Class 11

Odisha State Board Elements of Mathematics Class 11 CHSE Odisha Solutions Chapter 4 Trigonometric Functions Ex 4(b) Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

CHSE Odisha Class 11 Math Solutions Chapter 4 Trigonometric Functions Exercise 4(b)

Question 1.
In the following questions, write ‘T’ for true and ‘F’ for false statements.
(i) If tan x + tan y = 5 and tan x, tan y = 1/2  then cot (x + y) = 10
Solution:
False

(ii) √3 (1 + tan 15°) = 1 – tan 15°
Solution:
False

(iii) If θ lies in 3rd quadrant, then cos \(\frac{\theta}{2}\) + sin \(\frac{\theta}{2}\) is positive.
Solution:
True

(iv) 2 sin 105°. sin 15° = 1/2.
Solution:
True

(v) If cos A = cos B = 1 then tan\(\frac{A+B}{2}\). tan\(\frac{A+B}{2}\) = 1
Solution:
False

(vi) cos 15° cos\(7 \frac{1}{2}^{\circ}\). sin \(7 \frac{1}{2}^{\circ}\) = 1
Solution:
False

(vii) sin 20° (3 – 4 cos² 70°) = \(\frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}\)
Solution:
True

(viii) √3 (3 tan 10° – tan³ 10°) = 1 – 3tan² 10°
Solution:
True

(ix) \(\frac{2 \tan 7 \frac{1^{\circ}}{2}\left(1-\tan ^2 7 \frac{1^{\circ}}{2}\right)}{\left(1+\tan ^2 7 \frac{1^{\circ}}{2}\right)^2}\) = 1
Solution:
False

(x) The minimum value of sin θ. cos θ is (-1)².
Solution:
False

Question 2.
In the following questions, fill in the gaps with correct answers choice from the brackets.
(i) If α and β lie in 1st and 2nd quadrants respectively, and if sin α = 1/2, sin β = 1/3, then sin (α + β) = _______. \(\left(\frac{1}{2 \sqrt{3}}+\frac{\sqrt{2}}{3}, \frac{1}{2 \sqrt{3}}-\frac{\sqrt{2}}{3}, \frac{-1}{2 \sqrt{3}}+\frac{\sqrt{2}}{3}\right)\)
Solution:
\(\frac{1}{2 \sqrt{3}}+\frac{\sqrt{2}}{3}\)

(ii) if tan α = 1/2, tan β = 1/3, then α + β = ______      \(\left(\frac{\pi}{2}, \frac{\pi}{4}, \frac{\pi}{3}\right)\)
Solution:
\(\frac{\pi}{4}\)

(iii) The value of \(\frac{\cos 15^{\circ}+\sin 15^{\circ}}{\cos 15^{\circ}-\sin 15^{\circ}}\) = ______ \(\left(\frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}, \sqrt{3}, \frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}\right)\)
Solution:
√3

(iv) if \(\frac{1+\sin A}{\cos A}\) = √2 + 1, then the value of \(\frac{1-\sin A}{\cos A}\) is_________, \(\left(\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}-1}, \sqrt{2}-1, \sqrt{2}+1\right)\)
Solution:
√2 – 1

(v) sin 105°. cos 105° = \(\left(\frac{1}{2},-\frac{1}{4},-\frac{1}{2}\right)\)
Solution:
– 1/4

(vi) 2 sin\(67 \frac{1}{2}^{\circ}\) cos\(22 \frac{1}{2}^{\circ}\) = ___ \(\left(1-\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}, 1+\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}},-1+\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\right)\)
Solution:
1 + \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\)

(vii) sin 35° + cos 5° =____ (2 cos 25°, √3 cos 25°, √3 sin 25°)
Solution:
√3 cos 25°

(viii) sin² 24° – sin² 26° =_____ \(\left(\frac{\sqrt{5}+1}{8}, \frac{\sqrt{5}-1}{8}, \frac{\sqrt{5}-1}{4}\right)\)
Solution:
\(\frac{\sqrt{5}-1}{8}\)

(ix) sin 70° (4 cos² 20° – 3) =_____ \(\left(\frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}, \frac{1}{2}, \sqrt{3}\right)\)
Solution:
1/2

(x) cos 3θ + sin 3θ is maximum if θ =_____ (60°, 15°, 45°)
Solution:
15°

(xi) sin 15° – cos 15° = _____ (1/2, 0, positive, negative)
Solution:
Negative

(xii) If θ lies in the third quadrant and tan θ = 2, then the value of sin θ is ____. \(\left(\frac{1}{\sqrt{5}},-\frac{1}{\sqrt{5}}, \frac{2}{\sqrt{5}}, \frac{-2}{\sqrt{5}}\right)\)
Solution:
\(\frac{-2}{\sqrt{5}}\)

(xiii) The correct expression is. (sin 1° > sin 1, sin 1° < sin 1, sin 1° = sin 1, sin 1° = \(\frac{\pi}{180^{\circ}}\) sin 1)
Solution:
sin 1° < sin 1

(xiv) The correct expression is —. (tan 1 > tan 2, tan 1 < tan 2, tan 1 =  1/2 tan 2, tan 1 < 0)
Solution:
tan 1 > tan 2

Question 3.
Prove the following
(i) sin A. sin (B – C) + sin B sin (C – A) + sin C. sin(A – B) = 0
Solution:
L. H. S
= sin A sin (B – C) + sin B sin (C – A) + sin C sin (A – B)
= sin A (sin B cos C – cos B sin C) + sin B (sin C cos A – cos C sin A) + sin C (sin A cos B – cos A sin B)
= sin A sin B cos C – sin A cos B sin C + cos A sin B sin C – sin A sin B cos C + sin A cos B sin C – cos A sin B sin C
= 0 = R. H. S

(ii) cos A. sin (B – C) + sin B sin (C – A) + cos C. sin(A – B) = 0
Solution:
L.H.S.
= cos A sin (B – C) + cos B sin (C – A) + cos C sin (A – B)
= cos A (sin B cos C – cos B sin C) + cos B (sin C cos A – cos C sin A) + cos C (sin A cos B – cos A sin B)
= cos A sin B cos C – cos A cos B sin C + cos A cos B sin C- sin A cos B cos C + sin A cos B cos C – cos A sin B cos C = 0 = R. H. S.

(iii) \(\frac{\sin (B-C)}{\sin B \cdot \sin C}\) + \(\frac{\sin (C-A)}{\sin C \cdot \sin A}\) + \(\frac{\sin (A-B)}{\sin A \cdot \sin B}\) = 0
Solution:
L. H. S.

(iv) tan² A – tan² B = \(\frac{\sin (\mathbf{A}+\mathbf{B}) \cdot \sin (\mathbf{A}-\mathbf{B})}{\cos ^2 \mathbf{A} \cdot \cos ^2 \mathbf{B}}\)
Solution:

= tan² A sec² B – tan² B sec² A
= tan² A (1 + tan² B) – tan² B (1 + tan² A)
= tan² A + tan² A tan² B – tan² B tan²A tan² B
= tan² A – tan² B = L. H. S

Question 4.
Prove the following :
Solution:
(i) tan 75° + cot 75° = 4
Solution:
L.H.S = tan 75° + cot 75° = tan 75° + \(\frac{1}{\tan 75^{\circ}}\)

(ii) sin² 18° + cos² 36° = 3/4
Solution:

(iii) sin 18°. cos 36° = 1/4
Solution:
sin 18° cos 36°
\(=\left(\frac{\sqrt{5}-1}{4}\right)\left(\frac{\sqrt{5}+1}{4}\right)=\frac{5-1}{16}=\frac{1}{4}\)

(iv) sin 15° = \(\frac{\sqrt{3}-1}{2 \sqrt{2}}\)
Solution:
sin 15° = sin (45° – 30°)
= sin 45° cos 30° – cos 45° sin 30°
\(=\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}} \cdot \frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}-\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}} \cdot \frac{1}{2}=\frac{\sqrt{3}-1}{2 \sqrt{2}}\)

(v) cot \(\frac{\pi}{8}\) – tan \(\frac{\pi}{8}\) = 2
Solution:

(vi) \(\frac{\cos 9^{\circ}+\sin 9^{\circ}}{\cos 9^{\circ}-\sin 9^{\circ}}\) = tan 54°
Solution:

(vii) tan 10° + tan 35° + tan 10°. tan 35 = 1
Solution:

Question 5.
Prove the following:
(i) cot 2A = \(\frac{\cot ^2 A-1}{2 \cot A}\)
Solution:

(ii) \(\frac{\sin B}{\sin A}=\frac{\sin (2 A+B)}{\sin A}\) – 2cos(A + B)
Solution:

= \(\frac{\sin B}{\sin A}\) = L.H.S

(iii) \(\frac{\sin 2 A+\sin 2 B}{\sin 2 A-\sin 2 B}=\frac{\tan (A+B)}{\tan (A-B)}\)
Solution:

(iv) \(\frac{\cot A-\tan A}{\cot A+\tan A}\) = cos2A
Solution:

(v) \(\frac{\sin 2 A+\sin 5 A-\sin A}{\cos 2 A+\cos 5 A+\cos A}\) = tan 2A
Solution:

(vi) cot A – tan A = 2 cot 2A
Solution:

(vii) cot A – cosec 2A = cot 2A
Solution:

(viii) \(\frac{\cos A-\sin A}{\cos A+\sin A}\) = sec 2A – tan 2A
Solution:

(ix) tan θ (1 + sec 2θ) = tan 2θ
Solution:

(x) \(\frac{\sin A+\sin B}{\sin A-\sin B}\) = tan \(\frac{A+B}{2}\) . cot \(\frac{A-B}{2}\)
Solution:

(xi) sin 50° –  sin 70° + sin 10° = 0
Solution:
L. H. S. = sin 50° – sin 70° + sin 10°
= sin (60° – 10°) – sin (60° + 10°) + sin 10°
= – 2 cos 60° sin 10° + sin 10°
= – 2 × 1/2 sin 10° + sin 10°
= – sin 10° + sin 10° = 0 = R. H. S.

(xii) cos 80° + cos 40° – cos 20° = 0
Solution:
L. H. S. = cos 80° + cos 40° – cos 20°
= cos(60° + 20°) + cos (60° – 20°) – cos 20°
= 2 cos 60° cos 20° – cos 20° = 0

(xiii) 8 sin 10°. sin 50°. sin 70° = 1
Solution:
L. H. S. = 8 sin 10° sin 50° sin 70°
= 8 sin 10° sin (60° – 10°) sin (60° + 10°)
= 8 sin 10° (sin² 60° – sin² 10°)
= 8 sin 10°(3/4 – sin² 10°)
= 6 sin 10° – 8 sin³ 10°)
= 2 (3 sin 10° – 4 sin³ 10°)
= 2 sin (3 × 10°)
= 2 sin 30° = 2 × 1/2 = 1 = R.H.S

(xiv) 4 sin A sin (60° – A) sin (60° + A) – sin 3A = 0
Solution:
L. H. S. = 4 sin A sin (60° – A)
sin (60° + A) – sin 3A
= 4 sin A (sin² 60°- sin² A) – sin 3A
= 4 sin A. 3/4 – 4 sin³ A – sin 3A
= (3 sin A – 4 sin³A) – sin 3A
= sin 3A – sin 3A = 0

(xv) tan 3A – tan 2A – tan A = tan 3A tan 2A tan A
Solution:
We have tan 3A = tan (2A + A)
or, tan 3A = \(\frac{\tan 2 A+\tan A}{1-\tan 2 A \tan A}\)
or, tan 3A (1 – tan 2A tan A) = tan 2A + tan A
or, tan 3A – tan 3A tan 2A tan A = tan 2A + tan A
or, tan 3A – tan 2A – tan A = tan 3A tan 2A tan A (Proved)

Question 6.
Prove the following
(i) tan\(\frac{A}{2}\) = \(\sqrt{\frac{1-\cos A}{1+\cos A}}\)
Solution:

(ii) \(\sqrt{\frac{1+\sin A}{1-\sin A}}\) = tan\(\left(\frac{\pi}{4}+\frac{A}{2}\right)\)
Solution:

(iii) \(\frac{1+\tan \frac{A}{2}}{1-\tan \frac{A}{2}}\) = sec A + tan A
Solution:

(iv) sec θ + tan θ = tan\(\left(\frac{\pi}{4}+\frac{θ}{2}\right)\)
Solution:

(v) cot\(\frac{A}{2}\) = \(\frac{\sin A}{1-\cos A}\)
Solution:
R.H.S = \(\frac{\sin A}{1-\cos A}=\frac{2 \sin \frac{A}{2} \cos \frac{A}{2}}{2 \sin ^2 \frac{A}{2}}\)
= cot\(\frac{A}{2}\) R.H.S

Question 7.
Find the maximum value of the following.
(i) 5 sin x + 12 cos x
Solution:
5 sin x + 12 cos x
Let 5 = r cos θ, 12 = r sin θ 52
∴ 5² = r² cos² θ, 12² = r² sin² θ
∴ 5² + 12² = r² (cos² θ + sin² θ) = r²
∴ r = \(\sqrt{25+144}\) = 13
∴ The maximum value of 5 sin x + 12 cos x is 13.

(ii) 24 sin x – 7 cos x
Solution:
The maximum value of 24 sin x – 7 cos x is
\(\sqrt{(24)^2+(-7)^2}\)
= \(\sqrt{576+49}=\sqrt{625}\) = 25

(iii) 2 + 3 sin x + 4 cos x
Solution:
The maximum value of 3 sin x + 4 cos x is
\(\sqrt{3^2+4^2}\) = 5
∴ Maximum value of 2 + 3 sin x + 4 cos x is 2 + 5 = 7

(iv) 8 cos x – 15 sin x – 2
Solution:
Maximum value of 8 cos x- 15 sin x is \(\sqrt{(8)^2+(-15)^2}\)
= \(\sqrt{64+225}=\sqrt{289}\) = 17
∴ Maximum value of 8 cos x- 15 sin x – 2 is 17 – 2 = 15

Question 8.
Answer the following:
(i) If tan A = \(\frac{13}{27}\), tan B = \(\frac{7}{20}\) and A, B are acute, show that A + B = 45°.
Solution:

(ii) If tan θ = \(\frac{b}{a}\), find the value of a cos 2θ + b sin 2θ.
Solution:

(iii) If sec A – tan A = \(\frac{1}{2}\) and 0< A < 90° then show that sec A = \(\frac{5}{4}\)
Solution:
If sec A – tan A = \(\frac{1}{2}\),       ….(1)
0< A < 90°
⇒ sec A – tan A = \(\frac{\sec ^2 A-\tan ^2 A}{2}\)
= \(\frac{(\sec \mathrm{A}+\tan \mathrm{A})(\sec \mathrm{A}-\tan \mathrm{A})}{2}\)
or, sec A + tan A = 2    ……(2)
Now adding eqn. (1) and (2), We have
2 sec A = \(\frac{1}{2}\) + 2 = \(\frac{5}{2}\)
or, sec A = \(\frac{5}{4}\)

(iv) If sin θ + sin Φ = a and cos θ + cos Φ = b the show that tan \(\frac{1}{2}\) (θ + Φ) \(\frac{a}{b}\)
Solution:

(v) If tan θ = \(\frac{a \sin x+b \sin y}{a \cos x+b \cos y}\) then show that a sin (θ – x) + b sin (θ – y) = 0
Solution:
tan θ = \(\frac{a \sin x+b \sin y}{a \cos x+b \cos y}\)
or, \(\frac{\sin \theta}{\cos \theta}=\frac{a \sin x+b \sin y}{a \cos x+b \cos y}\)
or, a sin θ cos x + b sin θ cos y = a cos θ sin x + b cos θ sin y
or, a (sin θ cos x – cos θ sin x) + b (sin θ cos y – cos θ sin y) = 0
or, a sin (θ – x) + b sin (θ – y) = 0

(vi) If A + C = B, show that tan A. tan B. tan C = tan B – tan A – tan C.
Solution:
A + C = B
or, tan (A + C) = tan B
or, \(\frac{\tan A+\tan C}{1-\tan A \tan C}\)
or, tan A + tan C = tan B – tan A tan B tan C
or, tan A tan B tan C = tan B – tan A – tan C

(vii) If tan A = \(\frac{1}{5}\), tan B = \(\frac{2}{3}\) then show that cos 2A = sin 2B.
Solution:
tan A = \(\frac{1}{5}\), tan B = \(\frac{2}{3}\)
∴ cos 2A = \(\frac{1-\tan ^2 \mathrm{~A}}{1+\tan ^2 \mathrm{~A}}\)

(viii) If cos 2A = tan² B, then show that cos 2B = tan² A In Δ ABC, prove that.
Solution:

(ix) tan\(\frac{B+C}{2}\) = cot\(\frac{A}{2}\)
Solution:

(x) cos (A + B) + sin C = sin (A + B) – cos C
If A + B + C = π and cos A = cos B. cos C show that (x_i  and x_ii)
Solution:
We have A + B = π – C or, cos (A + B)
or, cos (A + B)
= cos (π – C) = – cos C
and sin (A + B) = sin (π – C) = sin C
∴ cos (A + B) + sin C
= – cos C + sin (A + B)
= sin (A + B) – cos C.

(xi) tan B + tan C = tan A
Solution:
[∴ A + B + C = π ⇒ B + C = π – A
⇒ sin (B + C) = sin (π – A) = sin A]
L. H. S. = tan B + tan C

(xii) 2 cot B. cot C = 1
Solution:
We have A + B + C = π
⇒ B + C = π – A
⇒ cos (B + C) = cos (π – A) = – cosA
⇒ cos B cos C – sin B sin C = – cos B cos C
(∵ cos B cos C = cos A)
⇒ 2 cos B cos C = sin B sin C
⇒ \(\frac{2 \cos B \cos C}{\sin B \sin C}\) = 1
⇒ 2 cot B cot C = 1

Question 9.
Prove the following:
(i) cos (A – D) sin (B – C) + cos (B – D) sin (C – A) + cos (C- D) sin (A – B) = 0
Solution:
L. H. S. = cos (A – D) sin (B – C) + cos (B – D) sin (C – A) + cos (C – D) sin (A- B)
= \(\frac{1}{2}\) [2 cos (A- D) sin (B – C) + 2 cos (B – D) sin (C – A) + 2 cos (C – D) sin (A – B)]
= \(\frac{1}{2}\) [ sin (A- D + B – C) – sin (A – D – B + C) + sin (B – D + C – A)- sin (B- D- C + A) + sin ( C – D + A – B)- sin (C – D- A + B)]
= \(\frac{1}{2}\) × 0 = 0 = R.H.S

(ii) sin 2A + sin 2B + sin 2 (A – B) = 4 sin A. cos B. cos (A – B)
Solution:
L. H. S. = sin 2A + sin 2B + sin 2 (A – B)
= 2 sin \(\frac{2 A+2 B}{2}\) cos \(\frac{2 A-2 B}{2}\) + 2 sin (A – B) cos (A – B)
= 2 sin (A + B) cos (A- B) + 2 sin (A – B) cos (A – B)
= 2 cos (A – B)[ sin (A-+ B) + sin(A – B)]
= 2 cos (A – B) × 2 sin A cos B
= 4 sin A cos B cos (A – B) = R. H. S.

(iii) cos 2A + cos 2B + cos 2 (A – B) + 1 = 4 cos A. cos B. cos (A – B)
Solution:
cos 2A + cos 2B + cos 2 (A- B) + 1
= 2 cos \(\frac{2 A+2 B}{2}\) cos \(\frac{2 A-2 B}{2}\) + 2 cos² (A – B)
= 2 cos (A + B) cos (A- B) + 2 cos2 (A – B)
= 2 cos (A – B) [cos (A + B) + cos (A – B)]
= 2 cos (A – B) x 2 cos A cos B
= 4 cos A cos B cos (A – B)
= R. H. S

(iv) sin 2A + sin 2B + sin 2C- sin 2 (A + B + C)
Solution:
L. H. S. = sin 2A + sin 2B + sin 2C- sin 2 (A + B + C)
= 2 sin \(\frac{2 A+2 B}{2}\) cos \(\frac{2 A-2 B}{2}\) = 2 cos \(\frac{2 \mathrm{C}+2(\mathrm{~A}+\mathrm{B}+\mathrm{C})}{2}\) × \(\frac{2 \mathrm{C}-2(\mathrm{~A}+\mathrm{B}+\mathrm{C})}{2}\)
= 2 sin (A + B) cos (A – B) + 2 cos (A + B + 2C) sin (A – B)
= 2 sin (A + B) [cos (A- B) – cos (A + B + 2C)]
= 2 sin (A + B) × 2 sin \(\frac{A-B+A+B+2 C}{2}\) sin \(\frac{A+B+2 C-A+B}{2}\)
= 4 sin (A + B) sin (C + A) sin (B + C) = R. H. S.

(v) sin A + sin 3A + sin 5A = sin 3A (1 + 2 cos 2A)
Solution:
L. H. S. = sin A + sin 3A + sin 5A
= sin 3A + sin 5A + sin A
= sin 3A + 2 sin \(\frac{5 \mathrm{~A}+\mathrm{A}}{2} cos \frac{5 \mathrm{~A}-\mathrm{A}}{2}\)
= sin 3A + 2 sin 3A cos 2A
= sin 3A (1 + 2 cos 2A) = R. H. S

(vi) sin A – sin 3A + sin 5A = sin 3A (2 cos 2A – 1)
Solution:
L. H. S. = sin A – sin 3A + sin 5A
= sin A + sin 5A – sin 3A
= sin 5A + sin A – sin 3A
= 2 sin \(\frac{5 \mathrm{~A}+\mathrm{A}}{2} cos \frac{5 \mathrm{~A}-\mathrm{A}}{2}\) – sin 3A
= 2 sin 3A cos 2A – sin 3A
= sin 3A (2 cos 2A – 1) = R. H. S.

(vii) cos (A + B) + sin (A – B) = 2 sin (45° + A) cos (45° + B)
Solution:
R. H. S. = 2 sin (45° + A) cos (45° + B)
= sin (45° + A + 45° + B) + sin (45° + A – 45° – B)
= sin (90° + A + B) sin (A – B)
= cos (A + B) sin (A – B) = L. H. S.

(viii) cos (120° + A) cos (120° – A) + cos (120° + A) cos A + cos A cos (120° – A) + \(\frac{3}{4}\) = 0
Solution:
L. H. S.
= cos (120° + A) cos (120° – A) + cos (120° + A) cos A + cos A cos (120° – A) + \(\frac{3}{4}\)
= cos² A – sin² 120° + cos A [ cos (120° + A) + cos (120° – A)] + \(\frac{3}{4}\)
= cos² A – \(\frac{3}{4}\) + cos A ( 2 cos 120°. cos A) + \(\frac{3}{4}\)
= cos² A + 2 cos 120°. cos² A
= cos² A + 2 \(\left(-\frac{1}{2}\right)\) . cos² A
= cos² A – cos² A = 0

(ix) cos 4A – cos 4B = 8 (cos A – cos B) (cos A + cos B) (cos A – sin B) (cos A + sin B)
Solution:
R. H. S. = 8 (cos A- cos B) (cos A + cos B)
(cos A – sin B) (cos A + sin B)
=  8 (cos² A – cos² B) (cos² A – sin² B)
= – 8(cos² B – cos² A)(cos² A – sin² B)
= – 8 sin (A +B) sin (A – B) cos (A + B) cos (A – B)
= – 2 x [ 2 sin (A + B) cos (A + B)] [2 sin (A – B) cos (A – B)]
= – 2 sin (2A + 2B) sin (2A – 2B)
= – [cos (2A + 2B – 2A + 2B) – cos (2A + 2B + 2A – 2B)]
= – cos 4B + cos 4A
= cos 4A – cos 4B = L. H. S.

Question 10.
Prove the following:
(i) \(\frac{1-\tan ^2\left(45^{\circ}-A\right)}{1+\tan ^2\left(45^{\circ}-A\right)}\) = sin 2A
Solution:
L.H.S \(\frac{1-\tan ^2\left(45^{\circ}-A\right)}{1+\tan ^2\left(45^{\circ}-A\right)}\) = sin 2A = cos 2(45° – A)
= cos (90° – 2A) = sin 2A = R. H. S.

(ii) \(\frac{\cos A+\sin A}{\cos A-\sin A}-\frac{\cos A-\sin A}{\cos A+\sin A}\) = 2 tan 2A
Solution:

(iii) \(\frac{1-\cos 2 A+\sin 2 A}{1+\cos 2 A+\sin 2 A}\) = tan A
Solution:

(iv) \(\frac{\sin (\mathbf{A}+\mathbf{B})+\cos (\mathbf{A}-\mathbf{B})}{\sin (\mathbf{A}-\mathbf{B})+\cos (\mathbf{A}+\mathbf{B})}\) = sec 2B + tan 2B
Solution:

(v) \(\frac{\cos 7 \alpha+\cos 3 \alpha-\cos 5 \alpha-\cos \alpha}{\sin 7 \alpha-\sin 3 \alpha-\sin 5 \alpha+\sin \alpha}\) = cot 2α
Solution:
L.H.S = \(\begin{array}{r}
\cos 7 \alpha+\cos 3 \alpha \\
-\cos 5 \alpha-\cos 3 \alpha \\
\hline \sin 7 \alpha-\sin 3 \alpha \\
-\sin 5 \alpha+\sin \alpha
\end{array}\)

(vi) \(\frac{\sin \theta+\sin 3 \theta+\sin 5 \theta+\sin 7 \theta}{\cos \theta+\cos 3 \theta+\cos 5 \theta+\cos 7 \theta}\) = tan 4θ
Solution:

Question 11.
Prove the following:
(i) Express 4 cos A. cos B. cos C as the sum of four cosines.
Solution:
4 cos A cos B cos C
= 2 (2cos A cos B) cos C
= 2 [ cos (A + B) + cos (A – B)] cos C
= 2 cos (A + B) cos C + 2 cos (A – B) cos C
= cos (A + B + C) + cos (A + B – C) + cos (A – B + C) + cos (A – B – C)

(ii) Express cos 2A + cos 2B + cos 2C + cos 2 (A + B + C) as the product of three cosines.
Solution:
cos 2A + cos 2B + cos 2C + cos 2(A + B + C)
= 2 cos \(\frac{2 \mathrm{~A}+2 \mathrm{~B}}{2}\) cos \(\frac{2 \mathrm{~A}-2 \mathrm{~B}}{2}\) = 2 cos \(\frac{2 C+2(A+B+C)}{2}\) × cos \(\frac{2 C-2(A+B+C)}{2}\)
= 2 cos (A + B) cos (A- B) + 2 cos (A + B + 2C) cos (A + B)
= 2 cos (A + B) [cos (A- B) + cos (A + B + 2C)]
= 2 cos (A + B) × 2 cos \(\frac{(A-B+A+B+2 C)}{2}\) cos \(\frac{(A-B-A-B-2 C)}{2}\)
= 4 cos (A + B) cos (C + A) cos (B + C)

Question 12.
Prove the following:
(i) cos⁶ A – sin⁶ A = cos 2A(1 – \(\frac{1}{4}\) sin² 2A)
Solution:
L.H.S = cos⁶ A – sin⁶ A
= (cos² A)³– (sin² A)³ = (cos² A – sin² A)³ + 3 cos² A sin² A (cos² A – sin² A)
= cos³ 2A + \(\frac{3}{4}\) sin² 2A cos 2A
= cos² A (cos² 2A + \(\frac{3}{4}\) sin² 2A)
= cos 2A (1 – sin² 2A + \(\frac{3}{4}\) sin² 2A)
= cos 2A (1 – \(\frac{1}{4}\) sin² 2A) = R.H.S

(ii) cos⁶A + sin⁶ A = \(\frac{1}{4}\) (1 + 3 cos²2A)
Solution:
L.H.S = cos⁶ A + sin⁶ A
= (cos² A)³ + (sin² A)³
= (cos² A)³ + (sin² A)³ – 3 cos² A. sin² A (cos² A + sin² A)
= 1 – \(\frac{3}{4}\) sin² 2A = 1 – \(\frac{3}{4}\) (1 – cos² 2A)
= 1 – \(\frac{3}{4}\) + \(\frac{3}{4}\) cos² 2A
= \(\frac{1}{4}\) + \(\frac{3}{4}\) cos² 2A = \(\frac{1}{4}\) (1 + 3cos² 2A) = R.H.S.

(iii) cos³ A. cos 3A + sin³ A sin³ A = cos³ 2A
Solution:
L.H.S = cos³ A cos 3A + sin³ A sin 3A
= cos³ A (4 cos³ A- 3 cos A) + sin³ A (3 sin A- 4 sin³ A)
= 4 cos⁶A- 3 cos⁴A + 3 sin⁴A- 4 sin⁶A
= 4 (cos⁶A- sin⁶A) – 3(cos⁴A- sin⁴A)
= 4 {(cos²A)³– (sin²A)³} – 3 {(cos²A)²– (sin²A)²}
= 4 (cos²A- sin²A) {(cos²A)² + cos²A sin²A + (sin²A)²} – 3 (cos²A- sin²A) (cos²A + sin²A)
= (cos²A- sin²A) [4 {(cos²A + sin²A)²-2 cos²A sin²A + cos²A sin²A} -3×1]
= cos 2A ( 4- 4 sin²A cos²A- 3)
= cos 2A ( 1 – 4 sin²A cos²A)
= cos 2A (1 – sin²2A)
= cos 2A cos²2A = cos³2A = R. H. S.

(iv) sin⁴ θ = \(\frac{3}{8}\) – \(\frac{1}{2}\) cos 2θ + \(\frac{1}{8}\) cos 4θ
Solution:
R.H.S = \(\frac{3}{8}\) – \(\frac{1}{2}\) cos 2θ + \(\frac{1}{8}\) cos 4θ
= \(\frac{3}{8}\) – \(\frac{1}{2}\) (1 – 2 sin² θ) + \(\frac{1}{8}\) (1 – 2 sin² θ)
= \(\frac{3}{8}\) – \(\frac{1}{2}\) + sin² θ + \(\frac{1}{8}\) – \(\frac{1}{4}\)  sin² 2θ
= sin² θ – \(\frac{1}{4}\) × 4 sin² θ cos² θ
= sin² θ (1 – cos² θ)
= sin² θ sin² θ = sin⁴ = L.H.S

(v) cot 3A = \(\frac{\cot ^3 A-3 \cot A}{3 \cot ^2 A-1}\)
Solution:

(vi) tan 4θ = \(\frac{4 \tan \theta-4 \tan ^3 \theta}{1-6 \tan ^2 \theta+\tan ^4 \theta}\)
Solution:

(vii) \(\frac{1}{\tan 3 A-\tan A}-\frac{1}{\cot 3 A-\cot A}\) = cot 2A
Solution:

(viii) \(\frac{\cot A}{\cot A-\cot 3 A}-\frac{\tan A}{\tan 3 A-\tan A}\) = 1
Solution:

Question 13.
Find the value of
sin 3°,cos 3°, 2 sin \(\frac{\pi}{32}\)
Solution:
sin 3° = sin (18° – 15°)
= sin 18° cos 15° – cos 18° sin 15°

Question 14.
If sin A + sin B = a and cos A + cos B = b, then show that
(i) tan(A + B) = \(\frac{2 a b}{b^2-a^2}\)
Solution:

(ii) sin (A + B) = \(\frac{2 a b}{b^2-a^2}\)

(iii) cos (A + B) = \(\frac{b^2-a^2}{b^2+a^2}\)

Question 15.
Prove the following:
(i) \(\frac{1+\sin A-\cos A}{1+\sin A+\cos A}\) = tan \(\frac{A}{2}\)
Solution:

(ii) \(8 \sin ^4 \frac{1}{2} \theta-8 \sin ^2 \frac{1}{2} \theta\) + 1 = cos 2θ
Solution:

(iii) \(\cos ^4 \frac{\pi}{8}+\cos ^4 \frac{3 \pi}{8}+\cos ^4 \frac{5 \pi}{8}\) \(+\cos ^4 \frac{7 \pi}{8}=\frac{3}{2}\)
Solution:

(iv) cos² \(\frac{\alpha}{2}\) (1- 2cos α)² + sin² α(1+ 2 cos α)² =1
Solution:

Question 16.
Prove the following:
(i) sin 20°. sin 40°. sin 60°. sin 80° = \(\frac{3}{16}\)
Solution:

(ii) cos 36°. cos 72°. cos 108°. cos144° = \(\frac{7}{16}\)
Solution:

(iii) cos 10°. cos 30°. cos 50°. cos 70° = \(\frac{3}{16}\)
Solution:

(iv) cos 20°. cos 40°. cos 60°. cos 80° = \(\frac{1}{16}\)
Solution:

(v) tan 6°. tan 42°.tan 66°. tan 78° = 1 [Hints: Use the identity tan 3A = tan A tan (60° – A) tan (60° + A)]
Solution:
We have tan 3A
= tan A tan (60° – A) tan (60° + A)
Now putting A = 6° and 18°.
in (1) we have
tan 18° = tan 6° tan 54° tan 66°     …(2)
and tan 54°
= tan 18° tan 42° tan 78°            ……(3)
Multiplying (2) and (3) we have
tan 18° tan 54°
= tan 6° tan 54° tan 66° tan 18° . tan 42°. tan 78°
or, 1 = tan 6° tan 42° tan 66° tan 78°.

Question 17.
Prove the following:
(i) cos 7 \(\frac{1}{2}\)° = √6 + √3 + √2 + 2
Solution:

(ii) cot 22 \(\frac{1}{2}\)° = √2 + 1
Solution:

(iii) cot 37 \(\frac{1}{2}\)° = √6 – √3 – √2 + 2
Solution:

(iv) tan 37 \(\frac{1}{2}\)° = √6 + √3 – √2 + 2
Solution:

(v) cos \(\frac{\pi}{16}\) = 1/2 \(\sqrt{2+\sqrt{2+\sqrt{2}}}\)
∴ 2 cos \(\frac{\pi}{16}\)

Question 18.
(i) If sin A = K sin B, prove that tan 1/2(A – B) = \(\frac{K-1}{K+1}\) tan 1/2(A – B)
Solution:

(ii) Ifa cos (x + α) = b cos (x – α) show that (a + b) tan x = (a – b) cot α.
Solution:

or, cot x cot α = \(\frac{a+b}{a-b}\)
or, (a – b) cot α = \(\frac{a+b}{\cot x}\) = (a + b) tan x
or, (a + b) tan x =(a-b) cot α

(iii) An angle 0 is divided into two parts α, β such that tan α: tan β = x : y.
Prove that sin (α – β) = \(\frac{x-y}{x+y}\) sin θ.
Solution:

(iv) If sin θ + sin Φ = a, cos θ + cos Φ = b, show that
\(\frac{\sin \frac{\theta+\phi}{2}}{a}=\frac{\cos \frac{\theta+\phi}{2}}{b}=2 \frac{\cos \frac{\theta-\phi}{2}}{a^2-b^2}\)
Solution:
sin θ + sin Φ = a
cos θ + cos Φ = b
We have
a2 + b2 = (sin θ + sin Φ)² + (sin θ + sin Φ)²
= sin² θ + sin² Φ + 2 sin θ. sin Φ + cos² θ +cos² Φ + 2 cos θ. cos Φ
= 2 + 2 (cos θ cos Φ + sin θ sin Φ)
= 2 + 2 cos (θ – Φ)
= 2 [1+ cos (θ – Φ)]

(v) If a cos α + b sin α = c = a cos β + b sin α then prove that
\(\frac{a}{\cos \frac{1}{2}(\alpha+\beta)}=\frac{b}{\sin \frac{1}{2}(\alpha+\beta)}\) \(=\frac{c}{\cos \frac{1}{2}(\alpha-\beta)}\)
Solution:

(vi) Prove that \(\left(\frac{\cos A+\cos B}{\sin A-\sin B}\right)^n+\left(\frac{\sin A+\sin B}{\cos A-\cos B}\right)^n\) = 2 cosⁿ \(\frac{A-B}{2}\) or zero according as n is even or odd.
Solution:

Question 19.
(i) If (1 – e) tan² \(\frac{\boldsymbol{\beta}}{2}\) = (1 + e) tan² \(\frac{\boldsymbol{\alpha}}{2}\), prove that cos β = \(\frac{\cos \alpha-e}{1-e \cos \alpha}\)
Solution:

(ii) If cos θ = \(\frac{\cos \mathbf{A}-\cos \mathbf{B}}{1-\cos \mathbf{A} \cdot \cos \mathbf{B}}\) prove that one of the values of
tan \(\frac{θ}{2}\) is tan \(\frac{A}{2}\) . tan \(\frac{B}{2}\).
Solution:

(iii) If tan θ = \(\frac{\sin x \cdot \sin y}{\cos x+\cos y}\) then prove that one of the values of tan \(\frac{1}{2}\) θ tan \(\frac{1}{2}\) x and tan \(\frac{1}{2}\) y.
Solution:

(iv) If sec (Φ + a) + sec (Φ – α) = 2 sec Φ. show that cos Φ = ± √2 cos \(\frac{α}{2}\)
Solution:

(v) If tan A + tan B = a and cot A + cot B = b. then show that cot (A + B) = \(\frac{1}{a}\) – \(\frac{1}{b}\).
Solution:

(vi) If cot θ = cos (x + y) and cot Φ = cos (x – y) show that tan (θ = Φ) = \(\frac{2 \sin x \cdot \sin y}{\cos ^2 x+\cos ^2 y}\)
Solution:

(vii) If tan β = \(\frac{n^2 \sin \alpha \cdot \cos \alpha}{1-n^2 \sin ^2 \alpha}\), then show that \(\frac{\tan (\alpha-\beta)}{\tan \alpha}\) = 1 – n²
Solution:

(viii)If 2 tan α = 3 tan β, then prove that tan(α – β) = \(\frac{\sin 2 \beta}{5-\cos 2 \beta}\)
Solution:

(ix) If α, β are acute angles and cos 2α = \(\frac{3 \cos 2 \beta-1}{3-\cos 2 \beta}\) then prove that tan α = √2 tan β.
Solution:

Question 20.
If A + B + C = π, then prove the following.
(i) cos 2A + cos 2B + cos 2C + 1 + 4 cos A. cos B. cos C = 0
Solution:
A + B + C = π  or, A + B = π – C
or, cos (A + B) = cos (π – C) = – cos C
∴ cos 2A + cos 2B + cos 2C
= 2 cos \(\frac{2 \mathrm{~A}+2 \mathrm{~B}}{2}\) cos \(\frac{2 \mathrm{~A}-2 \mathrm{~B}}{2}\)
= 2 cos (A + B) cos (A- B) + 2 cos² C – 1
= – 2 cos C cos (A – B) + 2 cos² C –  1
= – 1 – 2 cos C cos (A – B) – cos C
= – 1 – 2 cos C [cos (A- B) + cos (A + B)]
= – 1 – 2 cos C × 2 cos A cos B
= – 1 – 4 cos A cos B cos C
∴ L. H. S. = cos 2A + cos 2B + cos 2C + 1 + 4 cos A cos B cos C
= – 1 – 4 cos A cos B cos C + 1 + 4 cos A cos B cos C = 0 = R. H. S.

(ii) sin 2A + sin 2B – sin 2C = 4 cos A. cos B. sin C
Solution:
L. H. S. = sin 2A + sin 2B – sin 2C
= 2 sin \(\frac{2 A+2 B}{2}\) cos \(\frac{2 A-2 B}{2}\) – sin 2C
= 2 sin(A + B) cos (A – B) -2 sinC cos C
= 2 sin C cos (A- B) – 2 sin C cos C [ ∵ A + B= π – C]
or, sin (A + B) = sin (n- C) = sin C]
= 2 sin C [cos (A – B)- cos C]
= 2 sin C [cos (A – B) – cos (A + B)]
= 2 sin C. 2 cos A. cos B
= 4 cos A cos B sin C = R. H. S.

(iii) cos A + cos B + cos C = 1 + 4 sin \(\frac{1}{2}\) A. sin \(\frac{1}{2}\) B. sin \(\frac{1}{2}\) C.
Solution:

(iv) sin A + cos B- sin C = 4 sin \(\frac{1}{2}\) A. sin \(\frac{1}{2}\) B. cos \(\frac{1}{2}\) C.
Solution:

(v) cos² A + cos² B + 2cos A. cos B. cos C = sin² C
Solution:

(vi) sin² \(\frac{A}{2}\) + sin² \(\frac{B}{2}\) + sin² \(\frac{C}{2}\) = 1 – 2 sin \(\frac{A}{2}\). sin \(\frac{B}{2}\). sin \(\frac{C}{2}\)
Solution:

(vii) sin \(\frac{A}{2}\) + sin \(\frac{B}{2}\) + sin \(\frac{c}{2}\) = 4 sin \(\frac{\pi-A}{4}\) sin \(\frac{\pi-B}{4}\). sin \(\frac{\pi-C}{4}\) + 1
Solution:

(viii) cos² \(\frac{A}{2}\) + cos² \(\frac{B}{2}\) – cos² \(\frac{C}{2}\) = 2 cos \(\frac{A}{2}\). cos \(\frac{B}{2}\). sin \(\frac{C}{2}\)
Solution:

(ix) sin (B + 2C) + sin (C + 2A) + sin (A + 2B) = 4 sin \(\frac{B-C}{2}\). sin \(\frac{C-A}{2}\). sin \(\frac{A-B}{2}\)
Solution:

Question 21.
(i) Show that (2 cos θ – 1) (2 cos 2θ – 1) (2 cos² 2θ – 1) ….. (2 cos 2^n-1 θ – 1) \(=\frac{2 \cos 2^n \theta+1}{2 \cos \theta+1}\)
Solution:
We have
(2 cos θ + 1) (2 cos θ – 1)
= 4 cos² θ – 1=4 cos² θ – 2+1
= 1 + 2(2 cos² θ – 1)
= 1+2 cos 2θ = 2 cos 2θ+1
And, (2 cos 2θ + 1) (2 cos 2θ – 1)
= 4 cos² 2θ – 1 = 2 ( 2 cos² 2θ – 1) + 1
= 2 cos 4 θ + 1 = 2 cos 2² θ + 1
Similarly, we can prove,
( 2 cos 2² θ + 1) ( 2 cos 2² θ- 1)
= 2 cos 2³ θ + 1
Proceeding in this way, we can prove,
(2 cos 2θ + 1) (2 cos 2θ – 1)
(2 cos 2θ- 1) (2 cos 2² θ – 1) ……  (2 cos 2^n-1 θ-1)
= 2 cos 2ⁿ θ + 1
or, (2 cos θ-1) (2 cos 2θ-1) (2 cos 2² θ- 1) (2 cos 2^n-1 θ-1)
\(=\frac{2 \cos 2^n \theta+1}{2 \cos \theta+1}\)

(ii) Show that 2ⁿ cos θ. cos 2θ. cos2² θ ……… 2^n-1 θ = 1 If θ = \(\frac{\pi}{2^n+1}\)
Solution:
we have, θ = \(\frac{\pi}{2^n+1}\)
or, 2ⁿ θ + θ = π
or, 2ⁿ θ  = π – θ
or, 2ⁿ θ = sin (π – θ) = sin θ
or, \(\frac{\sin 2^n \theta}{\sin \theta}\) = 1   …….(1)
Again, sin 2ⁿ θ = 2 sin 2^n-1 θ cos 2^n-1 θ
= 2 × 2 sin 2^n-2 θ cos 2^n-2 θ cos 2^n-1 θ
= 2² × 2 sin 2^n-3 θ cos 2^n-3 θ  cos 2^n-2 θ cos 2^n-v θ
= 2³ sin 2^n-3 θ cos 2^n-3 θ cos 2^n-2 θ cos 2^n-1 θ

………………………..

………………………..

………………………..

= 2ⁿ sin θ cos θ cos 2θ cos 2² θ …….. cos 2^n-2 θ cos 2^n-1 θ

or,  2ⁿ cos θ cos 2θ cos 2² θ …… cos 2^n-1 θ = 1

(iii) Prove that \(\frac{\tan 2^n \theta}{\tan \theta}\) = = (1 + sec 2θ) (1 + sec2² θ) …. (1 + sec2ⁿ θ)
Solution:

Question 22.
If x + y + z = xyz, prove that
(i) \(\frac{x}{1-x^2}+\frac{y}{1-y^2}+\frac{z}{1-z^2}\) = =\(\frac{4 x y z}{\left(1-x^2\right)\left(1-y^2\right)\left(1-z^2\right)}\)
Solution:
x + y + z = xyz   (Given)
Let x = tan α, y = tan β, z = tan γ
∴ tan α + tan β + tan γ = tan α .tan β .tan γ or; tan α + tan β
= – tan γ + tan α tan β tan γ
= – tan γ(1 – tan α tan β)
or, \(\frac{\tan \alpha+\tan \beta}{1-\tan \alpha \tan \beta}\) = – tan γ
or, tan (α + β) = tan (π- γ)
or, α + β = π-γ
or, 2α + 2β = 2π- 2γ
or, tan (2α + 2β = tan (2π- 2γ)
or, tan (2α + 2β) = tan (2π- 2γ)

(ii) \(\frac{3 x-x^3}{1-3 x^2}+\frac{3 y-y^3}{1-3 y^2}+\frac{3 z-z^3}{1-3 z^2}\) = \(\frac{3 x-x^3}{1-3 x^2} \cdot \frac{3 y-y^3}{1-3 y^2} \cdot \frac{3 z-z^3}{1-3 z^2}\)
Solution:

Question 23.
If \(\text { If } \frac{\sin ^4 \alpha}{a}+\frac{\cos ^4 \alpha}{b}=\frac{1}{a+b}\) show that \(\frac{\sin ^8 \alpha}{a^3}+\frac{\cos ^8 \alpha}{b^3}=\frac{1}{(a+b)^3}\)
Solution:

Odisha State Board CHSE Odisha Class 11 Political Science Solutions Unit 3 Indian Constitution Short Answer Questions.

CHSE Odisha 11th Class Political Science Unit 3 Understanding Political Theory Short Answer Questions

Short Question With Answers

Question 1.
What were the functions of the constituent assembly of India?
Answer:
The constitution assembly was formed to prepare the new constitution of India and To act as the union legislature till the new parliament was formed.

Question 2.
What was the importance of the Drafting committee?
Answer:
The drafting committee played an important role in drafting the new constitution of India. It was the future ruling pattern of India.

Question 3.
What do you mean by objective resolution?
Answer:
Objective resolution refers to the aims and objectives of the constitutional frames expressed in the form of a resolution. It was approved by the constituent assembly on 22nd January 1947.

Question 4.
Why Indian constitution has been so large?
Answer:
The constitution of India is so large because it contains provisions both for the union government and states. The length of the constitution increased in view of the detailed analysis of every provision to make it clear to the people.

Question 5.
What is an ideal constitution?
Answer:
An ideal constitution is a document that has the ability to develop and V change in accordance with changes in time and circumstances. Its language must be simple clear andunamigous

Question 6.
What is the preamble?
Answer:
A preamble is a brief introduction about the constitution. It contains ideals and objectives of the constitution in a nutshell.

Question 7.
What does the term we the people of India imply?
Answer:
The term we the people of India implies the source of the constitution and its democratic character. It was framed by a group of representatives of Indian people.

Question 8.
What are the main sources of the constitution?
Answer:
The Government of India Act. 1935. The parliamentary statutes and debates. The constitution of UK, Canada, Australia, Ireland, Germany, Spain and South Africa etc.

Question 9.
Why India is called a secular state?
Answer:
India is called a secular state because
There is no state religion in India and All religious communities are treated equally by the state. People enjoy the freedom of religion and worship.

Question 10
Why India is called a sovereign state?
Answer:
India is called a sovereign state because it is independent and free from the influence of any foreign country. The decision of the government of India is found delating internal administration and foreign policy.

Question 11.
Why India is called a socialist state?
Answer:
India is called a socialistic state because, it seeks to provide social, economic, and political justice to the people. The government gives priority to the public sector and seeks to abolish economic exploitation and provide basic minimum needs to all.

Question 12.
Why India is called a democracy?
Answer:
India is called a democracy because the constitution has set up parliamentary representative democracy in India. The people enjoy fundamental rights and the media and judiciary remain free from Govt, control.

Question 13.
Why India is called a Republic?
Answer:
India is called a republic because the head of state, the president is elected by the people indirectly Again any ordinary citizen can contest and assume the office of the president of India.

Question 14.
Why Indian constitution is called an enacted constitution?
Answer:
Indian constitution is called an enacted constitution because it was ‘ framed by a constituent assembly.’ It was enacted on 26th November 1949 by the constituent assembly.

Question 15.
India is a union of states?
Answer:
Art. 1 declares India as a union of states. That means the federal structure of ” India can’t be changed by the decision of states.

Question 16.
Why India is called a quasi-federal state?
Answer:
Prof. K.C. where describes India as a quasi-federal state. It means that India is organized on federal lines but it works as a unitary state.

Question 17.
Is the Indian constitution rigid?
Answer:
Indian constitution can’t be considered exclusively either as a rigid or flexible constitution. The procedure of amendment is a mixture of both rigidity and flexibility.

Question 18.
What is single citizenship?
Answer:
Single citizenship means only the union government has the power to grant citizenship. It is found in a unitary state, but in India single citizenship is preferred to maintain national unity and integrity.

Question 19.
What is judicial review?
Answer:
Judicial review refers to the power of the supreme court to examine the constitutional validity of the law. If it finds any law or decision violating the constitution the court declares such law unconstitutional.

Question 20.
What do you mean by fundamental rights?
Answer:
The fundamental rights are the most valuable rights which are mentioned in part – III of the constitution. These rights are justiciable in nature, therefore in case of violation, the court takes immediate redressal measures.

Question 21.
What is Right to Equality?
Answer:
The right to equality is a fundamental right which is guaranteed under Art 14 to 18 of the constitution. This right is available both for citizens.

Question 22.
What is equality before law?
Answer:
Equality before law means all are equal in the eyes of law. The law courts the judges and the legal system gives equal protection to all citizens.

Question 23.
Importance of Art. 19?
Answer:
Art. 19 guarantees six fundamental freedoms to Indian citizens. These include freedom of speech and expression freedom to assemble peacefully without arms, freedom of association, freedom of movement, freedom of settlement & freedom of profession trade or business.

Question 24.
Traffic in human beings?
Answer:
Traffic in human beings means exploitation and unlawful treatment of weaker sections of society. It prohibits men and upper classes from exploiting women, children, and backward classes.

Question 25.
How the fundamental rights differ from legal rights?
Answer:
The fundamental rights are guaranteed and protected by the institution, but the legal rights are protected by law. The legal rights can be amended by ordinary legislation, but fundamental rights can be amended only by constitutional amendment.

Question 26.
Which fundamental rights are available both for citizens and aliens?
Answer:
Right to equality under Art. 14 and Right to life liberty and property under Art. 21 are available both for citizens and aliens

Question 27.
Right to education?
Answer:
Right to education is now a fundamental right under Art. 21 (A) It is inserted into the fundamental rights by the 86th amendment act. 2002. It provides for free and compulsory education to all children below 14 years of age.

Question 28.
Right against exploitation?
Answer:
This right is guaranteed under Art. 23 and 24 of the constitution. It seeks to give protection to the weaker sections of society, including women, children and backward classes from the exploitation of rich and male-dominated society.

Question 29.
What is protective discrimination?
Answer:
The constitution of India under Art. 15 (3) and provide for protective discrimination. It enables the scheduled castes, scheduled tribes, women- and backward classes to avail special reservations in admission to educational institutions and in public service.

Question 30.
Habeas Corpus?
Answer:
Habeas Corpus is a writ issued by a superior court against any public authority. It is issued against unlawful arrest and detention.

Question 31.
Mandamus?
Answer:
The writ of Mandamus is issued by a superior court to any person or ‘ public authority to perform a legal duty. It is a direction to perform ministerial acts.

Question 32.
What is Prohibition?
Answer:
The writ of prohibition is issued either by Supreme Court or High Court to an inferior court against excessive jurisdiction. It prevents a lower court from handling cases beyond the jurisdiction

Question 33.
Certiorari?
Answer:
A certiorari is a writ issued by the superior court to any lower court against excessive jurisdiction. It is issued to quash the order and decision of the court or tribunal.

Question 34.
Quo-Warranto?
Answer:
The writ of quo warm to is issued by a superior court to any public authority against the illegal assumption of public office. It prohibits illegal appointments to public service.

Question 35.
Importance of Art. 32?
Answer:
The Indian Constitution Under Art. 32 grants right to constitutional remedies. As per the article, in the case of. violation of the fundamental rights of a citizen, he can move to the Supreme Court for immediate redressal.

Question 36.
Objectives of Directive Principles?
Answer:
The objectives of directive principles of state policy are To make India a welfare state and To create conditions for socio-economic democracy in India.

Question 37.
Fundamental-Duties?
Answer:
The fundamental duties are the moral responsibilities of the citizens towards the state. These are non-justiciable in nature.

Question 38.
Right to the property?
Answer:
The right to property was a fundamental right up to 1978, but it was deleted in 1978 by 44th Amendment Act. Now it is a legal duty under Art. 300 A.

Question 39.
Right to Education?
Answer:
Right to Education is a fundamental right under Art. 21 (A). It provides for free and compulsory education to all children belonging to the age group of 6 to 14 years.

Question 40.
Right to life?
Answer:
Right to life is a fundamental right under Art. 21. It states that no one shall be deprived of his life and liberty except, according to procedure established by law.

Question 41.
Right to Information Act. 2005?
Answer:
The Right to Information Act, 2005 seeks to promote transparency and accountability in the working of the government. It helps in containing corruption and makes the citizens aware about the activities of the government.

Question 42.
What is preventive detention?
Answer:
The constitution of India under Art 22 provides for preventive detention of criminal and anti-socials beyond 24 hours. Under this provision any person whose presence is apprehensive of creating social disorder and violence, he may be kept under legal custody for three months even without violating law.

Question 43.
What constitutes the basic structure of the constitution?
Answer:
Basic structure comprises of some values ideals and principles of the constitution which lay its foundation, According to eminent justice, it includes parliamentary democracy, fundamental rights, preamble, secularism, republican model, independent judiciary and centralized federation, etc.

Question 44.
What is free legal aid?
Answer:
The constitution of India under Art. 39A under the Directive Principle makes provision for free legal aid to the poor and underprivileged sections of society; Under the provision, the state government bears the cost of fighting legal battles against those exploiting women, poor and distressed people.

Question 45.
Constituent Assembly of India?
Answer:
The new constitution of India was framed by die constituent Assembly, (b) It comprises of all the eminent lawyers. Intellectuals, social activists, and political leaders of India of that time. It was a representative body that prepared the constitution within 2 years 11 months and 18 days. It played the role of parliament till the new parliament was elected. Its members were elected indirectly by the provincial legislatures on the basis of population.

Question 46.
Cabinet mission plan?
Answer:
Cabinet mission. came to India in the year 1946 to discuss about the grant of independence to India. Prime minister clement allee sent three of his cabinet minister, Sir Stafford Cripps, A’.V. Alexander and Lord Pathik Lawrence as members of the mission. The mission held discussions with Indian leaders, leaders of the Muslim League, and administrators about the ways and means to concede independence. The mission proposed for a ‘Constituent assembly to be formed to prepare the new constitution of India. It recommended for a federal setup in India with Indian provinces and princely states.

Question 47.
Drafting committee?
Answer:
The drafting committee was instrumental for framing the new. constitution of India. It comprises of Dr. B .R.Ambedkar as the chairman and N. Gopalswamy Ayengarm, Alladi Krishnaswamy, Nyer, K.M. Munsi, Mahammad Saddik, N. Madhab Rao and T.T. Krishiiamachari as members. This committee prepared the draft of the whole constitution and got it approved. It had 55 sessions continuing for 114 days and on 4th November 1948 submitted the draft constitution for approved. Dr. Ambedkar played a leading role as its chairman for which he is regarded as the father of Indian constitution.

Question 48.
Objective Resolution?
Answer:
Objective Resolution of the constituent Assembly was initiated by Pandit Nehru on 13th December 1946. It was approved on. 22nd January 1947 by the constituent assembly. This resolution contained the aims and aspirations of the founding fathers relating to the future of India. It proposed to make India, a sovereign Independent Republic. Besides, it also resolved to ensure social political and economic justice to the people of India along with liberty and equality.

Question 49.
Write at least five important features of Indian Constitution?
Answer:

• Longest written constitution.
• A balance between rigidity and flexibility
• Federal in form but unitary in spirit
• Parliamentary democracy; and
• Secular State

Question 50.
What does the preamble to the constitution imply?
Answer:
The preamble implies an introduction to the Constitution. It embodies the objective, ideals, sentiments and aspirations of the nation. It is a key to understanding the nature and spirit of the Indian Policy. It speaks about the source of the Constitution and the date of its adoption. The preamble indicates the general purpose for which people have ordained and established Constitution.

Question 51.
What are the source of the Indian Constitution?
Answer:
The contents of the Indian Constitution have been derived from different sources out of which the important ones are given below.
The Government of India Act, of 1935 has been the most important source of the Constitution. The British Constitution has influenced it the most. The fundamental rights have come from the American constitution. The Irish constitution, the Weimar Constitution of Germany the Canadian Constitution and the Constitution of the South African Republic have also influenced the Indian Constitution.

Question 52.
How does the Preamble depict the characteristics of Indian Constitution?
Answer:
The preamble outlines the following characteristics of Indian Constitution. India is a sovereign independent community. India is a republic. India has a democratic form of government. The constitution ensures justice, liberty, equality and fraternity. It seeks to harmonize dignity of the individual with unity of the nation. It establishes popular sovereignty and seeks to follow socialistic and secular principles.

Question 53.
India is a Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic Republic Discuss?
Answer:
The Preamble reads India as a Sovereign, Socialist Secular Democratic Republic. India is sovereign both internally and externally and it believes in socialistic principles. India has no state religion and the Constitution grants equal status to all religions. Indian policy is organized on democratic principles and the President being the head of state is elected hence it is a republic.

Question 54.
Why is Indian Constitution so long?
Answer:
Indian constitution is the longest written Constitution in the world having 395 Articles and 12 Schedules. The factors responsible for the extra length of the Constitution are as follows. The constitution is meant both for the Union and the States. Everything in the Constitution has been discussed in detail.

The diversity of the Indian culture necessitated special provisions for which the Constitution has been so long. Besides the above factors, detailed chapters on fundamental rights, Directive Principles, emergency provisions, center-state relations and fundamental duties have added to the size of the constitution.

Question 55.
Why is Indian Constitution supposed to be a bag of borrowings?
Answer:
The Indian Constitution was framed following the major democratic constitution of the world. The British Constitution America, Irish, Australian and Canadian Constitutions, etc. have significantly influenced the framers, but that does not mean that the principles and ideals of the Constitution are borrowed: The framers have borrowed most of the provisions from Western countries and modified them to suit to Indian conditions and the people. It will be wrong to brand as a borrowed constitution.

Question 56.
Indian Constitution is federal in form but unitary in spirit. Discuss?
Answer:
Indian constitution has designed the country on the principles of a federation but it works more or less as a unitary state. The framers adopted a federal form of government on account of its vastness but declared it as a union of states. Despite all federal features, the union government is given an upper hand in every sphere. The union Govt enjoys more powers and it can at times change the federal structure into a unitary one. The framers have made a happy blend between unitarism and federalism for which it is supposed to be federal in form but unitary in spirit.

Question 57.
Why is India called a Quasi Federal State?
Answer:
A quasi-federal state is one which is neither completely unitary nor federal in character. Prof. K.C. where has criticized India’s federal character as was quasi-federal. India is organized on the basis of the federation but works on unitary lines. The union government enjoys more powers than the states and the framer can suspend the state government on various grounds. The Union Govt, through the office of the Governor, All India Services, Planning Commission, National Development Council and Finance Commission, etc. can influence the Govt, at the state. Therefore, India is called a quasi-federal state.

Question 58.
Is Indian Constitution a rigid one?
Answer:
No, Indian Constitution does not come along the lines of a rigid Constitution as that of the U.S.A. Most parts of the Constitution can be amended by simple procedure of legislation. Only the federal features of the Constitution are rigid. Those matters can be amended if a majority of both houses of Parliament coupled with the 2/3rd majority of those present and voting support the motion.

Therefore, the Constitutional amendment is sent to the state legislatures for ratification. If at least half of the states approve the proposal the amendment is effected. This rigid procedure applies only to a few items.

Question 59.
Indian Constitution is flexible. Discuss?
Answer:
A flexible Constitution is one which can be amended easily, by the simple procedure of legislation. Most parts of the Constitution can be amended Iggy this process but there are still important matters which need to be amended by the rigid process. As the constitutional framers have made a compromise between rigidity and flexibility it can not be described as i flexible Constitution.

Question 60.
Briefly state the Preamble of the Indian Constitution?
Answer:
The Preamble of the Indian Constitution reads as follows: “WE ‘THE PEOPLE OF INDIA” laving solemnly resolved to constitute India intoa SOVEREIGN SOCIALIST SECULAR DEMOCRATIC REPUBLIC AND TO SECURE TO ALL ITS CITIZENS. JUSTICE, Social, Economic and Political LIBERTY of thought, expression, faith, belief and worship.

EQUALITY of status and opportunity, land to promote among them all FRATERNITY assuring the dignity of the individual and the unity and integrity of the nation. IN OUR CONSTITUENT ASSEMBLY, this twenty-sixth day of November 1949, do hereby ADOPT ENACT AND GIVE TO OURSELVES THIS CONSTITUTION.

Question 61.
What is the importance of the term ‘We the people of India’?
Answer:
The Preamble starts with the phrase ‘We the people of India which illustrates that the people of India are the maker of the Constitution. It speaks about the representative character of the Constitution and accepts people as the ultimate sovereign. The constitution is a popular document which is not imposed on the people but deliberately prepared by a representative Constituent Assembly.

Question 62.
Is India is a sovereign state?
Answer:
Yes, India is a sovereign state and the preamble of the constitution declares about its sovereign character. Internally and externally. India is supreme. Externally, the country is free from any outside authority and it has accepted the membership of international organizations voluntarily internally, it is competent to adopt its domestic policies and regulate the behavior of its nationals and organizations.

Question 63.
Is India is a Secular State?
Answer:
Yes, India is a secular state. A secular state is one which is neither anti-religious nor irreligious. It grants equal status and freedom to, all religions. There is no state religion in India and no religious discrimination is practiced. The Constitution has guaranteed right to freedom of religion to the citizens which symbolizes the secular character of the constitution.

Question 64.
Why is lndia called a democratic republic?
Answer:
The Preamble declares India as a democratic republic. The Indian political system is organized on a comprehensive democratic basis. The parliament and the state legislature are elective bodies and the franchise is extended to all adult citizens universally. The Govt, of India, is elected by the people periodically and remains. responsible.to them. It is a republic because the President being the head of State is elected indirectly. Thus India is called a democratic republic.

Question 65.
Is India a Welfare State?
Answer:
Yes, India is a secular state ordained under Art. 38 of the Constitution. The Directive Principles also embody the principles of a welfare state. The constitution states that the ownership and control of material resources shall be distributed equally to subserve common good. The Govt provides special assistance to the educationally, and economically backward sections of the community. The five-year plans and the socialistic principles are implemented in the country to make India a welfare state.

Question 66.
What is single citizenship?
Answer:
Single citizenship means that in India the power to grant citizenship has been conferred upon the union government only. The state has no authority in this regard. All citizens residing anywhere within India irrespective of their residence or place of birth, are the citizens of India. This idea is supposed to promote a sense of unity among Indians.

Question 67.
What are the five pillars of the Constitution?
Answer:
The five pillars of the constitution are

• the election commission,
• the Finance Commission
• the Union Public Service Commission
• the Attorney General and
• the Auditor-General of India.

These constitute the heart of the democratic structure.

Question 68.
What are the basic philosophy of the Constitution?
Answer:
The basic principles embodying the philosophy of the constitution are as follows:

• Popular sovereignty,
• Federal system
• Fundamental rights of the citizens,
• Directive principles of state policy,
• Judicial independence
• Parliamentary system
• Supremacy of the Union Government.

Question 69.
How the Indian Constitution can be amended?
Answer:
The Indian constitution can be amended by the Parliament under Art. 368. The parliament by required majority can make addition, variation or repeal any provision of the constitution. Such a proposal can be initiated in either House of Parliament and after approval, it is submitted to the President for assent. The President, can’t reject such a proposal and after President’s assent, necessary amendments may be effected.

Question 70.
Why India is called a socialist state?
Answer:
India is called a socialist state, because of the following reasons. The Govt, of India, acts on socialistic lines. The Govt is committed to securing socio-economic and political justice to the people by ending all forms of exploitation. It undertakes economic planning to ensure equitable distribution of wealth and income.

Question 71.
What is the importance of the Preamble to the constitution?
Answer:
A preamble is an introduction to the constitution. It underlines the philosophical foundations of the constitution and its objectives. It outlines in a nutshell the ideals and objectives of our constitution. It lays down the pattern of our political setup, that is to make India a sovereign, socialist, secular, democratic republic. It speaks about the source of constitution And the date of its, adoption.

Question 72.
Is, the Preamble a part of the constitution?
Answer:
This is a controversial question. As per the decision of the Supreme Court on the transfer of the Berubari Union and exchange of Enclaves, the Preamble is not a part of the constitution. But the apex court modified its decision: in the Keshavananda Bharati case and regarded the preamble as a part of the constitution. In fact, it forms a part of the basic structure as it defines the. structure and philosophy of the constitution.

Question 73.
How the Constitution of India has safeguarded the interests of S.Cs and STs?
Answer:
The Indian constitution under Part XVI has specified special provisions for safeguarding the interests of Scheduled Castes Under Art – 330 seats have been reserved for them in the Lok Sabha and under Art. 331 and 332 in the State Legislatures. They are given special facilities to join public service, to get promotions, and to get admission into colleges, universities, and- professional institutions.

Question 74.
Which four new languages have been added to the VIIIth Schedule by the 100th Amendment Act?
Answer:
The four languages which have got an entry into the VIIIth Schedule by the 100th Amendment Act are, Bodo, Dogri, Maithili and Santhali.

Question 75.
Name five major sources of Indian Constitution?
Answer:
The five major sources of Indian Constitution are:

• The Govt, of India Act, 1935
• Provisions of foreign constitutions.
• Records of debates and discussions in the constituent Assembly.
• Parliamentary statutes and judicial decisions.
• The ideals and values of freedom struggle.

Question 76.
86th Constitutional Amendment, 2002?
Answer:
The Parliament passed the 86th Amendment Act, in 2002. It provides for Inclusion of Art. 21 (A) Whereby all children under the age group of 6 to 14 years of age are given the fundamental right of free and compulsory education. It added a new duty in Art. 51(A) increasing the number to 11. By this amendment, it has become the duty of the parents to send their children from 6 to 14 years of age to school.

Question 77.
What do you mean by fundamental Rights?
Answer:

• Fundamental Rights are those rights guaranteed in the constitution.
• It ensures the development of individual personality.
• These rights are guaranteed and protected by the state.
• The fundamental rights are superior to ordinary laws.
• These rights are the bedrock of Indian democracy.
• The Government cannot make laws violating any of these rights.

Question 78.
Name the six Fundamental Rights?
Answer:

• Right to Equality
• Right to Freedom
• Right against Exploitation
• Right of Freedom of Religion
• Educational and Cultural Rights
• Right to Constitutional Remedies

Question 79.
What do you mean by Right to equality?
Answer:
Right to equality is the first fundamental right guaranteed to the citizens. It refers to equality before law and equal protection of laws. If eliminates the possibility of all discrimination against a citizen on grounds of religion, race, sex, caste or place of birth. It guarantees equality of opportunity to all in matters of public employment. It seeks to abolish untouchability to ensure social equality. The constitution prohibits all titles and honors for the Indian except that of military or academic character to maintain proper equality.

Question 80.
What are the six freedom guaranteed under Art19?
Answer:
The six freedoms guaranteed under Art. 19 are:

• Freedom of speech and expression.
• Freedom to assemble peacefully without arms.
• Freedom to form associations or unions.
• Freedom to move freely throughout the territory of India.
• Freedom to reside and settle in any part of India.
• Freedom to practice any profession, occupation, trade, or business.

Question 81.
What does Right against Exploitation imply?
Answer
The right against exploitation is a fundamental right which seeks to prohibit all forms of exploitation of the children and women. It prohibits forced labor and traffic in human beings. It prevents child below 14 years to be employed in any factory or mine where there is danger to life. It also opposes the illegal use of women for immoral purposes. This right is meant for the weaker sections of the community.

Question 82.
What does the Right to Freedom of Religion imply?
Answer:
The Right to Freedom of Religion implies secular character of the state. It has been explained under four articles:

• Art. 25 states that all persons are equally entitled to freedom of conscience and the right to profess, propagate or practice any religion.
• Art. 26 grants the freedom to establish and maintain religious institutions for religious or charitable purposes.
• Art. 27 provides that, no person shall be ” compelled to pay any tax for the promotion of any particular religion.
• Art. 28 states that no religious instruction shall be provided in any educational institution wholly maintained by the state funds.

Question 83.
What is the meaning of Right to constitutional remedies?
Answer:
This is the sixth fundamental right which provides remedial measures for the enforcement of fundamental rights. This right is conferred under Art. 32 of the Constitution and it empowers the Supreme Court to uphold the fundamental rights of the citizens. If the fundamental rights of a citizen are violated he can move to the Supreme Court under Art. 32 or High Court under Art. 226 for redressal. The court can issue appropriate writs to provide- relief to the affected persons.

Question 84.
What are the different kinds of writs issued by the courts for the redressal of fundamental rights?
Answer:
There are five kinds of writs issued by the courts for the redressal of fundamental rights. These writs are

• Habeas Corpus
• Mandamus
• Prohibition
• Certiorari, and
• Quo-Warranto

Question 85.
What is the purpose of the writ of Habeas Corpus?
Answer:
The writ of Habeas Corpus is issued to maintain and enforce the fundamental rights of citizens. It is a Latin word which means to have one’s own body. The purpose of Habeas Corpus is to protect a citizen from unlawful arrest and detention. If a person is arrested or detained without any valid reason the court orders for his release by issuing this writ. It preserves the liberty of a person who is confined without legal justification.

Question 86.
What for the writ of Mandamus is issued?
Answer:
The writ of mandamus is issued by the court commanding a person or authority to do his duty. This writ is used for public purposes to enforce the performance of public duties. It also enforces some privacy rights when they are withheld by the public.

Question 87.
What is prohibition?
Answer:
It is a judicial writ issued by a superior court to an inferior court to prevent the lower court from usurping jurisdiction. The writ of prohibition is meant to check the possibility of abuse in a jurisdiction. If any case pending before the court is beyond its jurisdiction, the higher court by iásue of the writ prohibits the lower cÓurt not to hear such case.

Question 88.
What is Certiorari?
Answer:
A certiorari is a writ issued by a higher court to a lower count for the withdrawal of a case from the latter to the former. Such a writ may be issued even before the trial of the court comes to know that anything beyond the jurisdiction of the court is pending for decision before it. Both the writs of prohibition and certiorari are intended to deal with complaints of excess of jurisdiction.

Question 89.
What is the purpose of Quo warranto?
Answer:
Quo-warranto is a writ which is issued to prevent the illegal assumption of public office. Quo-warrantà’means by what authority. The court issuing the writ has to consider whether there has b&n usurpation of public office or not. It has been there even before the framing of the constitution.

Question 90.
Can the Parliament of India amend the fundamental rights?
Answer:
Yes, the Parliament of India can amend any portion of the fundamental rights excluding the basis structure of the Keshavananda Bharati and others Vs the State of Kerì1a held that the f parliament has right to an end all párts of the Constitution including Part Ill without destroying the basic structure of the constitution.

Question 91.
What do you mean by Directive Principles of State Policy?
Answer:
Directive Principles of State Policy is an important feature of the Indian constitution. These principles are discussed under part IV of the constitution and they are in the nature of constitutional directions o the state and central government to implement in administration. These directives are nonjustifiable but they are considered fundamental in the governance of the country These principles intend to play a positive role in the establishment of a socialist welfare state.

Question 92.
What Is the importance of Directive Principles?
Answer:
The Directive Principles of State Policy have immense utility and importance in making every modem state welfare state. These principles set the foundation of socio-economic democracy in India. These are not obligatory, but they are positive guidelines for the states to observe and implement them in the day-to-day administration of the state. They are not enforceable in any court but they are considered fundamental in the governance of the country.

Question 93.
Name of the socialistic principles of the Directives?
Answer:
The socialistic principles of the Directives contain the following.

• The ownership and control of the material resources of the community must be distributed to subserve common good.
• There must be equal pay for equal work for both men and women.
• The operation of the economic system should not lead to concentration of wealth and means of production to common detriment.
• The health and strength of the workers and tender age of children should not be abused.

Question 94.
Mention at least three Gandhian Principles of the Directives?
Answer:

• Organization of village Panchayats and to provide them with the power of self-government.
• Promotion of educational and economic interests of the S.C. and S.T.
• Promotion of cottage industry on individual and cooperative lines in the rural sector.

Question 95.
What constitutes the liberal principles of the directives?
Answer:
The liberal principles of the directive principles include:

• Separation of executive from the judiciary in public services.
• Provision for uniform civil code throughout the country.
• Protection of monuments and objects of historical and artistic importance.
• Promotion of international peace and security and maintaining adjustable and honorable relations with nations.
• To foster respect for international law and treaty obligations and settlement of international disputes through arbitration.

Question 96.
Fundamental Duties?
Answer:
The fundamental duties are mentioned in Part – IV A, under Art – 51 (A) of the constitution. These are inserted into the text of the constitution by the 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 on the recommendations of Dr. Swaran Singh’s Committee.These are moral in character. These duties are ten in number and in 2002, the 86th Amendment has inserted another duty to the list.

Question 97.
Features of Indian Fundamental Rights?
Answer:
The basic features of Indian fundamental rights can be discussed below:

• These rights are elaborate and comprehensive.
• Both negative and positive rights.
• These rights are not absolute.
• There are certain rights for minorities.
• They are binding upon the union, states, and other state authorities.

Question 98.
Right to Education?
Answer:
The Indian Constitution by the 86 Amendment Act of 2002 has added a new fundamental right under Art.- 21 A, called right to education. Under this article, the govt provides free and compulsory education to all children from the age group of 6 to 14 years in such as manner as the state may by law determine.

Question 99.
The Fundamental Rights in India are defective in many respects.
Answer:
The constitution under part – III has prescribed a comprehensive list of fundamental rights for Indian citizens. But there are certain weaknesses inherent in these rights as are given below:

• The constitution has imposed several limitations on fundamental rights.
• These rights are coded in difficult languages.
• There are no socioeconomic rights.
• The Parliament can amend fundamental rights.
• No mention about natural rights.

Odisha State Board Elements of Mathematics Class 11 CHSE Odisha Solutions Chapter 7 Linear Inequalities Ex 7(b) Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

CHSE Odisha Class 11 Math Solutions Chapter 7 Linear Inequalities Exercise 7(b)

Solve graphically
Question 1.
x < y
Solution:
x < y
Step – 1: Let us draw the dotted line x = y

X	0	1
y	0	1

Step – 2: Let us take a point say (1, 0) which is not on the line. Putting x = 1, y = 0 in the equation we get 1 < 0 (false).
⇒ (1, 0) does not satisfy the inequality.
⇒ The solution is the half-plane that does not contain (1, 0)
Step – 3: The shaded region is the solution region.

Question 2.
3x + 4y ≥ 12
Solution:
3x + 4y ≥ 12
Step – 1: Let us draw the line 3x + 4y = 12

X	4	0
y	0	3

Step – 2: Let us consider the point (0, 0) which is not on the line. Putting x = 0, y = 0 in the inequality we have 0 ≥ 12 (false).
∴ (0, 0) does not satisfy the inequality.
⇒ The half-plane that does not contain (0, 0) is the solution region.
Step – 3: The shaded region is the solution region.

Question 3.
x – y > 0
Solution:
x – y > 0
Step – 1: Let us draw the dotted line x = y.

X	0	1
y	0	1

Step – 2: Let us consider (1, 0) which is not on the line.
Putting x = 1, y = 0 in the inequation we get 1 > 0 (True)
⇒ (1, 0) satisfies the inequation.
⇒ The half-plane containing (1, 0) is the solution region.

Question 4.
x + 2y – 5 ≤ 0
Solution:
x + 2y – 5 ≤ 0
Step – 1: Let us draw the line x + 2y – 5 = 0
⇒ y = \(\frac{5-x}{2}\)

X	5	1
y	0	2

Step – 2: Let us consider the point (0, 0) which does not lie on the line putting x = 0, y = 0 in the inequation we get – 5 < 0 (True).
⇒ The point satisfies the inequation.
⇒ The half-plane containing (0, 0) is the solution region.
Step – 3: The shaded region is the solution region.

Question 5.
7x – 4y < 14
Solution:
7x – 4y < 14
Step – 1: Let us draw the dotted line 7x – 4y = 14

X	2	6
y	0	7

Step – 2: Let us consider the point (0, 0) which does not lie on the line. Putting x = 0, y = 0 in the inequality we get 0 < 14 (True).
⇒ (0, 0) satisfies the inequation.
⇒ The half-plane including (0, 0) is the solution region.
Step – 3: The solution region is the shaded region.

Question 6.
x + 8y + 10 > 0
Solution:
x + 8y + 10 > 0
Step – 1: Let us draw the dotted line x + 8y + 10 = 0

X	-10	-2
y	0	-1

Step – 2: Let us consider the point (0, 0) which does not lie on the line. Putting x = 0, y = 0 in the inequation we get 10 > 0 (True)
⇒ (0, 0) satisfies the inequality.
⇒ The half-plane containing origin is the solution region.
Step – 3: The solution region’ is the shaded region.

Question 7.
5x + 6y < 12
Solution:
5x + 6y < 12
Step – 1: Let us draw the dotted line 5x + 6y = 12

x	-6	0	6
y	7	2	-3

Step – 2: Putting x = 0, y = 0 in the equation we get, 0 < 12 (True)
⇒ The (0, 0) satisfies the equation.
Step – 3: The shaded region is the required solution.

Question 8.
– 3x + y > 0
Solution:
Step – 1: Let us draw the dotted line – 3x + y = 0

x	0	1	-1
y	0	3	-3

Step – 2: Putting x – 1, y = 0 in the equation we get, – 3 > 0 (false)
∴ Point (1, 0) does not satisfy the in the equation.
Step – 3: The shaded half-plane is the solution.

Question 9.
3x + 8y > 24
Solution:
Step- 1: Let us draw the dotted graph of 3x + 8y = 24

x	8	0
y	0	3

Step- 2: Putting x = 0, y- 0 we get, 0 > 24 (false)
∴ 0, (0, 0) does not satisfy the in equality.

Question 10.
x + y > 1
Solution:
Step – 1: Let us draw the graph x + y = 1

x	1	0
y	0	1

Step – 2: Putting x = 0, y = 0 in the equation we get, 0 > 1 (false)
∴ 0 (0, 0) does not satisfy the in equation
Step – 3: The shaded region is the solution.

Question 11.
x ≤ 0
Solution:
Step – 1: Let us draw the graph x = 0

Step – 2: Putting x = – 1 we get, – 1 ≤ 0 (True)
Thus, the shaded region is the solution.

Question 12.
y > 5
Solution:
Step – 1: Let us draw the dotted graph of y = 5

x	0	1	-1
y	5	5	5

Step- 2: Putting x = 0, y = 0 we have 0 > 5 (false)
we 0(0, 0) does not satisfy. the inequality.
Step – 3: The shaded region is the solution.

Odisha State Board Elements of Mathematics Class 11 CHSE Odisha Solutions Chapter 7 Linear Inequalities Ex 7(a) Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

CHSE Odisha Class 11 Math Solutions Chapter 7 Linear Inequalities Exercise 7(a)

Question 1.
Determine whether the solution set is finite or infinite or empty:
(i) x < 1000, x ∈ N
Solution:
Finite

(ii) x < 1, x ∈ Z (set of integers)
Solution:
Infinite

(iii) x < 2, x is a positive integer.
Solution:
Finite

(iv) x < 1, x is a positive integer.
Solution:
Empty

Question 2.
Solve as directed:
(i) 5x ≤ 20 in positive integers, in integers.
Solution:
5x ≤ 20
⇒ \(\frac{5 x}{5} \leq \frac{20}{5}\)
⇒ x ≤ 4
If x is a positive integer, then the solution set is {1, 2, 3, 4}
If x is an integer, then the solution set is:
S = {x : x ∈ Z and x ≤ 4}
= { ….. -3, -2, -1, 0, 1, 2, 3, 4}

(ii) 2x + 3 > 15 in integers, in natural numbers.
Do you mark any difference in the solution sets?
Solution:
2x + 3 > 15
⇒ 2x + 3 – 3 > 15 – 3
⇒ 2x > 12
⇒ \(\frac{2 x}{2}>\frac{12}{2}\)
⇒ x > 6
If x ∈ Z, then the solution set is S = (x : x ∈ Z and x > 6}
= {7, 8, 9…… }
If x ∈ N. then the solution set is S = {x : x ∈ N and x > 6}
= {7, 8, 9…… }
Two solution sets are the same.

(iii) 5x + 7 < 32 in integers, in non-negative integers.
Solution:
5x + 7 < 32
⇒ 5x + 7 – 7 < 32 – 7
⇒ 5x < 25
⇒ \(\frac{5 x}{5}<\frac{25}{5}\)
⇒ x < 5
If x ∈ Z, then the solution set is S = { x : x ∈ Z and x < 5 }
= {…..-3, -2, -1, 0, 1, 2, 3, 4}
If x is a non-negative solution then the solution set is S = {x : x is a non-negative integer < 5}
= (0, 1,2, 3,4}

(iv) -3x – 8 > 19, in integers, in real numbers.
Solution:
– 3x – 8 > 19
⇒ – 3 x – 8 + 8 > 19 + 8
⇒ – 3x > 27
⇒ \(\frac{-3 x}{-3}<\frac{27}{-3}\)
⇒ x < – 9
If x ∈ Z, then the solution set is S = (x : x ∈ Z and x < – 9}
= { ……..- 11, – 10}
If x ∈ R then the solution set is S = {x : x ∈ R and x < – 9}
= (∞, – 9)

(v) |x – 3| < 11, in N and in R.
Solution:
|x – 3| < 11
⇒ – 1 < x – 3 < 11
⇒ – 11 + 3 < x – 3 + 3 < 11+3
⇒ – 8 < x < 14
If x ∈ N the solution set is S = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5……..12, 13}
If x ∈ R then the solution set is: S = {x : x ∈ R and – 8 < x < 14}
= (- 8, 14)

Question 3.
Solve as directed:
(i) 2x + 3 > x – 7 in R
Solution:
2x + 3 > x – 7
⇒ 2x – x > – 7 – 3
⇒  x > – 10
x ∈ R, the solution set is S = (x : x ∈ R and x > – 10} = (-10, ∞)

(ii) \(\frac{x}{2}+\frac{7}{3}\) <  3x – 1 in R
Solution:
\(\frac{x}{2}+\frac{7}{3}\) <  3x – 1
\(\frac{3 x+14}{6}\) <  3x – 1
⇒ 3x + 14 < 18x – 6
⇒ 3x – 18x < – 6 – 14
⇒ – 15x < – 20
⇒ \(\frac{-15 x}{-15}>\frac{-20}{-15}\)
⇒ x > \(\frac{4}{3}\)
If x ∈ R, the solution set is S = \(\left(\frac{4}{3}, \infty\right)=\left\{x: x \in R \text { and } x>\frac{4}{3}\right\}\)

(iii) \(\frac{x}{2}-\frac{x}{3}+\frac{x}{5} \leq \frac{11}{3}\) for non-negative real numbers.
Solution:
\(\frac{x}{2}-\frac{x}{3}+\frac{x}{5} \leq \frac{11}{3}\)
⇒ \(\frac{15 x-10 x+6 x}{30}\) ≤ \(\frac{11}{3}\)
⇒ 11x ≤ \(\frac{11}{3}\) × 30
⇒ 11x ≤ 110
⇒ x ≤ 10
If x is a non-negative real number then the solution set is S = {x : x ∈ R and 0 ≤ x ≤ 10}
= {0, 10}

(iv) 2(3x – 1) < 7x + 1 < 3 (2x + 1) for real values.
Solution:
2(3x – 1) < 7x + 1 < 3(2x + 1)
⇒ 6x – 2 < 7x + 1< 6x + 3
⇒ – 2 < x + 1 < 3
⇒ – 3 < x < 2
If x ∈ R, the solution set is S = (x : x ∈ R and -3 < x < 2}
= {-3, 2}

(v) 7(x – 3) ≤ 4 (x + 6), for non-negative integral values.
Solution:
7(x – 3) ≤ 4(x + 6)
⇒ 7x – 21 ≤ 4x + 24
⇒ 7x – 4x ≤ 24 + 21
⇒ 3x ≤ 45
⇒ x ≤ 9
If x is a non-negative integer the solution set is S = {0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9}

(vi) Convert to linear inequality and solve for natural numbers: (x – 2) (x – 3) < (x + 3) (x – 1)
Solution:
(x – 2) (x – 3) < (x + 3) (x – 1)
⇒ x² – 5x + 6  <  x² + 2x – 3
⇒ – 5x + 6 < 2x – 3
⇒ – 5x – 2x < – 3 – 6
⇒ – 7x < – 9
⇒ x > \(\frac{9}{7}\)
If x ∈ N, the solution set is S = {2, 3, 4 }

(vii) Solve in R, \(\frac{x}{2}\) + 1 ≤ 2x – 5 < x. Also, find its solution in N.
Solution:
\(\frac{x}{2}\) + 1 ≤ 2x – 5 < x
⇒ \(\frac{x}{2}\) +1 ≤ 2x – 5 and 2x – 5 < x
⇒ \(\frac{x}{2}\) – 2x ≤ – 5 – 1 and x < 5
⇒ \(\frac{-3x}{2}\) ≤ – 6 and x < 5
⇒ – 3x ≤ – 12 and x < 5
⇒ x ≥ 4 and x < 5
⇒ 4 ≤ x < 5
If x ∈ R, the solution set is S = {x : x ∈ R and 4 < x < 5}
= {4, 5}
If x ∈ N, the solution set is S = { 4 }

(viii) Solve in R and also in Z: \(\frac{3 x+1}{5} \geq \frac{x+2}{3}-\frac{5-3 x}{5}\)
Solution:
\(\frac{3 x+1}{5} \geq \frac{x+2}{3}-\frac{5-3 x}{5}\)
⇒ \(\frac{3 x+1}{5} \geq \frac{5 x+10-15+9 x}{15}\)
⇒ 3x + 1 ≥ \(\frac{14 x-5}{3}\)
⇒ 9x + 3 ≥ 14x – 5
⇒ 9x – 14x ≥ – 5 – 3
⇒ – 5x ≥ – 8
⇒ x ≤ \(\frac{8}{5}\)
If x ∈ R, then the solution set is S = (x : x ∈ R and x ≤ \(\frac{8}{5}\)}
= (- ∞, \(\frac{8}{5}\))
If x ∈ Z, then the solution set is S = { x : x ∈ Z and x ≤ \(\frac{8}{5}\)}
= {……. -3, -2, -1, 0, 1}

Question 4.
Solve |x – 1| >1 and represent the solution on the number line.
[Exhaustive hints: By definition of modulus function
For x – 1 ≥ 0 or x ≥ 1, |x – 1| > 1
⇔ x – 1 > 1 ⇔ x > 2 ⇔ x ∈ (2, ∞)
For x- 1 < 0 or x < 1, |x – 1| > 1
⇔ – (x – 1) > 1
⇔ x – 1 < -1 (multiplication by -1 reverses the inequality)
⇔ x < 0 ⇔ x ∈ ( -∞, 0)
∴ The solution set is the Union,
(-∞, 0) ∪ (2, ∞) Show this as two disjoint open intervals on the number line, i.e., real line.]
Solution:
|x – 1| > 1
⇒ – 1 > x – 1 > 1
⇒ 0 > x > 2
⇒ x < 0 and x > 2
∴ The solution set is S = {x : x ∈ R, x < 0 and x > 2}
= (-∞, 0) ∪ (2, ∞)
We can show this solution in the number line as

Question 5.
Solve in R and represent the solution on the number line.
(i) |x – 5| < 1
Solution:
|x – 5| < 1
⇒ – 1< x – 5 < 1
⇒ 4 < x < 6
If x ∈ R, then the solution set is S = (4, 6)
We can represent the solution on the number line as

(ii) \(\frac{x}{5}<\frac{2 x+1}{3}+\frac{1-3 x}{6}\)
Solution:
\(\frac{x}{5}<\frac{2 x+1}{3}+\frac{1-3 x}{6}\)
⇒ \(\frac{x}{5}<\frac{4 x+2+1-3 x}{6}\)
⇒ \(\frac{x}{5}<\frac{x+3}{6}\)
⇒ 6x < 5x + 15
⇒ x < 15
If x ∈ R, the solution set is S = (-∞, 5)
We can represent the solution on the number line as

(iii) 2x + 1 ≥ 0
Solution:
2x + 1 ≥ 0
⇒ 2x ≥ -1
⇒ x ≥ -1/2
If x ∈ R, then the solution set is S = [\(-\frac{1}{2}\), ∞]
We can represent the solution on the number line as

(iv) \(\frac{x-1}{2} \leq \frac{x+1}{3}<\frac{3 x-1}{6}\)
Solution:
\(\frac{x-1}{2} \leq \frac{x+1}{3}<\frac{3 x-1}{6}\)
⇒ 3x – 3 ≤ 2x + 2 < 3x – 1
⇒ 3x – 3 ≤ 2x + 2 and 2x + 2 < 3x – 1
⇒ x ≤ 5 and – x < – 3
⇒ x ≤ 5 and x > 3
⇒ 3 < x ≤ 5
If x ∈ R, the solution set is S = {3, 5}
We can represent the solution on the number line as

Question 6.
In a triangle, ABC; AB, BC, and CA are x, 3x + 2, and x + 4 units respectively where x ∈ N. Find the length of its sides. (Hint: Apply triangle-inequality).
Solution:
Given AB = x
BC = 3x + 2
and CA = x + 4
Now AB + AC > BC (Triangle inequality)
⇒ x + x + 4 > 3x + 2
⇒ 2x + 4 > 3x + 2
⇒ – x > – 2
⇒ x < 2
As x ∈ N we have x = 1
The sides of triangle ABC are
AB = 1 unit
BC = 5 units
and CA = 5 units

Question 7.
The length of one side of a parallelogram is 1 cm. shorter than that of its adjacent side. If its perimeter is at least 26 c.m., find the minimum possible lengths of its sides.
Solution:
Let the longer side = x cm
∴ The smaller side = (x – 1) cm
Perimeter = 2(x + (x – 1)) = 4x – 2 cm
According to the question
4x – 2 ≥ 26
⇒ 4x ≥ 28
⇒ x > 7
The minimum value of x = 7.
∴ The minimum length of the sides is 7cm and 6 cm.

Question 8.
The length of the largest side of a quadrilateral is three times that of its smallest side. Out of the other two sides, the length of one is twice that of the smallest and the other is 1 cm. longer than the smallest. If the perimeter of the quadrilateral is at most 36 c.m., then find the maximum possible lengths of its sides.
Solution:
Let the smallest side = x cm.
Largest side = 3 times x = 3x cm.
The other two sides are 2x cm and x + 1 cm.
⇒ The perimeter = x + 3x + 2x + x + 1
= 7x + 1 cm
According to the question:
7x + 1 ≤ 36
⇒ 7x ≤ 35
⇒ x ≤ 5
Maximum value of x = 5
∴ The maximum possible length of sides are x = 5 cm, 3x = 15 cm, 2x = 10 cm, and x + 1 = 6 cm.

Question 9.
Find all pairs of consecutive odd numbers each greater than 20, such that their sum is less than 60.
Solution:
Let two consecutive odd numbers are
2n – 1 and 2n + 1
Now 2n – 1 > 20 and 2n + 1 > 20
But their sum = 2n – 1 + 2n + 1
= 4n < 60
⇒ n < 15
for n = 14 two numbers are 27, 29
for n = 13 two numbers are 25, 27
for n = 12 two numbers are 23, 25
for n = 11 two numbers are 21, 23
∴ All pairs are 21, 23; 23, 25; 25, 27 and 27, 29

Question 10.
Find all pairs of even numbers each less than 35, such that their sum is at least 50.
Solution:
Let two even numbers be x and y.
According to the question
x < 35, y < 35 and x + y ≥ 50
⇒ x ≤ 34, y ≤ 34 and x + y ≥ 50
⇒ x + y ≤ 70, x + y ≥ 50
⇒ 50 ≤ x + y ≤ 70
If x + y = 50 the numbers are {34, 16}, {32, 18}, {30, 20}, {28, 22}, {26, 24}
If x + y = 52 the numbers are {34, 18}, {32, 20}, {30, 22}, {28, 24}, {26, 26}
If x + y = 34 the numbers are {34, 20}, {32, 22}, {30, 24}
If x + y = 56 the numbers are {34, 22}, {32, 24}, {30, 26}, {28, 28}
If x + y = 58 the numbers are {34, 24}, {32, 26}, {30, 28}
If x + y = 60 the numbers are {34, 26}, {32, 28}, {30, 30}
If x + y = 62 the numbers are {34, 28}, {32, 30}
If x + y = 64 the numbers are {34, 30}, {32, 32}
If x + y = 68 the numbers are {34, 34}

Odisha State Board CHSE Odisha Class 11 Math Solutions Chapter 3 Relations And Functions Ex 3(a) Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

CHSE Odisha Class 11 Math Solutions Chapter 3 Relations And Functions Exercise 3(a)

Question 1.
Compute the product A × B when
(i) A = {0} = B
(ii) A = {a, b}, B = {a, b, c}
(iii) A = Z, B = Φ
Solution:
(i) A = {0} = B
∴ A × B = {(0, 0)}

(ii) A = {a, b}, B = {a, b, c}
∴ A × B = {(a, a), (a, b), (a, c), (b, a), (b, b), (b, c)}

(iii) A = Z, B = Φ ∴ AxB = Φ

Question 2.
If |A| = m, |B| = n, what can you say about
(i) |A × B| (ii) |P(A) × P(B)|
Solution:
If |A| = m. |B| = n then

(i) lA × B| = mn.

(ii) |P(A)| = 2^m . |P(B)| = 2ⁿ
∴  |P(A) × P(B)| =2^m × 2ⁿ = 2^m+n

Question 3.
Find x, y if
(i) (x, y) = (-3, 2)
(ii) {x + y, 1) = (1, x – y)
(iii) (2x + y, 1) = (x, 2x + 3y)
Solution:

(i) ∴ x = – 3, y = 2

(ii) ∴ x + y = 1, x – y = 1
∴ 2x = 2 or, x = 1
∴ y=0

(iii) ∴ 2x + y = x, 1 = 2x + 3y
∴ {x + y = 0} × 2
2x + 3y = 1
–      –      –
∴ – y = – 1 or, y = 1
∴ x = – 1

Question 4.
If, A × B = B × A then what can you
Solution:
If A × B = B × A then A = B

Question 5.
|A × B| = 6. If ( -1, y ), (1, x), (0, y) are in A × B. Write other elements in A × B, where x ≠ y.
Solution:
Let |A × B| = 6 and (-1, y) (1, .x) (0, y) ∈ A × B
⇒ -1, 1, 0 ∈ A and x, y ∈ B
As |A × B| = 6 and 3 × 2 = 6
We have A = {-1, 1, 0} and B = {x, y}
Thus other elements of A × B is (-1, x) , (1, y), (0, x)

Odisha State Board Elements of Mathematics Class 11 CHSE Odisha Solutions Chapter 4 Trigonometric Functions Ex 4(d) Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

CHSE Odisha Class 11 Math Solutions Chapter 4 Trigonometric Functions Exercise 4(d)

Question 1.
Fill in the blanks choosing the correct answer from the brackets.

(i) In Δ ABC, b =____________. (b cos B + c cos C, a cos A + c cos C, c cos A + a cos C)
Solution:
c cos A + a cos C

(ii) If a cot A = b cot B then Δ ABC is__________. (isosceles, right-angled, equilateral)
Solution:
isosceles

(iii) In Δ ABC if b sin C = c sin B = 2 then b sin C = ___________. (0, 1, 2)
Solution:
1

(iv) In Δ ABC if \(\frac{\cos \mathrm{A}}{a}=\frac{\cos \mathrm{B}}{b}=\frac{\cos \mathrm{C}}{c}\) then the tringle is_________ (equilateral, isosceles, scalene)
Solution:
equilateral

(v) If sin A = sin B and b = 1/2, then a = _______________. (2, 1/2, 1)
Solution:
a = 1/2

(vi) In Δ ABC if A = 60°, B = 45° a : b = __________. ( √2 : √3, √6 : 2, √3 : 2)
Solution:
√6 : 2

(vii) In Δ ABC if b² + c² < a² , then _________ angle is obtuse. (A, B, C)
Solution:
A

(viii) If a cos B = b cos A. then cos B = _____________. \(\left(\frac{c}{a}, \frac{a}{2 c}, \frac{c}{2 a}\right)\)
Solution:
cos B = \(\frac{c}{2 a}\)

(ix) If a – b cos C, then __________ angle is a right angle. (A, B, C)
Solution:
∠B is a right angle

(x) If a = 12, b = 7, C = 30°, then Δ = ______________. (42, 84, 21)
Solution:
Δ = 21

Question 2.
Prove that
(i) a sin A – b sin B = c sin (A – B)
Solution:
R.H.S. = c sin (A – B)
= 2R sin C sin (A – B)
= 2R sin (A + B) sin (A – B)
[∴ A + B + C = π or, A + B = π – C
or sin (A + B) = sin (π – C) sin C]
= 2R (sin² A – sin²  B)
= 2R sin A sin A – 2R sin B sin B
= a sin A – b sin B = L.H.S.

(ii) b cos B + c cos C = a cos (B – C)
Solution:
R.H.S. = a cos (B – C)
= 2R sin A cos (B – C)
= 2R sin (B + C) cos (B – C)
= R sin (B + C + B – C) + sin (B + C – B + C)}
= R [(sin 2B + sin 2C)
= R(2sin B cos B + 2 sin C cos C)
= 2R sin B cos B + 2R sin C cos C
= b cos B + c cos C = L.H.S.

(iii) If (a + b + c)(b + c – a) = 3bc, then A = 60°
Solution:

(iv) If \(\frac{b+c}{5}=\frac{c+a}{6}=\frac{a+b}{7}\) then sin A : sin B : sin C = 4 : 3 : 2
Solution:

(v) If A: B: C = 1 : 2 : 3 then sin A: sin B: sin C = 1 : 2
Solution:

(vi) If b² + c² – a² = bc, then A = 60°
Solution:
If b² + c² – a² = bc, then A = 60°
or, \(\frac{b^2+c^2-a^2}{2 b c}\) = 1/2 or, cos A = 1/2
or, A = 60°

(vii) If A : B: C = 1 : 2 : 7, then c: a = (√5 + 1) : (√5 – 1)
Solution:

But we know that \(\frac{\sin C}{\sin A}=\frac{c}{a}\)
∴ \(\frac{c}{a}=\frac{\sqrt{5}+1}{\sqrt{5}-1}\)

Question 3.
(i) If cos A = \(\frac{12}{13}\), cos B = \(\frac{5}{13}\) then find a : b.
Solution:

(ii) If a = 7, b = 3, c = 5 then find A.
Solution:

(iii) If a = 8, b = 6, c = 4 find tan \(\frac{B}{2}\)
Solution:

(iv) If \(\frac{a}{\sec A}=\frac{b}{\sec B}\) and a ≠ b then find C.
Solution:

(v) If a = 48, b = 35, ∠C = 60° then find c.
Solution:

In Δ ABC prove that (Q. 4 to Q. 26)

Question 4.
a sin (B – C) + b sin (C – A) + c sin (A – B) = 0
Solution:
a sin (B – C) + b sin (C – A) + c sin (A – B)
= 2R sin A sin (B – C) + 2R sin B sin (C – A) + 2R sin C sin (A – B)
= 2R [sin (B + C) sin (B – C) + sin (C + A) sin (C – A) + sin (A + B) sin (A – B)]
= 2R[sin² B – sin² C + sin² C – sin² A + sin² A – sin² A]
= 2R x 0 = 0

Question 5.
\(\frac{\sin (B-C)}{\sin (B+C)}=\frac{b \cos C-c \cos B}{b \cos C+c \cos B}\)
Solution:

Question 6.
\(\sum \frac{a^2 \sin (B-C)}{\sin (B+C)}=0\)
Solution:

Question 7.
a²(cos² B – cos² C) + b²(cos² C – cos² A) + c²(cos² A – cos² B) = 0
Solution:

Question 8.
\(\frac{b^2-c^2}{a^2} \sin 2 A+\frac{c^2-a^2}{b^2} \sin 2 B\) \(+\frac{a^2-b^2}{c^2} \sin 2 \mathrm{C}=0\)
Solution:

Question 9.
\(\frac{a^2\left(b^2+c^2-a^2\right)}{\sin 2 \mathrm{~A}}=\frac{b^2\left(c^2+a^2-b^2\right)}{\sin 2 \mathrm{~B}}\) \(=\frac{c^2\left(a^2+b^2-c^2\right)}{\sin 2 C}\)
Solution:

Question 10.
\(\Sigma \frac{\cos A}{\sin B \cdot \sin C}=2\)
Solution:

Question 11.
(a² – b² + c²) tan B = (a² + b² – c²) tan C
Solution:

Question 12.
(b² – c²) cot A + (c² – a²) cot B + (a² – b²) cot C = 0
Solution:

Question 13.
\(\frac{b+c}{a}=\frac{\cos \mathbf{B}+\cos C}{1-\cos A}\)
Solution:

Question 14.
\(\sum a^3 \sin (B-C)=0\)
Solution:

Question 15.
(b + c) cos A + (c + a) cos B + (a + b) cos C = a + b + c
Solution:
L.H.S. = (b + c) cos A + (c + a) cos B + (a + b) cos C
= b cos A + c cos A + a cos B + c cos B + a cos C + b cos C
= (b cos C+ c cos B) +(c cos A + a cos C) + (a cos B + b cos A)
= a + b + c = R.H.S.

Question 16.
2 (bc cos A + ca cos B + ab cos C) = a² + b² + c²
Solution:
2 (bc cos A + ca cos B + ab cos C) = a² + b² + c²
\(=2\left(b c \times \frac{\left(b^2+c^2-a^2\right)}{2 b c}+c a \times \frac{c^2+a^2-b^2}{2 c a}\right.\) \(\left.+a b \times \frac{a^2+b^2-c^2}{2 a b}\right)\)
= b² + c² – a² + c² + a² – b² + a² + b²– c²
= a² + b² + c²

Question 17.
a (b² + c²) cos A + b (c² + a²) cos B + c(a² + b²) cos C = 3 abc.
Solution:
a (b² + c²) cos A + b (c² + a²) cos B + c(a² + b²) cos C
= ab² cos A + ac² cos A + bc² cos B + ba² cos B + ca² cos C + cb² cos C
= ab² cos A + ba² cos B + ac² cos A + ca² cos C + bc² cos B + cb² cos C
= ab (b cos A + a cos B) + ac (c cos A + a cos C) bc (c cos B + b cos C)
= abc = abc + abc = 3abc

Question 18.
a³ cos (B – C) + b³ cos (C – A) + c³ cos (A – B) = 3 abc
Solution:
1st term of L.H.S. = a³ cos (B – C)
= a² a cos (B – C)
= a² . 2R sin A cos (B – C)
= 2a²R sin (B + C) cos (B- C)
= a²R [sin (B + C + B – C) + sin (B + C – B + C)]
= a² R (sin 2B + sin 2C)
= a²R [2 sin B cos B + 2 sin C cos C]
= a² [2R sin B cos B + 2R sin C cos C]
= a² (b cos B + c cos C)
Similarly, 2nd term
= b² (c cos C + a cos A) and
3rd term = c² (a cos A + b cos B)
∴ L.H.S.= a²b cos B+a²c cos C+b²c cos C + b²a cos A + c²a cos A + c²b cos B
= ab (a cos B + b cos A) + bc (b cos C + c cos B) + ca (c cos A + a cos C)
= abc + bca + cab = 3abc = R.H.S.

Question 19.
a (cos B + cos C) = 2(b + c) sin² \(\frac{A}{2}\)
Solution:
Refer to Q. N. 13.

Question 20.
(b + c – a) tan \(\frac{A}{2}\) = (c + a – b) tan \(\frac{B}{2}\) = (a + b – c) tan \(\frac{C}{2}\)
Solution:

Question 21.
\((b+c-a)\left(\cot \frac{B}{2}+\cot \frac{C}{2}\right)\) \(=2 a \cot \frac{A}{2}\)
Solution:

Question 22.
(a – b)² cos² \(\frac{C}{2}\) + (a + b)² sin² \(\frac{C}{2}\) = c²
Solution:
L.H.S = (a – b)² cos² \(\frac{C}{2}\) + (a + b)² sin² \(\frac{C}{2}\)

Question 23.
1 – tan \(\frac{A}{2}\) tan \(\frac{B}{2}\) = \(\frac{c}{2}\)
Solution:

Question 24.
(b – c) cot \(\frac{A}{2}\) + (c – a) cot \(\frac{B}{2}\) + (a – b) cot \(\frac{C}{2}\) = 0
Solution:

Question 25.
cot A + cot B + cot C = \(\frac{a^2+b^2+c^2}{4 \Delta}\)
Solution:

Question 26.
a² cot A + b² cot B + c² cot C = 4Δ
Solution:

Question 27.
If \(\frac{1}{a+c}+\frac{1}{b+c}=\frac{3}{a+b+c}\) then prove C = 60°.
Solution:

or, cos C = 1/2 or, ∠C = 60°

Question 28.
If a = 2b and A = 3B, find the measures of the angles of the triangle.
Solution:
If a = 2b and A = 3B, we have \(\frac{a}{b}\) = 2
or, \(\frac{\sin A}{\sin B}\) = 2
or, sin A = 2 sin B         …..(1)
Also  sin A = sin 3B (as a = 3B)    …..(2)
∴ From (1) and (2), we have
2 sin B = sin 3B = 3 sin B – 4 sin³ B
or, 4 sin³ B – sin B = 0
or, sin B(4 sin² B – 1) = 0
or, sin B = 0, 4 sin² B = 1
Now sin B = 0 ⇒ B = 0 (Impossible)
∴ sin² B = \(\frac{1}{2}\) or, sin B = ± \(\frac{1}{2}\)
If sin B = \(\frac{1}{2}\) then ∠B = 30°
∴ A = 3B = 3 x 30° = 90°
∠C = 60°

Question 29.
If a⁴ + b⁴ + c⁴ = 2c² (A² + b²), prove that m∠ACB = 45° or 135°.
Solution:
a⁴ + b⁴ + c⁴ = 2c² (a² + b²)
or, a⁴ + b⁴ + c⁴ + 2a²b² – 2b²c² – 2c²a² = 2a²b²
or, (a² + b² – c²)² = 2a²b²
or, a² + b² – c² = ± √2 ab
or, \(\frac{a^2+b^2-c^2}{2 a b}=\pm \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\)
or, cos C = ± \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\)
∴ ∠C = 45° or 135°.

Question 30.
If x² + x + 1, 2x + 1, and x² – 1 are lengths of sides of a triangle, then prove that the measure of the greatest angle is 120°.
Solution:

Question 31.
if cos B = \(\frac{\sin A}{2 \sin C}\), prove that the triangle is isosceles.
Solution:
cos B = \(\frac{\sin A}{2 \sin C}\)
⇒ \(\frac{c^2+a^2-b^2}{2 c a}=\frac{a}{2 c}\) ⇒ c² + a² – b² = a²
or, c² = b² or, c = b
∴ The triangle is isosceles.

Question 32.
If a tan A + b tan B = (a + b)tan \(\frac{1}{2}\) (A + B) prove that the triangle is isosceles.
Solution:

Question 33.
If (cos A + 2 cos C) : (cos A + 2 cos B) = sin B : sin C prove that the triangles are either isosceles or right-angled.
Solution:
\(\frac{\cos A+2 \cos C}{\cos A+2 \cos B}=\frac{\sin B}{\sin C}\)
⇒ cos A sin C = cos A sin B + 2 cos B sin B
⇒ cos A (sin B – sin C) + (sin 2B – sin 2c) = 0
⇒ cos A (sin B – sin C) + 2 cos (B + C) sin (B – C) = 0
⇒ cos A (sin B – sin C) – 2 cos A sin (B – C) = 0
(∴ cos (B + C) = cos (π – A) = – cos A)
⇒ cos A = 0 or sin B – sin C – 2 sin (B – C) = 0
cos A = 0 ⇒ A = 90°
i.e. the triangle is right-angled. sin B sin C – 2 sin (B – C) = 0

Question 34.
If cos A = sin B – cos C, prove that the triangle is right-angled.
Solution:
cos A = sin B – cos C
or, cos C + cos A = sin B

or, 2C = π
or, C = \(\frac{\pi}{2}\)

Question 35.
If a², b², c²  be in A.P., prove that cot A, cot B, cot C are also in A.P.
Solution:
If a², b², c²  be in A.P.
then b² – a² = c² – b²
or, 2b² = c² + a²
or, \(b^2=\frac{c^2+a^2}{2}\)
or, 2b² = c² + a² …..(1)
We have to prove that cot A, cot B, cot C are in A.P.
i.e. to prove cot B – cot A = cot C – cot B
i.e. 2 Cot B = cot C + cot A
∴ R.H.S. = cot C + cot A

Question 36.
If sin A: sin C = sin (A – B) : sin (B – C) prove that a², b², c² are in A.P.
Solution:
\(\frac{\sin A}{\sin C}=\frac{\sin (A-B)}{\sin (B-C)}\)
or, sin A sin (B – C) = sin C sin (A – B)
or, sin (B + C) sin (B – C) = sin (A + B) sin (A – B)
or, sin² B – sin² C = sin² A – sin² B
or, 2 sin² B = sin² C + sin² A
or, \(2 \frac{b^2}{4 \mathrm{R}^2}=\frac{c^2}{4 \mathrm{R}^2}+\frac{a^2}{4 \mathrm{R}^2}\)
or, 2b² = c² + a²
or, b² – a² = c² – b²
∴ a², b², c² are in A.P

Question 37.
If the side lengths a, b, and c are in A.P., then prove that cos \(\frac{1}{2}\) (A – C) = 2 sin \(\frac{1}{2}\) B.
Solution:
If a,b, and c are in A.P. then b – a – c – b or, 2b = c + a
We have to prove that

Question 38.
If the side lengths a, b, and c are in A.P., prove that cot \(\frac{1}{2}\) A, cot \(\frac{1}{2}\) B, cot \(\frac{1}{2}\) C are in A.P.
Solution:

Odisha State Board Elements of Mathematics Class 11 Solutions CHSE Odisha Chapter 2 Sets Ex 2(b) Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

CHSE Odisha Class 11 Math Solutions Chapter 2 Sets Exercise 2(b)

Question 1.
An examination was conducted in physics, chemistry, and mathematics. If P.C.M. denotes respectively the sets of students who passed in Physics, Chemistry, and Mathematics, express the following sets using union, intersection, and different symbols.
(a) Set of candidates who passed in Mathematics and Chemistry, but not in Physics.
(b) Set of candidates who passed in all three subjects.
(c) Set of candidates who passed in Mathematics only.
(d) Set of candidates who failed in Mathematics, but passed in at least one subject.
(e) Set of candidates who passed in at least two subjects.
(f) Set of candidates who failed in one subject only.
Solution:
An examination was conducted in Physics, Chemistry, and Mathematics. P, C, and M denoted the set of students who passed Physics, Chemistry, and Mathematics, respectively. Then.
(a) Set of candidates who passed in Mathematics and Chemistry, but not in Physics (M ∩ C) – P.
(b) Set of candidates who passed in all three subjects M ∩ C ∩ P.
(c) Set of candidates who passed in Mathematics only M – C – P.
(d) Set of candidates who failed in Mathematics, but passed in at least one subject (P ∪ C) – M.
(e) Set of candidates who passed in at least two subjects.
(f) Set of candidates who failed in one subject only.
(P ∩ C – M) ∪ (P ∩ M – C) ∪ (M ∩ C – P)

Question 2.
What can you say about sets A and B if
(i) A ∪ B= Φ
(ii) A Δ B = Φ
(iii) A \ B = Φ
(iv) A \ B = A
(v) A ∩ B= U, Where U is the Universal set, A \ B = U?
Solution:
(i) if A ∪ B = Φ then A = Φ =B
(ii) A Δ B = Φ ⇒ A = B
(iii) A – B = Φ ⇒ A ⊆ B
(iv) A – B = A ⇒ B = Φ
(v) A ∩ B = U ⇒ A = B = U
(vi) A – B = U ⇒ A = U and B = Φ

Question 3.
Are differences and symmetric commutative? Give reason.
Solution:
The difference of the two sets is not commutative but the symmetric of the two sets is commutative.
Reason:
Let x ∈ A – B ⇔ x ∈ A ∧ x ∉ B
≠ x ∈ B ∧ x ∉ A ⇔ x ∈ b – A
A- B ≠ B – A
But if y ∈ A Δ ⇔ y ∈ (A-B) ∪ (B – A)
⇒ y ∈ (B – A) ∪ (A – B) ⇔ y ∈ B Δ A
∴ A Δ B = B Δ A.

Question 4.
If B ⊂ C, prove that A/B = A/C. Is this result true when a difference is replaced by a symmetric difference? Give reason.
Solution:
If B ⊂ C, then x ∈ A ⇒ x ∈ C
Now x ∈ A – C ⇔ x: x ∈ A ∧ x ∉ C
⇔ {x: x ∈ A ∧ x ∉ B}
⇔ {x: x ∈ A – C}
∴ A – C = A – B
but, A Δ B ≠ A Δ C.

Question 5.
Prove the following :
(i) (A\B)\C = (A\C)\B = A\(B ∪ C)
(ii) A ∩ (B ∪ C) = (A ∩ B) ∪ (A ∪ B)
(iii) A Δ (B Δ C) = (A Δ B) Δ C
(iv) A ⊂ B ⇔ B’ ⊂ A’ A ⇔ A’ ∪ B = U
⇔ B’ ∩ A = Φ, where U is the universal set.
(v) A ∪ B = U and A ∩ B = Φ
⇒ B = A’
(iv) A ∪ B = A for all A ⇒ B = Φ
Solution:

(i) Let x ∈ (A – B) – C    ……(1)
⇔ x ∈ A- B ∧ x ∉ C
⇔ (x ∈ A ∧ x ∉ B) ∧ x ∉ C   ……(2)
⇔ (x ∈ A ∧ x ∉ C) ∧ x ∉ B
⇔ x ∈ A – C ∧ x ∉ B
⇔ x ∈ (A – C) – B   ……(3)
∴ from (2), we have
x ∈ A ∧ ∉ B ∧ x ∉ C
⇔ x ∈ A ∧ (x ∉ B ∧ x ∉ C)
⇔ x ∈ A ∧ x ∉ B ∪ C
[∴ ~ (p ∨ q) = ~ p ∧ ~ q]
⇔ x ∈ A – (B ∪ C)   …….(4)
∴ From (1), (3), and (4), we have
(A – B) – C = (A – C)-B = A – (B ∪ C)

(ii) Let x ∈ A ∩ (B ∪ C)
⇔ x ∈ A ∧ x ∈ B Δ C
⇔ x ∈ A ∧ (x ∈ B – C ∨ x ∉ C – B)
⇔ x ∈ A ∧ (x ∈ B ∧ x ∉ C ∨ x ∈ C ∧ x ∉ B)
⇔ x ∈ A ∧ (x ∈ B ∧ x ∈ A ∧ C) ∨ x ∈ A ∧ (x ∈ B ∧ x ∈ B ∧ x ∈ A ∧ x ∉ B)
⇔ (x ∈ A ∩ B ∧ x ∉ A ∩ C) ∨ (x ∈ A ∩ C  ∨ x ∉ A ∩ B)
⇔ x ∈ (A ∩ B) – (A ∩ C) ∨ x ∈ (A ∩ C) – (A ∩ B)
⇔ x ∈ (A ∩ B) Δ (A ∩ C)   ……(2)
∴ From (1) and (2), we have
A ∩ (B Δ C) = (A ∩ B) Δ (A ∩ C)

(iii) A Δ (B Δ C)
= A ∪ (B Δ C)- A ∩ (B Δ C)
= A Δ (B ∪ C)- A Δ (B ∩ C)
[ ∴ A ∪ (B Δ C) = A Δ (B ∪ C)]
and A n (B Δ C) = A Δ (B ∩ C)
= (A Δ B) ∪ C- (A Δ B) ∩ C
[∴ A Δ (B ∪ C) = (A Δ B) ∪ C and A Δ (B ∩ C) = (A Δ B) ∩ C
= (A Δ B) Δ C
∴ A Δ (B Δ C)= (A Δ B) Δ C
(Proved)

(iv) If A ⊂ B then x ∈ B’ or ⇒ x ∉ B
⇒ x ∉ B ⇒ x ∈ A’ (∴ A ⊂ B)
∴ B’ ⊂ A’
Again, let y ∈ A ⇒ y ∉ A’ ⇒ y ∈ B’
(∵ B’ ⊂ A’)
⇒ y ∈ B ∴ A ⊂ B
∴ A ⊂ B ⇔ B’ ⊂ A’
∴ Again as A ⊂ B, we have
U = A ∪ B = B = U, where U is the universal set of A and B.
∴ A’= B – A ⇒ A’ ∪ B
= (B – A) ∪ B = B = U
∴ A ⊂ B ⇒ A’ ∪ B = U
Again A’ ∪ B = U
⇒ A ∩ (A’ ∪ B) = A ∩ U = A
⇒ (A ∩ A’) ∪ (A ∩ B) = A
⇒ Φ ∪ (A ∩ B) = A
⇒ A ∩ B = A ⇒ A ⊂ B
Lastly, B’ = U’ = Φ
∴ B’ ∩ A = Φ

(v) Let A ∪ B = U and A ∩ B = Φ
∴ Let x ∈ B ⇔ x ∉ B’ ⇔ x ∉ U – B
⇔ x ∉ A ⇔ x ∉ A’

(vi) As A ∪ B = A for all A
we have B ⊂ A for all A
∴ B ⊂ A even for A = Φ Thus B = Φ

Question 6.
Prove all the results of sections 1.13 and 1.14 that are started without proof.
Solution:
(i) A ∪ B = B ∪ A
Let x ∈ A ∪ B ⇔ x ∈ A ∨ x ∈ B
⇔ x ∈ B ∨ x ∈ B ⇔ x ∈ B ∪ A

(ii) A ∩ B = B ∩ A
Let x ∈ A ∩ B ⇔ x ∈ A ∧ x ∈ B
∴ A ∩ B = B ∩ A

(iii) A ∩ (B ∪ C)
= (A ∩ B) ∪ (A ∩ C)
Let x ∈ A ∩ (B ∪ C)
⇔ x ∈ A ∧ x ∈ A ∪ C
⇔ x ∈ A ∧ (x ∈ A ∨ x ∈ C)
⇔ (x ∈ A ∩ B ∨ x ∈ A ∩ C)
⇔ (x ∈ A ∧ x ∈ B) ∨ (x ∈ A ∧ x ∈C)
⇔ x ∈ (A ∩ B) ∪ (A ∩ C)
∴ A ∩ (B ∪ C) = (A ∩ B) ∪ (A ∩ C)

Question 7.
Prove that
(i) \(\mathbf{A}-\bigcup_{i=1}^n \mathbf{B}_i=\bigcap_{i=1}^n\left(\mathbf{A}-\mathbf{B}_i\right)\)
Solution:
Let x ∈ \(A-\bigcup_{i=1}^n B_i \Rightarrow x \in A \wedge x \notin \bigcup_{i=1}^n B_i\)
⇔ x ∈ A  ∧ x ∉(B₁ ∪ B₂ ∪….∪ B_n )
⇔ x ∈ A  ∧ (x ∉ B₁ ∧ x ∉ B₂ ∧…..∧ x ∉ B_n )
⇔ (x ∈ A  ∧ x ∉ B₁ ) ∧ (x ∈ A ∧ x ∉ B₂ ) ∧….∧ (x ∈ A  ∧ x ∉ B_n )
⇔ x ∈ A – B₁ ∧ x ∈ A – B₂ ∧……..∧ x ∈ A – B_n
⇔ x ∈ (A – B₁ ) ∩ (A – B_i ) ∩…..∩ (A – B_n )
⇔ \(x \in \bigcap_{i=1}^n\left(\mathrm{~A}-\mathrm{B}_{\mathrm{i}}\right)\)
∴ \(\mathrm{A}-\cup_{i=1}^n \mathrm{~B}_{\mathrm{i}}=\bigcap_{i=1}^n\left(\mathrm{~A}-\mathrm{B}_{\mathrm{i}}\right)\)

(ii) ∴ \(\mathbf{A}-\bigcap_{i=1}^n \mathbf{B}_i=\bigcup_{i=1}^n\left(\mathbf{A}-\mathbf{B}_i\right)\)
Solution:
Let x ∈ \(A-\bigcap_{i=1}^n B_i\)
⇔ x ∈ A ∧ x ∈ \(\bigcap_{i=1}^n \mathrm{~B}_{\mathrm{i}}\)
⇔ x ∈ A ∧ x ∉ (B₁ ∩ B₂ ∩….∩ B_n )
⇔ x ∈ A ∧ (x ∉ B₁ ∨ x ∉ B₂ ∨….∨ x ∉ B_n )
⇔ (x ∈ A ∧ x ∉ B₁ ) ∨ (x ∈ A ∧ x ∉ B₂ ) ∨….∨ (x ∈ A ∧ x ∉ B_n )
⇔ x ∈ A – B₁ ∨ x ∈ A – B₂ ∨……..∨ x ∈ A – B_n
⇔ x ∈ (A – B₁ ) ∪ (A – B₂ )……(A – B_n )
⇔ x ∈ \(\cup_{i=1}^n\left(\mathrm{~A}-\mathrm{B}_{\mathrm{i}}\right)\)
∴ \(\mathrm{A} \bigcap_{i=1}^n \mathrm{~B}_1=\bigcup_{u=1}^n\left(\mathrm{~A}-\mathrm{B}_i\right)\)

Question 8.
Prove that |A ∪ B ∪ C|
Solution:
= |A| + |B| + |C| + |A ∩ B ∩ C| – |A ∩ B| – |B ∩ C| – |C ∩ A|
L.H.S. =|A ∪ B ∪ C| = |A ∪ D|
where D = B ∪ C
= |A| + |D| – |A ∩ D|
( ∵ |A ∪ B| =|A| + |B| – |A ∩ B|)
= |A| + |B ∪ C| – | A ∩ (B ∪ C)|
= |A| + |B| + |C| – |B ∩ C| – |(A ∩ B) ∪ (A ∩ C)|
= |A| + |B| + | C |- |B ∩ C| – [|A ∩ B| + |A ∩ C| – |(A ∩ B) ∩ (A ∩ C)|]
= |A| + |B| + |C| – |B ∩ C| – |A∩ B| – |A ∩ C| + |A ∩ B ∩ Cl
= |A| + |B| + |C| – | A ∩ Bl – |B ∩ C| – |C ∩ A| + |A ∩ B  ∩ Cl = R.H.S.

Question 9.
If X and Y are two sets such that X ∪ Y has 20 objects, X has 10 objects and Y has 15 objects; how many objects does X ∩ Y have?
Solution:
Given |X ∪ Y| = 20
|X| = 10
|Y| = 15
We know that |X ∪ Y|
= |X| + |Y| – |X ∩ Y|
⇒ 20 = 10 + 15 – |X ∩ Y|
⇒ |X ∩ Y| = 25 -20 = 5
∴ X ∩ Y has 5 elements.

Question 10.
In a group of 450 people, 300 can speak Hindi and 250 can speak English. How many people can speak both Hindi and English?
Solution:
Let H = The set of people who can speak Hindi
E = The set of people who can speak English.
According to the question we have
|H ∪ E| = 450, |H| = 300,
|E| = 250
We want to find 1 H ∩ E
|H ∩ E| = |H| + |E|-  |H ∪ E|
= 300 + 250 – 450 = 100
∴ 100 people can speak both Hindi and English.

Question 11.
In a group of people,37 like coffee, 52 like tea and each person in the group likes at least one of the two drinks. 19 people like both tea and
coffee, how many people are in the group?
Solution:
Let T = The set of persons who like Tea. ,
C = The set of persons who like coffee According to the question
|C| = 37, |T| = 52 and |T ∩ C| = 19
Total number of persons in the group
= |T ∩ C| = |T| + |C| – |T ∩ C|
= 37 + 52 – 19 = 70

Question 12.
In a class of 35 students, each student likes to play either cricket or hockey. 24 students like to play cricket and 5 students like to play both games; how many students play hockey?
Solution:
Let C = Set of students like to play cricket
H = The set of students like to play Hockey.
According to the question
|C ∪ H| = 35
|C| = 24, |C ∩ H| = 5
Now |C ∪ H| = |C| + |H| – |C ∩ H|
⇒ 35 = 24 + |H| – 5
⇒ |H| = 16
16 students like to play Hockey.

Question 13.
In a class of 400 students, 100 were listed as taking apple juice, 150 as taking orange juice and 75 were listed as taking both apple as well as orange juice. Find how many students were taking neither apple juice or orange juice.
Solution:
Let A = The set of students take apple juice
O = The set of students take orange juice
According to the question
|A| = 100, |O| = 150 and
|A ∩ O| = 75
∴ Number of students take at least one of the juice = |A ∪ O|
= |A| + |O| – |A ∩ O|
= 100 + 150 – 75 = 175
Total number of students
= |U| = 400
Number of students taking neither of these juice
= |U| – |A ∪ O|
= 400 – 175 = 225

Question 14.
In a group of 65 people, 40 like cricket, and 10 like both cricket and tennis. How many like tennis only and not cricket? How many like tennis?
Solution:
Let C = The set of persons like cricket
T = The set of people who like tennis.
According to the question

|C| = 40 , |C ∩ T| = 10 and
|C ∪ T| = 65
A number of people like tennis only but not cricket = |C ∪ T| – |C|
= 65 – 40 = 15
Number of persons like tennis
= |C ∩ T| – |C| + |C ∩ T|
= 65 – 40 + 10 = 25

Question 15.
In a survey it was found that 21 people liked product A, 26 liked product B and 29 liked product C. If 14 people liked products A and B, 12
people liked products C and A, 14 people liked products B and C and 8 liked all the three products, find how many liked products C only.
Solution:
Let E = Set of persons like product A
F = Set of persons like product B
G = Set of persons like product C

According to the question
a + b + d + e = 21
c + b + f + e = 26
g + f + d + e = 29
b + e = 14
f + e = 14
d + e = 12
e = 8
⇒ e = 8    g = 11
d = 4        c = 6
f = 6          a = 3
b = 6
Number of persons like product C only
O = g = 11

Odisha State Board CHSE Odisha Class 11 Political Science Solutions Unit 3 Indian Constitution Objective Questions and Answers.

CHSE Odisha 11th Class Political Science Unit 3 Indian Constitution Objective Questions

Multiple Choice Questions With Answers

Question 1.
Who framed the constitution of India?
(a) B.R. Ambedkar
(b) Mahatma Gandhi
(c) Parliament of India
(d) Constituent Assembly
Answer:
(d) Constituent Assembly

Question 2.
Who is known as the Father of Indian Constitution?
(a) J.L. Nehru
(b) M.K. Gandhi
(c) B.R/Ambedkar
(d) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
Answer:
(c) B.R/Ambedkar

Question 3.
When did the constituted assembly of India meet for the first time?
(a) 1947, August 15
(b) 1946 March 31
(c) 1946, Nov 26
(d) 1946, December 9
Answer:
(d) 1946, December 9

Question 4.
On whose recommendation the process for the formation of constituent assembly started.
(a) Cripp’s Mission
(b) Cabinet Mission
(c) Waven Plan.
(d) Mountbatten Plan
Answer:
(b) Cabinet Mission

Question 5.
When the constitution of India was enacted
(a) 1949, Nov, 26th
(b) 1950, Jan 26th
(c) 1950, Nov, 26th
(d) 1949, Jan 26th
Answer:
(a) 1949, Nov, 26th

Question 6.
From which date the constitution of India came into force?
(a) 26th, January 1950
(b) 26th, Nov 1949
(c) 26th Nov 1950
(d) 26th January 1949
Answer:
(a) 26th, January 1950

Question 7.
Which one of the following has been the major source of our constitution?
(a) British constitution
(b) USA constitution
(c) Parliamentary Acts
(d) Govt, of India Act, 1935
Answer:
(d) Govt, of India Act, 1935

Question 8.
How many Odia people represented the Constitution Assembly
(a) 10
(b) 11
(c) 09
(d) 08
Answer:
(c) 09

Question 9.
The preamble declare India as a?
(a) Democratic Republic
(b) Sovereign Democratic Republic
(c) Sovereign socialist secular republic
(d) Sovereign, socialist, secular democratic republic.
Answer:
(d) Sovereign, socialist, secular democratic republic.

Question 10.
What are the objectives mentioned in the preamble to the Indian Constitution?
(a) Secularism and democracy
(b) Democracy, social justice, welfare state
(c) Parliamentary democracy
(d) Justice, liberty, equality & Fraternity
Answer:
(d) Justice, liberty, equality & Fraternity

Question 11.
What type of constitution in Indian constitution?
(a) Flexible constitution
(b) Rigid constitution
(c) Unwritten constitution
(d) Partly rigid and partly flexible constitution
Answer:
(d) Partly rigid and partly flexible constitution

Question 12.
Who can amend the constitution of India?
(a) Parliament
(b) President
(c) Supreme Court
(d) Prime minister
Answer:
(a) Parliament

Question 13.
Who presided over the first meeting of the constituent Assembly?
(a) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(b) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
(c) Dr. S.N.Sinha
(d) U.C. Baneijee
Answer:
(c) Dr. S.N.Sinha

Question 14.
Which of the following is not a source of the constitution?
(a) Govt of India Act, 1935
(b) Laws of British Parliament
(c) Foreign constitutions
(d) Values and ideals of freedom movement.
Answer:
(b) Laws of British Parliament

Question 15.
The Objective Resolution was passed by the Constituents Assembly on?
(a) 9th Dec 1946
(b) 22nd Jan 1947
(c) 26th Jan 1947
(d) 26th Nov 1949
Answer:
(b) 22nd Jan 1947

Question 16.
The neutrality of the Speaker in India rests upon?
(a) Provisions of the constitution
(b) Laws of the Parliament
(c) Convention
(d) Rules and Procedure of Lok Sabha
Answer:
(b) Laws of the Parliament

Question 17.
Who wrote the book “Commentaries on the constitution of India?
(a) B.N. Ray
(b) D.D. Basu
(c) K.T. Shivaji Rao
(d) K.N. Kaul
Answer:
(b) D.D. Basu

Question 18.
The Indian constitution contains how many Articles?
(a) 409 Articles
(b) 412 Articles
(c) 395 Articles
(d) 393 Articles
Answer:
(c) 395 Articles

Question 19.
The Constitution of India has been divided into parts.
(a) 22
(b) 24
(c) 18
(d) 20
Answer:
(a) 22

Question 20.
Indian Constitution is a constitution?
(a) Rigid
(b) Flexible
(c) Partly rigid and partly flexible
(d) Neither rigid nor flexible
Answer:
(c) Partly rigid and partly flexible

Question 21.
India is a secular state means that
(a) India is a secular State, means that. There is no state religion in India
(b) All religions are treated equally
(c) The state maintains religious neutrality
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

Question 22.
The constitution declares India as
(a) a federation
(b) a union of status
(c) a quasi federal state
(d) a unity state
Answer:
(a) a federation

Question 23.
The President of India is elected that means
(a) India is a democracy
(b) India is a democratic society
(c) India is a Parliamentary democracy
(d) India is a Republic
Answer:
(d) India is a Republic

Question 24.
The procedure of Amendment of the Indian constitution has been discussed in which Article?
(a) Art 351
(b) Art 368
(c) Art 58
(d) Art 378
Answer:
(b) Art 368

Question 25.
Who says, Indian Constitution is a Lawyers paradise?
(a) D.D. Basu
(b) K.C. where
(c) M.V. Pylee
(d) Ivor Jennings
Answer:
(d) Ivor Jennings

Question 26.
In which part of the constitution fundamental rights are mentioned?
(a) Part – III
(b) Part – IV
(c) Part – III (A)
(d) Part – IV (A)
Answer:
(a) Part – III

Question 27.
Which article in our constitution gives safeguards children from exploitation?
(a) Art, 19
(b) Art, 20
(c) Art, 23
(d) Art, 24
Answer:
(d) Art, 24

Question 28.
Who can amend the fundamental rights?
(a) Executive
(b) Parliament
(c) Supreme Court
(d) Lok Sabha
Answer:
(b) Parliament

Question 29.
Who acts as the guardian of fundamental rights?
(a) President of India
(b) Supreme Court
(c) Council of Ministry
(d) High Court
Answer:
(b) Supreme Court

Question 30.
Which is a Gandhian Principle of the Directives?
(a) To secure a uniform civil code for Indians
(b) To promote international peace and security
(c) To prohibit the use of drugs and intoxicants
(d) To protect the health and strength of children
Answer:
(c) To prohibit the use of drugs and intoxicants

Question 31.
The Directive Principles are by Nature?
(a) Positive directions
(b) Non justiciable
(c) Socio economic Principles
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above

Question 32.
The directives are backed by?
(a) Public opinion
(b) Laws
(c) Parliamentary status
(d) Constitution
Answer:
(a) Public opinion

Question 33.
The fundamental duties are mentioned in which article of the constitution?
(a) Art. 51
(b) Art. 50A
(c) Art. 50
(d) Art. 51(A)
Answer:
(d) Art. 51(A)

Question 34.
The fundamental duties have been incorporated on whose recommendation?
(a) Mehta Committee
(b) Dr. B. R Ambedkar
(c) Dr. Swaran Singh Committee
(d) Venkatchelliya Committee
Answer:
(c) Dr. Swaran Singh Committee

Question 35.
By which Amendment to the Constitution of India Right to Education was made a fundamental right?
(a) 56th Amendment Act
(b) 75th Amendment Act
(c) 82nd Amendment Act
(d) 86th Amendment Act
Answer:
(d) 86th Amendment Act

Question 36.
Which article of the Constitution of India Prohibits traffic in human beings?
(a) At, 21A
(b) Art, 21
(c) Art, 22
(d) Art, 23
Answer:
(d) Art, 23

Question 37.
Which article of the constitution prohibits religious instructions to be given in any state managed educational institutions?
(a) Art, 24
(b) Art, 25
(c) Art, 26
(d) Art, 28
Answer:
(d) Art, 28

Question 38.
Which of the following is not a Fundamental Right?
(a) Right to Equality
(b) Right to Property
(c) Right to Education
(d) Right to Freedom
Answer:
(b) Right to Property

Question 39.
Which Fundamental Right of the Indian Constitution seeks to protect the interest of the minorities
(a) Right to freedom
(b) Right against Exploitation
(c) Educational and Cultural Rights
(d) Right to freedom of Religion
Answer:
(c) Educational and Cultural Rights

Question 40.
Who among the following does not belong to weaker sections?
(a) Senior Citizens
(b) Women
(c) Children
(d) Backward classes
Answer:
(a) Senior Citizens

Question 41.
Which writ is issued by the superior court against illegal arrest and detention?
(a) Habeas Corpus
(b) Mandamus
(c) Quo Warranto
(d) Certiorari
Answer:
(a) Habeas Corpus

Question 42.
Which writ is issued by the superior court to a person or authority to perform his duty lawfully?
(a) Habeas Corpus
(b) Mandamus
(c) Prohibition
(d) Quo-Warranto
Answer:
(b) Mandamus

Question 43.
Under which article of the constitution a citizen can move to the High Court for enforcement of fundamental Rights?
(a) Art. 32
(b) Art. 145
(c) Art. 226
(d) Art. 256
Answer:
(c) Art. 226

Question 44.
Who criticized the fundamental right chapter of the Indian Constitution as ’Lawyer’s Paradise?
(a) K.V. Rao
(b) B.R. Ambedkar
(c) K.C. Wheare
(d) Sirlvor Jennings
Answer:
(d) Sirlvor Jennings

Question 45.
Who can amend any portion of fundamental rights?
(a) Parliament
(b) President
(c) Supreme Court
(d) Union Ministry
Answer:
(a) Parliament

Question 46.
Which amendment to the Indian Constitution added new principles to the list of Directive Principles of state policy?
(a) 25th Amendment
(b) 29th Amendment
(c) 42nd Amendment
(d) 44th Amendment
Answer:
(c) 42nd Amendment

Question 47.
Which of the following, is considered to be a code of conduct for states?
(a) Preamble
(b) Constitution Of India
(c) Fundamental rights
(d) Directive Principles of state policy
Answer:
(d) Directive Principles of state policy

Question 48.
Which is the objective of Directive Principles of state policy?
(a) Realisation of Socio-Economic Democracy
(b) Establishment of a welfare state
(c) To motivate people to a peaceful political revolution
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these

Question 49.
In which year the Parliament enacted the RTI Act?
(a) 2002
(b) 2004
(c) 2005
(d) 2008
Answer:
(c) 2005

Question 50.
Which of the following is not an objective of the right to Information Act, of 2005?
(a) To empower citizens
(b) To promote transparency and accountability
(c) To certain corruption
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these

Question 51.
Which articles of the chapter fundamental rights stand suspended during a national emergency?
(a) Art. 17 & 25
(b) Art. 21 & 29
(c) Art. 19(i) & 32
(d) Art. l6(i) & 32
Answer:
(c) Art. 19(i) & 32

Question 52.
By which Amendment Act Right to property has been deleted from the constitution?
(a) 42nd Amendment Act
(b) 44th Amendment Act
(c) 52nd Amendment Act
(d) 59th Amendment Act
Answer:
(b) 44th Amendment Act

Question 53.
Which article of the constitution prohibits discrimination on grounds of religion, caste, race, sex, and place of birth?
(a) Art. 15
(b) Art. 20
(c) Art. 16
(d) Art. 25
Answer:
(a) Art. 15

Question 54.
Which article of the constitution is described as the core of the chapter on fundamental rights?
(a) Art. 14
(b) Art. 21
(c) Art. 19
(d) Art. 32
Answer:
(b) Art. 21

Question 55.
What was the initial membership of the constituent Assembly?
(a) 229
(b) 389
(c) 360
(d) 296
Answer:
(b) 389

Question 56.
Who was the president of the Indian Constituent Assembly?
(a) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar .
(b) J.L. Nehru
(c) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(d) Mahatma Gandhi
Answer:
(c) Dr. Rajendra Prasad

Question 57.
By which Amendment Act the preamble, was amended?
(a) 37th
(b) 39th
(c) 42nd
(d) 44th
Answer:
(c) 42nd

Question 58.
In which year the term secular & socialist were added to the preamble?
(a) 1950
(b) 1958
(c) 1978
(d) 1976
Answer:
(d) 1976

Question 59.
Who says India is a quasi-federal state?
(a) Sir Ivor Jennings
(b) Black stone
(c) K.C. Wheare
(d) Winston Churchill
Answer:
(c) K.C. Wheare

Question 60.
Fundamental Rights are mentioned in which part of the constitution?
(a) Part II
(b) Part III
(c) Part IV
(d) Part VI
Answer:
(b) Part III

Question 61.
In which part of the constitution the Directive Principles are mentioned?
(a) Part – III
(b) Part – IV
(c) Part-V
(d) Part – VII
Answer:
(b) Part – IV

Question 62.
By which Amendment Act the fundamental duties enshrined in the constitution?
(a) 42nd
(b) 43rd
(c) 44th
(d) 45th
Answer:
(a) 42nd

Question 63.
Under which article of the constitution Right to education is being added?
(a) Art. 19 (B)
(b) Art. 20 (c)
(c) Art. 211(A)
(d) Art. 22 (A)
Answer:
(c) Art. 211(A)

Question 64.
On the recommendation of which committee the fundamental duties are added to the constitution?
(a) Mehta Committee
(b) Santhanam Committee
(c) Dr. Swaran Singh Committee
(d) Sarkaria committee
Answer:
(c) Dr. Swaran Singh Committee

Question 65.
By which amendment act Right to Education found a place in the constitution?
(a) 73rd Amendment Act
(b) 84th Amendment Act
(c) 86th Amendment Act
(d) 92nd Amendment Act
Answer:
(c) 86th Amendment Act

Question 66.
In which article of the constitution six fundamental freedoms are mentioned?
(a) Art. 19
(b) Art. 32
(c) Art. 20
(d) Art. 21
Answer:
(a) Art. 19

Question 67.
Right to equality is being provided under Art…… to…?
(a) Art 14-18
(b) Art. 19-22
(c) Art. 23-24
(d) Art.29-30
Answer:
(a) Art 14-18

Question 68.
Who “says fundamental rights are the conscience of the constitution?
(a) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
(b) Pt. J.L. Nehru
(c) Sardar Patel
(d) K.M. Munsi
Answer:
(b) Pt. J.L. Nehru

Question 69.
Under which article an aggrieved citizen can go to supreme court for redressal of fundamental rights?
(a) Art. 31
(b) Art. 32
(c) Art. 226
(d) Art. 272
Answer:
(b) Art. 32

Question 70.
Forced labor has been abolished under which article
(a) Art. 15
(b) Art. 21
(c) Art. 22
(d) Art. 23
Answer:
(d) Art. 23

Question 71.
In which article of the constitution there is mention about a welfare State?
(a) Art. 32
(b) Art. 36
(c) Art. 38
(d) Art. 39
Answer:
(c) Art. 38

Question 72.
Which unit is issued by the superior court against illegal arrest and detention of a person?
(a) Habeas corpus
(b) Mandamus
(c) Prohibition
(d) Quo-warranto
Answer:
(a) Habeas corpus

Question 73.
In which article of the constitution there is mentioned a reorganization of village panchayats
(a) Art. 39(c)
(b) Art. 40
(c) Art. 42
(d) Art. 45
Answer:
(b) Art. 40

Question 74.
Under which article the fundamental Duties are mentioned?
(a) Art. 44
(b) Art. 50
(c) Art. 51(A)
(d) Art. 52(A)
Answer:
(c) Art. 51(A)

Question 75.
Which article speaks about the uniform civil code in India?
(a) Art. 42
(b) Art. 44
(c) Art. 51
(d) Art. 62
Answer:
(b) Art. 44

Question 76.
Which article deals with the prohibition of cow slaughter?
(a) Art. 41
(b) Art. 47
(c) Art. 48
(d) Art. 511(A)
Answer:
(c) Art. 48

Answer the following questions in one word or digit

Question 1.
Who framed the Indian constitution?
Answer:
Indian constituentAssembley

Question 2.
Which is the political horoscope of the Indian Constitution?
Answer:
Preamble

Question 3.
When the preamble was amended for the first time?
Answer:
1976, 42nd Amendment Act

Question 4.
How many Articles and schedules are there in the Indian Constitution?
Answer:
395 & 12

Question 5.
When did the constitution of India come into force?
Answer:
26th January 1950

Question 6.
When and where the first meeting of the constituent assembly of India was held?
Answer:
Dec. 9, 1946, Central Hall of Parliamen

Question 7.
Who was the chairman of the Fundamental Rights Committee?
Answer:
Sardar Patel

Question 8.
Who was the chairman of the constituent Assembly?
Answer:
Dr. Rajendra Prasad

Question 9.
Which two articles of fundamental rights can not be amended by the parliament?
Answer:
Art. 20 & 21

Question 10.
What was the purpose behind reservation of seats for SC and STs in educational institutions and public service?
Answer:
Establishment of social justice.

Question 11.
What type of right is right to property?
Answer:
Legal right

Question 12.
In which year the constitution was amended for the first time?
Answer:
10th May, 1951

Question 13.
Who is authorized to make amendments in the constitution?
Answer:
Parliament of India

Question 14.
By which amendment act reservation in promotion ofSC and STs was enforced?
Answer:
77thAmendment Act

Question 15.
Untouchability has been abolished in India by which Act?
Answer:
Protection of Civil Rights Act. 1955.

Question 16.
When preventive detention came into force
Answer:
1950

Question 17.
When did the maintenance of the internal securities act (MISA) come into force?
Answer:
1971

Question 18.
When the Emergency services maintenance Act enforced? (ESMA)
Answer:
1981

Question 19.
When the TADA Act came into force?
Answer:
1987

Question 20.
When the POTA Act came into force?
Answer:
1987

Question 21.
Under Which article a citizen can move the High Court for enforcement of fundamental rights?
Answer:
Art. 226

Question 22.
Which unit is enforced against the illegal assumption of public service?
Answer:
Quo warranto

Question 23.
What is the nature of fundamental rights?
Answer:
Negative /Prohibitive

Question 24.
Which article of the constitution ensures Equality before law?
Answer:
Art. 14

Question 25.
Under which article of the constitution the concern for International peace and security is expressed?
Answer:
Article 39

Question 26.
Which Amendment Act gave priority to the Directive Principle over fundamental rights?
Answer:
25th Amendment Act

Question 27.
Which article of the constitution accords protection to the Directive Principles
Answer:
Art. 31 (c)

Question 28.
Are the fundamental duties justifiable?
Answer:
No.

Question 29.
From which constitution the idea of fundamental duties were borrowed?
Answer:
Constitution of Soviet Russia

Question 30.
In which year by which amendment Act the eleventh fundamental duty was added
Answer:
2002, 86th Amendment Act.

Fill in the Blanks with Appropriate Words

1.____is called the father of the Indian Constitution.
Answer : Dr. B.R, Ambedkar.

2._____was the president of the constituent assembly of India.
Answer: Dr. Rajcndra Prasad

3. As the President of India is elected for live years India is called a_____.
Answer: Republic

4. All religious communities in India are given equal treatment, so India is called_____state.
Answer: Secular

5. The Indian constitution has been divided into_____ parts.
Answer: XXII

6. Amendment procedure is mentioned under Art_____.
Answer: Art. 368

7._____is empowered to amend the Indian constitution.
Answer: Parliament of India

8. In spite of having a federal setup in India. The constitution provides for_____citizenship.
Answer: Single

9. The constitution of India is_____ in form but_____ in spirit.
Answer: Federal, unitary

10. The constitution of India was adopted and enacted on _____.
Answer: 26th November 1949

11. The Indian Constitution came into force on_____.
Answer: 26th January 1950

12._____was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Constitutional Assembly of India.
Answer: Dr. B.R. Ambdckar

13. Indian Constitution of India contains_____articles and_____schedules
Answer: 395

14. When the Constitution was framed in 1950 their were_____Articles and_____Schedules.
Answer: 395,8

15. The_____is the gateway to the Indian Constitution.
Answer: Preamble

16. The Preamble starts with the term_____.
Answer: We the people of India

17. The Preamble depicts India as a Sovereign, Socialist_____Democratic Republic.
Answer: Secular

18._____is the soul of the Constitution
Answer: Preamble

19. The aims, objectives, and ideals of the Indian Constitution are set in the_____.
Answer: Preamble

20. The Preamble to the Indian Constitution was amended in the_____Ammendment Act of 1976.
Answer: 42nd

21. The words_____and _____ were inserted to the preamble by the 42nd Amendment Act.
Answer: Socialist, secular

22._____criticizes Indian Constitution as a Lawyers Paradise?
Answer: Sir Ivor Jcmings

23._____says India is a quasi-federal state.
Answer: Prof K.C. wheare

24._____is the political horoscope of the constitution.
Answer: Preamble

25. The Indian Constitution prescribes fundamental rights under_____of the constitution.
Answer: Part III

26. The Indian Constitution has enumerated_____kinds of fundamental rights.
Answer: Six

27. Right to property which was a fundamental right earlier is now a_____rights.
Answer: Legal

28. Right to the property has been deleted from the list of fundamental rights under_____amendment Act.
Answer: 44th

29. The fundamental rights are justiciable but the directives are_____in nature.
Answer: Non-Justiciable

30. The Constitution of India has abolished untouchability under Art_____.
Answer: Art. 17

31. A citizen can move to the Supreme Court for redressal of fundamental rights under art_____.
Answer: Art. 32

32. The Indian Constitution has guaranteed the right against exploitation for the_____sections of society.
Answer: Weaker

33. The constitution prescribes reservation of seats for the S.C. and S.T. candidates to ensure_____to the citizens.
Answer: Social justice

34. The Constitution has guaranteed the right to freedom of religion from Aft. 25 and 28, that means India, is a_____state.
Answer: Secular

35. The Supreme Court enforces fundamental rights by the issue of_____.
Answer: Prerogative Writs

36. The High Court is this the writ of_____in matters of illegal arrest and detention.
Answer: Habeas Corpus

37. The Directive Principles of state policy seek to make India a_____state.
Answer: Welfare

38. The Directive is social and_____nature.
Answer: Economic

39. During National Emergency the Fundamental Rights under Art._____and_____are, suspended.
Answer: Art. 19 and Art. 32

40. The writ of Mandamus means_____.
Answer: An order of the court

41. The state shall take steps to separate the judiciary from the executive in public services of the state. It has been mentioned under_____ the principles of the directives.
Answer: Liberal

42. The directives are mentioned under part_____of the constitution.
Answer: Past IV

43._____is the fundamental basis of Direct Democracy.
Answer: Popular Overnight

44._____form of authoritarianism has been established in China.
Answer: Party

45. Now, the right to property is available under Article_____
Answer: Art. 300A

46._____can amend Fundamental Rights.
Answer: Parliament

47. The Constitution under Art_____provides cultural and educational rights.
Answer: Article 29 and Article 30

48. The Constitution under Art_____directs the Union govt, to secure a uniform civil code.
Answer: Article 44

49. Fundamental Rights are backed by law but the Directives by_____.
Answer: Public opinion

50. The Constitution under Art_____directs the Govt, to protect wildlife, the environment, and forests.
Answer: Art. 48(A)

51. Right to property after the 44th Amendment Act has been mentioned in Art_____of the constitution.
Answer: Art. 300 (A)

52._____Amendment Act has declared Right to Education a Fundamental Right.
Answer: 86th

53. Art_____of the constitution offers protection for children from exploitation.
Answer: Art. 24

54. Under Art_____a citizen can move to the Supreme Court for the redress of a fundamental right.
Answer: Art. 32

55. As per the provisions of Art_____India shall strive hard to promote International peace and security.
Answer: Art. 51

56. In the_____case the supreme court observed that the fundamental rights are sacrosanct.
Answer: Champakam Dorairajan

57. India became a Republic from_____.
Answer: 26th Jan 1950

58._____presided over the first meeting of the constituent assembly.
Answer: Dr. S.N. Sinha

59. The voting age of the voters in reduced from 21 to 18 by the_____amendment act.
Answer: 61st

60. Right to education underArt_____has become effective from_____.
Answer: Art. 21(A)

61. Art_____provides for preventive Detention.
Answer: Art. 22

62. Right against exploitation is meant for the_____.
Answer: Weaker sections of society.

63._____right is meant for minorities.
Answer: Cultural & Educational

64. The superior courts issue_____to enforce fundamental rights.
Answer: Units

65._____aim at making India a welfare state.
Answer: Directive Principle

66. Art_____provides for uniform civil code.
Answer: Art. 44

67. The fundamental rights are suspended during_____.
Answer: National Emergency

68._____says Art. 32 is the heart and soul of the constitution.
Answer: B.R. Ambedkar

69. The directives are borrowed from the constitution of_____.
Answer: Ireland

70. There are_____members in the Drafting Committee.
Answer: Eight

Answer In One Sentence

Question 1.
How the India constituent Assembly was formed?
Answer:
The Indian constituent Assembly was fonned by members indirectly elected from provincial legislatures.

Question 2.
How much time the constituent Assembly consumed to enact the new constitution?
Answer:
The constituent assembly took 2 years 11 months and 18 days to enact the new Indian constitution.

Question 3.
What do we the .people of India imply?
Answer:
We the people of India imply that the People of India are, the framers of the constitution.

Question 4.
What is Preamble’?
Answer:
A preamble is an introduction or brief sketch of the constitution

Question 5.
What are the changes brought about by the 42nd Amendment? Act in the preamble?
Answer:
The 42nd Amendment has added the three words, socialist, -secular, and integrity into the preamble.

Question 6.
From the amendment point of view what type of constitution is the Indian Constitution?
Answer:
From the amendment point of view, Indian constitution is partly rigid and partly flexible.

Question 7.
When the Indian constitution was enacted?
Answer:
The Indian Constitution was enacted on 26th November 1949.

Question 8.
When the Indian constitution came into force?
Answer:
The Indian Constitution came into force on 26th January 1950.

Question 9.
What art. 1 of the constitution provides for?
Answer:
Art. 1 of the constitution states that India, that is Bharat, shall be a union of states.

Question 10.
What is equality before the law?
Answer:
Equality before the law means all are equal in the eyes of law and the law courts provide equal security to all.

Question 11.
What is a quasi-federal state?
Answer:
A quasi-federal state is federal in form but unitary in spirit.

Question 12.
What is a Republic?
Answer:
A Republic is a state with an elective head.

Question 13.
Under which schedule of the constitution the powers between the center and states have been distributed?
Answer:
The powers between the .centre and states have been distributed under the 7th schedule of the constitution.

Question 14.
What is single citizenship?
Answer:
Single citizenship means citizenship granted by the Union government.

Question 15.
Who was the advisor to the constituent assembly?
Answer:
Dr. B.N. Rau was the advisor to the constituent assembly of India.

Question 16.
What is the basic difference between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principle?
Answer:
The Fundamental rights are justiciable while the Directive Principle are non-justiciable in a court of law.

Question 17.
Who constitutes the weaker sections of society?
Answer:
Women, children, and backward classes constitute the weaker sections of society.

Question 18.
What is a writ?
Answer:
A writ is an order of the superior court.

Question 19.
What for the writ of Habeas corpus in the issue?
Answer:
The unit of Habeas corpus is issued to relieve a person from unlawful arrest and detention.

Question 20.
What for the writ of mandamus is issued?
Answer:
The writ of mandamus is issued superior court directing any authority to act as per the law and direction of the court.

Question 21.
When the right to property was deleted from fundamental rights?
Answer:
Right to property was deleted from fundamental rights by the 44th Amendment act, 1978.

Question 22.
What is forced labor?
Answer:
Forced labor means labor without payment.

Question 23.
As per the preamble who is the ultimate source of the constitution?
Answer:
The preamble declares the people of India as the source of the constitution.

Question 24.
Which constitutional amendment is called a mini-constitution?
Answer:
42nd Amendment Act is called the mini-constitution.

Question 25.
In which case the apex court declared the preamble as a part of the basic structure of the constitution?
Answer:
In the Keshavananda Bharati case of 1973, the supreme court declared the. preamble as a part of the basic structure of the constitution

Question 26.
What is a fundamental right?
Answer:
A fundamental right is a constitutional right which is indispensable for the development of an individual personality.

Question 27.
What is the purpose of the right to equality?
Answer:
The purpose of the right to equality into protects the citizens from discriminatory treatment by state.

Question 28.
What does traffic in human beings imply?
Answer:
Traffic in human beings implies the exploitation of women children and backward classes for immoral purposes.

Question 29.
Why India is called a secular State?
Answer:
India is called a secular state because the government of India observes an attitude of neutrality and non-attachment toward all religions.

Question 30.
What can a citizen do when his fundamental right is violated?
Answer:
When one’s fundamental right is violated he can move to the supreme court under Art. 32 or state high court under Art. 226 for redressal.

Question 31.
What is Habeas Corpus?
Answer:
Habeas Corpus is a unit issued by a superior court to any authority to protect the person from unlawful arrest and detention.

Question 32.
What for a unit of prohibition is issued?
Answer:
The writ of prohibition is issued by a superior court to an inferior court to prevent the lower court from crossing the limits of jurisdiction.

Question 33.
What certiorari is issued?
Answer:
Certiorari is issued by a superior court to an inferior court to prevent the abuse of jurisdiction and to bring the matter to the knowledge of the higher court.

Question 34.
What is Quo-warranto?
Answer:
Quo-warranto is a unit issued by a Superior court to any public authority for abuse of office or position.

Question 35.
What does the directive principle of state policy imply?
Answer:
The directive principle of state policy implies a set of guidelines to the union government and states to ensure socio-economic justice.

Odisha State Board CHSE Odisha Class 11 Political Science Solutions Unit 2 Basic Concept Short Answer Questions.

CHSE Odisha 11th Class Political Science Unit 2 Basic Concept Short Answer Questions

Short Type Questions with Answers

Question 1.
What is liberty?
Answer:
Liberty means freedom enjoyed under the law of the state. It means equal and adequate opportunities for all to enjoy their rights.

Question 2.
What is negative liberty?
Answer:
Negative liberty means absence of restraints. It gives one the freedom to do whatever one like to do.

Question 3.
What is positive liberty?
Answer:
Positive liberty means freedom under rational restraints. It gives equal and adequate opportunities for all to enjoy their rights.

Question 4.
What is natural liberty?
Answer:
Natural liberty is an abstraction which people enjoyed in the imaginary state of nature. It implies the enjoyment of unrestrained new freedom.

Question 5.
What is civil liberty?
Answer:
Civil liberty consists of the rights which an individual enjoys as a member of civil society. It is enjoyed under certain restrictions.

Question 6.
What is political liberty?
Answer:
Political liberty consists of those political rights through which an individual takes part in the affairs of state. In includes the right to vote, right to contest in election, right to hold public office, etc.

Question 7.
What is economic liberty?
Answer:
Economic liberty means freedom of an individual from exploitation and insercurity. It enables an individual to earn one’s daily bread.

Question 8.
What is national liberty?
Answer:
National liberty means freedom of the the nation from the control of any other country. It can be identified with national independence.

Question 9.
What is International liberty?
Answer:
International liberty means freedom from threat of war. It means cooperation and co¬existence among nations.

Question 10.
What is religious liberty?
Answer:
Religious liberty means freedom to profess any religion. It further means freedom of faith and worship and non intervention in religious affairs of the people.

Question 11.
What is Equality?
Answer:
Equality means the absence of unjust and unnatural inequalities. It believes in giving equal opportunity to all for development.

Question 12.
What is natural equality?
Answer:
Natural equality means that God has given all individuals equal psychological traits, mental ability and capacity. All are equally capable of enjoying all human rights and freedoms.

Question 13.
What Is social equality?
Answer:
Social equality means absence of special privileges for any class or group on artificial grounds. If means giving equal social opportunities to all irrespective of discrimination.

Question 14.
What is civil equality?
Answer:
Civil equality means equality under the law of the state. It stands for the grant of equal rights and freedom to all social groups.

Question 15.
What is political equality?
Answer:
Political equality means equal opportunity for participation in the political process. One man one vote upholds the principle of political equality.

Question 16.
What is Economic equality?
Answer:
Economic equality stands for removal of gross inequalities of wealth. It pleads for giving fair and adequate opportunities to all for work and earning livelihood.

Question 17.
What is legal equality?
Answer:
Legal equality means equality before law. And equal subjection of all to the same law and legal protection of rights and freedom.

Question 18.
What is a right?
Answer:
Right is a power possessed by an individual against others which are recognized by the state. It provides opportunities to citizens to develop their personality.

Question 19.
What is a moral right?
Answer:
Moral right is based on morality and ethics. It lacks the backing of state authority.

Question 20.
What is a civil right?
Answer:
Civil rights enable individuals for a free and decent civil life. These rights are concerned with the life. Liberty and property of individuals.

Question 21.
What is a political right?
Answer:
Political rights enable a citizen to participate in the affairs of the state. These are available to citizens in a democracy.

Question 22.
What are human rights?
Answer:
Human rights are certain natural rights by which an individual can lead a dignified life. These rights are universal in character and every one irrespective of any distinction enjoys it.

Question 23.
What is personal liberty?
Answer:
Personal liberty is the freedom enjoyed by an individual to satisfy his needs. This liberty is enjoyed with due regard to the liberty of others.

Question 24.
How law is related to liberty?
Answer:
Law is a condition for enjoying liberty. Without adequate legal provisions no one can enjoy his liberty.

Question 25.
What is justice?
Answer:
Justice implies neutrality, fairness and right conduct. Let right be done is the motto of justice

Question 26.
What Is Social Justice?
Answer:
Social justice is an ideal social order devoid of social inequality and exploitation. It believes in abolition of injustice, blind beliefs and oppression from society.

Question 27.
What is Economic justice?
Answer:
Economic justice means to give the opportunity to an individual to earn one’s livelihood. Abolition of economic exploitation and provision for basic minimum needs to everyone promotes economic justice.

Question 28.
What is political justice?
Answer:
Political justice refers to the opportunity to participate freely in the affaris of state. Universal suffrage, right to form political parties and the freedom to criticize the govt, ensure political justice.

Question 29.
What are the various types of rights?
Answer:
Rights can be divided into moral and legal rights. Further, legal rights can be divided into civil, political and economic rights.

Question 30.
Mention at least two ways of violation to human rights?
Answer:
Discrimination based on caste, religion and sex violates human rights. Corruption and excessive police action.

Question 31.
How human rights can be protected?
Answer:
Human rights can be protected by conscious human efforts. The government through legislation, the judiciary by imposing punishment on violates of human rights can safeguard human rights.

Question 32.
What is secularism?
Answer:
Secularism implies religious equality and tolerance towards other religions. It further means that the state and the activities of government must be free from religious influence.

Question 33.
What is Indian approach to secularism?
Answer:
Indian approach to secularism means Opposition to religious communalism and Equal treatment to all religions.

Question 34.
What is western approach to secularism?
Answer:
From the western point of view, secularism means, The government activities must be free from religious influence and Non interference of the state in the individual religious beliefs and practice.

Question 35.
What is capitalist model of development?
Answer:
Capitalist model of development is individual centric development. It relies an industrialization, technological development, modernization and employment generation.

Question 36.
What is socialist model of development?
Answer:
Socialist model of development believes in state control over means of production and distribution. Protection of working class, social justice and grant of social rights.

Question 37.
What is sustainable development?
Answer:
Sustainable development means social economic and environmental development. It brings development for the present with due regard to future development.

Question 38.
Nature of liberty.
Answer:
Liberty does not mean absence of restraints. It consists of the reasonable restraints on individual liberty. Liberty creates a condition for development of personality. Law is a condition of liberty. It is the product of rights enjoyed by individuals.

Question 39.
What is positive equality?
Answer:
Positive equality means grant of equal opportunities to all for development of individual personality. It does not believe in artificial discrimination based on caste, religion, sex and colour. It eliminates all types of inequality. The state by providing basic minimum needs to all establishes positive quality.

Question 40.
Characteristics of equality.
Answer:
Equality means absence of special privilege. It gives equal treatment to all. Rule of law ensures equality. It is based on artificial discrimination.
Equal opportunity to all ensures equality.

Question 41.
Liberty and equality are complementary.
Answer:
Rousseau, Maitland, Laski, Barker and others argue that liberty and equality are complementary. They believe that liberty can not be enjoyed unless it is available to all equally. Without equality liberty becomes incense. For development of individual and welfare of society both liberty and equality are equally necessary.

Question 42.
Liberty and equality are opposed to each other.
Ans:
Lord Acton and De Tocqueville plead that liberty and equality are antithetic. Liberty does not believe in restraints Equality cannot be maintained without regulating liberty. Actually, liberty is not opposed to equality Liberty does not mean absence of restraints rather an imposition of reasonable restraints on the individual freedom.

Question 43.
What is legal justice?
Answer:
Legal justice is ensured through the legal system and judiciary. It insists on enactment of good laws and its implementation. Neutrality of law ensures legal justice. It gives equal treatment to rich poor, men women and high and low. Neutrality of judges law courts and Rational laws are essential for ensuring legal justice.

Question 44.
Secularism
Answer:
The term secularism has been derived from the Latin word saculum, which means that the activities of state must be free from religion and morality. The state does not patronize any religion nor interferes in the religions beliefs of the citizens. In India, it believes in coexistence of all religions and equality to all religions. It prohibits religious exploitation and oppression. Secularism does not mean hatred towards religion but separation of religion from state administration.

Question 45.
What is western secularism?
Answer:
Western secularism means western approach to secularism. It keeps the state away from religious influence. It grants equality to all religions and religious freedom to individual. The state never interferes in the religious belief of individuals. The state does not give grants in aid to any religious community nor obstructs their activity.

Question 46.
Indian approach to secularism.
Answer:
Secularism in India means religious tolerance and security to women backward classes and minorities. Every individual is free accept or reject any religion of his choice. The state in India can introduce religious reforms. Unlike west, the state and government do net rc main free from religion, The state in- the name of protection of minorities makes inroad into religious freedom of individuals. It believes in equality to all religions and coexistence of all religions.

Question 47.
Distinguish between moral and legal rights.
Answer:
Moral rights differ from legal rights on the following lines.
Moral rights are based on morality, values and ideals, but legal rights are based on law. Moral rights are not supported by law but legal rights are, Violation of moral rights does not invite punishment but violation of legal rights is visited with punishment Right to life is a legal right but to beg aims by the beggar is a moral right.

Question 48.
Indian secularism vs western secularism.
Answer:
Indian secularism differs from western secularism in the following way
Western secularism save the state from the influence of religion. But Indian secularism believes in religious freedom of the individuals. Western secularism does not allow the state to interfere in the religious rites and ceremonies, but in India the Govt, in the name of secularism frequently interferences in the religious matters. The government in the \Vdst is never influenced by religious, groups and communities, but in India the, Govt, in the name of protecting minorities, backward people interferes in religious matters. Secularism in India is used as a slogan for vote catching, but not in the west.

Question 49.
Answer:
Capitalist model of development.
The capitalist development model is known as western model of development. It is individual centric in nature. It emphasizes on rapid industrialization technological development, modernization and employment generation. It believes in free market economy and uninterrupted competition in the economic sphere. It gives priority to privatization and profit.

Question 50.
Socialist model of Development.
Answer:
Socialist model is just the reverse of capitalist development model. This model can be found in China, North Korea & Vietnam today. In this model the economy is completely regulated by state. It relies on state control over production and distribution. The state exercises complete control over education, health service, industry, market and social security.

Question 51.
What is development?
Answer:
Development refers to any change for better growth. It consists of social, economic, cultural, mental and physical development. Development is a continuous process. Modernisation of agriculture, industries, transport and communication, higher living standard and better security pirovisions, are the indicators of development. Development refers to strengthening national economy.

Question 52.
What is sustainable development?
Answer:
Sustainable development refers to socio economic development, protection of environment and conservation of minerals & natural resources for use in future. It is a well thought out plan that ensures development for the present and future generation. Excessive use of energy, natural resources and environmental pollution have posed a question mark on the continuity of the development process. Therefore, states are now planning their development model with due attention to rural development, poverty alleviation. Pollution control and careful use of natural resources to have a secured future.

Question 53.
What is the meaning of the term ‘Liberty’
Answer:
‘Liberty’ has been derived from the Latin word ‘Liber’ which means freedom. But liberty does not mean absolute freedom or licence to anything whatever one likes. Liberty is an essential condition for the development of individual personality. It does not mean absence of all restraints but imposition of reasonable and just restrictions on the activities of individual in the interest of the state. It is an atmosphere created by the state where individuals can develop their personality to the best extent possible.

Question 54.
What do you mean by positive liberty?
Answer:
‘Positive liberty’ implies a condition or atmosphere created by the state where the individual can develop his personality to the best possible extent. It does not mean absence of restraint, but grant of equal opportunity to every individual for self development and self realization.
It implies three tilings.

1. Grant of maximum rights by the state
2. Grant of equal freedom for all without discrimination, and
3. Equal opportunity for every individual to develop his personality to the fullest extent.

Question 55.
What docs negative liberty imply?
Answer:
Negative liberty implies individualists conception of liberty. This means freedom from restraints and the power to an individual to do whatever he likes. States interference encroaches upon individual freedom, but such a conception of liberty cannot be enjoyed in civil society.

Question 56.
What is natural liberty?
Answer:
‘Natural liberty is an abstract idea which was prevalent in the state of nature. It is based on the feeling that liberty is natural to man. The individual is completely free to do whatever he likes. Natural liberty is in other words called license’. It cannot be enjoyed in a civil society.

Question 57.
What is moral liberty?
Answer:
Moral liberty consists in acting in conformity with one’s moral self, reason or conscience. Moral liberty can be identified with self realization. It means the freedom to do such flings according to the dictates of one’s conscience. It has a meaning only in the context if common good and it grants facility to each individual to develop his personality.

Question 58.
What is civil liberty?
Answer:
‘Civil liberty’ or ‘personal liberty’ implies the rights and freedom enjoyed by in individual in civil society; It consists of the rights and privileges which the state creates and enforces through law. Civil liberty consists in equality before law, security of property, freedom of though and expression and freedom of religion, etc. It enables an individual to lead a peaceful and happy life in society.

Question 59.
What is the meaning of political liberty?
Answer:
Political liberty refers to the freedom of the individual to play an active role in the affairs of State and Government. It is guaranteed only to citizens in a democratic state. It is the capacity of a citizen to constitute and exercise control over the government. It includes the right to vote, right to contest in election, right to hold political public office, right to form or join a political party etc. Political liberty enables a citizen access to state authority. Political liberty demands that citizens must be vigilant and well informed and the mass media must be impartial so that every individual can be able to enjoy political liberty.

Question 60.
What does economic liberty mean?
Answer:
Economic liberty means the freedom of an individual to earn one’s daily bread. It does not mean grant of equal income but elimination of inequalities of wealth, exploitation, unemployment and insufficiency. It consists in the individuals right to work, right to decent wages; leisure and social insurances like, old age sickness, unemployment or disablement. It includes the freedom to earn and the freedom to protect one’s wealth.

Question 61.
What is the meaning of national Liberty?
Ans:
National liberty implies the right of a nation to be free from the political domination of others. National liberty is identified with national independence or freedom and it is based on the principle of self determination National liberty demands that every nation must be free from fqreign control or domination and internal and external sovereignty. It is the foundation of all other civil, political liberty.

Question 62.
What does international liberty connote?
Answer:
International liberty connotes a world free from war violence, arms race, colonialism and use of force. It implies the freedom of every nation to live in peace, harmony and cooperation with others. It is a modem idea which believes in renounciation of war, limitations on use and production of arms and pacific settlement of disputes.

Question 63.
Liberty does not mean absence of restraints.
Answer:
Liberty-iri its negative aspects means the absence; of all restraints. This is individualistic conception of liberty which can – not be accepted in the civil society. Liberty does riot mean absence of restraint but on the other hand imposition of reasonable and just restrictions on, the freedoms and rights of individuals so that none can harm the liberty of others. Absolute freedom if at all is granted to an individual, will create a chaotic and lawlessness condition in society, hence none can be able to enjoy his liberty.

Question 64.
What is Laski’s view about liberty?
Answer:
Laski’s view of liberty coincides with the positive aspect of liberty. He holds liberty as the product of rights. According to him the state through grant of right creates an atmosphere where every individual can be free to develop his personality to the maximum possible extent. It does not mean mere absenceof restraint but on the other the positive andequal opportunity of self realization,

Question 65.
What are the various safeguards of enjoyment of liberty?
Answer:

• Democratic, representative and economic government.
• Separation of powers between the executive, legislature and judiciary.
• Constitutional guarantee of fundamental rights.
• Vigilant and well-informed public opinion.
• Free press and independent Judiciary, and
• Above all rule of law etc are the safeguard of liberty.

Question 66.
‘Eternal vigilance is the price of liberty Comment.
Answer:
This statement clearly explains that individual liberty can be best safeguarded with an ever vigilant public opinion. If the individual citizens of a community are conscious any civilized then they can defend their liberty against and encroachment. Laski says the proud spirit of the citizens is the most real safeguard against abuse of power by the rulers. Where the people are alert and vigilant their liberty cannot be at stake.

Question 67.
What is positive equality?
Answer:
Positive equality means ‘adequate opportunities for all. It means equality of chances for the development of individual faculties. The state must provide suitable opportunities for all citizens irrespective of any distinction. It further demands that the basic needs of life without which life is meaningless must be made available to all.

Question 68.
What are the basic features of equality?
Answer:
Equality means absence of special privileges. It provides equal opportunity for all. It is based on rule of law. It does not believe in discrimination. It is formed only in democratic society.

Question 69.
What are the main features of liberty?
Answer:
The main features of liberty are
It is an essential condition for the development of individual personality. It does not mean absence of restraint, but imposition of reasonable restraints on the actions of the individual. Liberty is the product of right. It is guaranteed only to the citizens in a democracy. Liberty always seeks to promote social goods.

Question 70.
How law is related to liberty?
Ans.
Law and liberty are complementary to each other. Law is a condition of liberty. It is only obeying law’s that individual can enjoy liberty in a state. Law upholds of liberty and the state maintains its legal system only to ensure liberty to the people. Violation of law results in curtailment of individual liberty.

Question 71.
Whatis International Equality:
Answer:
International equality is a modem idea which means equality among nation states as sovereign entitles. In the international sphere, all sovereign nations must be treated equally and none should be allowed to interfere in the domestic jurisdiction of another state. All states, whether big or small, powerful or weak, developed of underdeveloped must be treated with identical terms. The right to vote given to each member of the UNO must carry the same weight.

Question 72.
What is the meaning of Equality?
Answer:
Equality is a leveling process which aims at the abolition of discrimination. It rests on the assumption that, all men are created equal and all should be entitled to equal opportunity and there shall be no external discrimination among the citizens. Equality goes against granting of any special privileges to any class or section of people in the society. In political context equality implies the absence of discrimination or man made special privileges to a particular section of the community. Equality amounts to equal distribution of rights by the state.

Question 73.
What is political equality?
Answer:
Political equality implies that all citizens should have equal political rights and should have access to all public offices and authority. Political equality refers to equality with regard to vote, contest in the election and to hold any public officers. Political equality is essential for the successful working of democracy.

Question 74.
What is Economic Equality?
Answer:
Economic equality implies that everybody should have equal right in the matter of earning one’s own livelihood. There shall be no barrier with regard to income or any profession which does not go against the interest of the community. Economic equality also refers to removal of inequalities, prohibition of exploitation and elimination of the problem of unemployment etc. Economic equality also refers to the equal distribution of wealth, scope of employment and fixation of equal wages for all leisure and share in the management of economic concern. Without economic equality and economic stability political right is meaningless.

Question 75.
What is Social Equality?
Answer:
Social equality refers to the abolition of privileges or preferential treatment in the society irrespective of caste, class, colour, creed or religion. Social equality refers that, there should not be any discrimination in the enjoyment of social faculties or privileges. In the social sphere no person would be as inferior and the others as superior in terms of race, caste, religion, rank etc. Just by enacting legal formulation the problem of social inequality would be solved father for social equality there necessitates the consciousness of the citizens and the appropriate democratic ethics.

Question 76.
What do you mean by a right?
Answer:
Right is a power possessed by an individual against others. It is recognized and upheld by the state. It provides opportunity to a citizen to develop his personality to the maximum extent. Rights are granted in the interest of the individuals and society by the state.

Question 77.
What docs moral right?
Answer:
Moral rights imply the lack of coercive support behind themselves. These rights are based on morality or ethical rules and if one does not conform to these then no enforcement action can be taken. The state does not grant or protect a moral right. The right of the beggar to beg alms is a moral right.

Question 78.
What is the meaning of legal right?
Answer:
The rights of the individual provided on the basis of laws and principles for formulated by the state are called legal rights. These are recognized and enforced by the state. Violation of legal rights leads to punishment by the state. These rights are guaranteed is the basis of equality irrespective of caste, colour, religion or sex discrimination. The legal rights are further subdivided into civil, political and economic rights.

Question 79.
What is meant by civil right?
Answer:
The civil rights are a constituent of legal rights. These rights are guaranteed by the State to the individuals for a free and decent civil life in society. The civil rights are mostly concerned with the life, liberty and property of the individual. Without civil rights no individual can lead a happy and prosperous life. These are available both to the citizens and aliens.

Question 80.
What is a political right?
Answer:
Political rights is one of the legal rights guaranteed under the protection of State. These rights enable a citizen to participate in the affairs of State. These are available only to the citizens. The political rights consist of the right to vote, right to contest for political office, right to criticize the Govt, right to petition, residence, resistance, public meeting etc. These are provided only in a democratic countries.

Question 81.
What do you mean by human rights?

• Human rights are the inherent natural rights of every individual without which no men can lead a dignified life.
• These rights are universal in character, and every individual irrespective of caste, colour, sex, religion and place of birth enjoys this right.
• The human rights enhance the status of individual in society and provide with safeguards which are considered necessary for his protection against arbitrary authority of State.
• Human rights are moral in character.
• These are available in democratic policy.

Question 82.
What is the importance of human rights?
Answer:
Human rights are essential for human, welfare and prosperity. These rights are natural rights and they seek to enhance the dignity and status of the individual. It gives protection to children, women and backward classes from exploitation. It makes us liberal in treatment of criminals and prisoners of war. Human rights promote democratic values in the minds of individual.

Question 83.
What are the different types of Human Rights?
Answer:
Human rights are classified into four types

1. Civil Human Rights
2. Political Human Rights
3. Economic Human Rights
4. Cultural Human Rights.

Question 84.
What are the Civil Human Rights?
Answer:
The human rights associated with decent social life are called civil human rights. These are

• Right to life, liberty and personal freedom.
• Freedom from slavery and servitude.
• Freedom from cruel, torture and inhuman treatment or punishment.
• Right to an effective judicial remedy, that is, right to a fair trial and public hearing by an independent tribunal.
• Freedom from interference with privacy,family, home and correspondence
• Right to marriage, to have family and to own property

Question 85.
Write down the Political Human Rights.
Answer:

• Rights to freedom of Political assembly and association.
• Right to nationality.
• Right to take part in Govt, and equal access into public services.
• Right to equal suffrage and
• Right to free movement, opinion and expression.

Question 86.
What are the economic human rights?
Answer:
The economic human rights include

• The right to social security
• Right to work and equal pay for equal work
• Right to form and join trade unions
• Right to rest and leisure
• Right to adequate health and good living standard etc.

Question 87.
What are the modes of violation of human rights?
Answer:
Human rights can be violated in the following methods.
Terrorism and killing of innocent people. Establishment of military rule. Racial discrimination, communal tension and caste rivalry Colonial and imperialist exploitation. War and aggression. Aggressive regionalism, ethnic violence and nationalistic tensions. Evil social costumes

Question 88.
What are the means of redressal of human rights?
Answer:
The states should establish Human Rights Commission at the union state and District levels to provide redressal for the human rights violation. The Govt should enact law for the enforcement of human rights. The Govt must take the responsibility for human rights violations by public authorities. Stringent and severe punishment must be given to the offenders of human rights. The media, educational institutions and statements must create awareness among people about the value of human rights.

Odisha State Board CHSE Odisha Class 11 Political Science Solutions Unit 5 Constitution at Work-II Objective Questions and Answers.

CHSE Odisha 11th Class Political Science Unit 5 Constitution at Work-II Objective Questions

Multiple Choice type questions with answers.

Question 1.
In which of the following nations we find a parliamentary executive?
(a) India
(b) USA
(c) Srilanka
(d) France
Answer:
(a) India

Question 2.
What is the minimum age required for the office of President of India?
(a) 50 years
(b) 40 years
(c) 35 years
(d) 30 years
Answer:
(c) 35 years

Question 3.
Who reads out the oath of office of the President of India?
(a) Prime Minister
(b) Vice-President
(c) Chief Justice of the Supreme Court
(d) Speaker of Lok Sabha
Answer:
(c) Chief Justice of the Supreme Court

Question 4.
Under which article of the constitution the procedure of impeachment is mentioned?
(a) Art. 61
(b) Art. 58
(c) Art. 63(A)
(d) Art. 61(A)
Answer:
(a) Art. 61

Question 5.
In which year for the first time National Emergency is declared in India?
(a) 1961
(b) 1965
(c) 1962
(d) 1971
Answer:
(c) 1962

Question 6.
For how many days one can be a minister without being an MP?
(a) One month
(b) Two months
(c) Six months
(d) Four month
Answer:
(c) Six months

Question 7.
What is not true about the Parliamentary form of Executive?
(a) Coexistence of real and nominal executives
(b) Harmony between the Executive and Legislature
(c) Collective Responsibility
(d) Separation of powers
Answer:
(d) Separation of powers

Question 8.
Which organ of Govt. exercises control over the executive?
(a) Legislature
(b) Judiciary
(c) Bureaucracy
(d) Head of State
Answer:
(a) Legislature

Question 9.
Who makes foreign policy in a State?
(a) Executive
(b) Legislature
(c) Judiciary
(d) Bureaucracy
Answer:
(a) Executive

Question 10.
If How the President of India assumes office?
(a) By direct election
(b) By indirect election
(c) By nomination
(d) By direct recruitment
Answer:
(b) By indirect election

Question 11.
Who acts as the Supreme Commander of the Armed Forces in India?
(a) Chief of Army Staff
(b) Chief of Air Force
(c) Chief of Naval Wing
(d) President of India
Answer:
(d) President of India

Question 12.
All money bills are introduced into a Lok Sabha with the permission?
(a) Speaker
(b) Prime Minister
(c) President
(d) Finance Minister
Answer:
(c) President

Question 13.
The Union Council of Ministers remains responsible to?
(a) Parliament.
(b) President
(c) Prime Minister
(d) Lok Sabha
Answer:
(d) Lok Sabha

Question 14.
Who reads out the oath of office and secrecy to the Union Council of Ministers?
(a) Prime Minister
(b) President
(c) Chief Justice of India
(d) Speaker of Lok Sabha
Answer:
(b) President

Question 15.
Which model of Govt. exists in India?
(a) Parliamentary democracy
(b) Indirect democracy
(c) Presidential system
(d) Direct democracy
Answer:
(a) Parliamentary democracy

Question 16.
The Chief Executive in India is?
(a) Prime Minister
(b) Cabinet
(c ) Union Council of Ministers
(d) President
Answer:
(d) President

Question 17.
The Electoral College of the President consists of?
(a) All elected MPs
(b) All elected MLAs
(c) All MPs & MLAs
(d) All elected MPs & MLAs
Answer:
(d) All elected MPs & MLAs

Question 18.
India is a Republic because?
(a) The Govt. is elected
(b) The President is elected
(c) The Govt. is responsible
(d) The Govt. is democratic in character
Answer:
(b) The President is elected

Question 19.
Which is the policy-making organ of Union Govt?
(a) President
(b) Prime Minister
(c) Union Cabinet
(d) Union Parliament
Answer:
(c) Union Cabinet

Question 20.
The Governor in a state is?
(a) Real Head of State
(b) Nominal Head of State
(c) Elective Head of State
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Nominal Head of State

Question 21.
Does the Chief Minister hold office for?
(a) Five Years
(b) As long as the Governor desires
(c) As long as the President desires
(d) As long as he musters a majority. support in the Vidhan Sabha.
Answer:
(d) As long as he musters a majority. support in the Vidhan Sabha.

Question 22.
The Governor can exercise his discretion?
(a) In dissolving the Assembly
(b) In dismissing the ministry
(c) In reserving a bill for the President’s assent
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above

Question 23.
Which is not a function. of judiciary?
(a) Interpretation of law
(b) Administration of justice
(c) Grant of titles
(d) Defending the rights of citizens
Answer:
(c) Grant of titles

Question 24.
The Judges of Supreme Court and High Court can be removed from office on the grounds?
(a) Corruption
(b) Misappropriation of funds
(c) Proved misbehavior & incapacity
(d) Violation of the constitution
Answer:
(c) Proved misbehavior & incapacity

Question 25.
The most important attribute of the judiciary is?
(a) Its legal status
(b) Its separate organization
(c) Independence of working
(d) Power of judicial review
Answer:
(c) Independence of working

Question 26.
The Supreme Court of India came into existence on?
(a) 15th Aug. l947
(b) 26th Jan. 1950
(c) 26th Jan. 1935
(d) 2nd Oct. 1942
Answer:
(b) 26th Jan. 1950

Question 27.
The Supreme Court of India Acts as?
(a) A federal arbiter
(b) Guardian of fundamental rights
(c) Final interpreter of the constitution
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

Question 28.
The Supreme Court hears federal disputes under which jurisdiction?
(a) Original.
(b) Appellate
(c) Advisory
(d) Special leave to appeal
Answer:
(a) Original.

Question 29.
Who appoints the Judges of High Court?
(a) Prime Minister
(b) Governor
(c) Chief Justice of India
(d) President of India
Answer:
(d) President of India

Question 30.
High Court is a court of record means that?
(a) Its decisions have evidentiary value
(b) Its decisions are taken as judicial precedents
(c) It can punish for contempt of court
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

Question 31.
Judicial review in India is governed by the principle of?
(a) Due process of law
(b) Legislative supremacy
(c) Procedure established by law
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(b) Legislative supremacy

Question 32.
The Chief Justice of India is appointed on-the principle of?
(a) Merit
(b) Seniority
(c) President’s choice
(d) Prime Minister’s choice
Answer:
(b) Seniority

Question 33.
On which ground impeachment motion can be initiated against the president of India?
(a) Violation of the constitution
(b) Proved misbehavior.
(c) Incapacity
(d) Criticising the prime minister
Answer:
(a) Violation of the constitution

Question 34.
Which organ of government can remove the President?
(a) Parliament of India
(b) Council of Ministry.
(c) Supreme Court of India
(d) Lok Sabha
Answer:
(a) Parliament of India

Question 35.
Which constitutional body removes the union council of ministry out of office?
(a) Parliament
(b) Loksabha
(c) Supreme court
(d) President
Answer:
(b) Loksabha

Question 36.
To whom the Prime Minister is constitutionally answerable?
(a) Parliament of India
(b) President of India
(c) Lok Sabha
(d) People of India
Answer:
(c) Lok Sabha

Question 37.
Who prepares the Annual Budget of India?
(a) Judiciary
(b) Executive
(c) Council of Ministry
(d) Bureaucracy
Answer:
(b) Executive

Question 38.
Under which Amendment Act the size of the union council of the ministry has been restricted?
(a) 42nd Amendment
(b) 44th Amendment
(c) 85th Amendment
(d) 91st Amendment
Answer:
(d) 91st Amendment

Question 39.
Under which article of the constitution the powers of the Prime Minister has been discussed?
(a) Art. 75 (1)
(b) Art. 74 (1)
(c) Art. 79
(d) Art. 78
Answer:
(d) Art. 78

Question 40.
Who presides over the meetings of the Union council of ministers?
(a) Prime Minister
(b) President of India
(c) Speaker of Lok sabha
(d) Minister. Parliamentary Affairs
Answer:
(a) Prime Minister

Question 41.
What is the maximum time for which an ordinance can remain in force?
(a) 6 months
(b) 6 months + 6 week
(c) 6 months + 4 week
(d) one year
Answer:
(b) 6 months + 6 week

Question 42.
How many judges are there in the Supreme Court of India?
(a) 26
(b) 25
(c) 30
(d) 31
Answer:
(d) 31

Question 43.
After attaining which years the judges of the High Court retire?
(a) 60 years
(b) 62 years
(c) 65 years
(d) 58 years
Answer:
(b) 62 years

Question 44.
What percentage of jobs are reserved for other Backward classes in India?
(a) 30%
(b) 32%
(c) 25%
(d) 27%
Answer:
(d) 27%

Question 45.
On which basis the Chief Justice of India is appointed?
(a) Merit basis
(b) Seniority basis
(c) Political basis
(d) Choice of lawyers
Answer:
(b) Seniority basis

Answer The Following Questions 

Question 1.
Today the judiciary used to act beyond its jurisdiction to bring social change and ensure justice to the citizens and this is known as?
Answer:
Judicial Activism

Question 2.
Which two judges of the Supreme Court of India were instrumental for the idea of public interest litigation (PIL)?
Answer:
Justice P.N. Bhagwati and Justice V. R.Krishna Iyer

Question 3.
Who constitutes the presidential electoral college?
Ans. Elected members of parliament and VidhanSabha

Question 4.
Which house of parliament can initiate proposals for the removal of the Vice President?
Answer:
Rajya Sabha

Question 5.
On which ground the judges of the Supreme Court and High Court can be removed?
Ans. Proved misbehavior or incapacity.

Question 6.
When does the President Proclaim ordinance?
Answer:
During the recess of Parliament.

Question 7.
Which organ of government has assumed an important role with the rise of the welfare state?
Answer:
Executive

Question 8.
Who are the non-political executive in democracy?
Ans. Bureaucracy

Question 9.
What is the primary responsibility of the political executive?
Answer:
Policy formulation

Question 10.
The power of the executive to make law is known as?
Ans. Delegated Legislation

Question 11.
Who is responsible for preparation of Union Budget?
Answer:
Executive

Question 12.
Who is the real executive in the British political system?
Answer:
Prime Minister and his ministry

Question 13.
In which form of govt. the Head of State acts both in the capacity of a nominal and real executive?
Answer:
Presidential form of Govt.

Question 14.
In which form of Govt. the executive remains accountable to the legislature?
Answer:
Parliamentary form of Govt.

Question 15.
In which form of executive there is a separation of executive and legislative power?
Answer:
Presidential

Question 16.
In which form of Govt. the executive enjoys a fixed tenure?
Answer:
Presidential Executive

Question 17.
In which form of Govt. the Prime Minister takes a leading role?
Answer:
Parliamentary Govt.

Question 18.
In a Presidential Govt. the members of the cabinet remain accountable to whom?
Answer:
To the President

Question 19.
What should be the minimum age of the President of India?
Answer:
35 years

Question 20.
What is the amount of security deposit a presidential candidate is required to give?
Answer:
Rs. 15.000/

Question 21.
Which members of Parliament and State Legislative Assemblies have been denied a share in the presidential election?
Answer:
Nominated

Question 22.
Who reads out the oath of office and secrecy to the President?
Answer:
Chief Justice of India

Question 23.
By which method the President can be removed from office?
Answer:
Impeachment

Question 24.
On which ground an impeachment motion can be brought against the President?
Answer:
Violation of Constitution

Question 25.
Who succeeds to the office of President in Case it falls vacant?
Answer:
Vice President

Question 26.
The Vice-President can assume the office of President for how many days?
Answer:
Six months

Question 27.
What is the monthly salary of the President?
Answer:
Rs.1.5 lakhs

Question 28.
The President of India after retirement gets how much pension per month?
Answer:
Rs.75.000/-

Question 29.
Where from the salary and allowances of the President comes from?
Answer:
Consolidated Fund of India

Question 30.
On whose advice the President of India discharges his constitutional responsibilities?
Answer:
Union Council of Ministers

Question 31.
Who appoints the Lt. Governors of Union Territories in India?
Answer:
President of India.

Question 32.
Who acts as the Supreme Commander of the Armed Forces in India?
Answer:
President of India

Question 33.
On whose name the Union Govt. negotiates treaties?
Answer:
President of India

Question 34.
Who can dissolve the Lok Sabha?
Answer:
President of India

Question 35.
Who prepares the Presidential Address to the Parliament?
Answer:
Union Council of Ministers

Question 36.
Who introduces the Annual Budget into the Parliament of India?
Answer:
Finance Minister of India

Question 37.
Who decides whether a bill is money bill or an ordinary bill?
Answer:
Speaker of Lok Sabha.

Question 38.
What can be the maximum period of interval between the two sessions of Parliament?
Answer:
Six months

Question 39.
When does the financial year begin?
Answer:
April 1st

Question 40.
From which the President grants money to meet unforeseen expenditures?
Answer:
Contingency Fund of India

Question 41.
Regarding the distribution of revenue between Union and States?
Answer:
Finance Commission

Question 42.
Which part of the constitution deals with Emergency provisions?
Answer:
Part – XVIII

Question 43.
Besides war and external aggression on which ground National Emergency can be declared?
Answer:
Internal armed rebellion

Question 44.
On which ground President’s rule is proclaimed?
Answer:
Failure of constitutional administration

Question 45.
Under which article of Constitution Financial Emergency is declared?
Answer:
Art. 360

Question 46.
Under which circumstances the salary and allowance of public servants and judges of the High Court and Supreme Court can be reduced?
Answer:
Financial Emergency

Question 47.
Which House of Parliament initiates a proposal for the removal of Vice-President?
Answer:
Rajya Sabha

Question 48.
What is the monthly salary of the Vice-President?
Answer:
Rs. 1.25.000/-

Question 49.
Who reads the oath of office and secrecy to the Prime Minister?
Answer:
President

Question 50.
Who presides over the Union Council of ministers?
Answer:
Prime Minister

Question 51.
The Governor can exercise some powers without. seeking the advice of the state council of ministers and these are known as?
Answer:
Discretionary powers

Question 52.
Who makes an appointment of the state council of ministers?
Answer:
State Government

Question 53.
Which one is the youngest organ of Government?
Answer:
Judiciary

Question 54.
What is the primary duty of the Judiciary?
Answer:
Administration of justice

Question 55.
Which organ of the Government works as the watchdog of individual rights?
Answer:
Judiciary

56. The authority by which the judiciary examines- the constitutional validity of a law is known as what?
Answer:
Judicial review

Question 57.
What is the maximum age of retirement of a judge of Supreme Court?
Answer:
65 years.

Question 58.
Which organ of the Government of India acts as? the guardian of the constitution?
Answer:
Supreme Court

Question 59.
What is the monthly salary of a judge of High Court?
Answer:
Rs. 80.000/

Question 60.
What js the monthly salary of a judge of Supreme Court of India?
Ans. Rs.90.000/-

Question 61.
Under Which jurisdiction the Supreme Court hears federal disputes?
Answer:
Original jurisdiction

Question 62.
Under which article of the constitution an appeal can be made to the High Court in cases of violation of fundamentals of ones?
Answer:
Art. 226

Question 63.
Against whose decision an appeal can be made in the supreme court of India?
Answer:
High Court

Question 64.
Which is the most powerful organ of government in a parliamentary democracy?
Answer:
Legislature

Question 65.
One for all and all for one means what?
Answer:
Collective responsibility

Question 66.
To whom does the president tender his resignation?
Answer:
Vice-President

Question 67.
In which house of parliament impeachment motion can be introduced?
Answer:
In either house

Question 68.
Which Indian President has adorned the office for two consecutive terms?
Answer:
Dr. Rajendra Prasad

Question 69.
By exercising which power the President can return a bill for reconsideration?
Answer:
Suspensive veto

Question 70.
What is the other name of President’s Rule?
Answer:
State emergency

Question 71.
From which constitution the emergency powers of the president are borrowed?
Answer:
Weimar constitution of Germany.

Question 72.
By .which amendment Act the presidential proclamation of emergency can be challenged in Supreme Court?
Answer:
44th Amendment Act. 1978

Question 73.
By exercising which power the apex court can declare any Act of parliament ultra virus?
Answer:
Judicial Review

Question 74.
On which day the Supreme Court of India was established?
Answer:
26th January 1950

Question 75.
Which writ is issued by the superior court against the unlawful arrest of a person?
Answer:
Habeas corpus

Question 76.
To whom does the president consult during appointment of the governor of a state?
Answer:
Chief Minister of the state

Question 77.
To whom the president consults in any major legal issue?
Answer:
Supreme Court of India

Fill in the blanks

I. The most important Organ of Government is _____.
Answer: Executive

2. The ministers in a Parliamentary system works as _____ executive.
Answer: Political

3. Executive legislation is otherwise known as ______.
Answer: Delegated legislation

4. Plural executive is found today in ______.
Answer: Switzerland

5. The Primary function of the Executive is ______.
Answer: Enforcement of law

6. The term ‘secular’ has been inserted into the preamble of the constitution by the _____ Amendment Act.
Answer: 42nd

7. India is a Republic. that means the ______ is elected.
Answer: President

8. _____ is the supreme Commander of the Armed Forces in India.
Answer: President of India

9. The President discharges his constitutional responsibilities on the advice of _________.
Answer: Union Council of Ministers

10. During the recess of Parliament the legislative measures promulgated by the President is called _________.
Answer: Ordinance

11. Ordinances promulgated by the President must be approved in both the House of Parliament within a period of ____ from the datë öfreasembling of the legislature.
Answer: Six weeks

12. The President care National Emergency under Art _________.
Answer: Art. 352

13. Dual executive is found in a _________ form of Government.
Answer: Parliamentary

14. The PrimeMinister of India is the executive ______.
Answer: Real

15. ________ Acts as the nominal head of state in India.
Answer: President of India

16. The Queen of England is the _____ executive head of State.
Answer: hereditary

I7. Preparation of the budget is the responsibility of ________.
Answer: Executive

18. Impeachment is a judicial power with the ________.
Answer: Legislature

19. In a _____ form of Govt. the executive remains independent of the legislature.
Answer: PresidentIal

20. Political parties play an effective role in a ________ form of Government.
Answer: Parliamentary

21. The role and importance of legislature has decliñed along with the increase in the functions of _________.
Answer: Executive

22. _______ is the mother of the Parliamentary form of Govt.
Answer: Britain

23. In a ________ form of Govt. the executive remains collectiv1y responsible to the legislature.
Answer: Parliamentary

24. _______ Govt. is a Govt. by an amateur.
Answer: Parliamentary

25. _______ is the head of Štate in India is
Answer: President

26. The head of Union Govt. in India is ________.
Answer: Prime Minister

27. The _______ members of Parliament and State Legislative Assembly Constitute the Presidentiál Electoral College.
Answer: Elected

28. The President of India is elected indirectly by ________.
Answer: An electoral college

29. The President of India is elected for a time of ________ years.
Answer: Five.

30. The minimum age required for a person to be elected as the President of India is ______ years.
Answer: 35 years

31. The Constitution proves for the office of Governor under Art _________.
Answer: 153

32. The Salary of the President and Governor are charged upon the ________.
Answer: Consolidated fund of India

33. The President can be removed through impeachment on the ground of ________.
Answer: Violation of the constitution

34. The minimum age required for the office of Governor is _______ years.
Answer: Five

35. The President of India received a monthly salary of Rs ________.
Answer: 1.5 lakh

36. ________ was the first President of India.
Answer: Dr. Rajendra Prasad

37. _______ administers the oath of office to the President of India.
Answer: Chief Justice of India

38. WJcn the office of the President fall vacant _____ acts as the President.
Answer: Vice President

39. If the President seeks to resign. he will address his letter of resignation to _________.
Answer: Vice President

40. If the office of the President and Vice-President fall vacant at a time ________ acts as the President.
Answer: Chief Justice of India

41. Art _____ speaks about the procedure of impeachment of the President.
Answer: Art. 61

42. The president of India can be impeached on the ground of ________.
Answer: Proved misbehavior and incapacity.

43. The official residence of the President of India is called ________.
Answer: Rastrapati Bhawan

44. The President may declare a state emergency in a state under Art ________.
Answer: Art. 356

45. Financial Emergency is declared by the President under Art ________.
Answer: Art. 360

46. Proclamation of National Emergency must be approved in both the house of parliament within ________.
Answer: 30 days

47. Proclamation of state emergency must be approved by the parliament within a period of _________.
Answer: Two months

48. The Vice-President of India is elected indirectly by ________.
Answer: Both houses of parliament

49. ________ acts as the Ex-Officio Chairman of Rajya Sabha.
Answer: VIce-. President

50. Art ________ provides for the Union Council of Ministers.
Answer: 74 (1)

51. There are _______ categories of ministers in the Union Council of Ministers.
Answer: Three

52. The Union Council of Ministers holds office during the pleasure of the _________.
Answer: President

53. The Union Council of Ministers remains collectively responsible to the _________.
Answer: Lok Sabha

54. _____ is the leader of the Union Council of Ministers.
Answer: Prime Minister

55. _____ presides over the meetings of the Union Council of ministers.
Answer: Prime Minister

56. President’s Rule can remain in force in a state for a continuous period of _____ years.
Answer: Three

57. Primus inter pares means ________.
Answer: First among equals

58. The salary and allowances of the President are charged upon the ________.
Answer: Consolidated fund of India

59. ________ conducts elections to the president and Vice President.
Answer: Election Commission

60. Disputes arising out of the presidential election are settled by the _________.
Answer: Supreme Court

61. One can become a minister of the Union without being elected to the Parliament for at best _____ months.
Answer: Six

62. _____ summons the joint sitting of the parliament.
Answer: President of India

63. The Emergency Powers of the President have been mentioned in _____ part of the constitution.
Answer: Part XVIII

64. The Constitution of India under _____ states that. there shall be a Vice-President of India.
Answer: Art. 63

65. President is the Head of State but _____ is the head of the Union Government.
Answer: Prime Minister

66. _____acts as a link between the President and the Union Council of Ministers.
Answer: Prime Minister

67. The President can’t withhold assent to a bill ______.
Answer: Money

68. ____ read out the oath of office and secrecy to the Governor.
Answer: Chief Justice of the high court

69. The normal tenure of office of the Governor is ____ years.
Answer: Five

70. The state council of ministers remains accountable to ________.
Answer: Vidhan Sabha

71. The Governor acts on the advice of _________.
Answer: Chief Minister

72. The official residence of the Governor is called ________.
Answer: Raj Bhawan

73. The Governor can dissolve the Vidhan Sabha on the advice of ________.
Answer: Chief Minister

74. ______ is an integral part of the state legislature.
Answer: Governor

75. The union Govt. consults the ________ before the appointment of Governor for a state.
Answer: Chief Minister

76. The Governor has been vested with certain powers which he can exercise without seeking the advice of the ministry and those powers are called _______.
Answer: Discretionary powers

77. ______ appoints the Chief Minister when no party or group secures an absolute majority in the Assembly.
Answer: Governor

78. _____ serves as a federal link.
Answer: Governor

79. The advice of the ministry is politically biñding upon _____.
Answer: Governor

80. ______ acts as the agent of the center.
Answer: Governor

81. Only the _____ can dismiss a minister from the state cabinet.
Answer: Governor

82. The state AdvocateS-General is appointed by _____.
Answer: Governor

83. Governor is the _____ head of state.
Answer: Nominal

84. _____ appoints the State Governor.
Answer: President of India

85. _____ is the chief policy-making body intrastate.
Answer: Cabinet

86. The constitution of India has recognized _____ languages.
Answer: 23

87. ______ is the chief architect of state administration.
Answer: Chief Minister

88. On the advice of the _____ the Governor dissolves the Legislative Assembly.
Answer: Chief Minister

89. The Union Council of Ministers holds office during the pleasure of the ____.
Answer: President

90. _____ is the youngest organ of Govt.
Answer: Judiciary

91. The main function of the Judiciary is ______.
Answer: Administration of Justice

92. ______ acts as the guardian of the constitution.
Answer: Supreme Court

93. The judges at the time of interpretation of laws create new laws. called ______ .
Answer: Judge made Law

94. ____ is the apex judiciary in India.
Answer: Supreme Court

95. There are _____ judges in the Supreme Court of India.
Answer: 31

96. The judges of the Supreme Court are appointed by the _____.
Answer: President of India

97. The judges of the Supreme Court can be removed on the ground of______.
Answer: Proved misbehavior or Incapacity

98. The judges of the apex court retire after attaining the age of ______.
Answer: 65 years

99. A judge Of Supreme Court can be removed by the President only on the recommendation of _____.
Answer: Parliament

100. The salary and allowances of the judges are charged from the _____ of India.
Answer: Consolidated fund

101. The federal dišputes are settled by the Supreme Court under jurisdiction ______.
Answer: Original

102. The Supreme Court exercises advisory jurisdiction under Art ______.
Answer: Art. 143.

103. The doctrine of judicial review has been borrowed. from the Supreme Court of _____ acts as the guardian of the Indian Constitution.
Answer: USA

104. _____ acts as the guardian of the Indian Constitution.
Answer: Supreme Court

105. The disputes arising out of the election of the President and Vice-President are decided by _____.
Answer: Supreme Court

106. There are _____ High Courts in India.
Answer: 21/22.

107. The Odisha High Court was established at ______.
Answer: Cuttack

108. The judges of High Court are appointed by _____.
Answer: President of India

109. The Judges of High Court retire at the age of _____.
Answer: 62 years

110. A judge of High Court can become a Judge of Supreme Court after working for ______ years.
Answer: Five

111. The President consults the Chief Justice of the còncerned High Court and the _____ before making an appointment to a Judge of High Court.
Answer: Governor

112. The term ‘Bureaucracy has been derived from the French word ______.
Answer: Bureau

113. A Judge of Supreme Court receives a monthly salary of Rs _____.
Answer: Rs.90.000

114. A Judge of High Court receives a monthly salary of Rs ______.
Answer: 80.000

115. The Chief Justice of India gets a monthly salary of Rs ______.
Answer: One lakh

116. _____ is the Supreme Commander of the Armed Forces in India.
Answer: President

Odisha State Board CHSE Odisha Class 11 Political Science Solutions Unit 5 Constitution at Work-II Short Answer Questions.

CHSE Odisha 11th Class Political Science Unit 5 Constitution at Work-II Short Answer Questions

Short Question With Answers

Question 1.
What is a parliamentary government?
Answer:
A government in which there is a close relationship between the executive and legislature is called a parliamentary government. Here the, executive remains accountable to the legislature for all acts of omission and commission.

Question 2.
What is collective responsibility?
Answer:
Collective responsibility is a principle of parliamentary democracy where the ministers collectively remain responsible to the legislature for all they have to do no. It means one for all and all for one as far as supporting Govt. decisions is concerned.

Question 3.
how the President of India Is elected?
Answer:
The President of India is elected indirectly on the basis of proportional representation through a single transferable vote. The President is elected by an electoral college consisting of the elected members of Parliament and State Legislative Assemblies.

Question 4.
how the President can be removed from his office?
Answer:
The President of India can be removed from office through impeachment. Impeachment proceedings can be initiated in any house of parliament only on the ground of proved misbehaviour and incapacity.

Question 5.
What is an Ordinance?
Answer:
The ordinance is an emergency legislation promulgated by the President during the recess of Parliament. It is promulgated only on the advice of the council of ministers.

Question 6.
Under which circumstances President’s rule is proclaimed?
Answer:
President’s rule is proclaimed under Art 356 on the ground of failure of constitutional machinery in a state. If the President feels satisfied either from the report of the Governor or otherwise that the administration of the state can not be run in accordance with the constitution then the President may proclaim the president’s rule in that state.

Question 7.
Under which circumstances financial emergency can be declared?
Answer:
A financial emergency can be declared under Art. 360 of the constitution if the President feels satisfied that a situation has arisen whereby the financial stability or credit of India is in danger. It can be declared by the President on the advice of Union Council of Ministers.

Question 8.
What is the Independence of the Judiciary?
Answer:
Independence of the judiciary means the freedom of the judiciary from the control and influence of the executive and legislature. The judges should discharge their duty without fear or favour affection or ill will.

Question 9.
What is judicial review?
Answer:
Judicial review is a special power of the apex court whereby the court examines the constitutional validity of any law or executive decision. If it finds any law contradictory to the constitution, then the court can declare such a law rull and void.

Question 10.
What Is Judicial Activision?
Answer:
JudicialActivism implies proactive rule played by the judiciary for doing justice to the people and the society. It is nothing but judicial policymaking either in support or against legislative and executive decisions. The purpose of judicial activism is to expedite Government initiatives in support of socio-economy justice.

Question 11.
What are the main causes behind Judicial Activism?
Answer:
The main causes behind judicial activism are an Increase in the number of administrative disputes Delegation of maximum legislative powers to the executive Increase in contempt of court Extension of judicial review over administration etc.

Question 12.
What is public interest litigation?
Answer:
Public Interest Litigation is an innovation in the judicial process. It enables citizens to draw the attention of honourable courts only by writing petitions in the interest of the general public. It is justice at a low cost and within a short time. It is an instrument in the hands of the Judiciary to interfere in the activity of the executive and legislature in the name of public purpose.

Question 13.
How the high Court act as a court of record?
Answer:
The High Court records the decisions and proceedings of the court for perpetual loss of memory. The decisions of the court have evidentiary value and they can’t be questioned by the subordinate court.

Question 14.
What has delegated legislation?
Answer:
Delegated legislation is executive legislation. It means the delegation of legislative responsibility to the executive by the legislature in a democracy.

Question 15.
What Is a cabinet?
Answer:
Cabinet consists of a small group of ministers who are re-experienced and are quite faithful to the Prime Minister. The government frequently and takes all vital decisions of the Government as and when Prime Minister.

Question 16.
Why parliamentary, government is called Prime Ministerial Government?
Answer:
A parliamentary government is called the Prime Miriiseriai government because the Prime minister is the head of the government and all decisions are taken by him.

Question 17.
What are the functions of the Vice – President?
Answer:
The Vice-President succeeds to the office of president when the later office falls vacant due to his resignation, removal or untimely death. He also acts as the ex-officio chairman of the Rajya Sabha and conducts its proceedings.

Question 18.
Under which circumstances National Emergency is declared?
Answer:
National Emergency can be declared under Art. 352, if the president feels that the sovereignty and territorial integrity of the whole of India or any part is in danger due to war, external aggression or internal armed rebellion. The union council of ministers must provide written advice to the President to declare an emergency.

Question 19.
What is President’s rule?
Answer:
President’s rule is known as state emergency. Under Art. 356 the president may declare the president’s rule in a state if he feels satisfied that the constitutional administration has failed there.

Question 20.
Under which circumstances the President may exercise his discretion?
Answer:
The President can exercise his discretion when there is no clear-cut majority secured by any party or coa1ition in the Lok Sabha election. He can also dissolve the Lok Sabha if he feels that the Prime Minister has lost the truth of the house.

Question 21.
What ¡s judge-made law?
Answer:
The judges of Higher Courts at the time of interpretation of law give new meaning to laws and these new laws are called judge-made laws. It is considered to be a source of law.

Question 22.
What is Advisory Jurisdiction?
Answer:
The Supreme Court of India under Art. 143 enjoys advisory jurisdiction. The Union government can seek the legal opinion of the apex court under this article and the court is obliged to tender its advisory opinion.

Question 23.
What do you mean by the original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court?
Answer:
Original jurisdiction is the exclusive jurisdiction of the Supreme Court as no other court enjoys this privilege Under this jurisdiction the apex court decides federal disputes and causes relating to the enforcement of fundamental rights.

Question 24.
Why Supreme Court is called a federal arbiter?
Answer:
The Supreme Court is called a federal arbiter because it decides all disputes between the centre and states and states themselves. Both the Union government and states act on the advice of the apex court on federal issues.

Question 25.
Why Supreme Court called a court of record?
Answer:
The Supreme Court is called a court of record because its decisions have evidentiary value and all its decisions are recorded for perpetual loss of memory. The court can also punish for contempt of court.

Question 26.
How the judges of High Court are appointed?
Answer:
The Judges of the High Court are appointed by the President of India. Before appointing judges the president consults the Governor of the state and the Chief Justice of the said High Court.

Question 27.
Why the Supreme Court is called the Guardian of the Constitution?
Answer:
The Supreme Court is called the guardian of the constitution because it is the final interpreter of the constitution. It can declare any law or decision of the Govt. or state unconstitutional if that violates the constitutional provisions.

Question 28.
Law and Ordinance?
Answer:
Law is permanent but the ordinance is a temporary law. Any draft proposal after parliamentary approval and presidential assent becomes law. But the ordinance is proclaimed by the President when the parliament is not in session. After parliamentary approval ordinance becomes a valid law. Law once enacted continues forever but ordinance can continue only for six months and six weeks without parliamentary approval.
Law is a calm and compact decision, but an ordinance is quick legislation by the government Laws are placed in the statute books, but not ordinances.

Question 29.
Judicial Review and Judicial Activism?
Answer:
A judicial review is a prohibitive act of the Judiciary which seeks to defend to the constitution but judicial activism is a positive and constructive decision of the court which enhances the role of the judiciary. The judicial review seeks to protect and preserve the constitution from executive and legislative encroachment but judicial activism seeks to ensure justice and social change and protect the environment. Judicial review is constitutional but judicial activism is extra-constitutional growth.

Judicial review sees to the fact that all laws decisions, policies and programmes of the government must be in conformity with the constitution, but, judicial activism seeks to pressurize the executive and programmes of the government must be in conformity with the constitution, but, judicial activism seeks to pressurize the executive and legislature to do their duty and avoid negligence, corruption and safeguard the environment.

Question 30.
National emergency and President’s rule?
Answer:
National Emergency is declared under Art. 352 but Presidents rule under Art. 356. National Emergency is declared when there is any danger to the security of India or any part thereof but President’s rule is declared when there is break down of constitutional machinery in a state. During national emergency fund mental rights under Art. 19 and 32 are suspended while during presidents’ rule the rights and not affected.

The national emergency proclamation has to be approved in both houses of Parliament by a 2/3rd majority within 30 days, but presidents rule proclamation needs to be approved by a simple majority and within Iwo months. President’s rule is declared on the advice of the union council of ministry but a national emergency can be declared only on written advice the union council of ministers.

Question 31.
Cabinet and Ministry?
Answer:
Ministry consists of afl the minsters but cabinet consists of only after cabinet consists .of only a few cabinet ministers. Council of ministry is a constitutional body but the cabinet is extra-constitutional. The ministry is appointed by the president but the cabinet is by the Prime Minister.
The ministry meets once in every month but the cabinet meets frequently. In the meetings of the council of ministers the ministers speak about their own departments but in the cabinet meetings, each minister can discuss any matter of his choice.

Question 32.
Bill and Act?
Answer:
Bill is a draft proposal for legislation but Act is the final shape of a bill that is given after parliamentary and presidential approval. Violation of the law is an offence but a violation of a bill is not. The judiciary does not Act on a bill, but an Acts Bill is the premature stage of an Act. The act is mentioned in the statute book but a Bill is not.

Question 33.
What are the basic features of a Parliamentary form of Government?
Answer:
The basic features of the Parliamentary system can be discussed below.

• There is a co-existence of a nominal and real executive
• The close relationship between the executive and legislature. .
• Collective responsibility of the ministers, and
• Political homogeneity
• The leadership of the Prime Minister.

Question 34.
What are the qualifications prescribed for the office of the President?
Answer:
Art. 58 of the constitution of India lays down certain qualifications for the office of the president.

• He must be a citizen of India.
• He must have completed the age of 35 years.
• He must be qualified to be a member of Lok Sabha.
• He must not hold any office of profit either under the Union or State Government.

Question 35.
What is the constitutional status of the President of India?
Answer:
The President of India occupies a dignitary position in the IndiajiConstitutional set-up. He is the chief of the union executive and all powers are vested in him. His office is nominal for which he exercises his powers on the aid and advice of the Council Ministers. He is the symbol of the nation’s unity and integrity and he holds the most exalted political office in the country.

Question 36.
How ¡s the President of India elected?
Answer:
The President of India is elected indirectly by an electoral college consisting of the elected members of both the Houses of Parliament and State Legislative Assemblies. I-Je is elected on the basis of proportional representation through a single transferable vote system. The electors vote in order of preference and the candidate who polls the quota of votes is declared elected. If nobody secures the number of votes the 2nd preference votes are taken into account. Thus, the process continues till one gets the number of votes.

Question 37.
Why is the President indirectly elected?
Answer:
The President of India is the chief executive and the head of state is elected indirectly by the people. There are different reasons behind the indirect election of the President. The President being nominal, the direct election is supposed to be superfluous. Direct elections may cause conflict between the President and the Prime Minister. It will be a costly affair involving too much loss of time energy and money. The direct election may not make a perfect choice of the President Considering all these factors the farmers provided for an indirect election.

Question 38.
Which members are excluded from the membership of the Presidential Electoral College?
Answer:
The following categories of members are excluded from the membership of the Electoral College. Nominated members of Rajya Sabha, Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies. Members of Legislative Councils of States. Members of the Legislative Assemblies of the Union Territories. Elected members of the dissolved Assembly. Disqualified members of the State Legislative Assembly.

Question 39.
how can the President be removed from office?
Answer:
The President of India can be removed from office by a difficult legislative trial called impeachment. According to Art. 61, impeachment proceedings can be framed by either House of Parliament against the President on the ground of violation of the Constitution. If the proposal is passed in both Houses by 2/3rds majority of the members present and voting and by the majority membership of each House the President is removed from office.

Question 40.
What are the executive powers of the President?
Answer:
The executive powers of the President are explained below:
The President gives appointments to all high dignitaries of state and the centre including the Governors of states, Prime Minister and Council Ministers, and Judges of the Supreme Court. and high Courts etc. He appoints diplomatic envoys to foreign states and receives diplomats of foreign countries He declares war and concludes peace. He is responsible for the administration of Union Territories. He is informed about the decisions of the Central Council of Ministers.

Question 41.
What constitutes the legislative powers of the President?
Answer:
The President discharges the following legislative powers. He summons & prorogues both the Houses of Parliament and dissolves the Lok Sabha. He summons the joint sitting of both Houses in times or crisis. He addresses the inaugural sessions of the Parliament and can send messages to both. He nominates 12 members to the Rajya Sabha from persons having special knowledge of literature, art. science or social service and two members to the Lok Sabha from the Anglo-Indian community if the said community is not adequately represented in the House. He promulgates ordinances during the recess of the Union Parliament and gives assent to bills pending approval.

Question 42.
What do you mean by ordinance?
Answer:
the ordinance is a type of emergency legislation promulgated by the President during the recess of the Parliament. It is not law but usually treated as law pending Parliamentary approval. An ordinance promulgated by the President is required to be approved within a period of six weeks from the reassembling of the Parliament. If not approved it becomes invalid. The President promulgates ordinances only on the advice of the union council of Ministers.

Question 43.
What are the judicial powers of the President of India?
Answer:
The President being the head of state discharges certain judicial powers. He can grant pardon, repave, respite, commutation or remission of sentences of criminals punished by Courts including the military Court. He gives orders for the appointment and transfers of judges of Supreme Courts and High Courts. He can refer any legal question of public importance to the Supreme Court for an advisory opinion.

Question 44.
What are the financial powers of the President of India?
Answer:
The President has an important role to play in the financial administration of the Country. All money bills are introduced into the Parliament on his recommendation. He causes the annual budget to be laid before the Parliament. No taxes can be imposed of raised without his concurrence. The Contingency Fund of India is kept under his disposal to meet unforeseen expenditures. He appoints the Finance Commission in every five years to reassure the financial relations between the Centre and States.

Question 45.
What constitutes the emergency powers of the President?
Answer:
The President of India exercises. certain emergency powers during situations of crisis. The President has been vested with powers of tackling abnormal situations through constitutional provisions. Constitution under part XVIII and Art-352 to 360 has elaborately discussed provisions of national emergency, state emergency arid financial emergency. The Presideñt exercises such powers only on the recommendations of the Union Council of Ministers.

Question 46.
Under what circumstances National Emergency is declared?
Answer:
National Emergency can be declared by the President under Art.352 of the Constitution, If the President is satisfied that a grave situation of emergency exists whereby the security of India or any part thereof is threatened, due to war, external aggression or armed rebellion, then he may proclaim national emergency on the recommendation of the Uñiori Council of Ministers. Even in the apprehension of such threats, National Emergency can declare. The decision of the cabinet must be unanimous and all cabinet ministers must sign the such proclamation.

Question 47.
Under what circumstances National Emergency can be revoked?
Answer:
National Emergency can be revoked by a subsequent proclamation issued by the President. It can further be terminated or revoked if it is not approved by the Parliament within 30 days or after six months: The Lok Sabba can pass a resolution by simple majority for the revocatìon of national emergency.

Question 48.
Explain under which circumstances a National emergency has been declared since independence?
Answer:
A national emergency has been declared only three times since independence. For the first time, it was declared on 26th October 1962 during Chinese aggression. For the second time on 3rd December 1971, it was declared following Pakistan’s attack d tuning Bangladesh War. Last time on 25th June 1975, the emergency was declared in the apprehension of internal disturbances.

Question 49.
What are the effects of National? Emergency?
Answer:
National Emergency has Certain far-reaching effects on the Governmental setup. The jurisdiction of the Parliament extends to the state list. The union executive becomes too strong and the states remain under the complete control of the union. The term of Lok Sabha can be extended. the President may modify the sourceš of revenue distribution between the Centre and States. The Fundamental Rights under Art. 19 and 32 cease to operate. The federal polity is transformed into a unitary one.

Question 50.
Under what circumstances President’s Rule is proclaimed?
Answer:
President’s Rule is proclaimed underArt:356 of the Constitution on the ground of failure of constitutional machinery in a state. If the President on the receipt of a report from State Governor or ‘Otherwise’ is satisfied that a situation has arisen in a state resulting in breakdown of constitutional Government in that state he can proclaim a state of emergency called President’s Rule.

Such a proclamation should be approved by both the Houses of Parliament .withi two months unless it becomes invalid. President’s Rule remains valid for six months unless it becomes invalid: President’s Rule remains valid for six months and if renewed it can be extended to a maximum periód of three years.

Question 51.
What are the possible circumstances which lead to the breakdown of constitutional machinery In a State?
Answer:
Art-356 of the Constitution reveals the following. grounds of the breakdown of constitutional machinery in a state. If after the election to the Assembly no party or coalition is able to form a Government it leads to the breakdown of constitutional administration. If a Govt, falls and no other alternative Govt. is formed. If the ministry fails to control an extraordinary situation of violence On political grounds of expediency.

Question 52.
What are the consequences of state emergencies?
Answer:
Proclamation of state emergency leads to the following consequences.

• The President assumes all functions and powers of the state executive.
• The Union Parliament performs the responsibilities of the State Legislature.
• The State Legislative Assembly is either dissolved or kept under animated suspension.
• The budget of the state is passed by the Parliament.

Question 53.
Under what circumstances Financial Emergency can be declared?
Answer:
Financial Emergency can be declared under Art-360 of the Constitution if the President feels satisfied that a situation of the grave financial crisis has arisen, whereby the financial stability or credit of India or any part thereof is threatened. It can be proclaimed the recommendation of the Union cabinet and shall be laid before both the Houses of Parliament within two months for approval. Its duration can be extended in every six months intervals until and unless the crisis is averted.

Question 54.
What are the consequences of a Financial Emergency?
Answer:
The declaration of a financial emergency leads to the following consequences. The union executive gives direction to the states to observe certain principles of economy in public expenditure. The President may order a reduction of salary and allowances for Government servants. If necessary4e. salary of the Judges of High Courts. Supreme Court can also be reduced. All money bills and other financial bills are passed by the state legislature for the assent of the President. The President may alter the allocation of revenues between the Centre and the States.

Question 55.
What is the position of the President of India?
Answer:
The President of India holds a unique position in the Indian constitutional system. All executive powers have been vested- In his office, but he is nominal. Actually, the ministers being responsible to the Parliament run the Government in the name of the President. The President exercises his constitutional responsibilities with the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers. He is a constitutional figurehead and he represents the nation. As the top executive, it is his duty to preserve, protect and defend the Constitution, the nation and the federal system.

Question 56.
What is the role of the Vice President ¡n our constitutional system?
Answer:
The Vice-President of India is the No.2 citizen of the country. He is an integral part of the union executive and if the office of the President falls vçant due to death, resignation or removal, the Vice-President acts as the President till a fresh election is held. He also discharges the functions of the President during the temporary absence of the President. He is the ex-office Chairman of the Rajya Sabha and he presides over its meetings arid on4ucts the proceedings of the House.

Question 57.
How is the Un1oñbCounciÌofMuistry formed?
Answer:
After the electioñ to the Lok Sabha, the President invites the leader of the majority party to form the government and appoint him as the Prime Minister. The other members of the ministry are appointed by the President only on the advice of the Prime Minister. There are three categories of ministers in the Council of Ministry, such as Cabinet Ministers, Ministers or State and Deputy Ministers. The Prime Minister plays a vital role in the formation of a ministry.

Question 58.
What are the different ranks of ministers In the Union Council of Ministers?
Answer:
There are three different ranks of ministers in the Union Council of Ministers.

• Cabinet Ministers
• ministers of state
• Deputy Ministers

Besides these three categories, there are Parliamentary Secretaries who often participate in the Union Council of Ministry and assist the ministers in their functions.

Question 59.
The ministers remain In office during the pleasure of the President. Explain.
Answer:
According to the Constitution, the ministers remain in the office during the pleasure of the President. It implies that the President enjoys no such authority. He can dismiss a minister only when the Prime Minister advises him to do so. No member of the. The Council of Ministry can be removed without the knowledge of the Prime Minister. So it will be right to say that ministers hold office during the pleasure of the Prime Minister.

Question 60.
What is collective responsibility?
Answer:
In a Parliamentary system, the collective responsibility of the ministers is a constitutional necessity. The ministers remain collectively and individually responsible to the Lok Sabha for which they have been authorized to exercise real executive authority. The ministers act as a unit and they sink and swim together. They share responsibilities of the Government and for the fault of an individual minister, the entire ministry is held responsible. All the ministers back the policies of the Cabinet and work as a team for the success of Govcmmet.

Question 61.
What are the function of the Council of Ministers?
Answer:
The Union Council of Ministry performs the following functions.

• It determines the policies and programmes of the Central Government.
• It exercises supervision and control over the administration.
• The execution of policies is another vital function of Government.
• It coordinates the activities of different ministries and departments and removes bottlenecks.
• It decides financial matters and prepares the budget.

Question 62.
Prime Minister is the keystone of the Cabinet arch.
Answer:
The Prime Minister in a Parliamentary model is the leader of the Cabinet. He is the Chairman of the Cabinet and presides over its meetings. The agenda for discussion is fixed by him and on most occasions, his decision is the decision of the Cabinet. his Prime Minister forms the cabinet and. selects the members. They remain accountable to him. The Prime Minister completely dominates the Cabinet and the last word always remains with him. Therefore the Prime Minister is supposed to be the keystone of the Cabinet arch.

Question 63.
How can the Prime Minister be removed?
Answer:
The Prime Minister can be removed only if a no-confidence motion is passed in the Lower House of Parliament. The President is authorized to remove or dismiss the Prime Minister, but the confidence of the Parliament. The Prime Minister remains in office so long as he enjoys the majority support in the Lok Sabha.

Question 64.
What are the qualifications of the Governor of a State?
Answer:
The Governor of a state should satisfy the following qualifications.

• He/She must be a citizen of India.
• He/She must have completed 35 years of age.
• He/She must not hold any office of profit either under the union or state government.
• He/She must not be a member of either House of the State Legislature or Parliament.
• He/She should possess all necessary qualifications as prescribed by the Parliament.

Question 65.
The Governor holds office during the pleasure of the President. Explain?
Answer:
This statement explains the tenure of the office of the Governor. The normal term of office of the Governor is five years, but the President can dismiss the Governor at will on the advice of the union cabinet. Therefore, it is said that the Governor is constitutionally responsible to the President and holds office during his pleasure.

Question 66.
What are the privileges enjoyed by the State Governor?
Answer:
The State Governor while in the office enjoys certain immunities and privileges. He is not answerable to any Court of Law for the exercise and performance of his powers and official dúties. No civil or criminal proceedings can be instituted against him during his tenure. He can not be arrested or imprisoned while in office.

Question 67.
What are the executive powers of the Governor?
Answer:
Governor being the constitutional head of state, all executive power of the state government are vested in him. He takes all executive appointments in the State. He can remove the council of ministers if it loses the confidence of the Legislative Assembly. He allocates portfolios among ministers and administers oaths of oleic to them. He has the right to be informed about the state administration. He can recommend the President for the position of Presidents Runic in the state. Under normal circumstances, the Governor acts on the advice of the ministers.

Question 68.
What are the legislative, powers of the Governor?
Answer:
The Governor being an integral part of the legislature performs the following legislative functions.

• He summons, prorogues and dissolves the State Legislative, Assembly.
• He nominates certain members of the state legislature in some states.
• He addresses the inaugural sessions of the state legislature.
• All bills passed in the legislature become law only on his assent.
• He can promulgate ordinance during the recess of the legislature.

Question 69.
Explain the ordinance-making power of the Governor?
Answer:
The Governor has the power to promulgate ordinances during the recess of the State Legislature. But he can not prom the Wgate ordinance without instructions from the President. A bill containing the same provisions would have required the previous sanctions of the President. The Governor would have reserved a bill containing the same provisions for the consideration of the President. Or, an Act of legislature containing the same provisions would have been invalid unless having been reserved for the consideration of the President. Further, the Governor can only promulgate ordinance on the advice of the State Council of Ministers.

Question 70.
When can the Governor exercise his decision? Or, Under What circumstances the Governor is expected to exercise his discretion?
Answer:
The òvernor can exercise his discretional powers under the following circumstances; For the appointment of Chief Minister in a coalition ministry when no party or coalition enjoys absolute majority. Advising the President for the proclamation of President’s Rule. For the dissolution of the Legislative Assembly. For the dismissal of the ministry when it lacks the confidence of the Assembly.

While reserving a bill of the state legislature for the assent of the President. Asking for information from the Chief Minister relating to legislative and administrative matters. Asking the Chief Minister to submit for the consideration of the Council of Minìster any matter on which a decision leas been taken by a Minister, but which has not been considered by the Council of Ministers, and Seeking instructions from the President before promoting ordinance

Question 71.
Governor is an agent of the Centre. Justify?
Answer:
The Goyemori is considered as an agent of the Centre due to the following reasons. He is appointed by the President of India and remains in office during his pleasure. The Governor sends fortnight reports to the president about the state administration. The Union Government gives directions to the state through the Governor. President’s Rule is proclaimed on the recommendations of the Governor. During an emergency, the President acts through the office of the Governor.

Question 72.
Explain in brief the role of the Governor in state administration?
Answer:
nominee of the Union Government he informs the President about the problems and prospects of the state administration. He provides a link between the Centre and the state. The state administration is run in his name. He is the watchdog of constitutional property and a vital link between the Union and the state. It is his solemn duty to see that the federal balance and political stability is not destroyed.

Question 73.
The office of the Governor is nominal. Explain?
Answer:
The Governor is the nominal executive in a state. He performs most of his constitutional duties and responsibilities with the advice of State Council of Ministers. Though he appoints the Council of Ministers, yet they remaiñ accountable to the Assembly. He can not dismiss the ministry unless it loses the confidence of the House. It is his duty to see that the state administration is run according. to the Constitution and he should not be a hindrance before the working of the ministry.

Question 74.
Explain how the State Council of Ministers is formed?
Answer:
The State Council of Ministers is appointed by the Governor on the advice of the Chief Minister. After the Assembly election, the Governor invites the leaders of the majority party to form the ministry and appoints him as the Chief Minister of the State. Then the Chief Minister prepares a list of ministers and submits it to the Governor and accordingly the Governor gives appointments to the ministers. Thus, in the formation of the ministry, the Governor has little discretion to exercise as the Chief Minister decides about the shape and size of the ministry.

Question 75.
What are the financial powers of the Governor?
Answer:
The budget of the State’s Govt. is said before the Legislative Assembly in the beginning of every financial year by the Finance Minister on the instruction of the Governor. No money bill can be introduced into the Assembly without his permission. He regulates the State Contingency Fund and he grants money from it for mcctìng unforeseen expenditures.

Question 76.
What are the judicial powers of the Governor?
Answer:
The Governor discharges certain judicial powers; He grants pardon, reprieve or can commute and suspend the sentences of convicted persons in any offence against any law to which the executive power of the State extends. The Governor is expected to exercise such powers cautiously, All senior judicial appointments in the State are made in the name of the Governor. He enjoys immunities from all civil and criminal offences. He is consulted by the President at the time of appointment of Judges of the High Court of the State.

Question 77.
Under which circumstances the Chief Minister can be dismissed?
Answer:
The Chief Minister can be dismissed by the Governor under the following circumstances. If the Chief Minister after being defeated in the no-confidence motion declines to resign. If the Chief Minister expresses reluctance to face the Assembly summoned to prove his majority. If Art. 356 is imposed in the state.

Question 78.
What are the functions of the State Council of Ministers?
Answer:
The State Council of Ministers determines and decides all executive and legislative policies of the State. It co-ordinates the work of various departments of the State Government. The ministers introduce bills and take a leading role in the debates and discussions of the Höuse. It prepares the addiešs of the Governor. It prepares the budget of the state and exercises supervisión and control over the civil and financial administration of the State.

Question 79.
What role does the Chief Minister play in the State Adminktrátion?
Answer:
The Chief Minister plays an important role in the formation of the ministry.

• He allocates the portfolios among ministers.
• He is the Chairman of the Cabinet and he has a free hand in the removal of a minister.
• He is the chief source of information to the Governor.
• He advises the Governor on all executive matters.
• He is the leader of his party and the Assembly.
• He plays a vital toe as the ultimate authority of the State Government.

Question 80.
What is the meaning of the Judiciary?
Answer:
Judiciary is the younger branch of Government which is concerned with the administration of justice. The judiciary acts as the watchdog of democracy, guardian of the constitution and protector of the rights of the citizens. No democratic Govt. can function well without an effective and independent judiciary. The Judges, law courts and proper laws are the ingredients of judiciary.

Question 81.
What is the importance of the independence of the judiciary?
Answer:
Independence of the judiciary means the freedom of the judiciary organ from the Control and influence of the executive and legislature. Without the independence of the judiciary, the integrity of the Judges can’t be secured. The Judges must be wise and impartial and they should administer justice without fear or favour, affection or ill will. An independent judiciary can only safeguard individual rights from the arbitrary interference of the state.

Question 82.
How the independence of the judiciary can be secured?
Answer:
In order to secure the independence of the judiciary the following conditions must be satisfied. The Judges must be appointed on the basis of merit. The procedure of removal of Judges must be difficult. The Judges must be paid attractive salaries. The judiciary must be separated from the control of the executive and legislature. The Judges must be accorded higher social status, and They must be kept free from political influences.

Question 83.
How does the judiciary act as the guardian of the constitution?
Answer:
The judiciary protects the spirit of the constitution and defends it by all possible means. It regards the constitution as sacred and inviolable any law which is inconsistent with the constitution is declared null and void. The judiciary settles all disputes arising between the centre and states. It not only protects the constitution but also develops it and adapts itself to changing conditions.

Question 84.
What are the legislative functions of the judiciary?
Answer:
The judiciary performs the following legislative functions:

• The Judges interpret and apply the law and extend its meaning.
• They give new meaning to the existing laws, which is called judge-made law.
• The Judges through, interpretation and flesh add blood to the dry bones of law.
• The Judges decide on appropriate law on the basis of wisdom and compromise.

Question 85.
how are the Judges of the Supreme Court appointed?
Answer:
The Judges of the Supreme Court are appointed by the President of India under his hand and seal. The President consults the Chief Justice while appointing a judge of the apex court. The President may consult the law ministry or with the Judges of the High Court as he may think fit. Actually, a committee headed by the Prime Minister selects the name and the resident gives them an appointment.

Question 86.
What is the qualification required for a Judge of the Supreme Court?
Answer:
A Judge of the Supreme Court is required to fulfil the following qualifications.

• He/She must be a citizen of India.
• He/She must be a Judge of any High Court for at least five years.
• He/She must have been an advocate in any High Court for at least 10 years.
• He/She must be a distinguished jurist in the opinion of the President of India.

Question 87.
How can a Judge of the Supreme Court be removed?
Answer:
A Judge of the Supreme Court can be removed. office by. Parliament by passing the impeachment motion. The motion of impeachment is initiated at least by one-fourth of members of either House of Parliament on the ground of proved misbehaviour and incapacity. The resolution after investigation must be passed with the support of a majority of members of each House and not less than 2/3rds of the members of each House present and voting. The President after receiving such a resolution can remove the Judge from office.

Question 88.
What constitutes the original Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court?
Answer:
Original jurisdiction is the exclusive júrisdiction of the Supreme Court of India. The cases heard by the Court under original jurisdiction are not decided by any other subordinate courts in the country. The cases decided by the Court under original jurisdiction are as follows Any dispute between the Centre and a State. Disputes between the union and one or more states on one side and a few states on the other. Disputes between two or more states. Disputes of the Presidential and Vice Presidential election. Cases involving a violation of fundamental rights of the citizens.

Question 89.
Row can an appeal be made to the Supreme Court In a civil dispute?
Answer:
The Supreme Court is the highest appellate court in the country. An appeal can be made to the Supreme Court in a civil dispute if The High Court certifies that the case involves a substantial question of law of general importance. If such a certificate is not issued the Supreme Court can accept the case under special leave to appeal.

Question 90.
how can an appeal be made to the Supreme Court ¡n a constitutional dispute?
Answer:
An appeal can be made to the Supreme Court in a constitutional dispute against the decision of a High Court only. If the High Court certifies that the case involves a substantial question of law as to the interpretation of the Constitution. If the Court denies to give such a certificate and the Supreme Court seeks to admit the same it can do so by granting special leave of appeal. The decision of the Supreme Court is final in all constitutional disputes.

Question 91.
How can an appeal be made to the Suprême Court in a criminal dispute?
Answer:
An appeal can be made to the Supreme Court against the decision of any High Court under the following conditions:
If the High Court certifies that the case is fit for appeal to the Supreme Court. If the High Court through an appeal has reversed the order of acquittal of an accused and sentenced him to death. If the High Court has withdrawn a criminal case from a subordinate court and after trial convicted the accused and sentenced him or death. In the absence of all these conditions, the Supreme Court can grant special leave to appeal to any criminal dispute.

Question 92.
What constitutes the Advisory Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court?
Answer:
The Supreme Court under Art-143 of the Constitution exercises advisory jurisdiction. The Supreme Court renders its advisory opinion or any question of law of fact of public importance when such advice is sought by the President or the Union Government. The advisory opinion of the Supreme Court is not binding on the President but usually, such advises are accepted. The Supreme Court is obliged to render its opinion on all legal questions referred to it. The advisory opinion of the Supreme Court is a useful device for the executive and legislature in times of need.

Question 93.
How does the Supreme Court act as the guardian of the Constitution?
Answer:
The Supreme Court of India in our federal setup acts as the guardian of the Constitution. The Constitution is the supreme law of the land and the apex court is vested with the power to protect the constitutional provisions. It applies the doctrine of judicial review to defend the conštitutional provisions from the encroachmeñl of the legislature and executive: It is the fiñ1 interpreter of the Constitution and its decision about the Constitution is final, ft decides all federal disputes arising between the Centre and States.

Question 94.
How does the Supreme Court act as a Court of Record?
Answer:
A Court of Record is a Court whose decisions and proceedings are recorded regularly for perpetual loss of memory. These records have evidentiary value and their legality can not be questioned rn any lower court, The Supreme Court under Art-129 of the Constitution acts as a court of record and whosoever violates the décency, decorum and dignity of the court is punished for contempt of Court.

Question 95.
Write a short note on Public Interest Litigation Principle of Supreme Court?
Answer:
The Principle of Public Interest litigation is a newly developed idea to impart true, fair and speedy justice to the poor, uneducated and helpless citizens of the country. the essence of the principle is that; a poor Indian is not in a position to go to the courts of law and file a petition for the solution of his grievances.

But according to this principle, any conscious citizen or any voluntary organization can file a petition in the court and can send letters or telegrams explaining the grievances or behaviour of the aggrieved party and the court will take immediate steps on the petition in the name of Public Interest Litigation.

Question 96.
What is the constitutional status of the Supreme Court of India?
Answer:
The Supreme Court of India is the apex judiciary in the country which imparts free, fair and impartial justice to the citizens. It is the federal judiciary which settles all disputes arising between the Centre and States. It is the defender of the fundamental rights of the citizens and the custodian of the Constitution. It is the final interpreter of the Constitution and the law. Exercising the power or judicial review it can impose a check on the authority of the legislature and executive

Question 97.
What is Judicial review?
Answer:
Judicial review is a special power of the Supreme Court to judge the constitutional validity of a law passed by the Parliament and an ordinance proclaimed by the executive. Exercising this power the court examines whether the law of the Parliament or state Icgislaiure conforms to the Constitution or not.

If anything violates the Constitution or its spirit it immediately declares such laws null and valid. The constitution is the Supreme Law of the land and nobody in the country is capable of violating it. The Supreme Court is there to apply the doctrine of judicial review to protect the Constitution.

Question 98.
The Scope of judicial review ¡n India is limited. Examine?
Answer:
In comparison to the judicial review power of the American Supreme Court, the scope of judicial review in India is limited. The Indian Constitution does not accept the doctrine of judicial supremacy and the power of judicial review is hedged with two many considerations. The court can not question the legality of an Act, but can only examine whether it runs counter to the Constitution or not.

The Indian Supreme Court while examining a law or fact applies the procedure established by law and seeks to fiñd out whether the law conforms to the earlier legislations and constitutional provisions or not. It can not go beyond limitations, hence its authority is limited.

Question 99.
What role does the Supreme Court play in the Indian Constitutional System?
Answer:
The Supreme Court of India plays an important role in the Constitutional System. It is responsible to see that laws are fairly administered and justice is denied to none. It maintains uniformity in constitutional, civil and criminal laws. It acts as the guardian of the Constitution and defender of the fundamental rights of the citizens. It is the saviour of the federation and the final interpreter of the constitution. It is the highest court of appeal in India in all civil, criminal and constitutional disputes. It acts as the balancing wheel of the constitution.

Question 100.
How the Constitution has secured the independence of the Supreme Court?
Answer:
The Constitution has secured the independence of the Supreme Court in the following ways. The Judges are appointed on the basis of ability and experience. Once appointed they can not be removed except through the rigid process of impeachment. The Judges are highly paid and their salaries can not be reduced to their disadvantage during their tenure of office. The Judges after retirement are prohibited from practising in any lower Court in India. The activities of the Judges arc free from public criticism and they are according to higher social status in comparison to other citizens.

Question 101.
What are the qualifications prescribed for a Judge?
Answer:
A Judge of the High Court is required to possess the following qualifications.

• He/She must be a citizen of India.
• He/She must have held a judicial office there in India for at least lO years.
• He/She must have been an advocate of a High Court for at least 10 years.

Question 102.
How are Judges of the High Court appointed?
Answer:
The Judges of the High Court are appointed by the President of India. The President before the such appointment has to consult the Chief Justice of India, the Governor of State and the Chief Justice of the concerned High Court.

Question 103.
How can a Judge of the High Court be removed?
Answer:
A Judge of the High Court can be removed from his office by the President if a motion is passed in both the Houses of Parliament by a majority of the total membership of the House by the majority of not less than 2/3rds of the members present and voting. Such a motion can be brought against a Judge only on the ground of proven misconduct and incapacity. At least one hundred members of the Lok Sabha and 50 members of the Rajya Sabha should initiate the charge and it after investigation it is supported by the required members the President shall order the removal of a Judge.

Question 104.
What constitutes the original jurisdiction of High Court?
Answer:
The original jurisdiction of the High Court extends to the following cases: Cases relating to the admiralty, probate, matrimonial and contempt of courts. Election disputes of the Parliament and State Legislatures. Enforcement of fundamental rights.

Question 105.
What are the features of Judicial Activism?
Answer:
Judicial Activism is a type of judicial pressure upon the executive and legislature to bring socio-political change. It works against corruption, injustice exploitation and the decline of democratic values. The judiciary interferes in the sphere of the executive and legislature to avoid theirs actions and inefficiency. It is not constitutional but it helps in the working of the constitution. It helps, the judiciary to interfere in the working of autonomous bodies. It is different from and superior to judicial review.

Question 106.
What are the causes of Judicial Activism?
Answer:
The causes of judicial activism arc;

• Increase in the number of cases in administrative matters;
• Maximum delegation of legislative power to the executive by the legislature;
• Judicial control over discretionary powers;
• Extension of judicial review over administration.
• Growing trust of the people on the judiciary;
• Negligence of executive and legislative branches, etc.

Question 107.
What Is ministerial responsibility?
Answer:
The concept of ministerial responsibility is the very backbone of a Parliamentary Govt. The council of ministers, for all its pol ideas and actions, remains accountable to the Pari Lamont. The ministers remain responsible for all acts to the Head of State. The minister is individually responsible for all acts of his Department. The council of ministers as a whole remain responsible to the Parliament for all acts of omission and commission. they collectively defend the policies and decisions of the cabinet.

Question 108.
What are the unique characteristics of the Indian Judicial System?
Answer:
There is a single integrated judiciary in India; It remains independent from the influence of both executive and legislature. The judiciary acts as the final interpreter of the constitution. There are joint-High Courts for two or more states. The judiciary acts as the guardian of the constitution and of fundamental rights.

Question 109.
What is Judicnil activism?
Answer:
Judicial Activism is a modem term in use, which means the pro-active character of the judiciary Nowadays with the increasing politicization of society the executive and legislature more often neglect their duty as a result of which the society, the nation and some innocent people suffer loss. Under these circumstances, the judiciary has become active in dictating the other two organs of Govt. about their responsibility towards society. As a result, the system of Lok Adalats. & Public Interest Litigations have developed.

Question 110.
What are Fast Track Courts?
Answer:
The Union Govt. on the recommendation of the 11th Finance Commission in April 2000, has decided to set up Fast Track Courts all over the country. These courts are expected to provide speedy justice. The retired Judges are selected by High Court and appointed on an Adhoc basis. for two years, These courts are expected to cut down judicial delays and expenses.

Question 111.
What Is the constitutional status of the High Court?
Answer:
The High Court occupies an important place in the Indian judicial system. It is a part of our Integrated judicial system. It is created by the constitution and. functions in accordance with the provisions of the constitution. It enjoys full autonomy in its Working, but the Supreme Court exercises administrative and judicial control over it.

Question 112.
Name the units Issued by the Supreme Court for the protection of Fundamental Rights?
Answer:
The Supreme Court issued the following writs for the enforcement of fundamental rights.

• Writ of Habeas Corpus
• Mandamus
• Quo-warranto
• Certiorari
• Prohibition