patterns of development, different patterns of behavior and differences in personality.

Question 11:
Write Some Common Developmental Characteristics of Twins.
Answer:
Developmental lag: In physical, mental, motor, and speech development, twins tend to lag behind singletons of the same age. Log in motor and speech development may be due to brain damage or to prematurity but it is more likely to be due to parental over-protectiveness.

Physical Development:
Twins tend to be smaller, age for age, than singletons. This is generally due to the fact that they are premature. They also suffer from brain damage and other physical defects more often than singletons.

Mental Development:
Mental similarities between identical twins are much greater than between nonidentical twins and this persists into old age. Identical twins also show strong similarities in terms of special abilities, such as musical and artistic aptitudes.

Social Development:
Twins tend to compete for adult attention, to imitate each other’s speech and behaviour and to depend on each other for companionship during the preschool years. As they grow older, sibling rivalry and competition develop. One twin usually takes on the role of leader, forcing the other into the role of follower. This affects their relationships with other family members and with outsiders.

Personality Development:
Many twins have difficulty in developing a sense of personal identity. This is especially true of identical twins and of nonidentical twins of the same sex. Others enjoy the close relationship of twinship and the attention they receive as a result of their similarity in appearance. This leads to self-satisfaction and self-confidence.

Behavior Problems:
Behavior problems have been reported to be more common among twins than among singletons of the same age. It is thought that this is a result of the way twins are treated, both at home and outside the home. Behavior problems have also been reported to be more common among nonidentical than among identical twins. It has been suggested that this is because rivalry is stronger between nonidentical than identical twins. Long-Term Effects of Twinship Those that have been made rarely go beyond the tenth year of the twins’ lives have indicated the following long-term effects. There is a tendency for the developmental lag in physical development to end before children reach puberty and often much earlier.

Generally, the firstborn twin continues to be larger, brighter, and better adjusted socially throughout the childhood years. The smaller the twins at birth, the longer the developmental lag tends to persist. The mutual dependency or “twinning relationship” so common among young twins and the one-sided dependency of the smaller on the larger twin generally give way to social relationships similar to those of singletons before the twins enter school. Those who attend daycare centers or preschools tend to abandon these patterns of dependency earlier than twins whose environment is limited to the home. F rate mal twins are more vulnerable to external pressures and to have less support from the twinship relationship than do identical twins not only when they are young but also as they grow older.

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Psychology Unit 1 Long Answer Questions Part-I

Question 12:
What are the hazards during the prenatal period?
Answer:
At no other time during the life span are there more serious hazards to the development-or hazards” of a more serious nature than during the relatively short period before birth. These may be physical or psychological. Physical hazards have received more scientific attention because they are more easily recognized.
However, psychological hazards are sometimes as serious as physical hazards since they affect the attitudes of significant people toward the developing child. Furthermore, they often intensify physical hazards.

Physical Hazards :
Each of the three major subdivisions of the prenatal period involves particular physical hazards. While these do not affect all individuals by any means, they do occur with some. frequency and can be serious enough to affect the development of the individual throughout life. Davis and
(a) Common Physical Hazards during the Prenatal Period :
Period of the Zygote

Starvation:
The zygote will die of starvation if it has too little yolk to keep it alive until it can lodge itself in the uterine wall or if it remains too long in the tube.

Lack of Uterine Preparation:
Implantation can not occur if, as a result of glandular imbalance, the uterine walls are not prepared in time to receive the zygote.

Implantation in the Wrong Place:
If the zygote becomes attached to a small fibroid tissue in the uterine wall or to the wall of the Fallopian tube, it can not get nourishment and will die. Period of the Embryo:

Miscarriages:
Falls, emotional shocks, malnutrition, glandular disturbances, vitamin deficiency, and serious diseases, such as pneumonia and diabetes, can cause the embryo to become dislodged from its place in the uterine wall, resulting in a miscarriage. Miscarriages that are due to unfavorable conditions in the prenatal environment are likely to occur between the tenth and eleventh weeks after conception.

Developmental Irregularities:
Maternal malnutrition vitamin and glandular deficiencies excessive use of drugs, alcohol, and tobacco, and diseases, such as diabetes and German measles, interfere with normal development, especially that of the embryonic brain. Period of the Fetus:

Miscarriages:
Miscarriages are always possible up to the fifth month of pregnancy; the most vulnerable time is when the woman’s menstrual period would normally occur.

Prematurity:
Fetuses who weigh less than 2 pounds 3 ounces have less chance of surviving than heavier fetuses and a greater chance of developing malformations.

Complications of Delivery:
Maternal stress affects uterine contractions and is likely to lead to complications during birth.

Developmental Irregularities:
Any of unfavorable environmental conditions present during the period of the embryo will also affect the development of fetal features and retard the whole pattern of fetal development.

Conditions Influencing Physical Hazards:
Certain conditions have been found to increase the likelihood that physical hazards will occur or accentuate them. The first of these conditions is the timing of their appearance. It has been recognized by doctors for many years that if the mother-to-be contracts rubella during the first trimester of pregnancy the chances of developmental irregularities in her unborn child, especially in the form of an eye or a malformation of the heart, will occur. Female hormones, such as estrogen and progestin, when taken in the early stages of pregnancy may disturb the normal cardiovascular development of the fetus and cause congenital heart diseases.

It is reported that the second and third lunar months, when the heart is developing rapidly, are the most serious times. This is not true if these hormones are taken after the fourth lunar month. The second condition that increases the likelihood of physical hazards is if the condition is intense or greater than is normal. Some conditions that are known to affect the developing child during the prenatal period are described below others are suspected of affecting development. Maternal malnutrition can play havoc with normal development, especially the development of the fetal brain. Excessive smoking and drinking are detrimental to normal development, especially during the periods of the embryo and fetus. This is true also of taking drugs. Maternal age has been reported to be a condition that intensifies the possibility of physical hazards during the prenatal period.

The reason for this is that as women approach menopause, they frequently have endocrine disorders which slow down the development of the embryo and fetus, causing such developmental irregularities as cretinism, Down’s syndrome, heart malformations and hydrocephalus all of which involve physical and mental defects. The incidence of Down’s syndrome increases as age advances in women. Older women also tend to have smaller babies and to have more complications at birth than do younger women. While paternal age may likewise cause developmental irregularities or stillbirths, this is likely to happen only when paternal age is over sixty years.

Certain kinds of work are more likely to disturb prenatal development than others. Chemicals and other hazards faced by women working in such places as hospitals, beauty parlors and factories may be responsible for the increasing number of birth defects and miscarriages during recent years. Multiple births are more hazardous than single births. Fetuses of multiple births are crowded during the prenatal period and this inhibits the normal fetal activity essential for development. Prematurity is also more likely in the case of multiple births, as is the possibility of developmental irregularities. Because multiple births are more common among blacks than among whites, this may account in part for the higher infant mortality rate and the greater incidence of developmental irregularities among blacks than among whites.

CHSE Odisha Class 11 Political Science Unit 3 Indian Constitution Objective Questions

Odisha State Board CHSE Odisha Class 11 Political Science Solutions Unit 3 Indian Constitution Objective Questions and Answers.

CHSE Odisha 11th Class Political Science Unit 3 Indian Constitution Objective Questions

Multiple Choice Questions With Answers

Question 1.
Who framed the constitution of India?
(a) B.R. Ambedkar
(b) Mahatma Gandhi
(c) Parliament of India
(d) Constituent Assembly
Answer:
(d) Constituent Assembly

Question 2.
Who is known as the Father of Indian Constitution?
(a) J.L. Nehru
(b) M.K. Gandhi
(c) B.R/Ambedkar
(d) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
Answer:
(c) B.R/Ambedkar

Question 3.
When did the constituted assembly of India meet for the first time?
(a) 1947, August 15
(b) 1946 March 31
(c) 1946, Nov 26
(d) 1946, December 9
Answer:
(d) 1946, December 9

Question 4.
On whose recommendation the process for the formation of constituent assembly started.
(a) Cripp’s Mission
(b) Cabinet Mission
(c) Waven Plan.
(d) Mountbatten Plan
Answer:
(b) Cabinet Mission

Question 5.
When the constitution of India was enacted
(a) 1949, Nov, 26th
(b) 1950, Jan 26th
(c) 1950, Nov, 26th
(d) 1949, Jan 26th
Answer:
(a) 1949, Nov, 26th

Question 6.
From which date the constitution of India came into force?
(a) 26th, January 1950
(b) 26th, Nov 1949
(c) 26th Nov 1950
(d) 26th January 1949
Answer:
(a) 26th, January 1950

Question 7.
Which one of the following has been the major source of our constitution?
(a) British constitution
(b) USA constitution
(c) Parliamentary Acts
(d) Govt, of India Act, 1935
Answer:
(d) Govt, of India Act, 1935

Question 8.
How many Odia people represented the Constitution Assembly
(a) 10
(b) 11
(c) 09
(d) 08
Answer:
(c) 09

Question 9.
The preamble declare India as a?
(a) Democratic Republic
(b) Sovereign Democratic Republic
(c) Sovereign socialist secular republic
(d) Sovereign, socialist, secular democratic republic.
Answer:
(d) Sovereign, socialist, secular democratic republic.

Question 10.
What are the objectives mentioned in the preamble to the Indian Constitution?
(a) Secularism and democracy
(b) Democracy, social justice, welfare state
(c) Parliamentary democracy
(d) Justice, liberty, equality & Fraternity
Answer:
(d) Justice, liberty, equality & Fraternity

CHSE Odisha Class 11 Political Science Unit 3 Indian Constitution Objective Questions

Question 11.
What type of constitution in Indian constitution?
(a) Flexible constitution
(b) Rigid constitution
(c) Unwritten constitution
(d) Partly rigid and partly flexible constitution
Answer:
(d) Partly rigid and partly flexible constitution

Question 12.
Who can amend the constitution of India?
(a) Parliament
(b) President
(c) Supreme Court
(d) Prime minister
Answer:
(a) Parliament

Question 13.
Who presided over the first meeting of the constituent Assembly?
(a) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(b) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
(c) Dr. S.N.Sinha
(d) U.C. Baneijee
Answer:
(c) Dr. S.N.Sinha

Question 14.
Which of the following is not a source of the constitution?
(a) Govt of India Act, 1935
(b) Laws of British Parliament
(c) Foreign constitutions
(d) Values and ideals of freedom movement.
Answer:
(b) Laws of British Parliament

Question 15.
The Objective Resolution was passed by the Constituents Assembly on?
(a) 9th Dec 1946
(b) 22nd Jan 1947
(c) 26th Jan 1947
(d) 26th Nov 1949
Answer:
(b) 22nd Jan 1947

Question 16.
The neutrality of the Speaker in India rests upon?
(a) Provisions of the constitution
(b) Laws of the Parliament
(c) Convention
(d) Rules and Procedure of Lok Sabha
Answer:
(b) Laws of the Parliament

Question 17.
Who wrote the book “Commentaries on the constitution of India?
(a) B.N. Ray
(b) D.D. Basu
(c) K.T. Shivaji Rao
(d) K.N. Kaul
Answer:
(b) D.D. Basu

Question 18.
The Indian constitution contains how many Articles?
(a) 409 Articles
(b) 412 Articles
(c) 395 Articles
(d) 393 Articles
Answer:
(c) 395 Articles

Question 19.
The Constitution of India has been divided into parts.
(a) 22
(b) 24
(c) 18
(d) 20
Answer:
(a) 22

Question 20.
Indian Constitution is a constitution?
(a) Rigid
(b) Flexible
(c) Partly rigid and partly flexible
(d) Neither rigid nor flexible
Answer:
(c) Partly rigid and partly flexible

CHSE Odisha Class 11 Political Science Unit 3 Indian Constitution Objective Questions

Question 21.
India is a secular state means that
(a) India is a secular State, means that. There is no state religion in India
(b) All religions are treated equally
(c) The state maintains religious neutrality
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

Question 22.
The constitution declares India as
(a) a federation
(b) a union of status
(c) a quasi federal state
(d) a unity state
Answer:
(a) a federation

Question 23.
The President of India is elected that means
(a) India is a democracy
(b) India is a democratic society
(c) India is a Parliamentary democracy
(d) India is a Republic
Answer:
(d) India is a Republic

Question 24.
The procedure of Amendment of the Indian constitution has been discussed in which Article?
(a) Art 351
(b) Art 368
(c) Art 58
(d) Art 378
Answer:
(b) Art 368

Question 25.
Who says, Indian Constitution is a Lawyers paradise?
(a) D.D. Basu
(b) K.C. where
(c) M.V. Pylee
(d) Ivor Jennings
Answer:
(d) Ivor Jennings

Question 26.
In which part of the constitution fundamental rights are mentioned?
(a) Part – III
(b) Part – IV
(c) Part – III (A)
(d) Part – IV (A)
Answer:
(a) Part – III

Question 27.
Which article in our constitution gives safeguards children from exploitation?
(a) Art, 19
(b) Art, 20
(c) Art, 23
(d) Art, 24
Answer:
(d) Art, 24

Question 28.
Who can amend the fundamental rights?
(a) Executive
(b) Parliament
(c) Supreme Court
(d) Lok Sabha
Answer:
(b) Parliament

Question 29.
Who acts as the guardian of fundamental rights?
(a) President of India
(b) Supreme Court
(c) Council of Ministry
(d) High Court
Answer:
(b) Supreme Court

Question 30.
Which is a Gandhian Principle of the Directives?
(a) To secure a uniform civil code for Indians
(b) To promote international peace and security
(c) To prohibit the use of drugs and intoxicants
(d) To protect the health and strength of children
Answer:
(c) To prohibit the use of drugs and intoxicants

CHSE Odisha Class 11 Political Science Unit 3 Indian Constitution Objective Questions

Question 31.
The Directive Principles are by Nature?
(a) Positive directions
(b) Non justiciable
(c) Socio economic Principles
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above

Question 32.
The directives are backed by?
(a) Public opinion
(b) Laws
(c) Parliamentary status
(d) Constitution
Answer:
(a) Public opinion

Question 33.
The fundamental duties are mentioned in which article of the constitution?
(a) Art. 51
(b) Art. 50A
(c) Art. 50
(d) Art. 51(A)
Answer:
(d) Art. 51(A)

Question 34.
The fundamental duties have been incorporated on whose recommendation?
(a) Mehta Committee
(b) Dr. B. R Ambedkar
(c) Dr. Swaran Singh Committee
(d) Venkatchelliya Committee
Answer:
(c) Dr. Swaran Singh Committee

Question 35.
By which Amendment to the Constitution of India Right to Education was made a fundamental right?
(a) 56th Amendment Act
(b) 75th Amendment Act
(c) 82nd Amendment Act
(d) 86th Amendment Act
Answer:
(d) 86th Amendment Act

Question 36.
Which article of the Constitution of India Prohibits traffic in human beings?
(a) At, 21A
(b) Art, 21
(c) Art, 22
(d) Art, 23
Answer:
(d) Art, 23

Question 37.
Which article of the constitution prohibits religious instructions to be given in any state managed educational institutions?
(a) Art, 24
(b) Art, 25
(c) Art, 26
(d) Art, 28
Answer:
(d) Art, 28

Question 38.
Which of the following is not a Fundamental Right?
(a) Right to Equality
(b) Right to Property
(c) Right to Education
(d) Right to Freedom
Answer:
(b) Right to Property

Question 39.
Which Fundamental Right of the Indian Constitution seeks to protect the interest of the minorities
(a) Right to freedom
(b) Right against Exploitation
(c) Educational and Cultural Rights
(d) Right to freedom of Religion
Answer:
(c) Educational and Cultural Rights

Question 40.
Who among the following does not belong to weaker sections?
(a) Senior Citizens
(b) Women
(c) Children
(d) Backward classes
Answer:
(a) Senior Citizens

CHSE Odisha Class 11 Political Science Unit 3 Indian Constitution Objective Questions

Question 41.
Which writ is issued by the superior court against illegal arrest and detention?
(a) Habeas Corpus
(b) Mandamus
(c) Quo Warranto
(d) Certiorari
Answer:
(a) Habeas Corpus

Question 42.
Which writ is issued by the superior court to a person or authority to perform his duty lawfully?
(a) Habeas Corpus
(b) Mandamus
(c) Prohibition
(d) Quo-Warranto
Answer:
(b) Mandamus

Question 43.
Under which article of the constitution a citizen can move to the High Court for enforcement of fundamental Rights?
(a) Art. 32
(b) Art. 145
(c) Art. 226
(d) Art. 256
Answer:
(c) Art. 226

Question 44.
Who criticized the fundamental right chapter of the Indian Constitution as ’Lawyer’s Paradise?
(a) K.V. Rao
(b) B.R. Ambedkar
(c) K.C. Wheare
(d) Sirlvor Jennings
Answer:
(d) Sirlvor Jennings

Question 45.
Who can amend any portion of fundamental rights?
(a) Parliament
(b) President
(c) Supreme Court
(d) Union Ministry
Answer:
(a) Parliament

Question 46.
Which amendment to the Indian Constitution added new principles to the list of Directive Principles of state policy?
(a) 25th Amendment
(b) 29th Amendment
(c) 42nd Amendment
(d) 44th Amendment
Answer:
(c) 42nd Amendment

Question 47.
Which of the following, is considered to be a code of conduct for states?
(a) Preamble
(b) Constitution Of India
(c) Fundamental rights
(d) Directive Principles of state policy
Answer:
(d) Directive Principles of state policy

Question 48.
Which is the objective of Directive Principles of state policy?
(a) Realisation of Socio-Economic Democracy
(b) Establishment of a welfare state
(c) To motivate people to a peaceful political revolution
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these

Question 49.
In which year the Parliament enacted the RTI Act?
(a) 2002
(b) 2004
(c) 2005
(d) 2008
Answer:
(c) 2005

Question 50.
Which of the following is not an objective of the right to Information Act, of 2005?
(a) To empower citizens
(b) To promote transparency and accountability
(c) To certain corruption
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these

CHSE Odisha Class 11 Political Science Unit 3 Indian Constitution Objective Questions

Question 51.
Which articles of the chapter fundamental rights stand suspended during a national emergency?
(a) Art. 17 & 25
(b) Art. 21 & 29
(c) Art. 19(i) & 32
(d) Art. l6(i) & 32
Answer:
(c) Art. 19(i) & 32

Question 52.
By which Amendment Act Right to property has been deleted from the constitution?
(a) 42nd Amendment Act
(b) 44th Amendment Act
(c) 52nd Amendment Act
(d) 59th Amendment Act
Answer:
(b) 44th Amendment Act

Question 53.
Which article of the constitution prohibits discrimination on grounds of religion, caste, race, sex, and place of birth?
(a) Art. 15
(b) Art. 20
(c) Art. 16
(d) Art. 25
Answer:
(a) Art. 15

Question 54.
Which article of the constitution is described as the core of the chapter on fundamental rights?
(a) Art. 14
(b) Art. 21
(c) Art. 19
(d) Art. 32
Answer:
(b) Art. 21

Question 55.
What was the initial membership of the constituent Assembly?
(a) 229
(b) 389
(c) 360
(d) 296
Answer:
(b) 389

Question 56.
Who was the president of the Indian Constituent Assembly?
(a) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar .
(b) J.L. Nehru
(c) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(d) Mahatma Gandhi
Answer:
(c) Dr. Rajendra Prasad

Question 57.
By which Amendment Act the preamble, was amended?
(a) 37th
(b) 39th
(c) 42nd
(d) 44th
Answer:
(c) 42nd

Question 58.
In which year the term secular & socialist were added to the preamble?
(a) 1950
(b) 1958
(c) 1978
(d) 1976
Answer:
(d) 1976

Question 59.
Who says India is a quasi-federal state?
(a) Sir Ivor Jennings
(b) Black stone
(c) K.C. Wheare
(d) Winston Churchill
Answer:
(c) K.C. Wheare

Question 60.
Fundamental Rights are mentioned in which part of the constitution?
(a) Part II
(b) Part III
(c) Part IV
(d) Part VI
Answer:
(b) Part III

CHSE Odisha Class 11 Political Science Unit 3 Indian Constitution Objective Questions

Question 61.
In which part of the constitution the Directive Principles are mentioned?
(a) Part – III
(b) Part – IV
(c) Part-V
(d) Part – VII
Answer:
(b) Part – IV

Question 62.
By which Amendment Act the fundamental duties enshrined in the constitution?
(a) 42nd
(b) 43rd
(c) 44th
(d) 45th
Answer:
(a) 42nd

Question 63.
Under which article of the constitution Right to education is being added?
(a) Art. 19 (B)
(b) Art. 20 (c)
(c) Art. 211(A)
(d) Art. 22 (A)
Answer:
(c) Art. 211(A)

Question 64.
On the recommendation of which committee the fundamental duties are added to the constitution?
(a) Mehta Committee
(b) Santhanam Committee
(c) Dr. Swaran Singh Committee
(d) Sarkaria committee
Answer:
(c) Dr. Swaran Singh Committee

Question 65.
By which amendment act Right to Education found a place in the constitution?
(a) 73rd Amendment Act
(b) 84th Amendment Act
(c) 86th Amendment Act
(d) 92nd Amendment Act
Answer:
(c) 86th Amendment Act

Question 66.
In which article of the constitution six fundamental freedoms are mentioned?
(a) Art. 19
(b) Art. 32
(c) Art. 20
(d) Art. 21
Answer:
(a) Art. 19

Question 67.
Right to equality is being provided under Art…… to…?
(a) Art 14-18
(b) Art. 19-22
(c) Art. 23-24
(d) Art.29-30
Answer:
(a) Art 14-18

Question 68.
Who “says fundamental rights are the conscience of the constitution?
(a) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
(b) Pt. J.L. Nehru
(c) Sardar Patel
(d) K.M. Munsi
Answer:
(b) Pt. J.L. Nehru

Question 69.
Under which article an aggrieved citizen can go to supreme court for redressal of fundamental rights?
(a) Art. 31
(b) Art. 32
(c) Art. 226
(d) Art. 272
Answer:
(b) Art. 32

Question 70.
Forced labor has been abolished under which article
(a) Art. 15
(b) Art. 21
(c) Art. 22
(d) Art. 23
Answer:
(d) Art. 23

CHSE Odisha Class 11 Political Science Unit 3 Indian Constitution Objective Questions

Question 71.
In which article of the constitution there is mention about a welfare State?
(a) Art. 32
(b) Art. 36
(c) Art. 38
(d) Art. 39
Answer:
(c) Art. 38

Question 72.
Which unit is issued by the superior court against illegal arrest and detention of a person?
(a) Habeas corpus
(b) Mandamus
(c) Prohibition
(d) Quo-warranto
Answer:
(a) Habeas corpus

Question 73.
In which article of the constitution there is mentioned a reorganization of village panchayats
(a) Art. 39(c)
(b) Art. 40
(c) Art. 42
(d) Art. 45
Answer:
(b) Art. 40

Question 74.
Under which article the fundamental Duties are mentioned?
(a) Art. 44
(b) Art. 50
(c) Art. 51(A)
(d) Art. 52(A)
Answer:
(c) Art. 51(A)

Question 75.
Which article speaks about the uniform civil code in India?
(a) Art. 42
(b) Art. 44
(c) Art. 51
(d) Art. 62
Answer:
(b) Art. 44

Question 76.
Which article deals with the prohibition of cow slaughter?
(a) Art. 41
(b) Art. 47
(c) Art. 48
(d) Art. 511(A)
Answer:
(c) Art. 48

Answer the following questions in one word or digit

Question 1.
Who framed the Indian constitution?
Answer:
Indian constituentAssembley

Question 2.
Which is the political horoscope of the Indian Constitution?
Answer:
Preamble

Question 3.
When the preamble was amended for the first time?
Answer:
1976, 42nd Amendment Act

Question 4.
How many Articles and schedules are there in the Indian Constitution?
Answer:
395 & 12

Question 5.
When did the constitution of India come into force?
Answer:
26th January 1950

CHSE Odisha Class 11 Political Science Unit 3 Indian Constitution Objective Questions

Question 6.
When and where the first meeting of the constituent assembly of India was held?
Answer:
Dec. 9, 1946, Central Hall of Parliamen

Question 7.
Who was the chairman of the Fundamental Rights Committee?
Answer:
Sardar Patel

Question 8.
Who was the chairman of the constituent Assembly?
Answer:
Dr. Rajendra Prasad

Question 9.
Which two articles of fundamental rights can not be amended by the parliament?
Answer:
Art. 20 & 21

Question 10.
What was the purpose behind reservation of seats for SC and STs in educational institutions and public service?
Answer:
Establishment of social justice.

Question 11.
What type of right is right to property?
Answer:
Legal right

Question 12.
In which year the constitution was amended for the first time?
Answer:
10th May, 1951

Question 13.
Who is authorized to make amendments in the constitution?
Answer:
Parliament of India

Question 14.
By which amendment act reservation in promotion ofSC and STs was enforced?
Answer:
77thAmendment Act

Question 15.
Untouchability has been abolished in India by which Act?
Answer:
Protection of Civil Rights Act. 1955.

CHSE Odisha Class 11 Political Science Unit 3 Indian Constitution Objective Questions

Question 16.
When preventive detention came into force
Answer:
1950

Question 17.
When did the maintenance of the internal securities act (MISA) come into force?
Answer:
1971

Question 18.
When the Emergency services maintenance Act enforced? (ESMA)
Answer:
1981

Question 19.
When the TADA Act came into force?
Answer:
1987

Question 20.
When the POTA Act came into force?
Answer:
1987

Question 21.
Under Which article a citizen can move the High Court for enforcement of fundamental rights?
Answer:
Art. 226

Question 22.
Which unit is enforced against the illegal assumption of public service?
Answer:
Quo warranto

Question 23.
What is the nature of fundamental rights?
Answer:
Negative /Prohibitive

Question 24.
Which article of the constitution ensures Equality before law?
Answer:
Art. 14

Question 25.
Under which article of the constitution the concern for International peace and security is expressed?
Answer:
Article 39

CHSE Odisha Class 11 Political Science Unit 3 Indian Constitution Objective Questions

Question 26.
Which Amendment Act gave priority to the Directive Principle over fundamental rights?
Answer:
25th Amendment Act

Question 27.
Which article of the constitution accords protection to the Directive Principles
Answer:
Art. 31 (c)

Question 28.
Are the fundamental duties justifiable?
Answer:
No.

Question 29.
From which constitution the idea of fundamental duties were borrowed?
Answer:
Constitution of Soviet Russia

Question 30.
In which year by which amendment Act the eleventh fundamental duty was added
Answer:
2002, 86th Amendment Act.

Fill in the Blanks with Appropriate Words

1.____is called the father of the Indian Constitution.
Answer : Dr. B.R, Ambedkar.

2._____was the president of the constituent assembly of India.
Answer: Dr. Rajcndra Prasad

3. As the President of India is elected for live years India is called a_____.
Answer: Republic

4. All religious communities in India are given equal treatment, so India is called_____state.
Answer: Secular

5. The Indian constitution has been divided into_____ parts.
Answer: XXII

6. Amendment procedure is mentioned under Art_____.
Answer: Art. 368

7._____is empowered to amend the Indian constitution.
Answer: Parliament of India

8. In spite of having a federal setup in India. The constitution provides for_____citizenship.
Answer: Single

9. The constitution of India is_____ in form but_____ in spirit.
Answer: Federal, unitary

10. The constitution of India was adopted and enacted on _____.
Answer: 26th November 1949

CHSE Odisha Class 11 Political Science Unit 3 Indian Constitution Objective Questions

11. The Indian Constitution came into force on_____.
Answer: 26th January 1950

12._____was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Constitutional Assembly of India.
Answer: Dr. B.R. Ambdckar

13. Indian Constitution of India contains_____articles and_____schedules
Answer: 395

14. When the Constitution was framed in 1950 their were_____Articles and_____Schedules.
Answer: 395,8

15. The_____is the gateway to the Indian Constitution.
Answer: Preamble

16. The Preamble starts with the term_____.
Answer: We the people of India

17. The Preamble depicts India as a Sovereign, Socialist_____Democratic Republic.
Answer: Secular

18._____is the soul of the Constitution
Answer: Preamble

19. The aims, objectives, and ideals of the Indian Constitution are set in the_____.
Answer: Preamble

20. The Preamble to the Indian Constitution was amended in the_____Ammendment Act of 1976.
Answer: 42nd

21. The words_____and _____ were inserted to the preamble by the 42nd Amendment Act.
Answer: Socialist, secular

22._____criticizes Indian Constitution as a Lawyers Paradise?
Answer: Sir Ivor Jcmings

23._____says India is a quasi-federal state.
Answer: Prof K.C. wheare

24._____is the political horoscope of the constitution.
Answer: Preamble

25. The Indian Constitution prescribes fundamental rights under_____of the constitution.
Answer: Part III

CHSE Odisha Class 11 Political Science Unit 3 Indian Constitution Objective Questions

26. The Indian Constitution has enumerated_____kinds of fundamental rights.
Answer: Six

27. Right to property which was a fundamental right earlier is now a_____rights.
Answer: Legal

28. Right to the property has been deleted from the list of fundamental rights under_____amendment Act.
Answer: 44th

29. The fundamental rights are justiciable but the directives are_____in nature.
Answer: Non-Justiciable

30. The Constitution of India has abolished untouchability under Art_____.
Answer: Art. 17

31. A citizen can move to the Supreme Court for redressal of fundamental rights under art_____.
Answer: Art. 32

32. The Indian Constitution has guaranteed the right against exploitation for the_____sections of society.
Answer: Weaker

33. The constitution prescribes reservation of seats for the S.C. and S.T. candidates to ensure_____to the citizens.
Answer: Social justice

34. The Constitution has guaranteed the right to freedom of religion from Aft. 25 and 28, that means India, is a_____state.
Answer: Secular

35. The Supreme Court enforces fundamental rights by the issue of_____.
Answer: Prerogative Writs

36. The High Court is this the writ of_____in matters of illegal arrest and detention.
Answer: Habeas Corpus

37. The Directive Principles of state policy seek to make India a_____state.
Answer: Welfare

38. The Directive is social and_____nature.
Answer: Economic

39. During National Emergency the Fundamental Rights under Art._____and_____are, suspended.
Answer: Art. 19 and Art. 32

40. The writ of Mandamus means_____.
Answer: An order of the court

CHSE Odisha Class 11 Political Science Unit 3 Indian Constitution Objective Questions

41. The state shall take steps to separate the judiciary from the executive in public services of the state. It has been mentioned under_____ the principles of the directives.
Answer: Liberal

42. The directives are mentioned under part_____of the constitution.
Answer: Past IV

43._____is the fundamental basis of Direct Democracy.
Answer: Popular Overnight

44._____form of authoritarianism has been established in China.
Answer: Party

45. Now, the right to property is available under Article_____
Answer: Art. 300A

46._____can amend Fundamental Rights.
Answer: Parliament

47. The Constitution under Art_____provides cultural and educational rights.
Answer: Article 29 and Article 30

48. The Constitution under Art_____directs the Union govt, to secure a uniform civil code.
Answer: Article 44

49. Fundamental Rights are backed by law but the Directives by_____.
Answer: Public opinion

50. The Constitution under Art_____directs the Govt, to protect wildlife, the environment, and forests.
Answer: Art. 48(A)

51. Right to property after the 44th Amendment Act has been mentioned in Art_____of the constitution.
Answer: Art. 300 (A)

52._____Amendment Act has declared Right to Education a Fundamental Right.
Answer: 86th

53. Art_____of the constitution offers protection for children from exploitation.
Answer: Art. 24

54. Under Art_____a citizen can move to the Supreme Court for the redress of a fundamental right.
Answer: Art. 32

55. As per the provisions of Art_____India shall strive hard to promote International peace and security.
Answer: Art. 51

56. In the_____case the supreme court observed that the fundamental rights are sacrosanct.
Answer: Champakam Dorairajan

57. India became a Republic from_____.
Answer: 26th Jan 1950

58._____presided over the first meeting of the constituent assembly.
Answer: Dr. S.N. Sinha

59. The voting age of the voters in reduced from 21 to 18 by the_____amendment act.
Answer: 61st

60. Right to education underArt_____has become effective from_____.
Answer: Art. 21(A)

CHSE Odisha Class 11 Political Science Unit 3 Indian Constitution Objective Questions

61. Art_____provides for preventive Detention.
Answer: Art. 22

62. Right against exploitation is meant for the_____.
Answer: Weaker sections of society.

63._____right is meant for minorities.
Answer: Cultural & Educational

64. The superior courts issue_____to enforce fundamental rights.
Answer: Units

65._____aim at making India a welfare state.
Answer: Directive Principle

66. Art_____provides for uniform civil code.
Answer: Art. 44

67. The fundamental rights are suspended during_____.
Answer: National Emergency

68._____says Art. 32 is the heart and soul of the constitution.
Answer: B.R. Ambedkar

69. The directives are borrowed from the constitution of_____.
Answer: Ireland

70. There are_____members in the Drafting Committee.
Answer: Eight

Answer In One Sentence

Question 1.
How the India constituent Assembly was formed?
Answer:
The Indian constituent Assembly was fonned by members indirectly elected from provincial legislatures.

Question 2.
How much time the constituent Assembly consumed to enact the new constitution?
Answer:
The constituent assembly took 2 years 11 months and 18 days to enact the new Indian constitution.

Question 3.
What do we the .people of India imply?
Answer:
We the people of India imply that the People of India are, the framers of the constitution.

Question 4.
What is Preamble’?
Answer:
A preamble is an introduction or brief sketch of the constitution

Question 5.
What are the changes brought about by the 42nd Amendment? Act in the preamble?
Answer:
The 42nd Amendment has added the three words, socialist, -secular, and integrity into the preamble.

Question 6.
From the amendment point of view what type of constitution is the Indian Constitution?
Answer:
From the amendment point of view, Indian constitution is partly rigid and partly flexible.

Question 7.
When the Indian constitution was enacted?
Answer:
The Indian Constitution was enacted on 26th November 1949.

Question 8.
When the Indian constitution came into force?
Answer:
The Indian Constitution came into force on 26th January 1950.

Question 9.
What art. 1 of the constitution provides for?
Answer:
Art. 1 of the constitution states that India, that is Bharat, shall be a union of states.

Question 10.
What is equality before the law?
Answer:
Equality before the law means all are equal in the eyes of law and the law courts provide equal security to all.

CHSE Odisha Class 11 Political Science Unit 3 Indian Constitution Objective Questions

Question 11.
What is a quasi-federal state?
Answer:
A quasi-federal state is federal in form but unitary in spirit.

Question 12.
What is a Republic?
Answer:
A Republic is a state with an elective head.

Question 13.
Under which schedule of the constitution the powers between the center and states have been distributed?
Answer:
The powers between the .centre and states have been distributed under the 7th schedule of the constitution.

Question 14.
What is single citizenship?
Answer:
Single citizenship means citizenship granted by the Union government.

Question 15.
Who was the advisor to the constituent assembly?
Answer:
Dr. B.N. Rau was the advisor to the constituent assembly of India.

Question 16.
What is the basic difference between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principle?
Answer:
The Fundamental rights are justiciable while the Directive Principle are non-justiciable in a court of law.

Question 17.
Who constitutes the weaker sections of society?
Answer:
Women, children, and backward classes constitute the weaker sections of society.

Question 18.
What is a writ?
Answer:
A writ is an order of the superior court.

Question 19.
What for the writ of Habeas corpus in the issue?
Answer:
The unit of Habeas corpus is issued to relieve a person from unlawful arrest and detention.

Question 20.
What for the writ of mandamus is issued?
Answer:
The writ of mandamus is issued superior court directing any authority to act as per the law and direction of the court.

Question 21.
When the right to property was deleted from fundamental rights?
Answer:
Right to property was deleted from fundamental rights by the 44th Amendment act, 1978.

Question 22.
What is forced labor?
Answer:
Forced labor means labor without payment.

Question 23.
As per the preamble who is the ultimate source of the constitution?
Answer:
The preamble declares the people of India as the source of the constitution.

Question 24.
Which constitutional amendment is called a mini-constitution?
Answer:
42nd Amendment Act is called the mini-constitution.

Question 25.
In which case the apex court declared the preamble as a part of the basic structure of the constitution?
Answer:
In the Keshavananda Bharati case of 1973, the supreme court declared the. preamble as a part of the basic structure of the constitution

Question 26.
What is a fundamental right?
Answer:
A fundamental right is a constitutional right which is indispensable for the development of an individual personality.

Question 27.
What is the purpose of the right to equality?
Answer:
The purpose of the right to equality into protects the citizens from discriminatory treatment by state.

Question 28.
What does traffic in human beings imply?
Answer:
Traffic in human beings implies the exploitation of women children and backward classes for immoral purposes.

Question 29.
Why India is called a secular State?
Answer:
India is called a secular state because the government of India observes an attitude of neutrality and non-attachment toward all religions.

Question 30.
What can a citizen do when his fundamental right is violated?
Answer:
When one’s fundamental right is violated he can move to the supreme court under Art. 32 or state high court under Art. 226 for redressal.

CHSE Odisha Class 11 Political Science Unit 3 Indian Constitution Objective Questions

Question 31.
What is Habeas Corpus?
Answer:
Habeas Corpus is a unit issued by a superior court to any authority to protect the person from unlawful arrest and detention.

Question 32.
What for a unit of prohibition is issued?
Answer:
The writ of prohibition is issued by a superior court to an inferior court to prevent the lower court from crossing the limits of jurisdiction.

Question 33.
What certiorari is issued?
Answer:
Certiorari is issued by a superior court to an inferior court to prevent the abuse of jurisdiction and to bring the matter to the knowledge of the higher court.

Question 34.
What is Quo-warranto?
Answer:
Quo-warranto is a unit issued by a Superior court to any public authority for abuse of office or position.

Question 35.
What does the directive principle of state policy imply?
Answer:
The directive principle of state policy implies a set of guidelines to the union government and states to ensure socio-economic justice.

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Sociology Unit 2 Indian Social Structure Objective Questions

Odisha State Board CHSE Odisha Class 12 Sociology Solutions Unit 2 Indian Social Structure Objective Questions and Answers.

CHSE Odisha 12th Class Sociology Unit 2 Indian Social Structure Objective Questions

Multiple Choice Questions With Answers

Question 1.
Caste system of
(a)Social Harmony
(b) Social order
(c) Social Institution
(d) Above all
Answer:
(a) Social Harmony

Question 2.
Caste is a ranked social diversion in which the membership of an Individual is determined by birth. Who said this?
(a) A.L.Agrawal
(b) M.N.Srinivas
(c) Karl Marx
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) A.L.Agrawal.

Question 3.
“Caste system from a comparative standpoint as a part of the medieval economic organisation”. Who said this?
(a) A.L.Agrawall
(b) M.N.Srinivas
(c) Karl Marx
(d) Above all
Answer:
(b) M.N.Srinivas

Question 4.
Who says, “that unchangeable division of labour on the basis of caste is a fundamental quality of the Indian social system”?
(a) A.L.Agrawall
(b) M.N.Srinivas
(c) Karl Marx
(d) Above all
Answer:
(c) Karl Marx

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Sociology Unit 2 Indian Social Structure Objective Questions

Question 5.
Who said that more than three thousand castes are seen in India?
(a) A.L.Agrawall
(b) J.H.Hutton
(c) GS.Ghurye
(d) Above all
Answer:
(b) J.H.Hutton

Question 6.
Who said this opinion that two hundred kinds of caste are seen in every linguistic area?
(a) J.H.Hutton
(b) G S.Ghurye
(c) L.K.Krishna
(d) Above all
Answer:
(b) G S.Ghurye

Question 7.
Who said this caste system was not only found in Indian society but also it was seen in ancient Egyptian society?
(a) L.K.Krishnalyer
(b) G S.Ghuiye
(c) Sir E.A.Gant
(d) J.H.Hutton
Answer:
(a) L.K.Krishnalyer

Question 8.
Who says that every caste and sub-caste are generally known as an endogamous group, smart has described the Indian caste system as the racial institution of the Aryans and compared in to the kin class of ancient Greek and Roman society.
(a) Sir E.A.Gant
(b) A.LAgrawall
(c) M.N.Srinivas
(d) J.H.Hutton
Answer:
(a)Sir E.A.Gant

Question 9.
Caste as derived from a
(a) Partiguege word caste
(b) Breed
(c) Race
(d) Above all
Answer:
(d) Above all

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Sociology Unit 2 Indian Social Structure Objective Questions

Question 10
Caste in derived from Sanskrit roof
(a) Jana
(b) Caste
(c) Casta
(d) Above all
Answer:
(a) Jana

Question 11.
Who says that A caste is a closed and rigid social class?
(a) Madan and Mazumdar
(b) C.H.Cooley
(c) MacIver and page
(d) Above all
Answer:
(a) Madan and Mazumdar

Question 12.
Which of the following characteristics of caste?
(a) Segmental Division of society
(b) Hierarchy
(c) Restrictions in Social habits
(d) Above all
Answer:
(d) Above all

Question 13.
Which of the following merits of the caste system?
(a) Determination of social status
(b) Fixation of occupation
(c) Guarantee of social society
(d) Above all
Answer:
(d) Above all

Question 14.
Which of the following Dysfunction of the caste system?
(a) Derives of mobility of labour
(b) Untouchability
(c) Retards social solidarity
(d) Above all
Answer:
(d)Above all

Question 15.
Which of the following factors affects the caste system?
(a) Modem Education
(b) Industrialisation
(c) Urbanization
(d) Above all of them
Answer:
(d) Above all of them

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Sociology Unit 2 Indian Social Structure Objective Questions

Question 16.
Which of the following Recent changes in the caste system?
(a) Dectioned superiority of Brahmins
(b) Change in the Restriction regarding social Habits
(c) Changes in the Restriction regarding marriage
(d) Above all of them
Answer:
(d) Above all of them

Question 17.
Which of the following caste and class?
(a) Stratification
(b) Structure
(c) Occupation
(d) Above all of them
Answer:
(d) Above all of them

Question 18.
A joint family has the following size _________.
(a) Small
(b) Medium
(c) Large
Answer:
(c) Large

Question 19.
Property in a joint family is ___________.
(a) Common
(b) Independent
(c) None of the above.
Answer:
(a) Common

Question 20.
Joint family promotes ___________.
(a) Quarrel
(b) Status of women
(c) Personality
Answer:
(a) Quarrel

Question 21.
Joint family limits ___________.
(a) Reproduction
(b) Social mobility
(c) Litigation.
Answer:
(b) Social mobility

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Sociology Unit 2 Indian Social Structure Objective Questions

Question 22.
Which one is not a factor of disorganization of a Joint Family?
(a) Family conflict
(b) Industrialisation,
(c) None of the above.
Answer:
(b) Industrialisation.

Question 23.
Which of the following is not a feature of the joint family?
(a) Joint property
(b) Common religion
(c) Common occupation
(d) Small size.
Answer:
(d) Small size.

Question 24.
Which of the following are the merits are of the joint family system?
(a) It ensures economic progress
(b) It provides an opportunity for leisure
(c) It secures the economy of expenditure
(d) It helps in the development of personality.
Answer:
(a) It ensures economic progress.

Question 25.
A joint Family system is criticised because it
(a) denies privacy of the newlywed couple.
(b) prevents property from being divided
(c) becomes a home for ideas.
(d) provides little time to women for leisure.
Answer:
(a) denies privacy to the newlywed couple.

Question 26.
Which of the following factors are responsible for the disintegration of the joint family system in India?
(a) Industrialisation
(b) Social Legislation
(c) Education of women
(d) Women franchise
Answer:
(a) Industrialisation.

Question 27.
Village Community is
(a) A group of people
(b) A geographical area.
(c) A developed community.
Answer:
(a) A group of people

Question 28.
Who said this, “the real India lives in villages”.
(a) A.R.Desai
(b) M.N.Srinivas
(c) R.K.Mukhi
Answer:
(a) A.R.Desai

Question 29.
Who said this, “ a village is a body of people living in a restricted area, at some distances from other similar groups with extremely poor roads between them, the majority of people being engaged in agricultural activity, all closely dependent upon each other economically and otherwise, having a vast body of common experience must have some sense of unity”.
(a) M.N.Srinivas
(b) R.M.Mukherji
(c) R.N.Sharma
Answer:
(a) M.N.Srinivas

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Sociology Unit 2 Indian Social Structure Objective Questions

Question 30.
Who said this, “a whole within a large whole”?
(a) Prof Mekin Marriot
(b) R.M.Mukherji
(c) M.N.Srinivas
Answer:
(a) Prof Mekin Marriott.

Question 31.
Topographical factors are
(a) Land
(b) Rural Economy
(c) Peace
Answer:
(a) Land

Question 32.
Economic factors is
(a) Rural Economy
(b) Land
(c) Peace
Answer:
(a) Rural Economy

Question 33.
Social factors is
(a) Peace
(b) Rural economy
(c) Water
Answer:
(a) Peace

Question 34.
Mention any one important characteristic of village community.
(a) Caste system
(b) Primary relations
(c) Above all
Answer:
(c) Above all

Question 35.
Who said that “A group of persons permanently residing in a geographical area and whose members have developed community consciousness and have their own cultural, social and economic relations which separate it from other communities.”
(a) M.N. Srinivas
(b) Maclver
(c) A.R. Desai
Answer:
(a) M.N. Srinivas

Question 36.
India lives in her villages, Who said this?
(a) M.K. Gandhi
(b) Srinivas
(c) Spencer
Answer:
(a) M.K. Gandhi

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Sociology Unit 2 Indian Social Structure Objective Questions

Question 37.
‘Real India is found in rural society’ Who said this?
(a) A.R.Desai
(b) M.N.Srinivas
(c) GillinandGillin
Answer:
(a) A.R.Desai

Question 38.
Which of the following is the characteristic of a village community?
(a) community sentiment
(b) non-agricultural economy
(c) culture
Answer:
(a) community sentiment

Question 39.
Which of the following is the characteristic of the urban community?
(a) namelessness
(b) class extraness
(c) large people
Answer:
(a) namelessness

Question 40.
Which of the following factors is responsible for the village community?
(a) industrialisation.
(b) development of transport and communication.
(c) social legislation
Answer:
(b) development of transport and communication

Question 41.
In a community sentiment, there is
(a) strong sense of belongingness,
(b) sense of we-feeling
(c) sense of own community
Answer:
(a) strong sense of belongingness

Question 42.
The village community
(a) consists of a group of families.
(b) prescribes geographical area
(c) develops community consciousness:
Answer:
(a) consists of a group of facilities

Question 43.
Who said that “The urban community limited geographical area, inhabited by a largely and closely settled population having many common interests and institutions under a local government authorised by the state,”
(a) Havard Woolston
(b) M.N. Srinivas
(c) Maclver
Answer:
(a) Harvard Woolston

Question 44.
In a town.
(a) The population of that place should be more than 5000
(b) The density of the population should not be less than 400
(c) Not less than 75% of the adult-age population is engaged in non-agricultural activities.
Answer:
(a) The population of that place should be more than 5000

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Sociology Unit 2 Indian Social Structure Objective Questions

Question 45.
Village community.
(a) Has been in existence since the pre-historic age.
(b) Arose when people began to lead to settled life?
(c) Arose when people became politically conscious.
Answer:
(b) Arose when people began to lead to settled life.

Question 46.
The primitive village community was.
(a) small in size
(b) based on cultural ownership of land
(c) based on joint family system
Answer:
(a) small in size

Question 47.
Which of the following statements is not true?
(a) The primitive village community was small in size, and the modem village community is large in size.
(b) In the primitive village community there was individual ownership of land, in the modem it is collective.
(c) In primitive village community land was cultivated joint in the modem it is not so cultivated.
Answer:
(c) In primitive village community land was cultivated joint in the modem it is not so cultivated.

Question 48.
In the modern community the bond of kinship has broken down because
(a) The village people have become rich
(b) agriculture has become mechanised
(c) Urbanisation has affected village life
Answer:
(b) Agriculture has become mechanised.

Question 49.
It is true to say that under the impact of urbanization the rural way of life.
(a) is withering
(b) is not withering
(c) has withered away
Answer:
(c) has withered

Question 50.
Which of the following is not a feature of the village community?
(a) Faith in religion
(b) Nuclear family system
(c) Community Consciousness
Answer:
(b) Nuclear family system

Question 51.
The village people have deep faith in religion because
(a) There are simple people
(b) They are untouched by modem urbanisation
(c) They are illiterate
Answer:
(a) They are simple people

Question 52.
Villages will grow on a place where
(a) Water facilities are available.
(b) Land is fertile
(c) People are intelligent
Answer:
(c) People are intelligent.

Question 53.
The characteristics of Indian villages are
(a) mechanical codes of cultivation.
(b) conservation
(c) poverty and illiteracy
Answer:
(c) poverty and illiteracy

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Sociology Unit 2 Indian Social Structure Objective Questions

Question 54.
In the modern village community of India.
(a) Casteism has got strengthened
(b) Caste system has lost its hold
(c) Inter-caste marriages are common
Answer:
(a) Casteism has got strengthenes.

Question 55.
Which of the following statements is true?
(a) City is an open area with a large population
(b) City is a place where people are engaged in different occupations,
(c) There is no exact definition of a City.
Answer:
(c) There is no exact definition of City

Question 56.
The occupational criterion to distinguish the City from the village was used by
(a) Maclver
(b) Gist and Halbert
(c) Zimmerman and Sorokin.
Answer:
(a) Maclver

Question 57.
The concept of the rural-urban continuum suggests that
(a) The village and city are poles apart
(b) The differences between village and city are not qualitative per se.
(c) A definite line of demarcation can be drawn between village and city.
Answer:
(c) A definite line of demarcation can be drawn between village and city.

Question 58.
Village life differs from city life is that
(a) The city encourages impersonal rather than personal relationships.
(b) There is more cooperation in the city than in the village.
(c) The village people are polite, but the city people are not.
(d) The village life is peaceful city life is not.
Answer:
(d) The village life is peaceful city life is not.

Question 59.
The village is no longer a community of India
(a) The bond of kinship has disappeared
(b) Panchayat system has died out
(c) Community consciousness has decreased.
Answer:
(c) Community consciousness has decreased.

Question 60.
Which of the following statements is not true?
(a) In India the villages are passing through a transitional period.
(b) The village people in India are divided into political groups.
(c) Rural values have disappeared.
Answer:
(c) Rural values have disappeared.

Question 61.
Which of the following factors is responsible for breaking rural rules?
(a) the mechanisation of agriculture.
(b) political party system
(c) education of the rural people.
Answer:
(b) political party system

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Sociology Unit 2 Indian Social Structure Objective Questions

Question 62.
Which of the following factors is responsible for breaking rural values?
(a) politically motivated
(b) an emphasis on the importance of the need for rural uplift.
(c) a sign of imbalance in Indian society.
Answer:
(a) politically motivated

One Word Answer Questions

Question 1.
Mention one of the characteristics of caste.
Answer:
Hierarchy

Question 2.
Mention one of the theory of the caste system.
Answer:
Traditional Theory

Question 3.
Mention one function of the caste system.
Answer:
Fixation of occupation

Question 4.
Mention one Dysfunction of the caste system.
Answer:
Derives of mobility of labour

Question 5.
Mention one factor affecting the caste system.
Answer:
Modem Education

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Sociology Unit 2 Indian Social Structure Objective Questions

Question 6.
Mention one recent change in the caste system.
Answer:
Dectioned superiority of Brahmins.

Question 7.
Mention one Distinction between caste and class.
Answer:
Stratification

Question 8.
Mention one of the characteristics of a joint family.
Answer:
Common kitchen

Question 9.
Mention one of the functions of the Joint family.
Answer:
Provides social security.

Question 10.
Mention one of the dysfunctions of the Joint family.
Answer:
Encourages idleness

Question 11.
Mention any one of the recent changes of the Joint family.
Answer:
Industrialization

Question 12.
Hindu Marriage Act.
Answer:
1955

Question 13.
Child Marriage Act.
Answer:
1976

Question 14.
Equal Remuneration Restraint.
Answer:
1976

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Sociology Unit 2 Indian Social Structure Objective Questions

Question 15.
Dowry Protection Act.
Answer:
1961

Question 16.
Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act.
Answer:
1971

Question 17.
Immoral Traffic (Prevention) Act.
Answer:
1986

Question 18.
The Hindu Adoption and Maintenance Act
Answer:
1956

Question 19.
The Hindu Minority and Guardianship Act.
Answer:
1956

Question 20.
The Hindu Succession Act
Answer:
1956

Question 21.
The Hindu Women’s Right of Property Act.
Answer:
1973

Question 22.
Indecent Representation of Women (Prohibition) Act.
Answer:
1986

Question 23.
Pre-mutual Diagnostic Techniques Regulation and Prevention of Misuse Act.
Answer:
1992

Question 24.
A village community is a definite geographical area.
Answer:
Village community

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Sociology Unit 2 Indian Social Structure Objective Questions

Question 25.
Who said thus “the real India lives in villages.
Answer:
A.R. Desai

Question 26.
Who said thus “a whole within a large whole”.
Answer:
Prof Makim Marriot.

Question 27.
Arose when people began to lead a settled life.
Answer:
Village community

Question 28.
The occupational criterion to distinguish the city from the village was used by.
Answer:
Maclver

Question 29.
In the unity, the people in the midst of the multitude feel.
Answer:
Secure

Question 30.
The trend in India today is towards.
Answer:
Urbanisation.

Correct The Sentences

Question 1.
A caste is a closed and rigid Social class by C.H. Cooley.
Answer:
A caste is a closed and rigid social class by Madan and Mazumdar.

Question 2.
When a class is somewhat strictly hereditary are may call out a caste by Madan and Mazumdar.
Answer:
When a class in somewhat strictly hereditary are may call out a caste by C. H. Cooley.

Question 3.
Caste is derived from a portiguage word caste.
Answer:
Caste is derived from the Portuguese word caste.

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Sociology Unit 2 Indian Social Structure Objective Questions

Question 4.
Caste is an exgamous grory.
Answer:
Caste is an endogamous grory.

Question 5.
A caste is merely a flexible social class.
Answer:
A caste is merely a rigid social class.

Question 6.
Caste system is based upon social and religious stratification.
Answer:
Right

Question 7.
Caste bears a nominal name.
Answer:
Caste bears a particular name.

Question 8.
Caste is a fixed occupation.
Answer:
Right

Question 9.
Caste system plays a vital role on individual life.
Answer:
Right

Question 10.
Caste system provides nominal security.
Answer:
Caste system provide, adequate security.

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Sociology Unit 2 Indian Social Structure Objective Questions

Question 11.
Joint family property is held by a male member
Answer:
Joint family property is held jointly by all the male members.

Question 12.
Joint family take food cooked at separate health.
Answer:
Joint family take food cooked at one common health.

Question 13.
Joint family is a small size
Answer:
Joint family is large in size.

Question 14.
Joint family is regarded as a sufficient unit.
Answer:
Joint family is regarded as a self- supplement unit.

Question 15.
Joint family provides to not security.
Answer:
Joint family provides all security.

Question 16.
Tarward is a patrilocal Hindu Joint family.
Answer:
Tarward is a matrilocal Hindu Joint family. ,

Question 17.
Illom is a matrilocal Hindu Joint family.
Answer:
Illom is aprutrilocal Hindu joint family.

Question 18.
Hindu Widows Remarriage Act 1857.
Answer:
Hindu Windows Remarriage Act 1856

Question 19.
Villages will grow in a place where water facilities are available.
Answer:
Villages will grow in a place where the land is fertile.

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Sociology Unit 2 Indian Social Structure Objective Questions

Question 20.
The village community has been in existence since the prehistoric age.
Answer:
Village community arose when people began to lead a settled life.

Question 21.
The primitive village community was an isolated community.
Answer:
The primitive village community was small in size. ‘

Question 22.
The primitive village community was an isolated community.
Answer:
The primitive village community was small in size, the modem village community is large in size.

Question 23.
City is a large, dense and homogeneous area.
Answer:
City is a large, dense and heterogeneous area.

Question 24.
The city ends where the village begins.
Answer:
The city begins where the village ends.

Question 25.
The transition from a rural to an urban community is gradual.
Answer:
The transition from a rural to an urban community is gradual.

Question 26.
The city is more homogeneous than the village.
Answer:
The city is more heterogeneous than the village.

Question 27.
City dwellers are good neighbours.
Answer:
City dwellers are night dwellers, not neighbours.

Question 28.
In village status is ascribed in city it is achieved.
Answer:
In a village status is achieved in city it is ascribed.

Question 29.
A village is a dependent unit.
Answer:
A village is not a dependent unit.

Question 30.
Villagers have a high standard of living.
Answer:
The village has a low standard of living.

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Sociology Unit 2 Indian Social Structure Objective Questions

Question 31.
The degree of community sentiment is low in the village.
Answer:
The degree of community sentiment is high in the village.

Question 32.
There is no definite locality of the village.
Answer:
There is no definite locality of the village.

Question 33.
The degree of the neighbourhood is high in the towns.
Answer:
The degree of the neighbourhood is high in the village.

Question 34.
The inequalities of the towns are less than the village.
Answer:
Equalities of the towns are less than the village.

Question 35.
Village culture is dynamic.
Answer:
Village culture is static.

Question 36.
The village is characterised more by formal and secondary relations.
Answer:
The village is characterised more by formal and primary relations.

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Sociology Unit 2 Indian Social Structure Objective Questions

Question 37.
Police law and court play important role in the village’s social control.
Answer:
Police, law and court play important role in the town social control.

Question 38.
In the towns, the relationship tends to move towards primary groups.
Answer:
In the towns, the relationship moves towards primary groups.

Question 39.
The city is a static counterpart of the village.
Answer:
The city is a dynamic counterpart of the village.

Fill in The Blanks

1. Caste bears a ________ name.
Answer: Particular

2. Caste system is divided into many __________.
Answer: Sub- castes

3. Caste system is based upon social and __________ stratification.
Answer: religious.

4. Caste system is not only _________ for its members.
Answer: Important

5. The caste system plays a vital role in the development of_________ a social nation.
Answer: Hindu

6. Caste system performs many __________ functions on community life.
Ans: religious

7. Caste system opposes __________
Answer: Democracy

8. Caste system hinders the __________ of human personality.
Answer: development

9. Caste system creates obstacle of the __________country.
Answer: Unity

10. Caste system and joint family are two __________parts of the Hindu society.
Answer: Important

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Sociology Unit 2 Indian Social Structure Objective Questions

11. Joint family is the __________habitation.
Answer: Common

12. Joint family take food cooked at one common ___________.
Answer: Hearth.

13. Joint family have common property which is shared by ___________.
Answer: all

14. Joint family is regarded as a self-sufficient __________.
Answer: Large ‘

15. Joint family is regarded as a self-sufficient __________.
Answer: unit

16. Joint family provides security to those members who are mentally and__________ weak.
Answer: Physically.

17. The members of joint family set more leisure time as it is based upon the principle ___________.
Answer: Division of labour!

18. Joint family provides psychological ___________to its members.
Answer: Security

19. Joint family satisfies the basic needs of its ___________ i.e. food, clothing and shelter.
Answer: members

20. Joint family is the _____________of quarrels,
Answer: centre

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Sociology Unit 2 Indian Social Structure Objective Questions

21. The joint family is very conservative in ____________.
Answer: nature

22. Joint family was the centre of ___________,___________ and ___________.
Answer: Production, distribution, consumption.

23. The women in the Joint Family lead a miserable___________.
Answer: Life

24. Joint family is more ___________ as compared to all other types of family.
Answer: conservative

25. Joint family had developed many new features as well as new __________ problems.
Answer: consequential

26. Tarward is a Hindu joint family.
Answer: matrilocal

27. Illom is the _________ Hindu joint family
Answer: patrilocal.

28. Village community arose when people began to lead a _________ life.
Answer: Settled

29. The primary village community was __________ in size.
Answer: Small

30. City is a _________ group.
Answer: Heterogeneous

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Sociology Unit 2 Indian Social Structure Objective Questions

31. Village community is a __________ community
Answer: Homogeneous.

32. God made __________and man-made ___________.
Answer: Country, city

33. Indian village community is ___________ community.
Answer: Little

34. Village is a __________ of life.
Answer: Way

35. Farmers and countrymen are almost ___________.
Answer: Same

36. Village community is a __________ republic.
Answer: Little

37. Rural community is similar to _________ water in a poll and the urban community __________ to water in a kettle?
Answer: Calm, boiling

38. Each village has primary ___________.
Answer: Relationship

39. The members of a village community _________.
Answer: Sentiment

40. Rural economy is a major __________.
Answer: Characteristic

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Sociology Unit 2 Indian Social Structure Objective Questions

41. Village has _________ size.
Answer: Small

42. __________ is an important base of stratification of Indian villages.
Answer: The caste system

43. The primary occupation of an Indian village is __________.
Answer: Closed

44. The villagers have much ____________upon religion.
Answer: Close

45. There is no clear ___________ of either the town or the village regarding their end and start.
Answer: Definition

46. Village is characterised by the __________ relationship.
Answer: Primary

47. The village the inequality of is very less demarcated than the town which leads to less conflicts in the village.
Answer: Classes

48. Village the primary __________ like family.
Answer: Groups

49. In the village the status of an individual is likely to be the _________ of the family.
Answer: Status

50. Jajman system is the __________ village community.
Answer: Traditional

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Sociology Unit 2 Indian Social Structure Objective Questions

51. Village is a necessity.
Answer: Historical

52. Village runs smoothly where there is a greater degree of ___________ among its members.
Answer: Co-operation

53. Population constitutes an important aspect of __________ community.
Answer: Rural

54. The sense of __________ in the village community is given considerable importance.
Answer: Neighbourhood

55. Caste is an important base of ____________ or rural Community.
Answer: Unique.

56. Joint family is an __________ feature in village community.
Answer: Important

57. The people of the village community are ____________ conservative in their outlook.
Answer: Primary

58. In the village community there is no or ___________ specialization.
Answer: Little

59. The Indian villages are _________ ridden.
Answer: Caste

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Sociology Unit 2 Indian Social Structure Objective Questions

60. The villagers are deeply influenced by ___________.
Answer: Religion.

61. Village differs from town on the basis of __________ problems.
Answer: Social.

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Sociology Unit 2 Indian Social Structure Short Answer Questions

Odisha State Board CHSE Odisha Class 12 Sociology Solutions Unit 2 Indian Social Structure Short Answer Questions.

CHSE Odisha 12th Class Sociology Unit 2 Indian Social Structure Short Answer Questions

Very Short-Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is Caste?
Answer:
A caste is a closed and rigid social class.

Question 2.
Define Caste.
Answer:
C.H Cooley when a class is somewhat strictly hereditary we may call it a caste.

Question 3.
Caste – Panchayat.
Answer:
There is a caste-panchayat or caste connect for every caste to supervise the conduct and behaviour of active members. Such a caste panchayat is constituted by some eminent members of the caste and works as a powerful weapon.

Question 4.
Mention two features of the caste system.
Answer:

  • Endogamy,
  • Hereditary occupation.

Question 5.
Mention two functions of the caste system.
Answer:

  1. Maintenance of Race party,
  2. (ii) Religious functions

Question 6.
Mention two Dysfunction of the caste system.
Answer:

  1. Denies of mobility of labour,
  2. Untouchability

Question 7.
Mention two factors affecting caste system.
Answer:

  • Modem Education,
  • Industrialisation

Question 8.
Mention two recent changes on the caste system.
Answer:

  • Declined superiority of Brahmins
  • Change in the Restrictions regarding social Habits.

Question 9.
What is the class?
Answer:
Class is a system in which a person’s social status in completely depends upon his activities. According to him, class is determined by its possession of such objective usually economic criteria like wealth, occupation and income etc.

Question 10.
Define class.
Answer:
According to Maclver and page “A social class any portion of a community marked off from the rest by social states.”

Question 11.
Mention two distinctions between caste and class
Answer:
Caste is based on the birth of a person whereas not is based on a person’s status. The caste is closed and rigid. But the structure of the class is open and flexible.

Question 12.
What is the village?
Answer:
A village is a community consisting of a group of people residing permanently in a definite geographical area and the members of which love developed community consciousness and cultural, social and economic relations, which separate them from other communities.

Question 13.
Define village community.
Answer:
According to Prof M.N. Srinivas, a village is a body of people living in a restricted area, at some distances from others similar with extremely poor roads between them, the majority of people being engaged in agricultural activity all closely dependent upon each other economically and otherwise, having a vast body of common experience must have some sense of unity.

Question 14.
Characteristics of the village community.
Answer:
The Indian village community has some specific characteristic features. We can have a better idea on the Indian village community when we come across its characteristics. The important characteristics are as follows:

  • Small size
  • Definite locality
  • Community sentiment.
  • Primary relation
  • Neighbourhood
  • Joint family system.

Question 15.
Types of villages.
Answer:
There are many types of villages in India. Some important types are given below:

  1. Nucleated
  2. Dispersed
  3. Linear village

Short-Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Discuss the characteristics of the caste system.
Answer:
The membership of every caste is determined by birth. The members of a particular caste cannot marry outside their caste. There are marriage restrictions regarding food, drink and social intercourse in every caste. There is a hereditary occupation for every caste. There is a hierarchical gradation on the caste system in which the Brahmins occupy the top position.

Question 2.
Discuss the functions of the caste system.
Answer:
The caste system has occupied the highest place in the Indian social system.

  • Determination of social status
  • Fixation of occupation.
  • Guarantee of social security
  • Control over Behaviour.
  • Provide mental security.
  • Maintenance of Race purity.

Question 3.
Discuss the Dysfunctions of the caste system.
Answer:
Besides the mentioned functions caste system discharge many dysfunctions, also
1. Denies of mobility of labour
2. Untouchability
3. Retards social solidarity
4. Obstacle to social utility
5. Obstacle to social progress.
6. Oppose to Democracy.

Question 4.
Discuss the factors affecting the caste system.
Answer:
Under the impact of certain powerful functions caste system is undergoing drastic changes on modem India.

  • Modem Education
  • Urbanization
  • Rigid Development of Transportation and communication.
  • Social reform movement
  • Political movement
  • Religious movement

Question 5.
Recent changes in the caste system. Discuss.
Answer:
Change is a universal law of nature. The law of nature has been prevailing from the permissive period till now. Declined superiority of Brahmins. Change on the Restrictions regarding social Habits. Changes on the Restrictions regarding marriage. Change in the Restrictions regarding occupation. Change in caste structure.

Question 6.
The distinction between caste and class.
Answer:
Though caste and class function is two opposing groups yet there are many similarities between them. Caste is based on the birth of a person. Where as not is based on a person’s status power and occupation in class. The structure of caste is closed and rigid. But the structure of the class is open and flexible. There are some restrictions regarding the selection or choice of occupation on the caste system. But on the other hand in the class system, there is no restrictions regarding the choice of occupation.

Question 7.
Mention the various characteristics of a joint family.
Answer:
The various characteristics of a joint family are the following:

Large size :
The size of the joint family is also large. A single-family consists of only a husband wife and children. But a joint family consists of parents, children and other near relatives.

Common residence:
All the members of the joint family usually live in a common home which means they live under the same roof.

Common kitchen :
In every joint family, there is a common kitchen as the members of the joint family eat food cooked at one health.

Common property:
In a joint family, the own production and consumption of wealth of all the members of the family have equal rights on both movable and immovable property.

Common religion:
The members of a joint family believe in the same religion and worship similar deities. They perform jointly the religious rites and duties.

Rule by Karta:
A joint family is guided and regulated by the head or Karta controls and directs all the members. There is the supreme authority of the family.

Question 8.
Discuss the merits of joint family in India.
Answer:

Simple division of labour:
Every member of the family is given work according to his abilities without being compelled. There is separate work on the basis of age and sex.

Leisure:
It provides opportunities for leisure to its members. Due to the division of labour, the assigned work is completed within little time and takes rest.

Social insurance:
In joint families, orphans, widows, old and sick people get an opportunity to maintain a comfortable life.

Social virtues :
It fosters great virtues as sacrifice, love, affection, co-operation broadens among the members.

Socialism:
According to H. Maine, the joint family is like a corporation the trustee of which is the father or the head of the family. Everyone gets according to his capacity and also gets as per their need.

Question 9.
Discuss the dysfunctions of joint family.
Answer:
The dysfunctions of joint family are discussed below:
In a joint family, the condition of women is very inconvenient. They can neither talk nor express their views independently. Women are not permitted to move outside the family so their personality is not developed. A joint family encourages safety among the members. All the members of the joint family are sure of economic security. Therefore, some, members do not work for the progress of the family.

A joint family is the centre of the conflict. It creates conflict among the members at any time. Joint family acts as a great obstacle of social change. The members of the joint family are more conservative and they do not accept any change of society easily. They strictly follow the old traditional customs, folkways and modes. In that way, it hinders social change.

A joint family hinders the economic progress of society because those who work hard are not properly rewarded. There is always dissatisfaction among the earning members. It checks and hinders the economic progress of the family. A joint family disorganises society by creating of certain social problems. It creates social problems like population growth, juvenile delinquency, unemployment, divorce and so on.

Question 10.
Briefly discuss the changes in the joint family.
Answer:
Firstly, there has been a change in the traditional characteristics i.e. common residence and common kitchen of a joint family. Now- a – days joint family is found to be seen without these two characteristics. Secondly, there have been changes in the size of the joint family. As in the past joint family, today does not consist of many large families. Thirdly, there have been changes in the position of women in joint families.

Traditionally the condition of women was very pitiable in a joint family but now it is not so. There is much improvement in their status as a joint family. Fourthly, there have been changes in the absolute authority of the head. At present, the head of the joint family is no more enjoying such absolute power. Fifthly, there is a change in the role of joint family in providing recreation and entertainment to its members.

Question 11.
Write a short note on Illom.
Answer:
Illom is a kind of Hindu joint family found among the Nambudri Brahmins of Kerala. The property of Illom is impartible. Division of property in the Illom is not so easy as it requires, the consent of all the members of the family. The property is headed by the Illom as a whole. The continuation of the Illom is facilitated by the custom, according to which the eldest brother alone marries a girl from his own caste.

while all other brothers marry Nayar women, who along with their children stay in their matrilocal families. Only when the eldest son fails to have a child the next senior brother marries a girl of his own caste for the continuation of the family. In Illom the female members of the family have equal rights with men in the property. A female can set aside any alienation of property.

Question 12.
Write a short note on Tarwad.
Answer:
The matrilineal Hindujoint family of the Nayars of Kerala is known as the Tarward. lt is composed of a woman, her sons and daughters, daughter’s daughter and sons and so on. It does not include the children of son. All the male and female members of the Tarwad own its property.The property of a Tarwad is practically impartible though partition is theoretically allowed.

The eldest male member of the Tarwad is its manager and is known as the Kamavan. All the junior members of the Tarwad have rights to maintenance in the family property Kamavan has absolute authority over the family property but he cannot permanently alienate it. He may be removed from his position if required.

Question 13.
What is a Joint family?
Answer:
A joint family is a group of people who generally live under one roof who eat food cooked at one hearth who hold property on common and who participate in common worship and are related to each other as some particular type of kindred.

Question 14.
Define Joint family
Answer:
A joint family is one which consists of males having a common male ancestor, female offspring are not married and women brought in the group of marriage. All of these persons might live in common households near to one another. In any case so long as the joint family holds together its members are expected to contribute to the support of the where and to receive from it a share of the local product.”

Question 15.
Features of Joint family.
Answer:
(1) Common Habitation.
(2) Common Kitchen
(3) Common property
(4) Common worship.
(5) Exercise of Authority.

Question 16.
Impact of Industrialization of Joint Family.
Answer:
Industrialisation refers to the birth of the factory system of production. The growth of industries has contributed to the growth of the cities. As a result of industrialisation, people have started moving towards the industrial areas in search of employment. It has affected the character and the growth of a joint family.

Question 17.
Three important functions.
Answer:
A joint family has the responsibility to provide all sorts of facilities for the welfare of its members and society. It acts as an important institution because of the advantages it provides to its members.

  • Provides social security
  • Ensures economy of expenditure.
  • Provides division of work.
  • Provides Psychological security.

Question 18.
Three important dysfunctions of Joint Family.
Answer:
In spite of the advantages of a Joint Family, the Joint Family also suffers from a serious setback. Its disadvantages are in countable strength. The significant among them are : (1) Encourages idleness.

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Sociology Unit 4 Social Inequality, Exclusion and Movement Long Answer Questions

Odisha State Board CHSE Odisha Class 12 Sociology Solutions Unit 4 Social Inequality, Exclusion and Movement Long Answer Questions.

CHSE Odisha 12th Class Sociology Unit 4 Social Inequality, Exclusion and Movement Long Answer Questions

Long Questions With Answers

Question 1.
What is caste? What are the important features of the caste system?
Answer:
The word ‘Caste’ owes, its origin to see. Spanish word ‘Caste’ means ‘breed’ race, strain or a complex of hereditary qualities. The Portuguese applied this term to the classes of people. In India, it is known by the name of Jati. The English word ‘caste’ is an adjustment in the original term.

Definition of Caste:

  • Maclver: “When a status is wholly predetermined so that men are born to their lot without any type of changing it, then class, takes the extreme forms of caste.”
  • A. W. Green: “Caste is a system of stratification which mobility up and down the status ‘ladder, at last, may not occur.”
  • Lundberg: “ A caste is nearly a rigid social class in to which members are bom from which they can withdraw or escape only with extreme difficulty.”

Important features of caste:
The caste system is highly complex in nature. The following have been the main traditional features of the caste system.

Caste – As a hierarchical Division of Society :
The Hindu society is a gradational one. It is divided into several small groups called castes and sub-castes. A sense of ‘highness’ and ‘lowness’ or ‘superiority’ and ‘inferiority’ is associated – with this gradation or ranking. The Brahmins are placed at the top of the hierarchy and are regarded as ‘pure’ supreme or superior.

The degraded caste or the so-called ‘untouchable’ (Harijans) have – occupied the other end of the hierarchy. All over India neither the supremacy of the Brahmins nor the degraded position of the – Harijans or outcastes has been questioned. It is taken for granted, but regarding the exact position of the intermediary castes, there are disputes ‘on the part of the members.

Caste – As a segmental division of society :
The Hindu society is a caste-ridden society. It is divided into a number of segments called, castes, It is not a homogeneous society. Castes are groups that defined boundaries of their own. The status of an individual is determined by his birth and not by selection or by accomplishment. No amount of power, prestige, and self can change the position of man.

The membership of the caste is hence unchangeable, acquirable, inalienable, unattainable, and non-transferable. Further, each caste in a way has its own way of life. Each caste has its own customs, traditions, practices, and rituals. It has its own informed rules, regulations, and procedures. Their members also. The caste used to help its members when they were found in distress. Indeed, the caste was its own ruler.

Caste Panchayat :
During the early days in every village, every caste used to have its own Caste Panchayat. It consisted of five chosen members who enjoyed much social privilege and respect. The Caste Panchayat used to perform a number of functions; It used to make the members comply with caste rules and regulations. Setting caste disputes and giving its final verdict on the issues referred to it, were also its other functions.

It was giving punishments to those who violated caste rules and obligations. Matters such as breaking the marriage promise, refusal on the part of the husband to take the wife to his house, cruelty to the wife, adultery on the part of the wife, killing the cow, insulting the Brahmins having illicit sexual relations with other caste people, etc. were dealt with by the Panchayat.

It was giving punishments such as arranging dinner parties for fellow caste-men, imposing frames, purification, pilgrimage, casting, etc. for the offenders. The Caste Panchayat was also striving to promote the welfare of the caste members. Safeguarding the interests of the caste members was yet another function of the Panchayat. These Caste Panchayats have become weak and ineffective nowadays.

Restrictions on food habits:
The caste system has imposed certain restrictions on the food habits of the members, they differ from caste to caste. Who should accept what kind of food and from whom? is often decided by caste. For example, in North India, a Brahmin would accept ‘Pakka’ food (cooked in ghee) only from some castes lower than his own.

But he would accept ‘kachcha’ food (prepared with the use of water) at the hands of no other caste except his own. As a matter of rule and practice, no individual would accept kachcha food prepared by an inferior caste man. Generally, any kind of food that is prepared by the Brahmins, is acceptable to all caste people.

This factor explains why the Brahmins dominated the hotel industry for a long time. Further, restrictions are also they’re still on the use of certain vegetables for certain castes. Even today, some traditional Brahmins do not consume onions, garlic, cabbage, carrot, beetroot, etc. Eating beef is not allowed except for the Harijans.

Restrictions on social relations :
The caste system puts restrictions on the range of social relations also. The idea of pollution makes this point clear. It means a touch of a lower caste man. (particularly Harijan) would pollute or defile a man of a higher caste man. In Kerala for a long time, Nayar could approach Anambra Brahmin but would not touch him.

Further, Taiwan was expected to keep himself at a distance of 36 steps from the Brahmin and a Pulaya a distance of 96 paces. In Tamilnadu, the Shanar toddy tapper was expected to keep a distance of 24 paces while approaching a Brahmin. This has resulted in the practice of untouchability. This practice has made the lower caste people to be segregated completely from the higher caste.

Social and religious disabilities of certain castes :
In the traditional caste society, some lower caste people (particularly, the Harijans) suffered from certain civil or social, and religious disabilities. Generally, the impure castes are made to live on the outskirts of the city or village. In South India, certain parts of the towns or villages are not accessible to the Harijans.

It is recorded that during the Peshwa rule in Maharastra the Mahars and Mangs were not allowed within the gates of Poona before 9 a.m. and after 3. p.m. The reason was during that time their bodies would cast too long shadows which if were to fall on the Brahmins would defile them. Socially Harijans or the so-called untouchables are separated from other members.

Even today, in many places they are not allowed to draw water from the public wells, during the early days, public places like hotels, hostels, public lecture halls schools, temples, and theatres were not kept open, for the lower caste people. Entrance to temples, and theatres were not kept open for the lower caste people. Entrance to temples and other places of religious importance was forbidden for them.

Educational facilities’ legal rights and political representation were denied to them for a long time. In South India, restrictions were placed on the mode of constructing houses of the lower caste people, and their types of dresses and patterns of ornamentation. The Toddy – tappers of Malabar were not allowed to cany umbrellas, to wear shoes or golden ornaments, or milk cows. They were forbidden to cover the upper part of their body.

The civil and religious privileges of certain castes :
If the lower caste people suffer from certain disabilities, some higher caste people like Brahmins enjoy certain privileges. Now there the Brahmins suffered from the disabilities acted above. They are given more liberty because they are believed to bom ‘pure’ and ‘ superior’. The Brahmins never saluted others, but they always had the privilege of being saluted by others.

They never even bowed to the idols of the lower caste people. Education and teaching were almost monopolies of the higher caste people. Chanting the Vedic mantras was a great privilege of the Brahmins. The upper caste people in general enjoyed social, political, legal, and religious privileges.

Restrictions on occupational choice:
In the caste-ridden society, there is a gradation of occupations also. Some occupations are considered to be superior and sacred while certain others degrading and interior. For a long time occupations were very much associated with the caste system. Each caste had its own specific occupation.

The caste members were expected to continue the same occupations. The caste members were expected to continue the same occupation. Occupations were almost hereditary. Weaving, shoe-making, oil-grinding, sweeping, scavenging, curing, hides, tanning, washing clothes, barbering, pottery, etc. were considered to be somewhat degrading.

Learning priesthood, and teaching were the prestigious professions that mostly the Brahmins pursued. Individual talents, aptitudes, interests, enterprise, abilities, and achievements were neglected. But agriculture, trade, and labor in the field were thrown open to all the castes. At the same time, no caste would allow its member to take up to any profession which is either degrading or impure.

Restrictions on marriage:
The caste system imposes also restrictions on marriage. A caste is an endogamous group. Endogamy is a rule of marriage according to which an individual has to many within his or her group. Each caste is subdivided into several sub-castes: which are again endogamous. For, example, layers, Iyengars, Smarthas, Madhava, Hawanga Brahmins, Kota, Shiva, Kandavara Brahmins, etc. are all Brahmin sub-castes which are again endogamous.

Similarly, the Vikkaliga caste consists of Morasu, Halikar, Nanaba, Gangadiga, and other sub-castes. According to the rule of endogamy a Shivallu Brahmin, for example, has to marry a Shivallu girl, an Iyengar, an Iyengar girl, and so on. Inter-caste marriages were strictly forbidden to them. Even at present, inter-caste marriages have not become popular.

Violation of the rule of endogamy was strictly dealt with during the early days. This mle of endogamy has resulted in a clause in breeding. Some workers like Hutton have regarded endogamy as the very essence of the caste system. The exception to this rule of endogamy is seen in places like the hill parts of Punjab and also in Malabar. The caste provides for some kind of exogamous marriage also.

Occupations are fixed :
Every caste regards some occupation as its own hereditary and exclusive calling and tries to debar the others from exercising it. The original and exclusive occupation of Brahmins was to perform priestly duties. The Kshatriyas and Vaisyas were to occupy themselves with defense and commerce and the function of Shudras was to serve the other three castes. In course of time, many adjustments and changes have, however, been made in these rigid pursuits of occupations.

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Sociology Unit 4 Social Inequality, Exclusion and Movement Long Answer Questions

Question 2.
Explain the functions of the caste system.
Answer:
By functions of the caste system, we refer to those positive consequences of the system which are helpful for the society; the consequences that help in preserving social structure maintaining its continuity and bringing about peace and harmony. The caste system has many such functions or advantages. It is because of its functions that the system has been the pivot pillar of Indian social structure from time immemorial.

The functions of caste can be looked into from two viewpoints i.e.,

  • from the individual point of view and
  • from the social point of view.
    These functions of the caste system are discussed below.

Functions of the caste system from the viewpoint of the individual:

The caste system provides fixed social status to individuals:
Under the caste system, the social status of an individual is determined from his birth by his caste. As caste is based on the principle of birth, an individual by virtue of his in a particular caste, automatically becomes a member of it and gets the traditional status of that caste in society by ascription. This scripture’s status of the individual is fixed for all times, neither poverty nor wealth can alter his status. A Brahmin enjoys a high status in society because of his birth in it.

The caste system provides social security to individuals:
Caste provides social security to the individual from his birth to death. It provides him with an occupation, acts as a trade union, a benefit society, health insurance, and also provides for his funeral if it is needed.

Caste guides individual behavior:
The caste system like many other social institutions guides the behavior of the individual by providing ready-made behavior patterns in matters like diet, ceremonial observances, rituals at birth, marriage, imitation, death, etc.

Caste provides mental security to individuals:
It provides psychological security in the form of fixed social status. Making every provision for man’s happiness from birth to death it guarantees mental peace to individuals.

Caste determines the occupation of individuals:
What kind of occupation will be followed by an individual in his future life is determined by his caste from his birth. Every caste has some caste occupations which its members follow.

Functions of the caste system from the viewpoint of society:
Besides performing some functions for the individual caste system also performs some important functions from society’s point of view.
These functions are as follows:

Caste system transmits and preserves culture :
Every society as a distinct social system must have to transmit culture from one generation to another with little change.lt also preserves culture for transmission from one generation to another.

Caste system integrates society:
The caste system helps in the integration of society. It integrates different, diverse, racial religious, linguistic, and ethnic groups into a vast society. The caste system is capable enough in integrating different groups is such a way that it becomes part of the social whole and at the same time retains its own distinctive character and identity.

Brings stability to society:
The caste system has been responsible ging in society. It saved Hindu society from being disrupted by foreign invasions and upheavals of all kinds in the past Hindu society remained stable for a long time because it believed in the caste system.

The caste system also brings political stability to society:
It acts as an apolitical stabilizer in society. It provides a constitution for the Hindus. The caste system has been responsible for the preservation of India from barbarism and despotism. It acts as a sure basis for orderly government.

The caste system serves as a device for the division of labor:
The caste system continues to act as a unique system of division of labor in Hindu society. It has made arrangements for all kinds of occupations ranging from education to scourging. This distribution of occupations is supported by religious beliefs as a result it has become acceptable to people.

Maintains purity of blood:
Endogamy is the main principle of the caste system. By its insistence on endogamy, the caste system prevents hybridization and thereby purity of blood is maintained. Hence, it is said that the caste system has served as a method for maintaining the purity of blood.

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Sociology Unit 4 Social Inequality, Exclusion and Movement Long Answer Questions

Question 3.
Discuss the dysfunctions of the caste system.
Answer:
By dysfunctions of the caste system, we refer to the negative consequences of the system that are harmful or detrimental to society as a whole. In a rudimentary sense, the dysfunctions of the caste system are in fact, disadvantages or demerits of the system. Along with its advantages, the caste system has a number of negative effects on social life. As has rightly been remarked by ‘P.N. Bose, the caste system has acted essentially to impose that attitude of mind needed to raise men from savagery but to stop them halfway on progress.

Some of its important dysfunctions are as follows:

Barriers on the way of modernization:
Modernization essentially needs a change in attitude and outlook along with socio-economic development. But the caste system stands as a great barrier. It also hinders economic development as well. Under this system, a man is not permitted to take up a profitable occupation.

Political disunity:
The caste system encourages individuals’ loyalties toward one’s own caste and sub-castes which creates Casteism. This Casteism stands as an obstacle in achieving complete political unity. Disunity among castes and thereby among Indians encourages many foreigners to invade India. It is found that in the past 2500 years India was a victim of foreign invasion at least 125 times.

The caste system perpetuates social inequalities :
The caste system by its differential distribution of privileges and disabilities to different caste people perpetuates social inadequacies. Higher caste people used the caste system as an instrument to maintain their privileged position in society. It creates permanent feelings of inferiority and insecurity in the minds of lower-caste people.

The caste system encourages the pitiable condition of women :
Another important dysfunction of the caste system is that it implies severe hardship on women. In a caste-based society when a caste wants to increase its “Status in the caste hierarchy follow certain customs like child marriage, the seclusion of women, and other which entails hardships for women. Because of the practice of the above custom women suffer a lot.

The caste system creates untouchability:
The caste system is solely responsible for the creation of untouchability in society. This untouchability is the ugliest expression of the caste system. It keeps a large number as untouchables who suffer from all civil and religious disabilities.

The caste system stands as an obstacle in the way of social progress as it does not allow changes to be introduced easily. Here the individual is not free to choose an occupation of his own liking and conform to the age-old customs and traditions. Any violation of this is seriously dealt with. This rigidity has almost paralyzed Hindu society.

Retards economic progress:
The caste system acts as an important stumbling block in the way of economic progress. An individual is compelled to follow his caste occupations against his liking. This leads to immobility and inefficiency and thereby economic backwardness.

Question 4.
Discuss the recent changes in the caste system.
Answer:
Under the impact of social, political, and economic forces a number of changes have taken place in the caste system.

Firstly, there has been a steep decline in the supremacy of the Brahmin in society. Under the caste system, the Brahmin in society. Under the caste system, the Brahmin occupies the highest position. In fact, the whole system revolved around the prestige of the Brahmin. But. today he does not enjoy the same high and dominant social position that he once used to.

The second important change in the system is the greater fluidity in its status structure. Traditionally caste, society was a closed and rigid society. Each caste had its own traditional status in the hierarchy of castes, which was more or less permanently fixed. But at present, the people of lower castes are adopting the lifestyles of higher castes and claiming an actually adverse highest status in society.

Thirdly, as a result of this governmental policy or protective discrimination, the socioeconomic conditions of the Harijans have been considerably improved. In the fourth place, there are changes in the functions of caste for example in a caste society ascription of social status to its members by virtue of their birth in it. was one of the traditional functions of caste.

But under the changed conditions of modem society, both is no longer regarded as the basis of social prestige. Today wealth and achievement have replaced birth as the basis of social status. As a result, caste has lost its traditional function of determining the status of individuals in society.

Fifthly, there is a relaxation in the miles of regulating marriage. Every caste or sub- caste was an endogamous group the members of which were put in ketkars words forbidden by an inexorable social law to marry outside the group. But at present, the barriers of endogamy are no longer inexorable. They are now increasingly being violated.

Sixthly, there are changes in ideas about pollution and other restrictions on food, drink, etc. But at present, these rules along with the ideas of pollution by touch have lost their significance in Hindu society. In the seventh place, there is a change in the restrictions regarding the choice of occupation was not free.

Each caste had its own traditional occupation. But nowadays people follow occupations, which they consider more creative than traditional ones.  Finally, the caste system has lost its grip on the minds of the people. Now they do not seem to be convinced of the theory that the caste system is a divine or dawned institution.

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Sociology Unit 4 Social Inequality, Exclusion and Movement Long Answer Questions

Question 5.
Discuss the factors affecting the caste system.
Answer:
Changes in the caste system are due to many forces of modernization operating in Indian society, which can be discussed briefly as follows.

The system of modem education:
The system of modem education has given a heavy blow to the institution of caste. Modem education being essentially scientific and rational in nature has neglected all sorts of blind beliefs and faiths. Not the divine sanctions but the scientific laws govern the life and attitude of a modem-educated man.

He fought the principles of equality, fraternity, and democracy which directly go against the caste system. Again the common’ educational institutions and public schools at the primary level have made a Brahmin child feel equal to that of a Sudra child or a child from an untouchable caste.

He sits by his side, talks with him, plays with him, and enjoys many leisure hours with him which never gives a scope for the development of the idea of untouchability in his mind. Besides, as modem education is imparted through co-educational institutions, it encourages inter-caste marriage and at the same time, the untouchability principle cannot be followed in the classroom which affects the very basis of the caste system.

Industrial economy:
The industrial economy has also played an equally important role in undermining the importance of the caste system. The caste system is mainly based on the rural economy but the industrial economy strikes at the root of the caste system. Specialized caste occupations can not survive in the face of large-scale industrialization.

For example, weaving caste people with their traditional caste occupations cannot compete with modem textile mills. Hence, as a result of industrialization caste occupations are not followed by its members. Now members of all castes are engaged in modem factories. And while working in factories it is not possible to observe caste rules. Besides now- a- days there is much freedom in the choice of occupations.

Urbanization:
Urbanization is an offshoot of industrialization. It is possible to observe caste rules in an urban city. In an urban area, one is not interested in knowing another caste. The concept of purity and pollution has no value in urban areas. Hence, urbanization strikes at the root of the caste system by not allowing the observance of caste rules and restrictions.

Modern means of transportation:
Geographical isolation was a favorable condition for the continuation of the caste system. But due to the development of the modem transportation system, the spatial mobility of the people increased which ultimately put an end to the caste system. Besides while traveling by the modem means of transportation like buses and trains, it is not possible to observe caste rules and restrictions. The principle of palliation to touch has no meaning nowadays.

The increasing importance of wealth:
In present-day modem society, wealth is relating birth as the basis of social status. As a result, caste is no more the basis of individual status, In our modem society, a rich Sudra is more respected than a poor Brahmin. Wealth is the main criterion in the determination of social status.

New social movements:
In the past, a number of movements have been launched that struck at the root of the caste system. Raja Ram Mohan Roy started ‘Brahmo Samak’ and Dayananda Saraswati started ‘ Arya Samaj ’ which brings a lot of changes in the caste system. Ideas of these Samaj influence the intelligence of the country against the caste system as a result of which a number of changes are being introduced in the caste system.

Political change:
India national freedom movement launched a strong public opinion against the caste system. After independence, all discriminatory practices based on caste were abolished and a democratic pattern of society was established. Besides because of the spread of ideologies like capitalism and communalism new groups based on class interest emerged in the country which put an end to the caste system.

Introduction of New Legal System:
The introduction of a new legal system by the Britishers has played an important role in weakening -the influence of caste in India, under this new system the principle of equality before the law was established. As a result of which the age-old discrimination against the Sudra caste has been removed. Besides, the establishment of the Judicial Court put an end to the Caste Panchayat as a result of which caste cannot be enforced. Further, a number of acts have been passed which affect the caste system vehemently.

Constitution of India:
Indian constitution possesses a very serious threat to the very existence of the caste system. Different constitutional provisions under different articles of the Indian Constitution have helped in the eradication of the caste system. Article 15 of the constitution declares that all citizens are equal as a result of which the principle of inherited inequality of the caste system receives a major setback. Thus, because of the impact of the above factors, a number of changes are being introduced in the caste system. Caste rigidity is being broken down.

Question 6.
The distinction between caste and class.
Answer:
To explain the distinction between caste and class. Warner and Dorns say that caste may be defined as a rank order of superior super- ordinate orders with inferior subordinate orders that practice endogamy, prevent vertical mobility and inequality distribute desirable and undesirable social symbols whereas.

The class may be defined as a rank order of superior and inferior orders which allows both exogamy and endogamy, permits movements either up or down the status to which he has bom, it also unequally distributes the lower and higher evaluated symbols. The above quotation throws enough light on the difference between – caste and class.

The following points make the distinction more specific and clear.

The stratification in a caste society is based on birth whereas stratification is based on wealth in a class society. As the individual has no control over his birth, hence his caste position is essentially an ascribed one whereas his class position is mainly an achieved one, as the acquisition of wealth depends mainly on his abilities and hard work.

In a caste-based society, occupation was fixed for various castes. The members of each caste are required to follow their traditional caste occupations. But in a class-based society, no such restrictions are imposed on the choice of occupations. Here, it is individuals, that occupation determines their Class.

The caste system is believed to have a divine origin and is supported by religion. It is based on different religious dogmas like Karma, Karmaphala, Rebirth, etc. But the class system is believed to be secular in nature hence here nothing to do with religion. Another distinction between caste and class is regarding their structure.

The structure of the caste system is closed whereas the structure of the class system is open. As the case of an individual is determined by his change from one caste to another is impossible, but mobility from one class to another is quite easy as it is determined by individuals’ occupations and wealth.

The caste system imposed certain restrictions on the members of different castes in respect of food, drink, and social intercourse. But in a class system, no such restrictions are found to exist. In a caste-based society, there is an existence of Caste Panchayat which maintains the caste structure by punishing those who violate the customs and traditions of their respective castes.

But no such organization is found to exist in a class society. The caste system is based on un-democratic principles of inherited inequality, hence stands as an obstacle in the smooth function of democracy. But the class system is not based on such undemocratic principles and created no such problems for the smooth functioning of democracy.

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Sociology Unit 4 Social Inequality, Exclusion and Movement Long Answer Questions

Question 7
Who are the Scheduled Castes? Discuss the constitutional provisions to safeguard the right of the Scheduled Caste.
Answer:
Indian society is stratified on the basis of the caste system. It has divided society into different segments. At the top of the caste hierarchy, there are Brahmins. The Sudras are at the bottom being the lower caste. It is said that all Sudras are not untouchables but all untouchables are Sudras.

The Scheduled Castes who comprise the bulk of untouchables are technically outside the four-fold vama scheme. These castes were imputed with the maximum degree of ritual and social impurity, while their occupations were treated as the lowest (defiling occupation) in the hierarchy.

Constitutional Safeguards:
Realizing the age-old backwardness of the SCs and STs the constitution of India and the five-year plans have regarded their progress as a major objective of national policy. The Constitution of India prescribes protection and safeguards for the SCs and STs and even for the OBCs with the object of removing their social disabilities and promoting their various interests.

The main safeguards are:

  • Abolition of untouchability
  • Protection from social injustice and various forms of exploitation.
  • Throwing open religious institutions of a public character to all sections.
  • Removal of restrictions on access to shops restaurants wells tanks and roads.
  • Giving them the right to move freely.
  • Right to acquire property
  • Right to admission to educational institutions and receiving grants out of the state funds,
  • Permitting the state governments to make reservations for them in services.
  • Giving them special representation in the LokSabha and VidhanSabha.
  • Setting up separate departments and advisory councils.
  • Prohibiting forced labor and
  • Making special provisions for the administration and control of the scheduled area.

The Government of India set up three Parliamentary Committees the first in 1968, the second in,1971, and the third in 1973 to examine the constitutional safeguards for the welfare of the SCs and STs. The state Government has separate departments to look after the welfare of the SCs and STs. It appears that their status has improved socially, economically, and politically very little.

Socially they have not changed their evil customs, economically more than 30 percent SCs live below the poverty line, educationally they are backward, politically they are not organized. After all, it is said that there are some trends of upward mobility among the SCS enjoying high administrative positions. Broadly speaking the SCs have registered little progress in the last decades.

Question 8.
Describe the tribal development and welfare measures adopted by Government.
Answer:
After independence, various efforts were made to improve the socioeconomic conditions of the tribal and to sustain the constitutional safeguard given to them. A number of safeguards are provided to the Scheduled Tribe to facilitate the implementation of the Directive Principles of State Policy and Article 46 of the constitution.

Article 40 provides for the promotion of the Educational and economic interests of SCs, STs, and Tribal areas. It makes provision for the inclusion of a fifth scheduled in the constitution for incorporating processions for the administration of Scheduled Areas. Article 275 relates to grants from the union Government to certain states for the welfare of STS and providing them with better administration.

Article 330 and Article 332 make provisions for reservation of the House of People and state legislative Assemblies respectively. In accordance with the constitutional provision, a commissioner is required to be appointed by the Union government for the SCs and STs. A number of commissions, committees, and working groups were formed from time to time to evaluate the conditions of Scheduled Tribes.

The different programs and schemes initiated by the government during the different plan periods can be grouped broadly into six categories economic, educational, health, sanitation, family welfare communication, housing, socio-cultural and political. If the first plan was mostly as part of the Community Development various programs were initiated with particular reference to health; housing etc.

The welfare of Scheduled Tribes:
The Indian Constitution has made important provisions for the welfare of Scheduled Tribes. The Central Government and State Governments have made an incessant effort in the direction of tribal welfare. Special programs for their welfare and development have been undertaken in the successive five-year plans.

The primary objective of the Community Development Programme was to achieve rural development. This was envisaged by making available the required services at people’s doors. But there were remote inaccessible areas and there was an almost total absence of additional infrastructural facilities.

Therefore special efforts and greater financial investments were required to extend the services available under the Community Development Programmes to tribal areas. Initially, 43 such blocks were selected for the purpose soon it was realized that it would not be possible to sustain such an intensive development approach for long.

The Tribal Development Blocks were introduced for the development of tribal areas. These Tribal Development blocks were expected to have their role in matters of economic development, education, health, and communication by the end of the Third Five-year plan. There were more than 500 such Tribal Development Blocks serving around 40 percent of the TDBS to other areas of tribal concentration that took place after the third five-year plan.

In the Fourth Five year plans a series of programs such as Small arguments Development Agencies (SFDA), Marginal Farmers, and Agricultural Development Agencies were conceived and implemented. The above-mentioned programs were introduced on an experimental basis in tribal areas.

The Tribal Development Agencies were identified on the same pattern as that of the Small farmer’s Development Agencies Each Tribal Development Agencies cornered a group of Tribal Development Blocks. During the fourth plan, six Tribal Agencies were started and another two were added during the fifth plan.

These Agencies were expected to incorporate elements of economic development, social service, and other progressive measures. In actual practice, the TDAs could not do anything other than agriculture development and construction of roads but the experience gained from the TDAS provided valuable means for evolving better policies and programs for the development of Scheduled Tribes.

The approach and strategy for tribal development were revised comprehensively on the eve of the Fifth Five plan. It was thought as recommended by the Shilo AO Committee that Tribal Development Blocks as an instrument of tribal development. Unsuitable to tackle complex tribal problems.

Besides the situation in tribal areas in terms of resource target groups, local priorities were different from non-tribal areas. Even within the tribal areas problems faced by the tribal people are not uniform in nature. To tackle the complex and diverse tribal problems effectively a comprehensive program of development known as Tribal Sub-plan Areas. A development block was taken as the smallest unit of development under this new strategy.

This unit is known as the Integrated Tribal Development Project (ITDP). The Tribal Sub-plan Approach includes.

Integrated Tribal Development projects comprising generally administrative units like subdivisions/Districts/ tehsils. With to percent or more scheduled tribal population. Pockets of tribal concentration have a total population of 10,000 or more and an ST population of 50 percent or more.

Primitive Tribal group projects :
The tribal sub-plan continued as the main instrument for the development of STs. The sixth plan attached primary importance to poverty alleviation among the STs effort was made under TSP to raise at least 50 percent of STs Effort was made under TSPs to raise at least 50 percent of the tribal population above the poverty line.

The major objective of Tribal Development has remained as follows.

To take up family-oriented programs in order to raise productivity levels of the beneficiary families in the fields of agriculture, horticulture, animal husbandry small-scale industries, etc. To liberate tribals from the exploitation of land grabbing, money-lending, debt bondage, forest- labor, etc. To improve the quality of life through education and training programs and To provide infrastructural facilities in tribal areas.

The constitution of India provides for a number of safeguards for the STS mainly to facilitate the implementation of the Directive Principles contained in Article 46 of the constitution. The important safeguards provided in the constitution include Article 46 promotion of Educational and Economic interests of Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes, and other weaker sections 330 (Reservation of seats for Scs and Sts in the House of People 332 reservation of seats for SCs and STs in the Legislative Assemblies of the states 335 1 claims of the SCs and STs to service to posts, etc.

Programs for which central assistance is given can be divided into three groups namely education, economic upliftment, and health. The services provided to tribals under these programs are free education, provision for educational equipment Ashram schools scholarship, etc.

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Sociology Unit 4 Social Inequality, Exclusion and Movement Long Answer Questions

Question 9.
Discuss the causes of the Agrarian unrest of the peasant movement.
Answer:
The peasant movement has been caused by various factors.
Those are:

  • Feeling of relative deprivation towards the Zamindars, enamdars during the British rule.
  • Foreign invasion atrocities towards the peasants and also exploitation of different kinds instigated the peasants to fight.
  • Destruction of cottage industries of the farmers.
  • The increasing burden of debt.
  • An increasing number of landless and the unemployed
  • Anti-Farmer measures of the Government.
  • Increasing political awareness among the farmers.
  • Use the modem technology.
  • The exploitation of the tribals.
  • Indian fanners at the beginning of the 21 st century, have faced the toughest challenges. So they agitated due to having the above factors.

Santha! Insurrection (1855-56):
There is the first peasant movement took place in India. The Santhals are a group of tribals largely concentrated in Bihar. They are mainly agriculturalists, Due to the establishment of the permanent settlement of 1793 by the Britishers, lands were taken away by that which the Santhals had cultivated for centuries.

The Zamindars took to land on auction from the British Government and gave it to the peasants for cultivation. They increased the land tax and the common peasantry was oppressed by them. Thus was unbearable for the Santhals and they took to insurrection. They go against Zamindar’s money lenders and traders. The Santhal insurrection was very strong but due to various reasons, it was suppressed.

The Blue mutiny (1859-1862):
Poor peasants and small landlords opposed indigo planters in Bengal. In this, they were helped by moneylenders whose own credit, and resources stood threatened by the structure of the monopolistic right of the planters.

The Pabna and Boora uprisings (1872-1875):
Rich cultivators benefiting from the commercialization of agriculture and producing cash crops protested to secure further their occupancy rights granted nominally in 1859.1n thus they succeeded by 1885 when the Bengal Tenancy Act was passed later by the middle twentieth century such tenants were transformed into rent-receivers.

The Mappila /Moplah Rebellions (1836-1921):
The Moplah peasant movement was engineered in 1921 among the peasants of the Malabar district in Kerala. The Moplah tenants were Muslims. They moved on to agitation against the Hindu landlords and the British Government. The land tenure system in Malabar was quite unfavorable to the Maplah tenants. They protested for the security of tenure. Thus was granted in 1887 and 1929.

But only a rich tenantry benefited from these movements. 1921 Moplah agitation was the Khilafat movement which constituted a wider part of the national struggle for Independence. The Moplahs took an active part in the Khilafat movement and Moplah tenants became so much mixed that the government issued prohibitory notices on all Khilafat meetings on 5th February 1921. This displeased the Maplahs and ended up with the agitation of the Maplah peasantry.

The Deccan Riots (1875):
Up against a heavy land revenue demand of the state. (1840-1870) Cultivators lost their lands to moneylenders from the town. The symbiosis of peasants with rural money lenders was upset as the dependence of these latter on the moneylenders was upset the dependence of these latter on money lenders of the towns developed. The protest against the standards of legal authority which allowed such land transfer took the farm of anti-moneylender riots.

Punjab Agrarian Riots (1907):
The state intervened to prevent the alienation of land from peasants to moneylenders in 1900 but Urban middle classes protested in nationalist idiom against government intervention. Riots broke out against money lenders. The government appeared pro-peasant as the peasants rioted against agriculturalist moneylenders who were landlords. Landlords were over the long term supported by British rule.

Peasant movement in India (1918-1922):
The peasants of eastern Uttar Pradesh defied large landlords through a tenant movement for the security of tenure, and oppressive traditions of forced labor were attacked through fierce agrarian riots. Small landlords and the rural poor supported and led the movement. Statutory rights of occupancy were secured in 1921. The movement marked a phase of retreat from landlordism.

The Champaran movement (1917-18):
It is a part of over national independence struggle. Thus the movement was led by Mahatma Gandhi in Champaran (Bihar). Thus the movement was considered a reformist movement. Its objective was to create an awakening among the peasants against the European planters. These planters resorted to illegal and inhuman methods of indigo cultivation. The peasants opposed the European planters as well as the Zamindars. Gandhi visited Champaran and became displeased by the abject poverty of the peasants.

Question 10.
What is Tribal movement? Discuss its Characteristics.
Answer:
The British policies disturbed the traditional tribal systems. The tribal land system was marked by outs conspiratorial ownership of land and the absence of landlords. But the British changed the land system of the tribals. They created the hitherto class of Zamindars (Landlords) in the tribal areas. Brahmins and Rajputs were brought in the tribal area of Chotanagpur to perform military and religious services.

Further roles, they were assigned the Zamindari rights on the land. The Zamindars were considered outsiders by the tribes. The tribals were reduced to the position of tenants. The clan councils of the tribals were replaced by the councils of Rajus consisting of their followers. The traditional land system of the British was turned into many systems.

The British also introduced contractors (Thikadars) in the tribal areas. The Zamindars and Thikadars introduced land to rent in the tribal areas. Following the introduction of the market economy a class of traders also developed in the tribal areas. The tribal tenants had to pay the rent in cash. As they did not have cash with them, they had to borrow from the money- lenders Hence, a class of moneylenders also came into being in the tribal area.

Salient Features of the Tribal movements:
The tribals responded to their exploitation and oppression in the form of revolts and movements. They identified their enemies in the outsider’s landlords, money lenders, theaters and mission arrive, and European Government officials. They launched movements against their oppressors in their respective regions. Their agitation against the outsiders could be called anticolonial.

They revolted against them because of their exploitation in the form of encroachment on their land, eviction from the land annulment of their traditional legal and social rights and customs against enhancement of rent, and for transfer of land to the filter abolition of the feudal and semifeudal form of land ownership on the while, these movements had social religious overtones.

But they were directed against the issues related to their existence. These movements were launched under the leadership of their respective chiefs. Although the movements initially began on social and religious issues and against the oppression of outsiders, in course of time, they merged with the national movement and with the no-tax campaign.

The tribals fought against their enemies with their traditional weapons i.e. bows, arrives, lathis and axes. Their movement often took a violent turn resulting in the murder of oppressors and the burning of their houses. Most of the movements were ruthlessly suppressed by the government.

The tribals had to comply with British policies which were detrimental to their interests. The government introduced protective administration in tribal areas. The Government thought that the normal laws could not be applied in the tribal areas. The Government passed the Scheduled District Act (1874) and categorized the tribal areas as excluded areas on the Govt of India Act of 1935.

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Sociology Unit 4 Social Inequality, Exclusion and Movement Long Answer Questions

Question 11.
Discuss major Tribal movements in India.
Answer:
The first stirrings of the tribal revolt were manifest in the later half of the 19th century. The tribals participated in 1857. the revolt which spread all over the tribal areas. The people found themselves involved in out. Some of the main tribal movements which were essentially anti-colonial in character are discussed in the following.

Tamar Revolts (1789 -1832) :
The tribals of Tamar revolted over 7 times between 1789-1832 against the British. They were joined in the revolt by the tribals of the adjoining area- Midnapur, Koelpur, Dhadha, Chatshila, Jada, and Silli. They revolted against the faulty alignment system of the government. The Tamar revolts were led by BholaNath Sahany of Tamar.

In 1832 the arrows of war circulated throughout the region, orations, and mandates, Honor Kols who had distinct social and cultural identities Joined the insurgents under the leadership of Ganga Narain Singh a member of the Banbhum Raj family. The tribals murdered the dikes in each village of the areas.

The Khervv ar movement of the Santhals (1833):
Their movement was motivated by the desire to return to an idealized past of tribal independence. The word Kherwar is said to be an ancient name of Santhals and in their opinion, It is linked to the Golden age of their history. At that time the Santhals (Kherwars) were supposed to have enjoyed absolute independence. They had to pay tribute to their chief for the protection that the provided to them.

Their movement started under the charismatic leadership of Bhagirath Majhi. He assumed the title of Babaji. He announced that he would restore the Golden age of Santhals if they returned to the worship of God and cleaned themselves from their sons. He vowed to liberate them from the oppression of officials, landlords, and moneylenders. He exhorted them to worship the Hindi God Ram. identifying him with Santhal Gaudo’.

Santhal Revolt of 1855:
Thus movements of the Santhals were against the exploitation of oppression by landlords who had unjust ownership of the land of the Santhals. Thus the movement was also directed against the village moneylenders and officials. The movement was led by two brothers, Sidhu and Kandu. They held a meeting at Bhagnadih and made the announcement that their oppression could be ended by taking back their land from their oppressors. Around 35,000 Santhals acted as their bodyguards at the meeting.

Boka Rising Sardari Larai or Mukti Larai movement of 1858-95:
Thus movement took place in various parts of Chotanagpur. It aimed at regaining the tribal’s ancient right on land by expelling the hated landlords. According to Kr. Suresh Singh thus movement evolved through three phases-

  • In the Agrian phase,
  • the Revivalistic phase and
  • the political phase.

The first two phases were marked by the clashes between the landlords and tribal tenants. The tribal tenants revolted against the rise in rent eviction from land and harassment of the tenants by the landlords and the tenants.

Birsa Munda Revolt (1895 – 1901):
The movement of Birsa Munda is the most popular movement of the Munda tribes of Singhbhum and Ranchi directs of the Chotanagpur region of Bihar. Like the movements discussed earlier this movement was also directed against the outsider’s dikes- landlords – traders merchants and government officers.

These classes were created by the British. Before the British policies on the areas inhabited by Ron and Munda, their traditional land and social systems existed. Their land system was known as the Khimkari system. The tribals enjoyed customary rights over their land. The system was marked by the absence of the class of landlords.

The tribals worked on their land and paid tributes to their chiefs. By 1874 the British replaced the traditional Khuntkari system with the Zamindars landlords the ryots (tenants). The tribals now had to pay to the landlords and failure to do so resulted in their eviction from the land.

Birsa Munda:
The exact date of Birsa Munda’s birth is not certain. According to Kr. Suresh Singh, the years 1874 or 1875 might be regarded as the year of this birth. He was bom in a poor Munda tribal family in a house built of bamboo strips without mud plaster or secure roots. Having passed the lower primary examination from the German mission of Buzru, he was sent to Chanibasa for further studies.

His long stay at Chanibasa from 1886 to 1890 constituted the formative period of his life. He was expelled from the school of his life. Impact of the movement: The Birsa Munda movement had its impact on the government’s attitude towards their problems. The authorities felt the need to prepare the land records so that they could safeguard the tribal interests.

The Government conducted surveys and settlement operations for the tribals between 1902 and 1910 for achieving this purpose.lt decided to abolish the tenancy Act of 1903 which recognized the Mundari Khunkati, System the Government also passed the Chotanagpur Tenancy Act in 1908. Birsa became a legend for the coming generations.

His movement inspired the future social, religious, and political movements of tribals. This movement contributed to the growth of consciousness among tribals. The Birsa of it is school and Thana Bhajans played an important role during the national movement in the 1920s. They fought against the British. They prayed of their explosion in the following way.

Further Tana pulls out the enemies on the border. Pull out the whiches and spirits pull out the British Government. Birsa’s name was evoked by the Indian National Congress and Forward Block to enlist the support of Sirsasthan in the national movement. Both Congress and Forward Block observed Birsa day in 1940.

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Political Science Unit 2 Democratic Process in India-I Long Answer Questions

Odisha State Board CHSE Odisha Class 12 Political Science Solutions Unit 2 Democratic Process in India-I Long Answer Questions.

CHSE Odisha 12th Class Political Science Unit 2 Democratic Process in India-I Long Answer Questions

Long Questions With Answers

Provisions in the Indian Constitution of Federalism with strong central government

  • Formation of states or merger of states of two or more states into one is in the hands of Parliament, the parliament has powers to form a new state or merge with old states or change the name of any state.
  • Our centre has important and powerful emergency powers which can turn a federal system into highly centralised. During emergency, parliament takes the power of states from state list. That means, in these emergency situations, centre will legislate on state list.
  • Under normal conditions, centre has important financial powers, items generating revenue are under the control of central government, therefore, centre has many financial resources and states are dependent on grants and financial resources from centre.
  • In terms of planning and development of the entire country, it adopted centralisation. Planning Commission was appointed by union government that will control, supervise and manage the resources ofstates and union government uses its discretion to give grants and loans to states.
  • The position of governor in states is also a sign of centralisation. The Governor can recommend dismissal of state government and dissolution of assembly. He also has the power to keep the bill with himself rather than passing to president for his assent, this leads to delay in passing the bill by state legislation.
  • There may be situations where the centre needs to legislate in state list. This can happen if the Rajya Sabha agrees. The constitution clearly says that executive power of centre is superior than executive power of states. Article 257(1) says that executive power of states should be exercised in such a way that it does not disturb the functioning or exercise of powers of union, and the executive power of the union can give directions to state government if it appears necessary.
  • The central government may choose to give instructions to the state government.
  • We are also having an All India Services. These officers are under control of central government but serve in the administration of states. States cannot remove these officers nor can take disciplinary action.
  • Articles 33 and 34 authorise parliament to protect officers of union or states if these officers have taken any action during the martial law to maintain peace and order. Armed Forces Special Powers Act has been made on these basis but this act has created tensions because a officer will not be penalised or punished if he/she has done any wrong in a state or part of country where there is martial law.

Question 1.
How has central government controlled the financial resources of states?
Answer:
The central government has effective financial resources. Firstly, interims generating revenue are under the control of central government. Therefore, central government has many revenue sources and states are dependent on grants and financial assistance from centre. Secondly, union also appointed Planning Commission for the socio-economic progress and development of the country. This led to centralisation where the Planning Commission coordinated, controlled and supervised the resources ofthe states.

Question 2.
How does the position of governor led to the centralisation of resources?
Answer:
Governor has power to recommend the dismissal of state government and dissolution of state assembly. In normal circumstances also, Governor has the power to reserve a bill passed by state legislature for the assent of the President. This gives the central government an opportunity to delay the state legislation and examine bills and veto them.

Question 3.
How has all India services centralised our federal system?
Answer:
The all India services are common to the entire territory of India and officers selected serve in the states, states on the other hand cannot take disciplinary action nor can they remove these officers from service.

Question 4.
What is articles 33 and 34?
Answer:
Articles 33 and 34 authorise the parliament to protect the persons in the service of nation or a state in respect of any action taken by them during martial law to maintain law and order.

Conflicts in India’s Federal System:

Although the distribution of powers between centre and states is well defined in the Indian constitution. But still many conflicts has taken place between centre and states for demanding autonomy, for share in resources, for demanding new states and conflicts between states have also arisen. This topic will deal with some of these conflicts.

Centre states relations: Federalism in India has been influenced by political process of the country. In the 1950s and 1960s when there was Congress dominance in centre as well as states, the relations between centre and states have been quite peaceful and without tensions. The states shared the hope that they together will be making development and socio-economic progress. Also because states had the same party which was in centre, that is, Congress ruled both states and centre so there was not much tension.

But in the 1960s Congress dominance declined and in states large number of opposition parties came to power, they wanted greater autonomy and independence. They did not want centre to intervene in their state’s affairs everytime. And the Congress which was ruling at centre in 1960s was also not very comfortable in dealing with opposition parties in states.

And in 1990s coalition government came to power. Congress dominance had ended. And states also had different opposition parties. So there was a different government at centre and different government at states. So, this resulted in greater say for the states, a respect for diversity and beginning of more mature federalism. So, therefore, in this second phase, issue of autonomy became very powerful.

Question 1.
What has been centre state relations since the time of independence?
Answer:
In 1950s and 1960s when there was Congress dominance in centre as well as states, the relations between centre and states have been quite peaceful and without tensions. The states shared the hope that they together will be making development and socio-economic progress. Also because states had the same party which was in centre, that is, Congress ruled both states and centre so there was not much tension.

But in 1960s Congress dominance declined and in states large number of opposition parties came to power, they wanted greater autonomy and independence. They did not want centre to intervene in their state’s affairs everytime. And the Congress which was ruling at centre in 1 960s was also not very comfortable in dealing with different and opposition parties in states.

And in 1990s, coalition government came to power. Congress dominance had ended. And states also had different opposition parties. So there was a different government at centre and different government at states. So,this resulted in greater say for the states, a respect for diversity and beginning of more mature federalism. So, therefore, in this second phase, issue of autonomy became very powerful.

Question 2.
How was the centre state relations in the 1990s?
Answer:
In 1990s, coalition government came to power. Congress dominance had ended. And states also had different opposition parties. So there was a different government at centre and different government at states. So,this resulted in greater say for the states, a respect for diversity and beginning of more mature federalism. So, therefore, in this second phase, issue of autonomy became very powerful.

Question 3.
What kind of federalism did we see in 1990s?
Answer:
In 1990s we saw more of mature federalism where states had greater say and less intervention by centre, and coalition government came to power. Congress dominance had ended. And states also had different opposition parties. So there was:a different government at centre and different government at states. So, this resulted in a respect for diversity and beginning of more mature federalism. And the issue of autonomy became very powerful.

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Political Science Unit 2 Democratic Process in India-I Long Answer Questions

Demand for autonomy:

The other nature of conflict which arose in federalism was related to demand of autonomy. The states had started demanding more independence to govern their state of affairs. Now the question is what kind of autonomy? Autonomy means different things to different states and parties. Parties like DMK, akali dal, CPI-M, had demanded division of powers in favor of
states and more important powers to be assigned to states.

They also demanded financial autonomy. States should have independent sources of revenue and greater control resources. if you remember, we learnt that centre has control over items generating revenue. In 1977, left front government in West Bengal brought out a document demanding the restructuring of centre and state relations. Which means that the states wanted more independence to be given to them. Tamilnadu and Punjab also demanded greater financial powers

They are also angry about greater administrative control through All India Services. States do not want centre to control their administrative machinery.

The autonomy demands are also related to cultural and linguistic issues. For example, Tamilnadu was opposed to domination of Hindi and the Punjabi culture. In 1960, some states were opposed to the imposition of Hindi language. Because these states thought that they are trying to spread Hindi and Punjabi culture and this will destroy their own South Indian culture.

Question 1.
What kinds of autonomy demands were made by states?
Answer:
Autonomy demands made by states were:
Parties like DMK, Akali Dal, CPI(M) had demanded division of power in favor of states and more important powers to be assigned to states.

They also demanded financial autonomy. States should have independent sources of revenue and greater control of resources. if you remember, we learnt that centre has control over items generating revenue. In 1977, left front government in West Bengal brought out a document demanding restructuring of centre and state relations. Tamil Nadu and Punjab also demanded the same.

They are also angry about greater administrative control through All India Services. States do not want centre to control their administrative machinery.

The autonomy demands are also related to cultural and linguistic issues. For example, Tamil Nadu was opposed to the domination of Hindi and the Punjabi culture. In 1960, some states were opposed to the imposition of Hindi language. Because these states thought that they are trying to spread Hindi and Punjabi culture and this will destroy their own South Indian culture.

Role of Governors during President’s Rule:

The position of governor has also become a source of conflict for centre state relations and tension for federalism. The governor is not an elected office but many governors have been retired military officers or civil servants or politicians. And also governor is appointed by central government. So governor is seen as an interfere in the affairs of state. The Sarkaria Commission which was appointed in 1983 and submitted its report in 1988 to give recommendations of centre-state relations, recommended’ that appointments of governor should be strictly non partisan and impartial.

Article 356 is also a source of controversy as this article provides for President’s Rule in any state. It means that ifthe government ofthe state can not be carried in accordance of the provisions of the Constitution then the President’s Rule is declared. And the state government is taken over by Union Government. The President’s proclamation has to be ratified by parliament and President’s Rule can be extended till three years.

Governor has the power to dismiss the state government which means that governor can remove the state government in power or suspend it. This power was misused and in many cases state governments were dismissed even when they had majority for example: in Kerala in 1959.

Article 356 was used occasionally till 1967. After 1967 many states had non Congress states and the Congress was in centre. Sp centre used this provision of article 356 to remove elected governments as in Andhra Pradesh and Jammu and Kashmir in 1980’s.

Question 1.
How the position of governor has centralised our federalism?
Answer:
The position of governor has centralised our federalism. The governor is not an elected office and many governors have been retired military officers or civil servants or politicians. The appointment of governor has been by central government. So governor is seen as an interference in the affairs of state.

Article 356 has also been used by centre to assert its control over the state. This article provides for President’s Rule in any state. It means that if the government of the state cannot be carried in accordance of the provisions of the constitution then the President’s Rule is declared. And the state government is taken over by union government. And along with this Governor also has the power to dismiss the state government or suspend it. This power has been misused and in many cases state governments were dismissed even when they had majority for example: in Kerala in 1959, Andhra Pradesh and Jammu and Kashmir in 1980s.

Question 2.
What is Sarkaria Commission?
Answer:
Sarkaria Commission was the commission which was appointed in 1983 to look into centre-state relations.

Question 3.
What was the recommendation of the Sarkaria Commission ?
Answer:
The recommendation of the Sarkaria Commission was that appointments of governors should be strictly non partisan.

Question 4.
Why was the Sarkaria commission appointed?
Answer:
After the decline in the dominance of Congress in the states, states started demanding autonomy and less interference in their state’s affairs. Centre state relations were leading to constant source of tensions. That is why Sarkaria Commission was appointed.

Question 6.
What is article 356?
Answer:
Article 356 says that if a situation has arisen in which the government of the state cannot be carried in accordance with the provisions of the constitution, President’s Rule can be declared in that state.

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Political Science Unit 2 Democratic Process in India-I Long Answer Questions

Demand for New States :
The other factor which is leading to source of in our federal system is demands for new states. Initially the demand for new states was for conserving their identity and their culture. So in 1954, the states reorganization commission was set up and it recommended creation of states on a linguistic basis. It means that states will be formed on the basis of language. Gujarat and Maharashtra were created in 1960, Punjab and Haryana were separated in 1966. North East region was reorganised and several new states were formed like Meghalaya, Manipur and Arunachal Pradesh.

Since 1990s, demand for further states have been made. It is made on the reason that development have net been able to reach these parts ofthe country. Three new states have been formed Jharkhand from Bihar, Chattisgarh from Madhya Pradesh and Uttaranchal from UP. These areas remained backwards and were underdeveloped.

Following states have also been demanding new states on the reason of development. For example, Telangana in Andhra Pradesh and Vidarbha in Maharashtra.

Question 1.
Why was states reorganisation commission formed?
Answer:
States Reorganisation commission was formed in 1 954 to recommend creation of states on a linguistic basis.

Question 2.
On what basis has the states been formed?
Answer:
In 1950s, states were formed on the basis of language. For example, Haryana and Punjab in 1966, Gujarat and Maharashtra in 1960. But after the 1990s states are being formed on the need for development. For example, Jharkhand, Uttaranchal and Chattisgarh in the 1990s.

Question 3.
How did demand of new states become the source of conflict for federalism?
Answer:
Demand of new states became the source of conflict for federalism because in 1950s many groups rose to demand statehood for preserving their culture and identity. And post 1 990s, new states have been demanded on the basis of development.

Question 4.
When was Gujarat and Maharashtra formed?
Answer:
In 1960

Question 5.
When was Haryana separated from Punjab?
Answer:
In 1966

Inter-state conflict :
Another source of tension in federalism is inter-state conflicts. Till now we have read that there have been conflicts between centre and states. But there are conflicts between two or more states also. The prominent conflicts are over

  • boundary issues and
  • river disputes

Boundary issue:
States have been formed on the basis of language. But on the border sides, there is a possibility that people speaking more than 1 language resides. So, states lay claim over the territories. One of the long-standing dispute is between Maharashtra and Karnataka over the city of Belgaum. Both Punjab and Chandigarh has laid claims over Chandigarh and both declare Chandigarh as their capital. While border disputes are about sentiments. Other important source of conflicts is river dispute.

River dispute:
This is more important because water is required for agriculture and drinking purposes. Cauvery water dispute is a very famous dispute where Tamilnadu and Karnataka are fighting over the share of cauvery water. Gujarat, Madhya Pradesh and Maharashtra are fighting over Narmada river.

Question 1.
What are the source of inter-state conflicts?
Answer:
Boundary issue: States have been formed on the basis of language. But on the border sides, there is a possibility that people speaking more than 1 language resides. So, states lay claim over the territories. One of the long standing dispute is between Maharashtra and Karnataka over the city of Belgaum. Both Punjab and Chandigarh has laid claims over Chandigarh and both declare Chandigarh as their capital.

River dispute: This is more important because water is required for agriculture and drinking purposes. Cauvery water dispute is a very famous dispute where Tamilnadu and Karnataka are fighting over the share of Cauvery water. Gujarat, Madhya Pradesh and Maharashtra are fighting over Narmada river.

Question 2.
What are the causes of tension in our federalism?
Answer:
Centre- State relations
Demand for autonomy
Role of Governors and President’s Rule
Demand for new states
Inter state conflicts

Special Provisions: The most surprising feature of Indian federalism is that many. states are given differential treatment. We already know that in Rajya Sabha, states have got representation according to the size of states. UP have got largest number of members while small north eastern states have got 1 member in Rajya Sabha. But the division of powers is common to all states.

But constitution has given special provisions to north eastern states because of large tribal population, their different history and culture, which they wish to retain (Article 371). Article 370 has given special provisions to Jammu and Kashmir. Because after independence, there was a war between India and Pakistan over Kashmir. And Maharaja of Kashmir agreed to join India under certain conditions. That is why Jammu and Kashmir has been given special provisions in the Constitution. But these provisions have not been able to arrest the alienation and marginalization they are suffering.

Question 1.
What is Article 370?
Answer:
Article 370 gives special provisions to Jammu and Kashmir under Indian Constitution.

Question 2.
What is Article 371?
Answer:
Article 371 gives special provisions to North-Eastern States under Indian Constitution.
Non-serious
Non-serious federalism

Introduction
USSR broke into 15 Countries in 1991. Pakistan was also divided in 1971, from which Bangladesh was formed. Canada also came close to break up into english speaking and french speaking regions of the country.

It seems to be great achievement that India, which is so diverse in terms of language, regions, religions has remained united after Independence. What was our political system that kept India united despite being such a diverse country? This question will be answered in this Chapter.

Federalism:
Our constitution adopted a federal structure where states can govern independently yet centre will maintain its control over the states.

The characteristics of federalism are:

  1. There are two types of government one at the state level and other at the national level and these governments are independent. In some countries, like USA there is a system of dual citizenship which means that USA citizens has two citizenship, one of USA and other of there state, but in india we have only one citizenship that is of Indian nationality. Our Constitution does not recognise any other nationality that is of being Assamese, Bengali etc.
  2. But yes, if we are not having two types citizenship but we are surely having two types of identities, that is we are identified as Assamese, Bengali, Gujarati or Kashmiri but at the same time we are identified as an Indian also. Therefore, each level government has their own powers, responsibilities and a separate system of governance.
  3. The powers, responsibilities and their manner of governance are written in the constitution, which is considered supreme.
  4. And ifany conflict arises over the demarcation of power between centre and state, then the judiciary intervenes to settle the disputes.

Question 2.
What other factors besides politics keep the federations united?
Answer:
Besides politics, other factors which keep the federations united are culture, ideology and history. Culture of trust, cooperation, mutual respect and restraint has also helped in the smooth functioning of federations.

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Political Science Unit 2 Democratic Process in India-I Long Answer Questions

Federalism in the Indian Constitution:

If the countries have disintegrated like USSR, Pakistan; it does not mean that they did not have any federal system, these countries were also having federal system, but then why it lead to their disintegration?

Because simply having federalism is not enough, it also depends on the type of federalism you have, whether you have federalism with a weak centre or there is a federalism with a strong centre. USSR had federalism with a weak centre that is why the centre was not able to control its territories. But India has federalism with a strong centre and it was able to have a strong control over its states.

India is a diverse land with many languages, religions and regions. And to give them identity and recognition, leaders of our national movement thought that these units should govern themselves. But how much powers should be given to the states to govern themselves? Our Constituent Assembly decided to frame the government that would be based on principles ofunity and cooperation between centre and states and separate power to states.

The most important principle of the federal system adopted by Indian Constitution is that relations between states and centre would be based on cooperation, therefore, our constitution recognised diversity but at the same time it emphasised unity. And surprisingly, our constitution does not even mention the word federation. Article-1 simply says that India that is Bharat shall be a union of states which means states will live in unity.

Question 1.
What is the nature of our federal system?
Answer:
Our federal system is based on the principles of unity and cooperation between centre and states and separate powers to the states, therefore, our constitution recognises diversity and emphasies unity.

Question 2.
Why did our national leaders thought of centralised federal system?
Answer:
India is a diverse I md with many languages, culture, religions and regions. it was necessary to give recognition to them, and also India is a large country, so it was important to divide powers between provinces and central government, that is why our national leaders thought of federal system, but they wanted unity and cooperation between states. so they gave us a centralised federal system.

Division of powers:

As we have just read that our leaders of national movement divided the powers between centre and states, so there are two levels of government- one which governs the entire country that is national government and the other which governs the states is called state government. Both of these have been granted status by the constitution and their acreas of functions are clearly demarcated under union list, state list and concurrent list.

Under union list only, centre can legislate and work in these subjects, in state list, only state can legislate and work in these subjects and under concurrent both union and state can work. If there is any conflict in these lists, or if there is a conflict which subject to be done by whom, then judiciary intervenes and resolves the issues.

One important thing is that economic and financial powers are centralised and are in the hands of central government. that means though states have been given subjects to be worked under but they do not have financial resources to carry out their work. And if any matter is not mentioned in the lists, then it comes under residuary powers. and union legislature can alone legislate on these matters, state cannot legislate on these matters.

This means that there is a unitary federal structure.

Question 1.
What are the two levels of government in our political system?
Answer:
Our political system has two levels of government:

  • National level.
  • State level.

Question 2.
What are residuary powers?
Answer:
Subjects which do not come in any of the lists come under residuary powers. union legislature alone has the power to legislate on such matters. For example, Cyber Laws

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Political Science Unit 2 Democratic Process in India-I Long Answer Questions

Why did we adopt federalism with a strong central government?

As we have read in introduction that federal countries like USSR disintegrated, so the important question which comes is the nature of federalism, whether the federalism was with a weak central government who could not control the desire of states to separate from their country or federalism was with strong central government which would keep a check and control on states.

India is a diverse country and there was a requirement of federalism which will accommodate the demands ofall diversities, but at the same time it require a strong central government that will stop disintegration and bring about social and political change, with this idea in mind our constitution framers drafted the constitution and also at the time of independence. India was not only divided into Provinces by the British but there were more than 500 Princely States which had to be integrated into existing states or new states had to be created.

Besides unity as a factor, India needed to tackle socio-economic problems of the country. It required to eliminate poverty, illiteracy and inequalities of wealth. So it required strong central government in cooperation with states for development and unity.

Question 1.
Why did India adopt federalism with strong central government?
Answer:
The reasons for which India adopted federalism with strong central government:

  • India is a diverse country. So, there was a need of federalism which will accommodate the demands of all diversities. But at the same time it require a strong central government that will stop disintegration and bring about social and political change.
  • At the time of independence, India was not only divided into provinces by the British but there were more than 500 princely states which had to be integrated into existing states or new states had to be created.
  • Besides unity as a factor, India needed to tackle socio-economic problems of the country. It required to eliminate poverty, illiteracy and inequalities of wealth. So it required strong central government in cooperation with states for development.

Conflicts in India’s federal system:

Although the distribution of powers between centre and states is well defined in the Indian constitution. But still many conflicts has taken place between centre and states for demanding autonomy, for share in resources, for demanding new states and conflicts between states have also arisen. This topic will deal with some of these conflicts.

(a) Centre states relations: Federalism in India has been influenced by political process of the country. In the 1950s and 1960s when there was Congress dominance in centre as well as states, the relations between centre and states have been quite peaceful and without tensions. The states shared the hope that they together will be making development and socio-economic progress. Also because states had the same party which was in centre, that is, Congress ruled both states and centre so there was not much tension.

But in 1960s Congress dominance declined and in states large number of opposition parties came to power, they wanted greater autonomy and independence. They did not want centre to intervene in their state’s affairs everytime. And the Congress which was
ruling at centre in 1960s was also not very comfortable in dealing with opposition parties in states.

And in 1990s coalition government came to power. Congress dominance had ended and states also had different opposition parties. So there was a different government at centre and different government at states.

(b) Demand for autonomy: The other nature ofconflict which arose in federalism was related to demand of autonomy. The states had started demanding more independence to govern their state of affairs. Now the question is what kind of autonomy? Autonomy means different things to different states and parties.

  • Parties like DMK, Akali Dal, and CPI(M) had demanded division of powers in favor of states and more important powers to be assigned to states.
  • They also demanded financial autonomy. States should have independent sources of revenue and greater control resources.ifyou remember, we learnt that centre has control over items generating revenue. In 1977, left front government in West Bengal brought out a document demanding a restructuring of centre and state relations. Which means that the states wanted more independence to be given to them. Tamilnadu and Punjab also demanded greater financial powers
  • They are also angry about greater administrative control through All India Services. States do not want centre to control their administrative machinery.
  • The autonomy demands are also related to cultural and linguistic issues. For example, Tamil Nadu was opposed to the domination of Hindi and the Punjabi culture. In 1960, some states were opposed to the imposition of Hindi language. Because these states thought that they are trying to spread Hindi and Punjabi culture and this will destroy their own South Indian culture.

(c) Role of Governors and President’s Rule: The position of governor has also become a source of conflict for centre state relations and tension for federalism. The governor is not an elected office. Governor is appointed by central government. So governor is seen as an interfere in the affairs of state.

Article 356 is also a source of controversy as this article provides for President’s Rule in any state. It means that if the government of the state can not be carried in accordance of the provisions of the constitution then the President’s Rule is declared and the state government is taken over by Union government.

Governor has the power to dismiss the state government which means that governor can remove the state government in power or suspend it. This power was misused and in many cases state governments were dismissed even when they had majority for example: in Kerala in 1959, Andhra Pradesh and Jammu and Kashmir in 1980s.

(d) Demand for New States: The other factor which is leading to source of tension in our federal system is demands for new states. Initially the demand for new states was for conserving their identity and their culture. So the states were formed on the basis of language. Gujarat and Maharashtra were created in 1960, Punjab and Haryana were separated in 1966. North East region was reorganised and several new states were formed like Meghalaya, Manipur and Arunachal Pradesh.

Since 1 990s, demand for further states have been made. It is made on the reason that development have not been able to reach these parts of the country. Three new states have been formed Jharkhand from Bihar, Chattisgarh from Madhya Pradesh and Uttaranchal from UP. These areas remained backwards and were underdeveloped.

Following states have also been demanding new states on the reason of development.
For example, Telangana in Andhra Pradesh and Vidarbha in Maharashtra.

(e) Inter-state conflict: Another source of tension in federalism is inter-state conflicts. Till now we have read that there have been conflicts between centre and states. But there are conflicts between two or more states also. The prominent conflicts are over

  • boundary issue
  • river disputes

Boundary issue:
States have been formed on the basis of language. But on the border sides, there is a possibility that people speaking more than one language resides. So, states on the border lay claim over the territories. One ofthe long standing dispute is between Maharashtra and Karnataka over the city of Belgaum. Both Punjab and Chandigarh has laid claims over Chandigarh and both declare Chandigarh as their capital. While border disputes are about sentiments, other important source of conflicts is river dispute.

River dispute:
This is more important because water is required for agriculture and drinking purposes. Cauvery water dispute is a very famous dispute where Tamilnadu and Karnataka are fighting over the share of Cauvery water. Gujarat, Madhya Pradesh and Maharashtra are fighting over Narmada river.

Special Provisions:
The most surprising feature of Indian federalism is that many states are given differential treatment. We already know that in Rajya Sabha, states have got representation according to the size of states. UP have got largest number of members while small northeastern states have got 1 member in Rajya Sabha. But the division of powers is common to all states.

But constitution has given special provisions to northeastern states because of large tribal population, their different history and culture, which they wish to retain (Article 371). Article 370 has given special provisions to Jammu and Kashmir. Because after independence, there was a war between India and Pakistan over Kashmir. Maharaja of Kashmir agreed to join India under certain conditions. That is why Jammu and Kashmir has been given special provisions in the Constitution. But these provisions have not been able to arrest the alienation and marginalization they are suffering.

Constitution of India visualised village panchayats as units of self-government. Think over the situation described in the following statements and explain how do these situations strengthen or weaken the panchayats in becoming units of self-government.

  • Government of a State has allowed a big company to establish a huge steel plant. Many villages would be adversely affected by the steel plant. Gram Sabha of one of the affected villages passed a resolution that before establishing any big industries in the region, village people must be consulted and their grievances should be redressed.
  • The government has decided that 20 % of all its expenditure would be done through the panchayats.
  • A village panchayat kept on demanding funds for a building for village school, the government officials turned down their proposal saying that funds are allocated for certain other schemes and cannot be spent otherwise.
  • The government divided a village Dungarpur into two and made a part of village Jamuna and Sohana. Now village Dungarpur has ceased to exist in government’s books.
  • A village panchayat observed that water sources of their region are depleting fast. They decided to mobilise village youth to do some voluntary work and revive the old village ponds and wells.

Question 1.
Suppose you are entrusted to evolve a local government plan of a State, what powers would you endow to the village panchayats to function as units of self-government? Mention any five powers and the justification in two lines for each of them for giving those powers.
Answer:

  • Allowing panchayats to raise their own funds-This would reduce their dependency on the higher levels of government and make them more active in the development process.
  • Starting village co-operatives at the panchayat level-This would lead to development of village economy and cooperation between various panchayats. It would also generate employment and allow panchayats to directly market village produce and get better prices for the same.
  • Authority to create and maintain infrastructure in village-This would lead to less dependence on government officials for funds and consequently, lead to autonomy
  • Control of village panchayat over local resources-Resources like water and pastureland should come under the village panchayat to enable their maintenance and prevent their degradation. This would engage the entire community in their conservation.
  • Direct engagement of village panchayats with state government in matters related to development projects-This would allow them to get adequate compensation for development projects and land acquisition and reduce the role of middlemen.

Question 2.
What are the provisions for the reservations for socially disadvantaged groups as per the 73rd amendment? Explain how these provisions have changed the profile of the leadership at the village level.
Answer:
The socially disadvantaged groups like women, scheduled castes and scheduled tribes have been given reservations for various posts in the local government of rural India according to the proportion of their population. One-third of all positions in panchayats are reserved for women while Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes have seats reserved as per the proportion to their population. States can also provide reservations to Other Backward Classes if they think it is necessary.

This has changed the profile of the leadership at the village level by transferring the leadership from the earlier dominant social groups to groups that were previously unable to have a say in the decision-making process. There is now a greater representation of all social groups in the panchayat institutions. Thus, more women and people belonging to Scheduled Castes and Tribes are now able to play important role in decisions that can bring benefits for their community.

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Political Science Unit 2 Democratic Process in India-I Long Answer Questions

Question 3.
What were the main differences between the local governments before the 73rd amendment and after that amendment?
Answer:
The main differences between the local governments before 73rd Amendment and after the amendment can be listed as:

  • After the implementation of the 73rd amendment, the local government has been divided into a uniform three-tier Panchayati Raj structure.
  • Earlier the state administration was responsible for conducting elections to the Panchayati Raj institutions but now the state government has to appoint a state election commission for this purpose.
  • After the dissolution of the Panchayati Raj before its term of five years, a fresh election has to be conducted within six months. This was not the case before the 73rd amendment was passed.
  • Distribution of revenue between the state government and local government and between rural and urban government is done by the state election commission. This was not the case before the 73rd amendment was implemented.
  • Reservation for women, scheduled castes and scheduled tribes and to other backward classes (if the state government thinks it is necessary for OBCs) is implemented for various positions in the local government according to the proportion of their population.
  • Twenty-nine subjects that were earlier in the State list of subjects in the Eleventh Schedule of the Constitution have been transferred to the Panchayati Raj institutions.

Agenda of the Gram Sabha:

  • Age of children: All children of the village from the age of5 years should be enrolled in the school.
  • School Building: The school building should be renovated with proper seats and blackboards in all classrooms.
  • Water and sanitation facility: The Gram Pradhan is made responsible for the water supply and better and separate sanitation facilities for boys and girls.
  • Syllabus: Sports and extra co-curricular activities will be included to lessen the pressure of study and cultivate physical development.
  • Mid-day meal: School principal would be responsible for the quality and quantity of the food provided to the students.
  • Free education: Every child till 14 years of age is eligible for free education.
  • Appointment of the staff: Helping staff can be recruited from the village and the secretary would be responsible for the appointment of the teachers.
  • Residential facility: Gram Pradhan has to approach the Block Development Officer for appealing to provide a residential facility to the teachers.
  • Hostel facility: Gram Pradhan has to approach the BDO to ask for a hostel facility near the village school to accommodate students from distant villages.
  • Compensation: Villagers whose land will be taken will be provided with appropriate compensation from the government.

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Political Science Unit 2 Democratic Process in India-I Short Answer Questions

Odisha State Board CHSE Odisha Class 12 Political Science Solutions Unit 2 Democratic Process in India-I Short Answer Questions.

CHSE Odisha 12th Class Political Science Unit 2 Democratic Process in India-I Short Answer Questions

Short Questions and Answers  

Question 1.
Which states have been given special provisions in our constitution?
Answer:
Jammu and Kashmir and North Eastern States like Nagaland, Manipur and Assam.

Question 2.
Point out one feature in the practice of federalism in India that is similar to and one feature that is different from that of Belgium.
Answer:
In India, just like in Belgium, the central government has to share its powers with the regional governments. However, unlike India, Belgium has a community government in addition to the central and the state government.

Question 3.
What is the main difference between a federal form of government and a unitary one? Explain with an example.
Answer:
In a federal form of government, the central government shares its powers with the various constituent units of the country. For example, in India, power is divided between the government at the Centre and the various State governments. In a unitary form of government, all the power is exercised by only one government. For example, in Sri Lanka, the national government has all the powers.

Question 4.
What are the characteristics of federalism?
Answer:
The characteristics of federalism are:

  • It is an institutional mechanism to accommodate two sets of polities – one at the regional level and other at the national level.
  • The people have two sets of identities and loyalties, each level of polity has distinct powers and responsibilities and has a separate system.
  • The details of the dual system of government are spelt out in the written constitution, which is considered to be supreme and is also the source of power of both sets of government.
  • To prevent conflicts between centre and state, there is an independent judiciary to settle disputes.

Question 5.
What other factors besides politics keep the federations united?
Answer:
Besides politics, other factors which keep the federations united are culture, ideology and history. Culture of trust, cooperation, mutual respect and restraint has also helped in the smooth functioning of federations.

Question 6.
What is Federation?
Answer:
In a federation, there is division of powers between one central government f and several state governments. Each government exercises power in its own area as demarcated by the constitution.

Question 7.
What is Unitary Government?
Answer:
Unitary Government is one in which all authority and power is in the hands of a single central government. Local governments get their powers from the central government.

Question 8.
Name two essential features of a federation.
Answer:
The name of two essential features of a federation are:

(1) Division of powers between the centre and states.
(2) Written, rigid and supreme constitution.

Question 9.
Write a major failure of unitary government.
Answer:
In a unitary state there is a single central government. There is one legislature 1 and one executive for the whole state.

Question 10.
What is main difference between a unitary state and federal state?
Answer:
In a federal state all powers stand divided between one central government and, several state governments. In a unitary state all powers are in the hands of one single central government.

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Political Science Unit 2 Democratic Process in India-I Short Answer Questions

Question 11.
List the four features of a federation.
Answer:
The four features of a federation are:
(1) Division of powers between the center and states.
(2) Written, rigid and supreme constitution.
(3) Dual Administration.
(4) Special role of Judiciary as the arbiter of centre-state.

Question 12.
What are the three main conditions for the success of a federation?
Answer:
The three main conditions for the success of a federation are:
(1) Desire for union among member states.
(2) Political maturity and educated citizenship.
(3) Similar political strictures and equality of all states of the federation.

Question 13.
How the Constitution of India described the State?
Answer:
The Constitution declares India to be a Union of States. It describes India neither as a federation nor as a unitary state. Indian Constitution has both federal and unitary features.

Question 14.
How the division of powers between the centre and states has been made?
Answer:
The Constitution contains three lists –
(1) Union List which specifies the powers of the Centre.
(2) State List which contains the powers of each state of India.
(3) Concurrent List specifies some powers given jointly to the centre and state.

Question 15.
What is the name and nature of rural local government in India?
Answer:
Rural local government is known as Panchayati Raj. It has a three-tier structure Gram Panchayat, Panchayat Samiti and Zilla Parishad. It is grass roots level system of rural local self-government.

Question 16.
Which are the Institutions of Urban Local Government?
Answer:
For very big cities, Municipal Corporations, for middle-level cities or towns Municipal Committees or Nagar Councils and Nagar Panchayats for semi-urban, semi-rural areas.

Question 17.
Which Constitutional amendments have been recently incorporated in respect of Local Government in India.
Answer:
The following Constitutional amendments have been recently incorporated in respect of local government in India.
(1) 73rd Amendment Act in respect of Rural Local Government.
(2) 74th Amendment Act in respect of Urban Local Government.

Question 18.
Which are the salient objectives of the 73rd and 74th Amendments?
Answer:
The salient objectives of the 73rd and 74th Amendments are:
(1) Continuity in the operation of local governments.
(2) More involvement of women in the working of local government.
(3) Empowerment of local government institutions.

Question 19.
What is Gram Sabha?
Answer:
It is the real grass roots level institution of Panchayati Raj. It is the assembly of all adult citizens of the village. It elects the village Panchayat which is its executive body.

Question 20.
What is Municipal Corporation?
Answer:
It is the biggest institution of Urban self-government. Each big city or metropolitan city has a Municipal Corporation. It performance both civic, development and welfare functions in its areas.

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Political Science Unit 2 Democratic Process in India-I Short Answer Questions

Question 21.
Define Panchayati Raj.
Answer:
Panchayati Raj can be defined as rural local-self government system which is at work in every village in India. Each village has its Panchayat which works for providing civic amenities to the people. It also tries to secure the socioeconomic development of the village.

Question 22.
What are the main functions of a Municipal Council?
Answer:
To provide civic amenities, to in sure public health and sanitation, maintain fire-fighting services, ensure water supply, to regulate construction of houses and other buildings in its area.

Question 23.
What are objectives of local government Institutions?
Answer:
The objectives of local government institutions are:

(1) Socioeconomic development of the local area.
(2) Undertaking civic and welfare functions.
(3) Ensuring all civic amenities in the local area.
(4) Provide an efficient system of self-government in the local area.

Question 24.
What are the main aims of Panchayati Raj?
Answer:
The main aims of the Panchayati Raj in India have been democratic decentralization, rural local-self government and machinery for rural development. Socioeconomic development of rural India can be described as the key aim of the Panchayati

Question 25.
What are the salient features of rural and urban local-self Government Institutions?
Answer:
The salient features of rural and Urban local-self government Institutions are:

(1) These are grass roots level democratic institutions.
(2) These are elected by the local people for securing local needs with the help of local resources.
(3) These act as training schools of Indian Democracy.

Question 26.
What is the dual administration feature of the Indian Constitution?
Answer:
Dual administration: India establishes a dual polity. Each citizen is a subject of two governments- the government of the state in which he resides and the government of India. He participates in elections for both these governments. He obeys both the central as well as state laws. He pays taxes to both the governments. Both governments act to provide him with services in their respective areas as stand demarcated by the Constitution.

Question 27.
What is the special role of Judiciary in the federal feature and the Indian Constitution?
Answer:
Special role of Judiciary: The constitution of India provides for an independent judicial system with the Supreme Court at its head. The Supreme Court has the power to settle the disputes arising between the Union and States as well as among the States. It is the final interpreter of the Constitution. It judges the Constitutional validity of laws of both the Union and States and in case any law or any part of the law is found to be unconstitutional.

Question 28.
What are the facts reflect very strong centre Unitarian features of Indian Federalism?
Answer:
A very strong Centre Unitarian features of Indian Federalism reflect the following facts reflect this feature.

(1) The Union List, over which the Union Government has the exclusive jurisdiction, Government has the exclusive jurisdiction is the largest List with 97 subjects.
(2) The Concurrent List contains 47 subjects. It is also virtually in the hands of the Union.
(3) The Constitution of India gives the residuary powers to the Union and not the States.
(4) The Constitutional history of India since 1950 shows that there has been a tendency to limit the state List by the incorporation of more and more subjects either in the Union List or in the Concurrent List.

Question 29.
Write about limitations on the Legislature Power of a State.
Answer:
The limitations on the Legislative Power of a state is:
(1) The Governor of State has the right to reserve any bill passed by a State Legislature.
(2) Upon a request made by two or more State Legislatures.
(3) During the period of emergency, the Union Parliament gets the power to legislate on State Subjects.
(4) The Union Parliament has the power to make any law necessary for meeting. any obligation resulting from an international treaty.

Question 30.
What is common Election Commission Unitarian feature?
Answer:
Common Election Commission: For organizing elections to the Union Parliament as well as to the State legislatures, the Constitution of India provides for a single Common Election Commission. The Election Commission of India has the sole responsibility for conducting all elections or by-elections for the Union Parliament and State Legislatures. The Parliament has the right to legislate on matters of election.

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Political Science Unit 2 Democratic Process in India-I Short Answer Questions

Question 31.
Unequal representation of the States in the Rajya Sabha.
Answer:
The States do not enjoy equality of representation in the Union. They get seats in the Rajya Sabha in proportion to their populations and as fixed by Constitution. These do not enjoy equal Seats in the Rajya Sabha. The Indian system of giving representation to the States in the Upper House as such is not based on the true federal principle of equal representation of all the federating States.

Question 32.
What have been the main changes introduced by the 73rd Amendment Act in the Panchayati Raj?
Answer:
The main changes introduced by the 73rd Amendment Act in the Panchayati Raj are:

(1) Reservation of seats for SCs and STs in a state.
(2) Reservation of the posts of chairpersons for the SCs and STs in a state.
(3) Reservation of not less than l/3rd of the elected seats in each Panchayat for women.
(4) Reservation of l/3rd posts of chairpersons for rural women and rotation of reservation of women among constituencies.
(5) Direct election of Panchayats and continuity in the working of Panchayati Raj institutions.

Question 33.
What is the composition of a Gram Panchayat?
Answer:
The membership of the Gram Panchayat varies considerably from 5 to 31. In most of the seats, Gram Panchayat have 5 to 9 members but in U.P. from 16 to 31 members and in Odisha 11 to 25 members. The members of the Panchayat i.e. Panchas are directly 1 elected by all the voters by a secret ballot. In all the seats l/3rd of the seats are reserved for women.

Question 34.
What are the major functions of the Gram Sabha?
Answer:
The major functions of the Gram Sabha are:

(1) To approve the plans, programmes and projects for socioeconomic development before these are taken up by the Grama Panchayat for implementation.
(2) To identify and select persons for getting benefits under poverty eradication and other such programmes.
(3) To consider and approve the budget of the Gram Panchayat.
(4) To consider proposed taxes, levies, rent, and fees.

Question 35.
What are the functions of the Sarpanch of a Gram Panchayat?
Answer:
Sarpanch presides over the meetings of the Gram Panchayat. He conducts and
regulates its proceedings. He also maintains records of the meetings. Signs documents on behalf of the Gram Panchayat, prepares all statements and reports, maintains and regulates the property of the Gram Panchayat and carries out all correspondence with the government and administration.

Question 36.
Write some functions of Gram Panchayat.
Answer:
Some functions of Gram Panchayat are:

(1) Maintenance of public places including its sanitation, the drainage systems.
(2) Maintenance of wells, water pumps, baolies, springs, ponds and tanks for the supply of water for drinking, washing and bathing.
(3) Maintenance of burial and cremation grounds.
(4) Registration of births and deaths.

Question 37.
What are the functions of the Panchayat Samitis?
Answer:
The functions of the Panchayat Samitis are Planning, execution and supervision of development programmes in the Samiti area, execution of community development projects, management of primary education, management of such trusts and institutions as stand entrusted to it by the Odisha government, supervision of laws relating to vaccination and registration of births and deaths, borrowing of funds and granting of loans, supervision of Gram Panchayats of the Samiti area.

Question 38.
Who are the members of the Zilla Parishad?
Answer:
Each Zilla Parishad in Odisha consists of both directly elected as well as ex-officio members. One member is directly elected on the basis of adult suffrage from each constituency within the areas of the Zilla Parishad. Ex-officio members include Chairman of all Panchayat Samitis and MLAs, MLCs and MPs who represent the Zilla Parishad area in the state legislature and the Union Parliament. Some seats are reserved for persons belonging to scheduled castes and scheduled tribes.

Question 39.
What are the obligatory functions of a Gram Panchayat in Odisha?
Answer:
The obligatory functions of a Gram Panchayat in Odisha are construction, repair and maintenance of streets, lighting, clearing of public street and places, removal of unauthorized constructions, laying and maintenance of drains and public urinals and latrines, water supply, scavenging and waste removal, checking epidemics, removal of harmful vegetation, checking of dangerous and offensive trade, registration of birth and death and marriages.

Question 40.
What are the main sources of income of the Zilla Parishad?
Answer:
The main sources of the income of the Zilla Parishad are:
(1) Central or state government funds allotted to the Zilla Parishad.
(2) Share in the land reserve collected from the Zilla Parishad area.
(3) Grants from All India bodies and Institutions for development of cottage, village and small scale industries.
(4) State taxes or fees as may be prescribed.
(5) Income from trusts administered by the Zilla Parishad.

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Political Science Unit 2 Democratic Process in India-I Short Answer Questions

Question 41.
What are the qualification for getting elected to a Municipal Corporation or a Municipal Committee?
Answer:
The qualification for getting elected to a Municipal Corporation or a Municipal Committee are:

(1) The person should be a citizen of India.
(2) His/her name should figure in the voters’ list of the city/word concerned.
(3) He/she must be at least 21 years or more of age.
(4) He/she should not hold any government office.
(5) He/she should not have been declared ineligible to contest elections for committing crime.

Question 42.
What are the Administrative functions of Municipal Corporation?
Answer:
The administrative functions of Municipal Corporation are:

  • It frames its own bylaws for proper municipal administration.
  • It imposes fines on those who violate its rules.
  • It recruits staff of the Municipal Corporation.
  • It can purchase and sell land.
  • It demolishes dilapidated and dangerous buildings and bridges.
  • It registers birth and death.
  • It makes arrangements for the cremation of the dead.
  • It welcome foreign guests.

Question 43.
What is the system of reservation of seats in a Municipal body?
Answer:
Reservation of seats:

(1) Scheduled Castes,
(2) Backward classes
(3) Women is a rule.

The ratio of seats reserved for scheduled castes is in proportion to the population of scheduled castes in the Municipal area. One seat is reserved for the Backward classes. No less than l/3rd of the seats are reserved for scheduled caste women.

Question 44.
In which area Nagar Panchayats are established?
Answer:
Nagar Panchayats are created for transitional areas or for very-small urban areas. For this purpose several factors are taken into consideration, the density of the population therein, the revenue generated for local administration, the percentage of employment in non-agricultural activities, the economic importance of the area.

Question 45.
What are the main sources of income of a Municipal Council?
Answer:
The main sources of income of a Municipal Council are:

  • Taxes for house, property, water and service.
  • Income from Municipal property, electricity supply and water supply.
  • Government grants.
  • Development loans from public financial institutions.

Federalism In West Indies:

As we all are aware the West Indies is not a country, then what is West Indies?

West Indies was a colony of British. In 1958, the Federation of West Indies came into being, it had a weak central government and the units(states) in it were independent, a weak central government is not able to maintain hold over the units, that is why it broke into several parts(states) in 1962. (In India, our central government is strong, that is why the units(states) were not able to go away or break from the country).

In 1973, by treaty of Chaguaramas independent islands joined together to form joint authorities in the form of common legislature, supreme court, common currency and to a ceration degree common market which is known as Caribbean community. Therefore, the units did not live separately also and neither together.

Question 1.
What is a treaty of Chaguaramas?
Answer:
In 1973, the Caribbean community was formed, independent islands established joint authorities in the form of Common Legislature, Supreme Court, a Common Currency and to a certain degree Common Market which is known as Caribbean Community.

Federalism In Nigeria:

As discussed above, there are other factors that decide the unity of federations, that is culture, ideology and history, so if there is a distrust or failure of trust between Communities, then also a federal community will not be able to survive. An example is Nigeria.

Till 1914, there were two colonies of British: Northern Nigeria and Southern Nigeria. After the independence, Nigerian leaders decided to form a federal constitution at Ibadan constitutional conference. ( federal constitution means where the regions were given independence to control their own affairs but it also had a central government to look after the affairs of the entire country, for example, issues like foreign policy does not affect one region but the entire country as a whole).

So three major ethnic groups of Nigeria controlled their own regions- Yoruba controlled West, Ibo controlled East and Hausa – Fulani controlled North. And when these groups tried to spread their influence in other regions, it failed and it led to fears and conflicts, it failed because there was lack of trust and faith, so it led to military regime, in 1979, no state was allowed to have any civil police because if each region would have their own police, so they would have protected their own region and harassed the other region, and also the region having police facility would have become powerful and it would have led to secession from the country.

Military regime finally gave way to democracy in 1999, religious differences and conflicts over who will control revenues from oil resources continue to be present, therefore, Nigeria is an example where religious, ethnic and economic differences is leading to problems in a federation.

Question 1.
Give an example where a trust deficit is leading to problems in federalism.
Answer:
Nigeria

Question 2.
Explain the federation problems in Nigeria.
Answer:
Till 1914, there were two Colonies of British: Northern Nigeria and Southern Nigeria. After the independence, Nigerian leaders decided to form a federal constitution at Ibadan constitutional conference. So three major ethnic groups of Nigeria controlled their own regions- Yoruba controlled West, Ibo controlled East and Hausa – Faulani controlled North. And when these groups tried to spread their influence in other regions,it failed and it led to fears and conflicts, military regime was established.

In 1 979, no state was allowed to have any civil police, a military regime finally gave way to democracy in 1 999, religious differences and conflicts over who will control revenues from oil resources continued to be present. Therefore, Nigeria is an example where religious, ethnic and economic differences is leading to problems in a federation.

Federalism In The Indian Constitution:

If the countries have disintegrated like USSR, Pakistan; it does not mean that they did not have any federal system, these countries were also having federal system, but then why it lead to their disintegration? Because simply having federalism is not enough, it also depends on the type of federalism you have, whether you have federalism with a weak centre or there is federalism with a strong centre.

USSR had a federalism with a weak centre that is why the centre was not able to control its territories but India has federalism with a strong centre and it was able to have a strong control over its states.

India is a diverse land with many languages, religions and regions. And to give them identity and recognition, leaders ofour national movement thought that these units should govern themselves. But how much power should be given to the states to govern themselves? our constituent assembly decided to frame the government that would be based on principles of unity and cooperation between centre and states and separate power to states.

The most important principle of federal system adopted by Indian constitution is that relations between states and centre would be based on cooperation, therefore, our constitution recognised diversity but at the same time it emphasised unity. And surprisingly, our constitution does not even mention the word federation, article simply says that India that is Bharat shall be a Union of States, which means states will live in unity.

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Political Science Unit 2 Democratic Process in India-I Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What is the nature of our federal system?
Answer:
Our federal system is based on the principles of unity and cooperation between centre and states and separate powers to the states, therefore, our constitution recognizes diversity and emphasies unity.

Question 2.
What does Article 1 says?
Answer:
Article 1
(1) says that India, that is Bharat, shall be a Union of States.
(2) says that the states and territories there of shall be as specified in the first schedule.

Question 3.
Why did our national leaders thought of centralised federal system?
Answer:
India is a diverse land with many languages, culture, religions and regions. it was necessary to give recognition to them, and also India is a large country, so it was important to divide powers between provinces and central government, that is why our national leaders thought of federal system, but they wanted- unity and cooperation between states. so they gave us a centralised federal system.

Division Of Powers:

As we have just read that our leaders of national movement divided the powers between centre and states, so there are two level of government: one which governs the entire country that is national government and the other which governs the states is called state government, both of these have been granted status by the constitution and their acreas of functions are clearly demarcated under union list, state list and concurrent list.

Under union list only, centre can legislate and work in these subjects, in state list. only state can legislate and work in these subjects and under concurrent both union and state can work. If there is any conflict in these lists, or if there is a conflict which subject to be done by whom, then judiciary intervenes and resolves the issues.

One important thing is that economic and financial powers are centralised and are in the hands of central government. that means though states have been given subjects to be worked under but they do not have financial resources to carry out their work. And if any matter is not mentioned in the lists, then it comes under residuary powers. and union legislature can alone legislate on these matters, state cannot legislate on these matters.

This means that there is a unitary federal structure.

Question 1.
What are the two levels of government in our political system?
Answer:
Our political system has two levels of government:
(a) National level.
(b) State level.

Question 2.
What are residuary powers?
Answer:
Subjects which do not come in any of the lists come under residuary powers. union legislature alone has the power to legislate on such matters.
For example, Cyber Laws

Question 3.
List some subjects come under union list.
Answer:
Currency and coinage, foreign trade, defense, atomic energy

Question 4.
List some subjects which come under state list.
Answer:
Police, prison, agriculture and state public services.

Question 5.
List some subjects which come under concurrent list.
Answer:
Education, Forests

Question 6.
List some subjects which come under residuary list.
Answer:
Cyber Laws

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Political Science Unit 2 Democratic Process in India-I Short Answer Questions

Why did we adopt federalism with a strong central government?

As we have read in introduction that federal countries like USSR disintegrated, so the important question which comes is the nature of federalism, whether the federalism was with weak central government who could not control the desire of states to separate from their country or federalism was with strong central government which would keep a check and control on states.

India is a diverse country and there was a requirement of federalism which will accommodate the demands of all diversities, but at the same time, it requires a strong central government that will stop disintegration and bring about social and political change, with this idea in mind our constitution framers drafted the constitution, and also at the time of independence, India was not only divided into provinces by the British but there were more than 500 princely states which had to be integrated into existing states or new states had to be created.

Besides unity as a factor, India needed to tackle the socioeconomic problems of the country. lt required to eliminate poverty, illiteracy, and inequalities of wealth. So it required a strong central government in cooperation with states for development and unity.

Question 1.
Why did India adopt federalism with a strong central government?
Answer:
The reasons for why India adopted federalism with a strong central government:

  • India is a diverse country. So, there was a need for federalism that will accommodate the demands of all diversities. But at the same time, it requires a strong central government that will stop disintegration and brings about social and political change.
  • At the time of independence, India was not only divided into provinces by the British but there were more than 500 princely states which had to be integrated into existing states, or new states had to be created.
  • Besides unity as a factor, India needed to tackle the socioeconomic problems of the country. It is required to eliminate of poverty, illiteracy, and inequalities of wealth. So it required a strong central government in cooperation with states for development.

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Psychology Unit 1 Objective & Short Answer Type Questions

Odisha State Board CHSE Odisha Class 12 Psychology Solutions Unit 1 Objective & Short Answer Type Questions.

CHSE Odisha 12th Class Psychology Unit 1 Objective & Short Answer Type Questions

Multiple Choice Questions With Answers

Question 1:
Life span development psychology is the _____ psychology.
(a) Behaviour
(b) Development
(c) branch
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(c) branch

Question 2:
_____ has pointed out “not only description but also explication of age-related. changes is behaviour in terms of antecedent – consequent relationships”.
(a) La Bouvie
(b) Siegel
(c) Dietrich Tiedemarm’s
(d) both (a) and (b)
Answer:
(a) La Bouvie

Question 3:
Life span psychologists have six major objective ______.
(a) to find out what are the common and characteristic change.
(b) to find out when these changes occur.
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(c) both (a) and (b)

Question 4:
The baby biographies journals published in _____ year.
(a) 1787
(b) 1777
(c) 1767
(d) 1774
Answer:
(a) 1787

Question 5:
Who observations of his son’s sensory-motor, language and cognitive behaviour during the first 2.1/2 years.
(a) Siegel
(b) La Bouvie
(c) Dietrich Tiedemann’s
(d) none of the above.
Answer:
(c) Dietrich Tiedemann’s

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Psychology Unit 1 Objective And Short Answers Questions

Question 6:
In ____ year Daruin published notes on his son boddy’s sensory, cognitive and emotional development during his first twelve months.
(a) 1877
(b) 1904
(c) 1916
(d) 1922
Answer:
(a) 1877

Question 7:
Who has explained structures are “far from being static and given him the start?
(a) Van den Dacle
(b) Piaget
(c) GStancbey
(d) Daniel Uvirson.
Answer:
(b) Piaget

Question 8:
Who called the first year the oral stage.
(a) Freud
(b) Erikson
(c) Darkein
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(a) Freud

Question 9:
Categories of stress in middle Adulthood are
(a) Somatic stress
(b) Cultural stress
(c) Economic stress
(d) all the above
Answer:
(d) all the above

Question 10:
Who has explained “Life span psychology was preoccupied with ages and stages. Investigators sought to learn the typical age at which various stages of’ development occurred”
(a) La Bouvie
(b) Siegel
(c) Dietrich
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(b) Siegel

Question 11:
G. Stanley Hall, a pioneer in child study published “popular book is called _____.
(a) Adolescence
(b) Senescence
(c) baby biographies
(d) none of the above.
Answer:
(a) Adolescence

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Psychology Unit 1 Objective And Short Answers Questions

Question 12:
_____ causes more neonatal deaths.
(a) prematurity
(b) postmaturity
(c) both (a) and
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(a) prematurity

Question 13:
_____ theory is major impacts in education.
(a) Erikson
(b) Piaget
(c) Fraid
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(b) Piaget

Question 14:
Characteristics of adolescence is
(a) Adolescence is an important period.
(b) Adolencence is a transactional period.
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above
Answer:
(c) both (a) and (b)

Question 15:
The word adult comes from the same Latin verb as the term adolescence – adult care which means _____.
(a) grown to full size and strength
(b) to grow to maturity
(c) only (a)
(d) none of the above
Answer:
(b) to grow to maturity

True/False questions

Question 1:
La Bounce has pointed out is “not only description but also explication of age-related changes in behaviour in terms of antecedent consequent relationships”
Answer:
True

Question 2:
Development psychologists study developmental change not covering life span.
Answer:
False

Question 3:
Baby biographies journal published in 1787 in England.
Answer:
False

Question 4:
In 1877 Drawin published notes on his son noddy’s sensory.
Answer:
True

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Psychology Unit 1 Objective And Short Answers Questions

Question 5:
Piget has pointed out “development implies qualitative change”
Answer:
False

Question 6:
Life span development is not branch of psychology.
Answer:
False

Question 7:
The human beings are never static.
Answer:
True

Question 8:
Miller has said, “In all the rest of his life there will never be such a sudden and complete change of locale”
Answer:
True

Question 9:
Prematurity causes more neonatal deaths.
Answer:
True

Question 10:
Freud the first year of the oral stage.
Answer:
True

Very short answer questions with answers

Question 1:
Appearance
Answer:
Developments that improve one’s appearance are welcome and lead to favorable attitudes while those that detract from one’s appearance are resisted and every possible attempt is made to camouflage them.

Question 2:
Cultural Values
Answer:
Each culture has certain values associated with different ages. Because maximum productivity is associated with young through early middle-age adulthood, attitudes toward this age group are more favorable than attitudes toward other ages.

Question 3:
Hereditary Endowment
Answer:
The first important happening at the time of conception is the determination of the newly created individual’s hereditary endowment. The contributions to this endowment from both parents and from both maternal and “paternal ancestors.

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Psychology Unit 1 Objective And Short Answers Questions

Question 4:
Number of Offspring
Answer:
The third important happening at the time of conception or shortly thereafter is the determination of the number of offspring there will be. While most humans are singletons, multiple births also occur.

Question 5:
Mental Development
Answer:
Mental similarities between identical twins are much greater than between nonidentical twins and this persists into old age. Identical twins also show strong similarities in terms of special abilities, such as musical and artistic aptitudes.

Question 6:
Personality Development
Answer:
Many twins have difficulty in developing a sense of personal identity. This is especially true of identical twins and of nonidentical twins of the same sex. Others enjoy the close relationship of twinship and the attention they receive as a result of their similarity in appearance. This leads to self-satisfaction and self-confidence.

Question 7:
Physical Hazards
Answer:
Each of the three major subdivisions of the prenatal period involves particular physical hazards. While these do not affect all individuals by any means, they do occur with some frequency and can be serious enough to affect the development of the individual throughout life.

Question 8:
Infancy Is a Hazardous Period
Answer:
Infancy is a hazardous period, both physically and psychologically. Physically, it is hazardous because of the difficulties of making the necessary radical adjustments to the totally new and different environment. The high infant mortality rate is evidence of this. Psychologically, infancy is hazardous because it is the time when the attitudes of significant people toward the infant are crystallized.

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Psychology Unit 1 Objective And Short Answers Questions

Question 9:
Elimination:
Answer:
The infant’s organs of elimination begin to work soon after birth; formerly, waste products were eliminated through the umbilical cord. Every newborn infant finds adjustment to postnatal life difficult at first. Some have trouble adjusting to temperature changes and develop colds, which may turn into pneumonia. Others find breathing difficult and must be given oxygen.

Question 10:
Prematurity:
Answer:
Prematurity causes -more neonatal deaths than any other condition. Prematurely born infants are also especially susceptible to brain damage at birth because the skull is not yet developed enough to protect the brain from pressures experienced during birth. Anoxia is another common problem since the premature baby’s respiratory mechanism is not fully developed.

Short answer questions with answers

Question 1:
Developmental tasks of early childhood.
Answer:
Although the foundations of some of the developmental tasks young children are expected to master before they enter school are laid in toddlerhood, much remains to be learned in the relatively short four-year span of early childhood. When toddlerhood ends, all normal babies have learned to walk, though with varying degrees of proficiency; have learned to take solid foods and have achieved a reasonable degree of physiological stability.

The major task of learning to control the elimination of body wastes has been almost completed and will be fully mastered within another year or two.While most babies have built up a useful vocabulary, have reasonably correct pronunciation of the words they use, can comprehend the meaning of simple statements and commands and can put together several words into meaningful sentences, their ability to communicate with others and to comprehend what others say to them is still on a low level. Much remains to be mastered before they enter school.

Similarly, they have some simple concepts of social and physical realities, but far too few to meet their needs as their social horizons broaden and as their physical environment expands.Few babies know more than the most elementary facts about sex differences and even fewer understand the meaning of sexual modesty. It is questionable whether any babies, as they enter early childhood, actually know what is sex- appropriate in appearance and they have only the most rudimentary understanding of sex-‘ appropriate behavior.

Question 2:
Nutrition.
Answer:
With the transition to early childhood, many children become unpredictable and choosy eaters. This decline in appetite is normal. It occurs because growth has slowed. Furthermore, preschoolers’ wariness of new foods may be adaptive. By sticking to familiar foods, they are less likely to swallow dangerous substances when adults are not around to protect them. Parents need not worry about variations in amount eaten from meal to meal.

Preschoolers compensate for a meal in which they ate little with a later one in which they eat more. Even though they eat less, preschoolers need a high-quality diet.They require the same foods adults do-only smaller amounts. Fats, oils, and salt should be kept to a minimum because of their link to high blood, pressure and heart disease in adulthood. Foods high in sugar should also be avoided. In addition to causing tooth decay, they lessen young children’s appetite for healthy foods and increase their risk of overweight and obesity.

The social environment powerfully influences young children’s food preferences. Children tend to imitate the food choices of people they admire-adults as well as peers. A pleasant mealtime climate also encourages healthy eating. Repeated exposure to a new food (without any direct pressure to eat it) increases children’s acceptance. Sometimes parents bribe their children, saying, “Finish your vegetables and you can have an extra cookie.

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Psychology Unit 1 Objective And Short Answers Questions

Question 3:
Piget Theory.
Answer:
Piaget’s theory has had a major impact on education, especially during early childhood. Three educational principles derived from his theory continue to have a widespread influence on teacher training and classroom practices:

Discovery learning:
In a Piagetian classroom,’ children are encouraged to discover for themselves through spontaneous interaction with the environment. Instead of presenting ready-made knowledge verbally, teachers provide a rich variety of activities designed to promote exploration-art materials, puzzles, table games, dress-up clothing, building blocks, books, measuring tools, musical instruments and more.

Sensitivity to children’s readiness to learn:
A Piagetian classroom does not try to speed up development. Instead, Piaget believed that appropriate learning experiences build on children’s current thinking. Teachers watch and listen to their students, introducing experiences that enable them to practice newly discovered schemes and that are likely to challenge their incorrect ways of viewing the world. But teachers do not impose new skills before children indicate they are interested and ready.

Acceptance of individual differences:
Piaget’s theory assumes that all children go through the same sequence of development but at different rates. Therefore, teachers must plan activities for individual children and small groups rather than just for the whole class. In addition, teachers evaluate educational progress by comparing each child to that child’s own previous development. They are less interested in how children measure up to normative standards or the average performance of same-age peers.

Question 4:
Erikson’s Theory.
Answer:
Erikson described early childhood as a period of “vigorous unfolding.” Once children have a sense of autonomy, they become less contrary than they were as toddlers. Their energies are freed for tackling the psychological conflict of the preschool years: initiative versus guilt. As the word initiative suggests, young children have a new sense | of purposefulness. They are eager to tackle new tasks, join in activities with peers and discover what they can do with the help Of adults. And they also make strides in conscience development.

Erikson regarded play as a central means through which young children find out about themselves and their social world. Play permits preschoolers to-tryout new skills with little risk of criticism and failure. It also creates a small social organization of children who must cooperate to achieve common goals. Around the world, children act out family scenes and highly visible occupations-police officer, doctor and nurse. It is known Erikson’s theory builds on Freud’s psychosexual stages.

In Freud’s well-known Oedipus and Electra v, conflicts, to avoid punishment and maintain the affection of parents, children form a superego, or conscience, by identifying with the same-sex parent. That is, they take the parent’s characteristics into their personality and as a result, adopt the moral and gender role standards of their society. Each time the child disobeys standards of conscience, painful feelings of guilt occur.

Question 5:
Define two characteristics of adolescence.
Answer:
Like every important period during the life span, adolescence has certain characteristics that distinguish it from the periods that preceded it and the periods that will follow it. These characteristics are explained briefly below.

Adolescence is an important period:
As all periods in the life span are important, some are more important than others because of their immediate effects on attitudes and behavior, whereas others are significant because of their long-term effects. Adolescence is one of the periods when, both the immediate effects and long-term effects are important. Some periods are important for their physical and some for their psychological effects.
Adolescence is important for both. Accompanying these rapid and important physical developments, especially during the early adolescent period, rapid mental developments occur. These give rise to the need for mental adjustments and the necessity for establishing new attitudes, values and interests.

Adolescence is a transitional period:
Transition does not mean a break with or a change from what has gone before but rather a passage from one stage of development to another. This means that what has happened before will leave its mark on what happens now and in the future. Children, when they go from childhood to adulthood, must “put away childish things” and they must also learn new patterns of behavior and attitudes to replace those they have abandoned.

Question 6:
What is the Goal of Life span Changes?
Answer:
It is to enable people to adapt to the environment in which they live. To achieve this goal, self-realization, or, as it is sometimes called, ‘Self-actualization,” is essential. However, this goal is never static. It may be considered an urge-the urge to do what one is fitted to do, the urge to become the person, both physically and psychologically, that one wants to be. The way people express this urge depends on the individual’s innate abilities and training, not only during the early, formative years of childhood but also as he or she grows older and comes under greater pressures to conform to social expectations.

Since self-realization plays an important role in mental health, people who make good personal and social adjustments must have opportunities to express their interests and desires in ways that give them satisfaction but, at the same time, conform to accepted standards. Lack of these opportunities will result in frustrations and generally negative attitudes toward people and toward life in general.

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Psychology Unit 1 Objective And Short Answers Questions

Question 7:
Write the aspects that influence attitudes toward Life span changes?
Answer:
Appearance: Developments that improve one’s appearance are welcome and lead to favorable attitudes while those that detract from one’s appearance are resisted and every possible attempt is made to camouflage them.

  1. Behaviour:
    As and when behaviour changes are disconcerting, as during puberty and senescence, they affect attitudes toward the changes unfavorably. The reverse is true when changes are favorable, as occurs, for example, when the helplessness of babyhood gradually gives way to the independence of childhood.
  2. Cultural Stereotypes:
    From mass media, people learn cultural stereotypes associated with different ages and they use these stereotypes to judge people of those ages.
  3. Cultural Values:
    Each culture has certain values associated with different ages. Because maximum productivity is associated with young through early middle-age adulthood, attitudes toward this age group are more favorable than attitudes toward other ages.
  4. Role Changes:
    Attitudes toward people of different ages are greatly influenced by the roles they play. When people change their roles to less favorable ones, as in the case of retirement or widowhood, social attitudes toward them are less sympathetic.
  5. Personal Experiences:
    Personal experiences have a profound effect on an individual’s attitude toward developmental changes. Since the authority and prestige of middle-aged executives decreases as they approach retirement, their attitudes toward aging are, for example, unfavorably affected. These attitudes are intensified by unfavorable social attitudes.

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Political Science Unit 2 Democratic Process in India-I Objective Questions

Odisha State Board CHSE Odisha Class 12 Political Science Solutions Unit 2 Democratic Process in India-I Objective Questions and Answers.

CHSE Odisha 12th Class Political Science Unit 2 Democratic Process in India-I Objective Questions

Multiple Choice Questions With Answers

Question 1.
What are the causes of tension in our federal system?
(a) Centre state relations
(b) Demand for autonomy
(c) Role of governors and president’s rule
(d) Demand for new states
Answer:
(a) Centre state relations

Question 2.
Into how many countries did USSR disintegrate?
(a) 14
(b) 15
(c) 16
(d) 17
Answer:
(b) 17

Question 3.
In which country Treaty of Chaguaramas was signed?
(a) West Indies
(b) Nigeria
(c) Uzbekistan
(d) Pakistan
Answer:
(a) West Indies

Question 4.
When was treaty of Chaguaramas signed?
(a) 1972
(b) 1973
(c) 1974
(d) 1975
Answer:
(b) 1973

Question 5.
When was federation of West Indies came into being?
(a) 1956
(b) 1957
(c) 1958
(d) 1985
Answer:
(c) 1958

Question 6.
When was USSR disintegrated?
(a) 1991
(b) 1989
(c) 1992
(d) 1993
Answer:
(a) 1991

Question 7.
Who settles disputes between center and states?
(a) executive
(b) legislature
(c) judiciary
(d) tribunals
Answer:
(c) judiciary

Question 8.
In which conference Nigerian federal constitution was formed?
(a) Ibadan
(b) Carribean
(c) Zizac
(d) Yoruba
Answer:
(a) Ibadan

Question 9.
When was Ibadan constitutional conference held?
(a) 1951
(b) 1950
(c) 1952
(d) 1953
Answer:
(b)1950

Question 10.
Which is not the ethnic group of Nigeria?
(a) Yoruba
(b) Ikoba
(c) Ibo
(d) Hausa fulani
Answer:
(b) Ikoba

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Political Science Unit 2 Democratic Process in India-1 Objective Questions

Question 11.
When was the democracy restored in Nigeria?
(a) 1998
(b) 1997
(c) 1999
(d) 2000
Answer:
(c) 1999

Question 12.
Which is not the List in our Constitution?
(a) Panchayat List
(b) Union List
(c) Concurrent List
(d) State List
Answer:
(a) Panchayat List

Question 13.
Any matter that is not mentioned in any of the Lists come under which List?
(a) Union List
(b) State List
(c) Concurrent List
(d) Residuary List
Answer:
(d) Residuary List

Question 14.
In which List can both State and Union can legislate?
(a) Union List
(b) State List
(c) Concurrent List
(d) Residuary Powers
Answer:
(c) Concurrent List

Question 15.
In which list does defense comes?
(a) Union List
(b) State List
(c) Concurrent List
(d) Residuary Powers
Answer:
(a) Union List

Question 16.
In which List does local government come?
(a) Union List
(b) State List
(c) Concurrent List
(d) Residuary Powers
Answer:
(b)State List

Question 17.
In which List does atomic energy come?
(a) Union List
(b) State List
(c) Concurrent List
(d) Residuary Powers
Answer:
(a) Union List

Question 18.
In which list does foreign affairs come?
(a) Union List
(b) State List
(c) Concurrent List
(d) Residuary Powers
Answer:
(a) Union List

Question 19.
In which list does war and peacemaking come?
(a) Union List
(b) State List
(c) Concurrent List
(d) Residuary Powers
Answer:
(a) Union List

Question 20.
In which List does Banking come?
(a) Union List
(b) State List
(c) Concurrent List
(d) Residuary Powers
Answer:
(a) Union List

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Political Science Unit 2 Democratic Process in India-1 Objective Questions

Question 21.
In which list does railways come?
(a) Union List
(b) State List
(c) Concurrent List
(d) Residuary Powers
Answer:
(a) Union List

Question 22.
In which list does education come?
(a) Union List
(b) State List
(c) Concurrent List
(d) Residuary
Answer:
(c) Concurrent List

Question 23.
In which list does cyber laws comes?
(a) Union List
(b) State List
(c) Concurrent List
(d) Residuary Powers
Answer:
(d) Residuary Powers

Question 24.
In which list does state public services come?
(a) Union List
(b) State List
(c) Concurrent List
(d) Residuary Powers
Answer:
(b)State List

Question 25.
In which list does police come?
(a) Union List
(b) State List
(c) Concurrent List
(d) Residuary Powers
Answer:
(b) State List

Question 26.
In which list does airways come?
(a) Union List
(b) State List
(c) Concurrent List
(d) Residuary Powers
Answer:
(a) Union List

Question 27.
In which list does currency and coinage come?
(a) Union List
(b) State List
(c) Concurrent List
(d) Residuary Powers
Answer:
(a) Union List

Question 28.
Article which protects officers during martial law?
(a) 33
(b) 35
(c) 36
(d) 37
Answer:
(a) 33

Question 29.
Article which shows that executive power of union is superior than states?
(a) 281
(b) 280
(c) 259
(d) 257
Answer:
(d)257

Question 30.
Which factor does not centralize the federal system?
(a) Financial.resources
(b) Chief Minister
(c) Power for formation of new States
(d) All India Services
Answer:
(b) Chief Minister

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Political Science Unit 2 Democratic Process in India-1 Objective Questions

Question 31.
Article which declares president’s rule in the state?
(a) Article357
(b) Article 355
(c) Article 356
(d) Article 358
Answer:
(c) Article 356

Question 32.
After which period did the imposition of president’s rule increase?
(a) 1967
(b) 1968
(c) 1969
(d) 1970
Answer:
(a) 1967

Question 33.
Which part in Andhra Pradesh has been demanding a separate statehood?
(a) Rayalseema
(b) Vidarbha
(c) Telangana
(d) Marijuana
Answer:
(c) Telangana

Question 34.
When was the states reorganisation committee set up?
(a) 1954
(b) 1955
(c) 1956
(d) 1957
Answer:
(a) 1954

Question 35.
In which year Gujarat and Maharashtra was created?
(a) 1964
(b) 1963
(c) 1962
(d) 1960
Answer:
(d) 1960

Question 36.
In which year Haryana and Punjab was separated?
(a) 1968
(b) 1967
(c) 1966
(d) 1965
Answer:
(c) 1966

Question 37.
The best form of federalism suited for countries like India is:
(a) Centralised federalism
(b) Bargaining federalism
(c) Cooperative federalism
(d) Conflicting federalism
Answer:
(c) Cooperative federalism

Question 38.
The Finance Commission is constituted to recommend criteria for
(a) Framing a finance bill.
(b) Preparing the annual budget of Union Govt.
(c) Distribution offinancial resources between union & the state.
(d) Auditing the receipts & expenditure of the union govt.
Answer:
(c) Distribution of financial resources between union & the state.

Question 39.
Sarkaria Commission Report was officially received by the Govt, in
(a) 1969
(b) 1970
(c) 1976
(d) 1988
Answer:
(d) 1988

Question 40.
Which of the following states has a separate constitution of its own?
(a) Andhra Pradesh
(b) Karanataka
(c) Tamil Nadu
(d) Jammu & Kashmir
Answer:
(d) Jammu & Kashmir

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Political Science Unit 2 Democratic Process in India-1 Objective Questions

Question 41.
The Members of the Finance Commission are appointed by the President & this qualifications are determined by-
(a) President
(b) Parliament
(c) Prime Minister
(d) Speakers of Lok Sabha
Answer:
(b) Parliament

Question 42.
Under which Article, the Governor can reserve the bill for the consideration of the President?
(a) 198
(b) 200
(c) 201
(d) 202
Answer:
(c) 201

Question 43.
Which of the following items has been added in the Union list?
(a) Deployment ofarmed forces of the Union is any state
(b) Fisheries
(c) Tanes on lands and buildings
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Deployment of armed forces of the Union is any state

Question 44.
Which of the following has been added to the Concurrent List?
(a) Social security
(b) Electricity
(c) Protection of wild animals & birds
(d) Social Planning
Answer:
(c) Protection of wild animals & birds

Question 45.
Match List I with List II
A. Union List 1. Forest
B. State List 2. Police
C. Concurrent 3. Banking
Code ABC
(a) 1 2 3
(b) 3 2 1
(c) 1 3 2
(d) 2 3 1
Answer:
(b) 3 2 1

Question 46.
Who describes the Indian Federation as a cooperative federation?
(a) Grandville Austin
(b) Sir Ivor Jennings
(c) K.C. Wheare
(d) Alex and Rowicz
Answer:
(a) Grandville Austin

Consider the following statements.
A. In a federation the powers of the federal and provincial governments are clearly
demarcated.
B. India is a federation because the powers of the Union and State Governments are specified in the Constitution and they have exclusive jurisdiction over their respective subjects.
C. Sri Lanka is a federation because the country is divided into provinces.
D. India is no longer a federation because some powers of the states have been
devolved to the local government bodies.

Question 47.
Which of the statements given above is correct?
(a) A, B and C
(b) A, C and D
(c) A and B only
(d) B and C only
Answer:
(c) A and B only

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Foundations of Education Unit 1 Contribution of Educators Short Answer Questions

Odisha State Board CHSE Odisha Class 12 Foundations of Education Solutions Unit 1 Contribution of Educators Short Answer Questions.

CHSE Odisha 12th Class Foundations of Education Unit 1 Contribution of Educators Short Answer Questions

Very Short-Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Mention the aims of Satyabadi System of Education.
Answer:
Satyabadi system of education aims at:
i) To inclulcate nationalism and patriotism
i) To eradicate social evils.

Question 2.
What two similarities of the Philosophy of Education of Satyabadi System and Basic Education?
Answer:
Basic Education and Satyabadi System of education are similar in respect their objectives and ideals in the sense that both of the system are experiments with the field of education for renaissance and plain living and high thinking was the ideals. Both emphasis on mother tongue as the medium of instruction.

Question 3.
Give three causes of the failure of Basic Education?
Answer:
(i) The Basic Education was a mechanical education and so the concept was
not clear.
(ii) More emphasis on craft education and no creativity.
(iii) English less matriculation courses.

Question 4.
Explain the aims of Gandhian Education?
Answer:
To Gandhi “Education means an all round drawing out of the best in child and man with body, mind and spirit which means the all round development for the innate powers of the child, moral and character building aim, the knowledge of truth in life.

Question 5.
What is about ‘Wardha Scheme’?
Answer:
In 1937, All India National Education Conference was convened at Wardha on 22nd and 23rd October under the Chairmanship of Gandhi. A scheme called the Basic Education Scheme was drawn up which named as Wardha Scheme. Jakir Hussain, Committee prepared a curriculum for Basic Education. Such scheme of education is known as “Nai- Talim”.

Question 6:
Give the elements of Rousseau’s negative Education?
Answer:
(i) Nothing against the interest of the child be taught.
(ii) Education should be based on natural tendencies.
(iii) Child should be protected from outside environment.
(iv) Emphasis on sense training and nature endowment.

Question 7:
Explain any three reasons for the defunctioning of Gopabandhu’s scheme of Vana Vidyalaya?
Answer:
The main reason for the defunctioning of Gopabandhu’s scheme of Vana Vidyalaya are:

  • Satyabadi School was a classless society education which was strongly opposed by conservatives.
  • There was a lack of finance and no govt, grant was received.
  • Gopbandhu invested all time and energy in the freedom movement and school was neglected.
  • After Gopabandhu’s death the next generation failed to manage the school.

Question 8:
Give three main features of Basic Education?
Answer:

  • Education should be free, compulsory up to the age of 14 years.
  • Mother tongue should be the medium of instruction up to matriculation.
  • Education should be craft centred.
  • 2/3 of the time was invested in craft work and other aspects of education were neglected.

Question 9:
Give the methods of teaching of Rousseau’s Education?
Answer:

  • Activity and play way method to be follower with learning by doing.
  • Learning through natural objects.
  • Learning by self experiences.

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Foundations of Education Unit 1 Contribution of Educators Short Answer Questions

Question 10:
Explain: Rousseau’s curriculum?
Answer:
The child should be educated through activities. Provision of providing physical education through gymnastics and exercises, training of senses, intellect is to be trained through teaching good physical senses, language, mathematics, manual work, music and drawing. To develop morality the adults to be given moral and religious education.

Question 11:
What is ‘Self Education’ to Rousseau?
Answer:
By self education to Rousseau means –

  • Opposition ideals and morals into the mind of the child from outside.
  • Through physical exercises and self study is to be practised.
  • Special emphasis on physical development of the child.

Question 12:
12. Give the subjects of curriculum in Basic Education.
Answer:
The curriculum of Basic Education laid much stress on the subjects like the craft, the mother tongue as the medium of instruction, mathematics, social sences, music and drawing. The medium of education was mother tongue for self-expression clarity of thought and develop nationalism patriotism.

Short-Answer Type Questions

Question 1:
Explain the main features of Basic Education?
Answer:
The main measures of Basic Education are as follows:

  • Education should be free and compulsory upto the age of 14.
  • Education should be craft centred with crafts like spinning, weaving, tailoring, woodwork and earthen pot building etc.
  • Education should aim at developing moral values and character building.
  • Mother tongue should be the medium of instruction.
  • Labour centred education and self supporting education should be emphasized.
  • It should aimed at ideal citizenship.
  • Education should be child centred based on non-violence.

Question 2:
Why is Basic Education called Basic?
Answer:
Basic Education called so because of the following:

  •  It attempts to give minimum of learning to be acquired by an average child.
  • It is linked with the Basic urges of human life.
  • It is corelated with the basic needs of the child like food, clothing, shelter, clean and healthy living etc.
  • The cultivation of aesthetic, cultural and social qualities are best fulfilled through the medium.
  • It makes use of the native potentialities of the child.
  • It is intimately related to the basic occupation of the community.

Question 3:
Mention the five reasons for the failure of Basic Education Scheme.
Answer:
The causes of Basic Education Scheme are as follows:

  • The unclear concept – As it was a mechanical education the people were not clear up the new concept of the scheme of education.
  • Emphasis on idealistic approach was not accepted by the British and intellectuals. The educated people do not appreciate their children could do any manual labour. So they sent their children to English Medium Schools.
  • The scheme of education put emphasis on economic aspect craft centred education, learning by doing which was strongly opposed.
  • The Basic Schools opened in rural areas but not in town areas. The compact area approach helped in the failure.
  • There was no text books and craft training was emphasized.
  • Lack of qualified trained and skilled teachers the scheme failed to continue.
  • The equipments were costly. There was no funds to buy such equipments.
  • English was matriculation courses was opposed by the people.

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Foundations of Education Unit 1 Contribution of Educators Short Answer Questions

Question 4:
Briefly explain the Satyabadi System of Education.
Answer:
Gopabandhu developed a new system of education which was named as Satyabadi System of Education or Open Air Schooling. He set up it at Sakhigopal in Puri district in 1909 with 19 students at first enrolment. The school was called Van Vidyalaya, in a dense grove of Chhuriana. It was a residential school grew in ancient Gurukula System. The students shared a common life, simple living and high thinking. It was a class less society education system where different communities and economic sections were admitted. The school hostel was having common dinner system Students fee were not collected. Ideal teachers were working as dedicated teachers. Besides the class room teaching the students were assigned to moral instructions, practices of good health and community senses.

Question 5:
Write down the educational philosophy of Sri Aurovindo.
Answer:
The educational philosophy of Sri Aurobindo known as Kamayogin. The aim of education is to help the growing soul to drew out that in itself. Every new bom infant has some divine powers and education is the manifestation of such divine powers.
Sri Aurobindo recommended botany, astronomy, geology, technology, zoology and all other branches of humanities as curriculum He was in favour of moral and spiritual education. The method of teaching was the sensory training of sense organs as the gateway of knowledge. In such a learning centre the teacher is just like friend, guide and helper on the teaching learning process. The first duty ofthe teacher is to develop in the child the right use of the. six senses. The teacher is not an instructor taskmaster. He can train the pupil’s mind.

Question 6:
What do you mean by Basic Education? What are the merits?
Answer:
Basic Education as conceived and explained by Mahatma Gandhi is essential for life and an education through life. It aims at creating a social order free from exploitation and violence. That is why productive, creative, and socially useful work in which all boys and girls may participate, irrespective of any distinction of caste, creed or class is placed at the very centre of basic education. It makes a powerful contribution to the development of personality and character and instils respect and love for all socially useful work.
The merits of basic education may be viewed as follows:

  • Basic education was in favour of free and compulsory education.
  • The medium of instruction of this scheme is mother tongue.
  • It is a child centred programme.
  • The children can develop the feeling of national integration.
  • The scheme has intimate relationship with practical situation to fulfil the basic needs and self employment.
  • The scheme is productivity and labour centred followed the principles of learning by doing.

Question 7:
Explain the Hostel Life in Satyabadi School System.
Answer:
The life of Satyabadi School hostel begins with a prayer Assembly for making the pupils spiritual. In this school the pupils remain busy from morning till they go to their bed. The timetable is fixed and continues like the study hour dining time and the school provides the games and sports discussion hour and other co-curricular activities. During the leisure period a lesson of Brahmacharya was given to them. The boarders in the hostel learn many things, many human qualities through the programmes like debate, music evening indoor games, paper reading and cultural programmes etc. The hostel life is compared to the ancient Gurukul Ashram life.

Question 8:
Explain the Satyabadi System of Education. What was Gandhiji’s views on work education?
Answer:
Gopabandhu developed a new system of education which was so named as Grove School. The school was called Vana Vidyalaya which was locate in a dense grove of Chhurianas. Vana Vidyalaya was developed as a residential school in which the students had shared common life. Simple living and high thinking was the ideal which all of them followed. It was a class less society education system. Students of different castes, communities and economic sections were admitted here and all of them lived together in school hostel and look their food with common men. As a secondary school, besides classroom teaching students were assigned to moral instructions, practices for good health.

According to Gandhiji’s work education, implies that work or craft should be the starting point of all other subjects. Stress was given on the principle of cooperative activity, planning, accuracy, initiative and individual responsibility in learning work was the centre of the entire teaching learning process. In other words, works life spinning, weaving and agriculture should be centres round of all educational activities in the school.

Question 9:
Explain Rousseau’s principles of education.
Answer:
Rousseau followed a new principles in his education which are as follows:
(i) Learning by doing.
(ii) Learning through natural objects.
(iii) Learning by self experiences.
(iv) In learning by doing activity and play way method is adopted. The child should be allowed to play and explore the environment.
(v) The child should be given knowledge through natural objects rather than books.
(vi) He advocated complete freedom, left free to the environment the self-discipline is learnt in the process of experiences.

Question 10:
Explain Rousseau’s Negative Education.
Answer:
Jean Jacques Rousseau proposed Negative Education. By this education he means not teaching truths or virtues to a child but shielding his heart from evils and mind from errors. The feature of his Negative Education are:
(i) Nothing against the interest of the child to be taught.
(ii) The education of a child should be based on his natural tendencies and nature of endowments.
(iii) Nature is the source of all. The child should be given full freedom and he should learn everything from nature. He should read the pages of nature one by one.
(iv) The child should not taught from books.
(v) Emphasis will be given on training of senses.
The child will derive pleasure by using his sense organs and by applying his strength. So the aim of education is to develop his various powers by helping him in his natural activities.

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Foundations of Education Unit 1 Contribution of Educators Short Answer Questions

Question 11:
What is Rousseau’s Self Education? Explain.
Answer:
Rousseau emphasizes self education. The tenants of self-education are:

  • He opposes strongly to the imposition of ideals and morals into the mind of child from outside. Children should learn those things through activities. It is because the children are more interested in activities rather than sitting idle and hearing lecture. At this stage, helps enough power of to assimilate between construction and destruction It is only concern is to boring about charge will from through any acitivity.
  • Body can become strong through physical exercises and mind also becomes strong through self study. In self education the child can proceed further according to his own physical and mutual capacities.
  • Only that knowledge gets retained for a longer period of time which is leamt from self experiences we should accept the experiences of others only after using our own wisdom.
  • Blind fellowship is not accepted at all. A child should not learn a thing because he has been asked to do so but he should not leam only it in the process of his self study.
  • Special emphasis is to be given on physical development of the child.

Question 12:
Explain the Curriculum of Rousseau’s Education.
Answer:
Rousseau was against the fixed curriculum. The child should be educated through activities and first-hand experiences. During infancy positive instructions to be imparted with good health training of senses and cultivation of natural habits.
At the stage of childhood provision of imparting physical education through a set of gymnastics and the exercise training of senses.
At the stage of boyhood the child’s intellect is to be trained through teaching of good physical sciences, languages, mathematics, manual works, social relations, music and drawing.

At the adolescence morality of the individual is to be trained through moral and religious education. Moral education is to be imparted though activity method and occupation. Moral education subjects are: history, religions, physical culture, and sek education etc. are included in the curriculum at Adolescence stage.

Question 13:
Discuss the main features of Groove School?
Answer:
The main basic principles in which the groove school grew up includes:

Open Air Schooling without school building, and required furniture.

  • Free education in which the child should be free to give school fee. Full freedom is to be given.
  • Ideal teachers with ideal methods of teaching.
  • All round development of personality by providing social virtues of good citizenships.
  • Teaching craft skills.
  • New method of teaching.
  • Community dinner and cultural programme.
  • Emphasis on co-curricular activities.
  • Importance on mother tongue.

Question 14:
Explain curriculum of Basic Education.
Answer:
Gandhiji criticised the existing system curriculum of the country, which is outdated, bookish and not related to life of the individual and needs and problems of the country. He recommended a good scheme of curriculum of the curricular programme for the all-round development of individual.
1) Mother tongue will be the medium of instruction.
2) Craft is the centre of education. Importance should be given to agricultures, gardening, carpentry, weaving and spinning.
3) Education as per the need of the child and the society and the country.
4) Mathematics to solve day today problems.
5) Social studies i. .e. History, Geography, Civics, Economics, Political Science and General Science including Astronomic.
6) Co-curricular activities like art, music, drawing for developing creative talent.
7) Domestic Science for girls to lead a good domestic life.

Question 15:
Explain John Dewey’s Curriculum.
Answer:
Curriculum according to John Dewey should reflect the child’s social life and social activities. It should be flexible, and changeable and it should take into consideration the child’s interests and experiments. As for example, the curriculum in primary stages should be based in conservation and communication, interests in inquiry, interests in making things or construction and interest in artistic expression. Subjects like writing, counting, hand work and drawing etc. are to be included at this stage.

The curriculum at the higher stage of education must have provision for the enrichment of past experiences. It must stimulate the learner to acquire new experiences and new ideas to the learned one’s. John Dewey has put emphasis on correlation in by curriculum which means each subject looked with each other and each should also be related to the day-to-day life of the child.

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Foundations of Education Unit 1 Contribution of Educators Short Answer Questions

Question 16:
Explain – Rousseau and aims of Education.
Answer:
Education should aim at the development of the child’s innate power and abilities. Education should make the child a man, education should enable the child to live his life. Rousseau has suggested that each stage of education has contain specific aims. The infancy period is a period of habit formation the child should be educated in an atmosphere of freedom. The infant is to be trained to have control over emotions. At this stage education should aim at the physical growth of the infant.

Education during boyhood (12 to 15 years of age) should aim at training the intellect of boy. At this stage, stress is to be laid on the acquisition of knowledge that comes from nature and is related to the natural desires of the individual. Education during later adolescence period, should aim at training the heart of the individual At this stage stress should be laid on the development of the morality of the individual

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Foundations of Education Unit 2 Learning and Motivation Short Answer Questions

Odisha State Board CHSE Odisha Class 12 Foundations of Education Solutions Unit 2 Learning and Motivation Short Answer Questions.

CHSE Odisha 12th Class Foundations of Education Unit 2 Learning and Motivation Short Answer Questions

Very Short Type Questions With Answers

Question 1:
Give two factors that affect learning.
Answer:
The factors that affect learning are :
a) Physiological factors – physical health, physical comfort, physical maturation.
b) Psychological factors – mental health, motivation and interest etc.

Question 2:
What is intrinsic motivation?
Answer:
The type of motivation that is directly linked with the natural instincts urges and impulses of the organism is intrinsic motivation. The individual who is naturally motivated performs an act. Examples are – food, test, sleep etc.

Question 3:
What is extrinsic motivation?
Answer:
In extrinsic motivation, the source of motivation is outside like external reward, praise, prizes or blame and punishment. When the child is externally motivated to perform a work by incentives.

Question 4:
Give the classification of motivation.
Answer:
Motivations are classified into – physiological and psychological motivation. Physiological motivations are primary motivation and psychological motivations are the strong habits, emotions, values of objects, peace, happiness, recognition and power etc. Physiological motivations are primary motivation such as hunger, thirst, rest and sex. But psychological motivations are secondary motivations such as prizes, rewards, certificates, praises etc.

Question 5:
What is the environmental factors that affect learning?
Answer:
The environmental factors like atmosphere, such as light, temperature, humidity and ventilation, noise, overcrowding, uncomfortable sitting arrangement etc.

Question 6:
What are the two factors that affect learning?
Answer:
Physical and psychological factors always affect learning.
The physiological factors include physical health, nutrition, age, physical comfort, defects in senses, organs, and mal-functioning of glands that directly influence learning. Psychological factors like mental health, motivation interest, attention etc. influence learning.

Question 7:
Give the two classroom application of the law of exercise.
Answer:

  • Oral exercise leads to learning.
  • Handwriting, pronunciation, and mathematical computation can be improved through the law of exercise.
  • Skills like music, typing etc. can be improved through the law of practice.

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Foundations of Education Unit 2 Learning and Motivation Short Answer Questions

Question 8:
Give two educational implications of the law of conditioning.
Answer:

  • By the application of classical conditioning we can develop good habits like punctuality and cleanliness.
  • We can train animals by the principle of classical conditioning.
  • A child can develop a higher attitude towards a teacher or a thing.
  • Emotional fear can be reduced.

Question 9:
What is methodology of instruction that affects learning?
Answer:
Learning can be facilitated by proper organisation and presentation of learning material learning by doing or experience and timely testing etc. affect learning.

Question 10:
What is law of effect?
Answer
The law of effect is the sub-law of the Trial and Error theory of learning. It means the effective result of an activity. The activity ends in pleasure and leads to success and is repeated. The law emphasizes the reward praises, prizes and punishments in the process of learning. Secondly, punishment may promote learning or creates an indifference attitude toward learning.

Question 11:
Give the nature of learning.
Answer:
The nature of learning includes:

  • Learning affects the style of learning.
  • It modifies one’s behaviour, helps in reaching the goal.
  • It creates, and arouses, interest to know new things.
  • Learning experiences bring a difference in activities, because of learning to animals like tiger and monkey show tricks.
  • Learning creates individual differences.

Question 12:
Define learning.
Answer:
Learning is the acquisition of knowledge, to Gates Teaming is the modification of behaviour with experience and training. A man or animal has some experiences because the environment puts some sensory information into one of its senses. The result guides him in his behaviour. It modifies this behaviour in light of his past experiences and responds correctly of the environment. So learning modifies one’s behaviour.

Short Type Questions With Answers

Question 1:
Write the educational implication of the law of Readiness.
Answer:
The educational implication of the law of readiness are as follows :
i) Teaching methods are to be improved to meet the requirement of the pupils to the varying degree of readiness.
ii) The law enables the teacher to build up readiness to these pupils who are not disciplined in classroom learning situations.

Question 2:
Write the educational implication of the law of effect.
Answer:
The law of effect has the following educational implications:

  • Classroom instructions should be pleasant and satisfactory which will enable the children to read more.
  • The classroom activities are to be arranged properly so that the pupils may develop confidence in learning.
  • Classroom learning provides novelty.
  • The school activities should be arranged orderly so that the children will progress in life.
  • Pleasure and encouragement to be provided so that they would develop a positive attitude towards learning.

Question 3:
What is conditioning learning ? Give its educational implications.
Answer:
Evan Pavlov was the exponent of classical conditioning. For natural stimulus, there is a natural response. For example, food is a natural stimulus and fear is the natural response. But it has been found that, if another artificial stimulus is presented along with the natural stimulus a number of times artificial stimulus can elicit the natural response. So natural response is transferred to the artificial stimulus. When this is done the organism is said to be conditioned. So conditioning is the linking between the original response with a secondary stimulus.
Educational implications: Development of good habits removal of superstitions, love and hatred and attitude formation etc. Emotional fears of mental patients can be treated by the help of conditioning.

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Foundations of Education Unit 2 Learning and Motivation Short Answer Questions

Question 4:
Write down the educational implication of the learning by insight.
Answer:
The educational implication of learning by insight is as follows:

  •  Proceeding from whole to part – We must always proceed from the whole to part, so as to give a complete insight into an object. While teaching geography, begin from the globe and then come to the country, state and then district.In science teaching, the teaching flower, the teacher should start with the whole flower, then the parts of the flower.
  • Creating motivation – In Kohler’s experiment, enough motivation was created by keeping the chimpanzee hungry. So the teacher should arouse motivation among the pupils by using aids while teaching.
  • Emphasis on understanding – Learning by insight involves understanding a situation and saves time and energy.

Question 5:
Mention the factors that influence learning.
Answer:
There are a number of factors that influence learning as follows:
i) Physiological factors – Physical health, nutrition, age, physical comforts, defects in sense organs like eye and ear, and malfunctioning of glands, directly influence the learning of individuals.
ii) Psychological factors – Mental health, motivation, interest, attention, motives and drives etc. influence learning in varying degrees.
iii) Environmental factors include a conducive atmosphere, high temperature, over-crowding, location of the school, crowdy area, sanitary conditions etc. affect learning.
iv) Methods of instruction – Learning can be facilitated by proper organisation and presentation of learning materials, learning by doing etc.

Question 6:
Give the educational implication of classical conditioning.
Answer:
The educational effects of classical conditioning are:

  •  Removal of superstitions.
  •  Development of good habits.
  •  Love and hatred.
  •  Attitude formation.
  •  Language learning.
  •  Rewards and punishments.
  •  Praises and blames.

Question 7:
What is learning by insight?
Answer:
The theory of insight was developed by Gestalt. Psychologist Kohler, KofFaka, Weirthomer and Lewin. This theory is in opposition to the Trial and Error and conditioning theory of learning. Gestalt psychologists believed that Gestalt or the whole is more important than the parts. Learning takes place as a whole, not by parts. This is perceptual learning because the teacher perceives the situation as a whole.

German psychologist Kohler conducted a number of experiments on monkeys and came to the conclusion that learning takes place through insight but no by Trial and Error. Insight is a sudden perception which gives learning.

CHSE Odisha Class 12 Foundations of Education Unit 2 Learning and Motivation Short Answer Questions

Question 8:
Explain the nature of learning.
Answer:
The nature of learning includes:

  • Learning is a continuous process.
  • Learning affects the modes of behaviour,
  • Learning is a change in behaviour.
  • Learning is a process, not a product.
  • Learning is purposive.
  • Learning is transferable.
  • Learning creative.
  • Learning is an adjustment to changing situations.
  • Learning is training.

Question 9:
Mention factors that influence learning.
Answer:
The factors that affect and influence learning are as follows:
1) Physiological factors – Physical health, nutrition, age, physical comforts, defects in sense organs, like eyes and ears, malfunctioning of glands that directly influence the learning of the individuals.
2) Psychological factors – Mental health, nutrition, motivation, interest, attention, motives and drives, etc. influence learning in varying degrees.
3) Methods of instruction – Learning can be facilitated by proper organisation and presentation of learning materials, learning by doing, etc.
4) Environmental factors – Learning is also affected by environmental factors like hot, humidity, and unsanitary conditions. Industrially polluted areas and crowdy places. Lack of fresh air, ventilation, good light, and noise learning is greatly affected.