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Odisha State Board Elements of Mathematics Class 11 Solutions CHSE Odisha Chapter 2 Sets Ex 2(a) Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

CHSE Odisha Class 11 Math Solutions Chapter 2 Sets Exercise 2(a)

Question 1.
Construct five different examples of sets. Describe each with the help of a proposition.
Solution:
(i) Collection of all the days of a week.
i.e., D = {Sunday, Monday, Tuesday, Wednesday, Thursday, Friday, Saturday}
= {x: x is a day of a week}

(ii) Collection of writing instruments
i.e., A = {pen, pencil, paper, ink}
= {x: x is a writing instrument}

(iii) Collection of all kings having more than one queen.
i.e., B = {x: x is a king having more than one queen.}

(iv) Collection of all nationalized political parties i.e., C = {BJP, Congress, CPI, CPI(M), JD(U), JD(S), JP}
= {x: x is a set of nationalized political parties}

(v) Collection of all integers of multiples of 3.
i.e., D = {0, ± 3, ± 6}
= {x: x is a set of all integers of multiples of 3}

(vi) Collection of all fingers of a hand
i.e., E = {x: x is a finger of hand}

Question 2.
Give an example of a set that has exactly 10 elements and express it through a defining property.
Solution:
Collection of all positive prime numbers less than 30 i.e„ A = {2, 3, 5, 7, 11, 13, 17, 19, 23, 29} = {x: x is a prime number less than 30}

Question 3.
It is possible to express every set through a defining property? Justify your answer.
Solution:
Yes, it is possible to express every set through a defining property, as every set can be written in the set builder form.

Question 4.
If {x: p₁ (x)} = {x: p₂ (x)}, show for each x, p₁ (x) and p₂ (x) have the same truth value.
Solution:
Given that {x : p₁ (x)} = {x : p₂ (x)}
∴ The two sets have the same element.
So p₁ (x) ≠ p₂ (x) i.e., they have the same truth value.

Question 5.
For each of the following words, write down the set of letters forming that word :
(i) Administration,
(ii) Misrepresentation,
(iii) Mathematics,
(iv) Concurrence,
(v) Demonstration
Solution:
(i) {a, d, i, m, n, o, r, s, t }
(ii) {a, e, i, m, n,o,p, r, s, t }
(iii) {a, c, e, h, i, m, s, t }
(iv) {c, e, n, n, o, r, u }
(v) {a, d, e, i, m, n, o, r, s, t }

Question 6.
State with reason, which of the following are sets and which are not :
(i) All big rivers of India.
(ii) All natural numbers having at least one prime factor.
(iii) All sincere students of Ravenshaw college during the academic year 1998 -99.
(iv) All real numbers with negative squares.
(v) All citizens of India earning more than Rs. 10,000/- per month.
(vi) All college teachers who are citizens of India.
(vii) All finite subsets of the set Z of integers.
(viii)Collection of all possible sets.
(ix) Collection of all winged horses.
(x) Collection of all residents of Odisha who will live for more than 100 years.
Solution:
(i) It is not a set, as the word ‘big’ is not properly defined.
(ii) It is a set, as it is properly defined.
(iii) It is not a set, as the word ‘sincere’ is not properly defined.
(iv) It is a set, as it is well-defined.
(v) It is a set, as it is well-defined.
(vi) It is a set, as it is well-defined.
(vii) It is a set, as it is well-defined.
(viii)It is a set, as it is well-defined.
(ix) It is a set, as is it properly defined.
(x) It is not a set, as we do not know, who will live for more than 100 years.

Question 7.
Write the following sets in the form of lists:
(i) {x: x is a prime number and 1 ≤ x ≤ 100}
(ii) {x: x = is an odd integer}
(iii) {x: x = 1 or x = 2 or x = 3 }
(iv) {x: x = can be written as a sum of two odd integers}
(v) Set of all natural numbers that are divisible by 5.
Solution:
(i) {2, 3, 5, 7, …….. 97}
(ii) {± 1, ± 3, ± 5, ……..}
(iii) {1, 2, 3}
(iv) {2, 4, 6, 8, 10, ………}
(v) {5, 10, 15, 20, ……..}

Question 8.
Write the following sets in the intention (or specification form)
(i) {a}
(ii) Φ
(iii) {1, 2}
(iv) {1, 2, 3, 4, 5}
(v) P (Φ)
(vi) {1, 3, 9, 27}
Solution:
(i) {x: x = a}
(ii) {x: x ≠ x}
(iii) {x: x = 1 or x = 2}
(iv) {x: x ∈ N, 1 ≤ x ≤ 5}
(v) {x: x = Φ}
(vi) {x: x =3ⁿ n ∈ Z, 0 ≤ n ≤ 3 }

Question 9.
Determine if set A is a proper subset of the set B where A and B are as given below:

(i) A = { 1, 2, 3, …….}
B = {x: x is a rational number}
Solution:
A is a proper subset of B as all the elements of A are in B.

(ii) A = {x: x is a prime number}
B = {2n – 1: n = 1, 2, 3, …… }
Solution:
A = {x : x is a prime number}
= {2, 3, 5, 7, 11, ……}
B = {2n – 1: n = 1, 2, 3, …. }
= {1, 3, 5, 7, ….}
∴ A ⊄ B, because of 2 ∈ A but 2 ∉.

(iii) A = {-l, 1, 3}
B = {x: x ∈ R and x³ – 2x³ -x + 2 = 0}
Solution:
Solving x³ – 2x² – x + 2 = 0
we have x² (x – 2) – 1 (x – 2) = 0
or, (x – 2) (x²– 1) = 0
∴ x = 1, -1, 2
∴ B ={ -1, 1, 2}
∴ A is not a subset of B.

(iv) A= {1, 2, 3, 4}
B = [n ∈ N, n is a divisor of 60}
Solution:
B = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 10, 12, 15, 20, 30, 60}
∴ A ⊂ B

Question 10.
For each of the following pairs of sets A and B, determine if A ⊂ B or A ⊄ B:
Solution:
(i) A = Φ, B = {Φ}
Here A ⊂ B, as Φ is the subset of every set

(ii) A = {x : x is an integer}
= 0, ± 1, ± 2……..
B = {3x : x is an integer}
= {0, ± 3, ± 6,……} A ⊄ B.

(iii) A = {x: x is an odd integer}
B = {x: x is real and not an even integer}
∴ A = {± 1, ± 3, ± 5, …….} and B is the set containing all the real numbers except for even integers.
∴ A ⊂ B

(iv) A = {x : x is an integer which is both even and odd}
B = {x: x is an integer, x ≠ x}
∴ A ⊂ B, … A = Φ and B = Φ)

(v) A = |a, b, c|, B = {|a|, |b|,  |c|}
∴ A ⊄ B

Question 11.
Determine the truth of the falsity of the following propositions with reasons.
(a) {1, 2} € {1,2,3}
(b) A ⊂ A for any set A.
(c) Every set has a proper subset.
(d) Every set in a proper subset of the same set
(e) For any object x, there is a set A such that, x ∈ A.
(f) For any object x, there is a set A such that, x ∉ A.
(g) If A, B, C sets, then either A = B or A ⊂ B or B ⊂ A.
(h) a ∈ {(a)}
(i) a ∈ {(a, b), b}, a ≠ b.
(j) If A is a proper subset of B and B is a subset of C, then A is a proper subset of C.
(k) A ⊂ Φ if and only if A = Φ.
Solution:
(a) {1,2} ∈ {1,2,3} is false, as {1, 2} is not an element of { 1, 2, 3} but it is a subset.
(B) A ⊂ A is false, as A is an improper subset of itself, not a proper subset.
(C) ‘Every set has a proper subset is false as Φ has no proper subset.
(d) Every set is a proper subset of the same set is false.
(e) For any object x, there is a set A such that, x ∈ A. It is true.
(f) For every object x, there is a set A such that, x ∉ A. It is true.
(g) If A, B, C sets, then either A = B or A ⊂ B or B ⊂ A. It is false, as there is a possibility for A ≠ B.
e.g. a = {1, 2}, b = {a, b}
(h) a ∈ {{a}}. It is false as ‘a’ is not an element of the set {(a)}.
(i) as ∈ {{a, b}, b}, a ≠ b It is false, as ‘a’ is not an element of the set {{a, b}, b}
(j) If A is a proper subset of B and B is a subset of C, then A is a proper subset of C.
It is true, as
x ∈ A ⇒ x ∈ B ∴ (A ⊂ B)
and x ∈ B ⇒ x ∈ C ∴ (B ⊂ A)
∴ x ∈ A ⇒ x ∈ C means A ⊂ C.
(k) A ⊂ Φ if and only if A = Φ is true.
Proof:
Necessary part: Given A ⊂ Φ and prove A = Φ.
Now A ⊂ Φ       ….(1)
And Φ is the subset of every set.
So Φ ⊂ A           ….(2)
Combining (1) and (2) we get A = Φ.
Sufficient part: Given A = Φ and to prove A ⊂ C.
A = Φ ⇒ A ⊂ Φ and Φ ⊂ A
Thus A ⊂ Φ.

Question 12.
Write down the power set of
(i) {a, b, c}
(ii) {a, {a}}
(iii) Φ
(iv) {Φ}
(v) {a, {a}, {a,b}}
(vi) {{Φ}}
Solution:
(i) Let A = {a, b, c}
P(A) = {{a}, {b}, {c}, {a, b}, {a, c}, {b, c}, A, Φ}

(ii) Let A = {a, {a}} then P(A) = {{a}, {{a}}, Φ, A}

(iii) P (Φ) = {Φ}

(iv) P({Φ})-= {{Φ}, Φ}

(v) Let A = {a, {a}, {a, b}}
∴ P(A) = {{a}, {{a}}, {{a, b}}, {a}, {a}
{{a}, {a,b}}, {a, {a,b}, A, Φ)}

(vi) Let A = {{Φ}}
∴ P(A) = {A, Φ}

Question 13.
Prove that P(A) ⊂ P(B) if and only if A ⊂ B. When is the inclusion P(A) ⊂ P(B) proper?
Solution:
Necessary Part :
Let P(A) ⊂ P(B),
we shall prove that A ⊂ B.
∴ Let x ∈ A
⇒ {x} ∈ P(A)
⇒ {x} ∈ P(B)  (∴ P(A) ⊂P(B)
⇒ x ∈ B
Sufficient Part:
Let A ⊂ B
Let x ∈ P(A)
⇒ x ⊂ A
⇒x ⊂ B (∴ A ⊂ B)
⇒ x ∈ P(B)
Thus P(A) ⊂ P(B)
The inclusion P(A) ⊂ P(B) is proper when A is a proper subset of B.

Question 14.
A set can be finite or infinite (as understood in an informal way). For instance, {1, 2, 3, 4} is a finite set whereas Z is an infinite set. The number of elements of a set A, denoted by |A|, is called its cardinal number. Without going into the necessary technicalities, we may just observe that
|Φ|  = 0, |{x_1, x_2………,x_n }| = n
Two sets A and B are called similar if they have the same cardinal number. Thus, the sets {1, 2, 3} and {2, 4, 6} are similar. We write A ~ B to express the fact that A and B are similar. Now, answer the following questions.
(i) What are the cardinal numbers of the following sets?
{Φ}, {a, {a, b}}, {Z} {0.5}, {0, {5}}, {a, b, {a, b} }, {{Φ}}, {Φ, {Φ}}
(ii) For any natural number n, give an example of a set A such that |A = n|.
(iii) Determine the cardinal number of the set {x: x is real and x³ – x² + x- 1 = 0 }
Solution:
(i) Cardinal number of the set {Φ} is 1.
Cardinal number of the set {a, {a, b} } is 2.
Cardinal number of the set {z} is 1.
Cardinal number of the set {0,5} is 2.
Cardinal number of {0, {5 } } is 2.
Cardinal number of the set {a, b {a, b}) is 3.
Cardinal number of the set {{Φ}} is 1.
Cardinal number of {Φ, {Φ}} is 2.

(ii) Let A = {1, 2, 3}
∴ | A | = 4 where 4 ∈ N for n = 4.

(iii) Let A = {x : x is real and
x³ – x² + x – 1 = 0 }
Solving, x³ – x² + x – 1 = 0
or, x² ( x – 1) + 1 (x – 1 ) = 0
or, (x- 1) (x² + 1) = 0
x – 1 = 0, x² + 1 = 0
x = 1, ± i
As x is real, we have A = {1}
| A | = 1

Question 15.
Which sets are finite and which are infinite?
(i) The set N of positive natural numbers.
(ii) The set Z of integers.
(iii) The set Q of rational numbers.
(iv) The set R of real numbers.
(v) The set of prime numbers.
(vi) The set of even integers.
(vii) The set of human beings.
(viii)The set of integers less than 10.
Solution:
(i) “The set N of positive natural numbers” is an infinite set.
(ii) “The set Z of integers” is an infinite set.
(iii) “The set Q of rational numbers” is an infinite set.
(iv) “The set R of real numbers” is an infinite set.
(v) “The set of prime numbers” is an infinite set.
(vi) “The set of even integers” is an infinite set.
(vii) “The set of human beings” is a finite set.
(viii)“The set of integers less than 10” is an infinite set.

Question 16.
Verify that
| P (Φ) | = 2⁰
| P ({a}) | = 2¹
| P ({a, b}) | = 2²
| P({a, b, c}) | = 2³
Solution:
(i) Let A = Φ, then P(A) = {Φ}
∴ P(A) = 1 = 2⁰

(ii) Let A = {a} then P(A) = {{a}, Φ}
∴ P(A) = 2 = 2¹

(iii) Let A = {a, b)
then P(A) = {{a}, {b}, {a, b}, Φ}
∴ P(A) = 4 = 2²

(iv) Let A = {a, b, c}
P(A) = {{a}, {b}, {c}, {a, b}, {b, c}, A, Φ}
∴ P(A) = 8 = 2³

Question 17.
Find the number of elements of
(i) P(P(Φ))
(ii) P(P(P(Φ)))
(iii) P(P(P(P(Φ))))
Solution:
(i) We have | P (Φ) | = 2⁰ = 1
∴ | P(P(Φ)) | = 2¹ = 2
(ii) | P(P(P(Φ))) | = 2² = 4
(iii) | P(P(P(P(Φ))) | =2⁴ = 16

Question 18.
Prove by the method of induction that if A has n number of elements, then | P (A) | = 2ⁿ.
Solution:
When n = 1, we have, let A = {a₁}
P (A) = {{ a₁ }, Φ} ⇒ | P(A) | = 2 = 2¹
∴ p₁ is true.
Let p_k be true i.e., if A = {a_1, a_{2, ………..} a_k }
then | A | = k and | P(A) | = 2^k
Now let B = {a_1, a_{2, ………..} a_k, a_k+1  }
∴ | B | =k + 1.
Here A has 2^k subsets. These 2^k subsets are also in B. Which includes the additional elements a_k+1 ∈ B.
So there are 2^k. 2 = 2^k+1 subsets in B.
∴ | P(B) | = 2^k+1
i.e., if | A| = k +1 then | P(A) | = 2^k+1
∴ p_k+1 is true.
∴ p_n is true for all values of n ∈ N.
∴ | P(A) | =2ⁿ if | A | = n.

Question 19.
Can you say how many elements P(P(A)) if A has n elements?
Solution:
If | A | = n then | p(A) | =2ⁿ
and | P(P(A)) | = 2⁽²ⁿ⁾ .

Odisha State Board Elements of Mathematics Class 11 CHSE Odisha Solutions Chapter 1 Mathematical Reasoning Ex 1(b) Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

CHSE Odisha Class 11 Math Solutions Chapter 1 Mathematical Reasoning Exercise 1(b)

Question 1.
Check the validity of the following statements.

(i) p: 100 is a multiple of 5 and 4.
(ii) q: 125 is multiple of 5 and 7.
(iii) r: 60 is a multiple of 3 or 5.
Solution:
(i) Here the connective is ‘and’
Step -1: 100 is a multiple of 5 (True)
Step -2: 100 is a multiple of 4 (True)
∴ 100 is a multiple of 5 and 4 is true, i.e. the statement ‘p’ is valid.

(ii) Here the connective is ‘and’
Step – 1: 125 is a multiple of 5 (True)
Step – 2: 125 is a multiple of 7 (false)
∴ The statement ‘q’ is (false), i.e. the statement ‘q’ is not a valid statement

(iii) Here the connective is ‘or’
60 is a multiple of 3 (True)
60 is a multiple of 5 (True)
Thus the component statements are both true.
∴ The statement ‘r’: 60 is a multiple of 3 or is true, i.e. ‘r’ is a valid statement.

Question 2.
Check the validity of the statements given below by the method given against each.
(i) “The sum of an irrational number and a rational number is irrational’’ (by contradiction method).
(ii) “If n is a real number with n > 3, then n² > 9 (by the method of contradiction).
(iii) ‘‘If x, y are integers such that xy is odd then both x and y are odd” (by the method of contrapositive)
(iv) “If x is an integer and x² is even then x is also even” (method of contrapositive).
Solution:
(i) Let the given statement is false.
i.e. the sum of an irrational number and a rational number is rational.
⇒ An irrational number + a rational number = a rational number
⇒ An irrational number = A rational number + rational number = A rational number
Which is absurd.
We arrive at a contradiction.
This is due to our false assumption. Thus, the given statement is true.

(ii) Let the given statement is false.
i.e. for a natural number n > 3 n² > 9
⇒ n² ≤ 3 ⇒ n ≤ 3
(.’. n is a natural number which contradicts the fact that n > 3)
This contradiction is due to our false assumption.
Thus for any natural number
n > 3, n² > 9.

(iii) Let p: x and y are integers such that xy is odd. and q: both x and y are odd. We shall prove the validity of p → q by using the method of contrapositive.
Now ~ q: It is not true that both x and y are odd, i.e. at least one of x (or y) is even.
Let ~ q is true.
Let x is even and x = 2n for some integer n.
⇒ xy = 2ny for some integer n.
⇒ xy is even (not odd)
⇒ ~ p is true.
Thus by the method of contrapositive, we proved ~ q ⇒ ~ p, i.e. p → q is true.

(iv) Let p: x is an integer and x² is even
q : x is even.
Let ~ q is true
⇒ x is not an even integer
⇒ x is an odd integer
Let x = 2n + 1 for some integer ‘n ’
⇒ x² = (2n + 1)² = 4n² + 4n + 1
= 2 (2n² + 2n) + 1
which is odd.
⇒ p is false ⇒ ~ p is true
Thus ~ q ⇒ ~ p
∴ Thus the statement is true.
i.e x is even ⇒x is also even

Question 3.
By giving counter-examples, show that the following statements are not true:
(i) If measures of all the angles of a triangle are equal, then the triangle is an obtuse angled triangle.
(ii) For every real number x and y, x² = y² ⇒ x = y.
(iii) The equation x² – 1 = 0 does not have any root lying between 0 and 2.
Solution:
(i) Let in ΔABC
∠A = ∠B = ∠C = 60°
Clearly, no angle is obtuse.
∴ The triangle is not obtuse-angled.
(ii) for x = – 2, y = 2
x² = y² = 4 but x ≠ y
∴ x² = y² ⇒ x = y
(iii) x = 1 is a root of x² – 1=0
that lies between 0 and 2.
∴ The given statement is false.

Question 4.
Check the validity of “If I do not work, I sleep.
If I am worried, I will not sleep. Therefore, if I am worried, I will work”.
Solution:
Method-1:
Let p: I work
q: I sleep
r: I am worried
“If I do not work, I sleep” can be written as ~ p → q
“If I am worried, I will not sleep” can be written as r → ~ q
‘If I am worried, I will work’’ can be written as r → p
The given statement can be written as [(~ p → q) ∧ (r → ~ q)] → ( r → p)
Let us draw the truth table

As [(~ p → q) ∧ (r → q)] → (r → p)
is a tautology the given statement is logically valid.
Method – 2:
Let p: I do work
q: I sleep
r: I am worried
“If I do not work, I sleep ” can be represented as ~ p → q
“If I am worried, I will not sleep” can be written as r → ~ q
Thus we can write the given statement as
[(~ p → q) ∧ (r → q)] → (r → p)
But a statement and its contrapositive are equivalent.
Thus this can be written as
[(r  → ~ q) ∧  (~ q → p)] → (r → p)
By the principle of syllogism, the given statement is logically valid.

Question 5.
Let a and b be integers. By the law of contrapositive prove that if ab is even then either a is even or b is even:
Solution:
Let p: For integers ‘a and b’ ab is even q: a is even or b is even
we shall check the validity of p → q by the method of contrapositive Let ~ q is true.
⇒ Both a and b are odd
Let a = 2m + 1, b = 2n + 1
for some integers m and n
⇒ ab = (2m + 1) (2n + 1)
= 4mn + 2 (m + n ) + 1
= 2 [2mn + m + n) + 1
Which is odd
⇒  p is false
⇒  ~ p is true
Thus the method of contrapositive p → q is true.
i.e. The given statement is logically valid.

Odisha State Board CHSE Odisha Class 11 Math Solutions Chapter 3 Relations And Functions Ex 3(c) Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

CHSE Odisha Class 11 Math Solutions Chapter 3 Relations And Functions Exercise 3(c)

Question 1.
Give an example of a relation that is not a function.
Solution:
Let the relation ‘f’ be defined from
A = {1, 2, 3} to B = {1, 2} as
f = {(1, 1), (1, 2), (2, 1), (3, 2)}
f is not a function because f (1) = 1,
f(1) = 2 but 1 ± 2 i.e. f is one many.

Question 2.
If X and Y are sets containing m and n elements respectively then what is the total number of functions from X to Y?
Solution:
If |X| = m and |Y| = n then the number of functions from X to Y = |Y|^|X| = n^m

Question 3.
Find the domain of the following functions:
(i)\( \sqrt{9-x^2}\)
Solution:
y = f(x) = \(\sqrt{9-x^2}\)
Clearly, f(x) is well-defined for 9 – x² ≥ 0 ⇒ x² ≤ 3² ⇒ – 3 ≤ x ≤ 3
∴ dom f = [ – 3, 3]

(ii) \(\frac{x}{1+x}\)
Solution:
y = f(x) = \(\frac{x}{1+x}\)
f(x) is well defined for all x ∈ R
∴ dom f = R

(iii) 1 – |x|
Solution:
y = f(x) = 1 – |x|
f(x) is well defined for all x ∈ R
∴ dom f = R

(iv) \(\frac{1}{x^2-1}\)
Solution:
y = f(x) = \(\frac{1}{x^2-1}\)
f(x) is well defined for x² – 1 ≠ 0
⇒ x² ≠ 1
⇒ x² ≠ ± 1
∴ dom f = R – { -1, 1}

(v) \(\frac{\sin x}{1+\tan x}\)
Solution:
y – f(x) = \(\frac{\sin x}{1+\tan x}\)
f(x) is well defined for 1 + tan x
≠ 0
⇒ tan x ≠ – 1
⇒ x ≠ n π + \(\frac{3 \pi}{4}\)
∴ dom f = R – {n π + \(\frac{3 \pi}{4}\)}

(vi) \(\frac{x}{|x|}\)
Solution:
y = f(x) = \(\frac{x}{|x|}\)
f(x) is well defined for |x| ≠ 0
⇒ x ≠ 0
∴ dom f = R – {0}

(vii) \(\frac{1}{x+|x|}\)
Solution:
y = f(x) = \(\frac{1}{x+|x|}\)
f(x) is well-defined for
x + |x| ≠ 0
⇒ |x| ≠ – x
⇒ x is not negative
⇒ dom f = [0, – ∞)

(viii) \(\sqrt{\log \left(\frac{12}{x^2-x}\right)}\)
Solution:
y = f(x) = \(\sqrt{\log \left(\frac{12}{x^2-x}\right)}\)
f(x) is well defined for \(\frac{12}{x^2-x}\) ≥ 1
⇒ 12 ≥ x² – x
⇒ x² – x – 12 ≤ 0
⇒ (x – 4) (x + 3) ≤ 0
Let us draw the signing scheme

⇒ x ∈ [ – 3, 4]
∴ dom f =[-3, 4]

(ix) [x] – x
Solution:
y = f(x) = [x] – x
f(x) is well defined for all x ∈ R
∴ dom f = R

(x) \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{1-x^2}}\)
Solution:
y = f(x) = \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{1-x^2}}\)
f(x) is well defined for 1 – x² > 0
⇒ x² < 1 ⇒ – 1 < x < 1
∴ dom f = (-1, 1)

(xi) log (sin x)
Solution:
y = f(x) = log (sin x)
fix) is well-defined for sin x > 0
⇒ x ∈ (2nπ , (2n + l)π), n ∈ Z

Question 4.
Find the range of the following functions:
(i) \(\frac{x^2-1}{x^2+1}\)
Solution:
Let y = f(x) = \(\frac{x^2-1}{x^2+1}\)
⇒ x² – y + y = x² – 1
⇒  x²y – x² = – (1 + y)
⇒ x² (y- 1)=-(1 + y)
⇒ x² = \(\frac{\ – (1+y)}{y-1}=\frac{1+y}{1-y}\)
⇒ x = ± \(\sqrt{\frac{1+y}{1-y}}\)
Now x is well-defined for
\(\frac{1+y}{1-y}\) ≥ 0

∴ rng f = [-1,1)

(ii) \(\sqrt{x-1}\)
Solution:
y = f(x) = \(\sqrt{x-1}\)
⇒ y² = x- 1
⇒ x = y² + 1
x is well difierid for all y ∈ R but
y ≥ 0
∴ rng f = [0, ∞]

(iii) [x] – x
Solution:
y = f(x) = [x], – x
We have [x] ≤ x < [ x] + 1
⇒ 0 ≤ x – [x] < 1
⇒ 0 ≥ [x] – x > – 1
⇒ -1 < [x] – x ≤ 0
⇒ -1 < y ≤ 0
⇒ rng f = ( – 1 , 0]

(iv) \(\frac{x}{1-x}\)
Solution:
y = f(x) = \(\frac{x}{1-x}\)
⇒ y – xy = x
⇒ xy + x = y
⇒ x (y + 1) = y
⇒ x = \(\frac{y}{y+1}\)
x is well defined for y ≠ – 1
∴ Rng f = R – {- 1}

(v) \(\frac{x}{1+x^2}\)
Solution:
y = f(x) = \(\frac{x}{1+x^2}\)
⇒ y + x²y = x
⇒ x²y – x + y = 0
⇒ x = \(\frac{1 \pm \sqrt{1-4 y^2}}{2 y}\)
x is well defined for 1 – 4y² ≥ 0 and y ≠ 0
⇒ y² ≤ \(\frac{1}{4}\) and y ≠ 0
⇒ – \(\frac{1}{2}\) ≤ y ≤ \(\frac{1}{2}\) and y ≠ 0
but for x = 0 we have y = 0
∴ rng f = \(\left[-\frac{1}{2}, \frac{1}{2}\right]\)

(vi) \(\frac{1}{2-\cos 3 x}\)
Solution:
y = f(x) = \(\frac{1}{2-\cos 3 x}\)
we have – 1 ≤ cos 3x ≤ 1
⇒ 1 ≥ – cos 3x ≥ -1
⇒ – 1 ≤- cos 3x ≤ 1
⇒ 2 – 1 < 2 – cos 3x ≤ 3
⇒ 1 ≤ 2 – cos 3x ≤ 3
⇒ 1 ≥ \(\frac{1}{2-\cos 3 x} \geq \frac{1}{3}\)
⇒ \(\frac{1}{3}\) ≤ y ≤ 1
∴ rng f =[\(\frac{1}{3}\), 1]

(vii) log ₁₀ (1 – x)
Solution:
y = f(x) = log₁₀ (1 – x)
Clearly y ∈ R
∴ rng f = R

(viii) \(\sqrt{1+x^2}\)
Solution:
y = f(x) = \(\sqrt{1+x^2}\)
⇒ y² = 1 + x²
⇒  x² = y² – 1
⇒ x = ± \(\sqrt{y^2-1}\)
x is well defined for y² – 1 ≥ 0
⇒ y² ≥ 1
⇒ – 1 ≥ y ≥ 1
But y > 0
∴ rng f = [1, ∞)

Question 5.
Find the domain and range of the following functions:
(i) \(\frac{x^2}{1+x^2}\)
Solution:
y = f(x) = \(\frac{x^2}{1+x^2}\)
Domain:
f(x) is well defined for all x ∈ R
∴ dom f = R
Range (Method – 1):
y = \(\frac{x^2}{1+x^2}\)
⇒ y + yx² = x²
⇒ x² – yx² = y
⇒ x² (1 – y) = y
⇒ x² = \(\frac{y}{1-y}\)
⇒ x = ± \(\sqrt{\frac{y}{1-y}}\)
x is well-defined for \(\frac{y}{1-y}\) ≥ 0

⇒ y 6 [0. 1)
∴ Rng f = [0,1)
Method – 2:
0 ≤ x² < x² + 1
⇒ 0 ≤ \(\frac{x^2}{x^2+1}\) < 1
⇒ 0 ≤ y ≤ 1
∴ rng f = [0, 1)

(ii) \(\sqrt{2 x-3}\)
Solution:
y = f(x) = \(\sqrt{2 x-3}\)
Domain:
f(x) is well defined for 2x- 3 ≥ 0
⇒ x ≥ 3/2
∴ dom f =[\(\frac{3}{2}\), ∞]
Range:
y = \(\sqrt{2 x-3}\) ⇒ y² = 2x – 3
⇒ 2x = y² + 3
⇒ x = \(\frac{y^2+3}{2}\)
x is well defined for all y ∈ R
But y is not negative.
∴ Rng f = [0, ∞)

(iii) log_e |x – 2|
Solution:
y = f(x) = log |x – 2|
Domain:
f(x) is well defined for |x – 2| >0
⇒ x ≠ 2
∴ dom f = R – {2}
Range:
y = log |x – 2| ∈ R ⇒ rng f = R

Question 6.
Give an example of a step function on [- 1, 3] = {x ∈ R| – 1 ≤ x ≤ 3}.
Solution:
f(x) = \(\left\{\begin{array}{c}
-1,-1 \leq x<0 \\
0,0 \leq x<1 \\
1,1 \leq x<2 \\
2,2 \leq x<3 \\
3,3 \leq x<4
\end{array}\right\}\)

Question 7.
Let X ={ a, b, c}, Y = {1, 2, 3, 4}
(a) Find out which of the following relations are functions and which are not and why?
Solution:
X = [a, b, c}, Y = {1, 2, 3, 4}
(i) {(a, 1), (a, 2), (b, 3), (b, 4)}
Solution:
{(a, 1), (a, 2), (b, 3), (b, 4)} is not a function as ‘a’ has two images in Y.

(ii) {(a, 2), (b, 3), (c, 4)}
Solution:
{(a, 2), (b, 3), (c, 4)} is a function from X to Y as the elements of X has unique images in Y.

(iii) {(a, 3), (b, 1), (a, 4), (c, 2)}
Solution:
{(a, 3), (b, 1), (a, 4), (c, 2)} is not a function as ‘a’ and ‘b’ have two images also domain of the function ≠ X.

(iv) {(a, 1), (b, 1), (c, 1)}
Solution:
{(a, 1), (b, 1), (c, 1)} is a function from X to Y.

(v) {(a, 2), (b. 1), (c, 1)}
Solution:
{(a, 2), (b, 1), (c, 1)} is a function from X to Y.

(vi) {(a, a), (b, b), (c, c)}
Solution:
{(a, a), (b, b), (c, c)} is a function from X to X.

(b) Find the domain and range of those relations in a which are functions.
Solution:
(i) The domain of each function is
X = [a, b, c}
Range of functions

(ii) is {2, 3, 4}.
In (iv) is {1} and in (v) is {1, 2}. The range of function in (vi) is X.

(c) Identify the constant function if any.
Solution:
The function in (iv)
i.e. {(a, 1), ib, 1), (c, 1)} is a constant function.

(d) Identify the identity function if any.
Solution:
The function in (vi)
i.e.{(a, a), (b, b), (c, c)} is an identity function.

Question 8.
Find \(f(\sqrt{2})\) and \(\boldsymbol{f}(-\sqrt{3})\) for the function
\(f(x)=\left\{\begin{array}{l}
x^2, \text { if } x<0 \\
x, \text { if } 0 \leq x \leq 1 \\
\frac{1}{x}, \text { if } x>1
\end{array}\right.\)
Solution:
\(f(\sqrt{2})\) = \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\)
\(\boldsymbol{f}(-\sqrt{3})\) = (√3)² = 3

Question 9.
Find x for which the value of f(x) = x² – 4x + 3 is
Solution:
f(x) = x² – 4x + 3
(i) 0
Solution:
f(x) = 0
⇒ x² – 4x + 3 = 0
⇒ (x – 3) (x – 1) = 0
⇒ x =1, 3

(ii) – 1
Solution:
f(x) = – 1
⇒ x² – 4x + 3 = -1
⇒ x² – 4x + 4 = 0
⇒ (x – 2)² = 0
⇒ x = 2

Question 10.
Find the values of x for which the following functions are not defined:
(i) \(\frac{x^2-4}{x-2}\)
Solution:
y = f(x) = \( \frac{x^2-4}{x-2}\)
Clearly f(x) is not defined for x = 2

(ii) \(\frac{\sin x}{x}\)
Solution:
y = f(x) = \(\frac{\sin x}{x}\)
f(x) is not defined for x = 0

(iii) \(\frac{\log \cos x}{\sec x}\)
Solution:
y = f(x) = \(\frac{\log \cos x}{\sec x}\)
f(x) is not defined for cos x ≤ 0
⇒ for x ∈ x \(\left[\frac{\pi}{2}, \frac{3 \pi}{2}\right]\) or \(\left[\frac{5 \pi}{2}, \frac{7 \pi}{2}\right]\)
In general x ∈ \(\left[(4 n+1) \frac{\pi}{2},(4 n+3) \frac{\pi}{2}\right]\), n ∈ Z

Question 11.
Let f(x) = \(\sqrt{1+x}\), g(x) = \(\sqrt{1-x}\)
Find & Also, find the domain in each case.
Solution:
f(x) = \(\sqrt{1+x}\), g(x) = \(\sqrt{1-x}\)
f(x) is well defined for x + 1 ≥ 0
⇒ x ≥ – 1
∴ dom f = [- 1 , ∞) = D₁
g(x) is well defined for 1 – x ≥ 0
⇒ x ≤ 1
⇒ x ∈ (-∞, 1]
∴ dom g (-∞, 1] = D₂
∴ D₁ ∩ D₂ = [-1, 1]
(i) f + g
Solution:
f + g: [-1, 1] → R
defined as (f + g) (x)
= f(x) + g(x) = \(\sqrt{1-x}\) + \(\sqrt{1-x}\)

(ii) f – g
Solution:
f – g :[-1, 1] → R defined as
(f – g) (x) = \(\sqrt{1-x}\) – \(\sqrt{1-x}\)

(iii) fg
Solution:
fg : [ – 1, 1] → R defined as
(fg) (x) > f(x) g(x)
\(\sqrt{1-x}\)\(\sqrt{1-x}\) = \(\sqrt{1-x^2}\)

(iv) f/g
Solution:
f/g : [- 1,1) → R defined as
\(\left(\frac{f}{g}\right)\)(x) = \(\frac{f(x)}{g(x)}=\frac{\sqrt{1+x}}{\sqrt{1-x}}\)
for (i) to (iii) domain = [- 1, 1]
but for (iv) domain = [- 1, 1)

Question 12.
If(x) = log_e \(\left(\frac{1-x}{1+x}\right)\), then prove that f(x) + f(y) = \(\left(\frac{x+y}{1+x y}\right)\)
Solution:
f(x) = log\(\left(\frac{1-x}{1+x}\right)\)
f(x) + f(y) = log\(\left(\frac{1-x}{1+x}\right)\) + \(\left(\frac{1-y}{1+y}\right)\)

Question 13.
Let f = {(-1, 4), (2, 7), (-2, 11}. (0,1), (1, 2) be a quadratic polynomial from Z to Z, find f(x).
Solution:
Let f(x) = ax² + by² + C is the quadratic polynomial
f(-1) = 4 ⇒ a – b + c = 4    …..(1)
f(0) = 1⇒ c = 1                   ….(2)
f(1) = 2 ⇒ a + + c = 2        ….(3)
∴ a – b + 1 = 4 and a + b + 1 = 2
⇒ a – b = 3 and a + b = 1
⇒ a = 2, b = -1
f(x) = 2x² – x + 1
f(2) = 8 – 2 + 1 = 7
f(- 2) = 8 + 2 + 1 = 1 1
Thus the required function is f(x) = 2x² – x + 1

Question 14.
Sketch the graphs of the following functions.
(i) f(x) = x³
(ii) f(x) = 1 + \(\frac{1}{x^2}\)
(iii) f(x) = (x-1)²
Solution:
(i) f(x) = x³

x	0	1	2	– 1	-2	3
y	1	1	8	-1	-8	27

(ii) f(x) = 1 + \(\frac{1}{x^2}\)

x	1	-1	2	– 2	3	-3
y	2	2	5/4	5/4	10/9	10/9

(iii) f(x) = (x-1)²

x	-1	0	1	2	3	4
f(x)	4	1	0	1	4	9

Odisha State Board CHSE Odisha Class 12 Psychology Solutions Unit 2 Long Answer Questions Part-2.

CHSE Odisha 12th Class Psychology Unit 2 Long Answer Questions Part-2

Long Questions With Answers

Question 1.
What are the Signs and Symptoms of Stress?
Answer:
The way we respond to stress varies depending upon our personality, early upbringing and life experiences. Everyone has their own pattern of stress response. So the warning signs may vary, as may their intensity. Some of us know our pattern of stress response and can gauge the depth of the problem by the nature and severity of our own symptoms or changes in behavior.

These symptoms of stress can be physical, emotional and behavioral. Any of the symptoms can indicate a degree of stress which, if left unresolved, might have serious implications, that are often unavoidable such as air pollution, crowding, noise, the heat of the summer, winter cold, etc. Another group of environmental stresses are catastrophic events or disasters such as fire, earthquake, floods, etc.

Question 2.
Discuss the Types of Stress.
Answer:
The three major types of stress, viz. physical and. environmental, psychological, and social are listed. It is important to understand that all these types of stress are interrelated.

Physical and Environmental Stress :
Physical stresses are demands that change the state of our body. We feel strained when, we overexert ourselves physically, lack a nutritious diet, suffer an injury, or fail to get enough sleep. Environmental stresses are aspects of our surroundings.

Psychological Stress :
These are stresses that we generate ourselves in our minds. These are personal and unique to the person experiencing them and are internal sources of stress. We worry about problems, feel anxiety, or become depressed. These are, not only symptoms of stress, but they cause further stress for us. Some of the important sources of psychological stress are frustration, conflicts, internal and social pressures, etc.

Frustration:
Frustration results from the blocking of needs and motives by something “or someone that hinders us from achieving the desired goal. There could be a number of causes of frustration such as social discrimination, interpersonal hurt, low grades in school, etc.

Conflicts:
Conflicts may occur between two or more incompatible needs or motives, e.g. whether to study dance or psychology. You may want to continue your studies or take up a job. There may be a conflict of values when you are pressurised to take any action that may be against the values held by you.

Internal pressures:
Internal pressures stem from beliefs based upon expectations from inside us to ourselves such as, ‘I must do everything perfectly. Such expectations can only lead to disappointment. Many of us drive ourselves ruthlessly towards achieving unrealistically high standards in achieving our goals.

Social pressures:
Social pressures may be brought about from people who make excessive demands on us. This can cause even greater pressure when we have to work with them. Also, there are people with whom we face interpersonal difficulties, ‘a personality clash’ of sorts.

Social Stress :
These are induced externally and result from our interaction with other people. Social events like death or illness in the family, strained relationships, and trouble with neighbors are some Examples of social stresses. These social stresses vary widely from person to person. Attending parties may be stressful for a person who likes to spend quiet evenings at home while an outgoing person may find staying at home in the evenings stressful.

Question 3.
Write the Sources of Stress.
Answer:
A wide range of events and conditions Can generate stress. Among the most important of these are major stressful life events, such as the death of a loved one or personal.
Life Events:
Changes, both big and small, sudden and gradual affect our life from the moment we are born. We learn to cope with small, everyday changes but major life events can be stressful because they disturb our routine and cause upheaval. If several of these life events that are planned (e.g. moving into a new house) or unpredicted (e.g. break-up of a long-term relationship) occur within a short period of time, we find it difficult to cope with them and will be more prone to the symptoms of stress.
A Measure of Stressful Life Events

Life Events Mean Stress Score
Death of a close family member	66
Unexpected accident or trauma	53
Illness of a family member	52
Break-up with friend	47
Appearing for examinations	43
Change in eating habits	27

The mean number of stressful life events experienced over a period of one year. Holmes and Rahe developed a life event measure of stress. A measure of stressful life events based on the above scale known as the Presumptive Stressful Life Events Scale has been developed for the Indian population by Singh, Kaur and Kaur. It is a self-rating questionnaire made up of fifty-one life changes, that a person may have experienced. Each of these life events is assigned a numerical value in terms of their severity.

For example, the death of one’s spouse is assigned 95, personal illness or injury 56, failure in examination 43, appearing for examination or interview 43, and change in sleeping habits 33, as the mean stress score. Both positive and negative events are taken, believing that both kinds of changes cause stress. The respondent’s stress score is the weighted sum of all the items/life change events in the past one year checked by her/him. Some sample items of without producing overt physical or mental illness is approximately two.

However, the correlations between life events and susceptibility to any particular illness is low, indicating a weak association between life events and stress. It has been argued as to whether life events have caused some stress-related illness or whether stress caused life events and illness. The impact of most life events varies from person to person.

Factors such as age at which the event was first experienced, frequency of occurrence, duration of the stressful event and social support must be studied in evaluating the relationship between stressful life events and the subsequent illness episode, injury, the annoying frequent hassles of everyday life and traumatic events that affect our lives.

Hassles :
These are the personal stresses we endure as individuals, due to the happenings in our daily life, such as noisy surroundings, commuting, quarrelsome neighbors, electricity and water shortage, traffic snarls and so on. Attending to various emergencies are daily hassles experienced by a housewife. There are some jobs in which daily hassles are very frequent. These daily hassles may sometimes have devastating consequences for the individual who is often the one coping alone with them as others may not even be aware of them as outsiders. The more stress people report as a result of daily hassles, the poorer is their psychological well-being.

Traumatic Events :
These include being involved in a variety of extreme events such as a fire, train or road accident, robbery, earthquake, tsunami, etc. The effects of these events may occur after some lapse of time and sometimes persist as symptoms of anxiety, flashbacks, dreams and intrusive thoughts, etc. Severe trauma can also strain relationships. Professional help will be needed to cope with them especially if they persist for many months after the event is over.

Question 4.
What is the Effects of Stress on Psychological Functioning and Health,
Answer:
Many of the effects are physiological in nature, however, other changes also occur inside stressed individuals. There are four major effects of stress associated with the stressed state, viz. emotional, physiological, cognitive, and behavioral.

Emotional Effects :
Those who suffer from stress are far more likely to experience mood swings and show erratic behavior that may alienate them from family and friends. In some cases this can start a vicious circle of decreasing confidence, leading to more serious emotional problems. Some examples are feelings of anxiety and depression, increased physical tension, increased psychological tension and mood swings. Box 3.2 presents the phenomenon of ‘Examination Anxiety’.

Physiological Effects :
When the human body is placed under physical or psychological stress, it increases the production of certain hormones, such as adrenaline and cortisol. These hormones produce marked changes in heart rate, blood pressure levels, metabolism and physical activity. Although this physical reaction will help us to function more effectively when we are under pressure for short periods of time, it can be extremely damaging to the body in the long-term effects. Examples of physiological effects are release of epinephrine and norepinephrine, slowing down of the digestive system, expansion of air passages in the lungs, increased heart rate, and constriction of blood vessels.

Cognitive Effects :
If pressures due to stress continue, one may suffer from mental overload. This suffering from high level of stress can rapidly cause individuals to lose their ability to make sound decisions. Faulty decisions made at home, in career, or at the workplace may lead to arguments, failure, financial loss or even loss of job. Cognitive effects of stress are poor concentration and reduced short-term memory capacity.

Behavioral Effects:
Stress affects our behavior in the form of eating less nutritional food, increasing intake of stimulants such as caffeine, excessive consumption of cigarettes, alcohol and other drugs such as tranquilizers etc. Tranquilizers can be addictive and have side effects such as loss of concentration, poor coordination and dizziness. Some of the typical behavioral effects of stress seen are disrupted sleep patterns, increased absenteeism, and reduced work performance.

Stress and Health :
You must have often observed that many of your friends (maybe including yourself as well!) fall sick during examination time. They suffer from stomach upsets, body aches, nausea, diarrhea and fever etc. You must have also noticed that people, who are unhappy in their personal lives fall sick more often than those who are happy and enjoy life. Chronic daily stress can divert an individual’s attention from caring for herself or himself.

When stress is prolonged, it affects physical health and impairs psychological functioning.People experience exhaustion and attitudinal problems when the stress due to demands from the environment and constraints are too high and little support is available from family and friends. Physical exhaustion is seen in the signs of chronic fatigue, weakness and low energy. Mental exhaustion appears in the form of irritability, anxiety, feelings of helplessness and hopelessness.

This state of physical, emotional and psychological exhaustion is known as burnout. There is also convincing evidence to show that stress can produce changes in the immune system and increase the chances of someone becoming ill. Stress has been implicated in the development of cardiovascular disorders, high blood pressure, as well as psychosomatic disorders including ulcers, asthma, allergies and headaches. Researchers estimate that stress plays an important role in fifty to seventy percent of all physical illnesses. Studies also reveal that sixty percent of medical visits are primarily for stress-related symptoms.

General Adaptation Syndrome :
What happens to the body when stress is prolonged? Selye studied this issue by subjecting animals to a variety of stressors such as high temperature, X-rays, and insulin injections, in the laboratory over a long period of time. He also observed patients with various injuries and illnesses in hospitals. Selye noticed a similar pattern of bodily response in all of them. He called this pattern the General Adaptation Syndrome (GAS). According to him, GAS involves three stages: alarm reaction, resistance and exhaustion.

Alarm reaction stage :
The presence of a noxious stimulus or stressor leads to the activation of the adrenal pituitary- cortex system. This triggers the release of hormones producing the stress response. Now the individual is ready for fight or flight.

Resistance stage :
If stress is prolonged, the resistance stage begins. The parasympathetic nervous system calls for more cautious use of the body’s resources. The organism makes efforts to cope with the threat, as through confrontation.

Exhaustion stage:
Continued exposure to the same stressor or additional stressors drains the body of its resources and leads to the third stage of exhaustion. The physiological systems involved in alarm reaction and resistance become ineffective and susceptibility to stress-related diseases such as high blood pressure becomes more likely. Selye’s model has been criticized for assigning a very limited role to psychological factors in stress. Researchers have reported that the psychological appraisal of events is important for the determination of stress. How people respond to stress is substantially influenced by their perceptions, personalities and biological constitutions.

Stress and the Immune System:
Stress ean cause illness by impairing the workings of the immune system. The immune system guards the body against attackers, both from within and outside.

Psychoneuroimmunology:
Psychoneuroimmunology focuses on the links between the mind, the brain and the immune system. It studies the effects of stress on the immune system. How does the immune system work? The white blood cells (leucocytes) within the immune (antigens) such as viruses. It also leads to the production of antibodies. There are several kinds of white blood cells or leucocytes within the immune system, including T cells, B cells and natural killer cells. T cells destroy invaders, and T-helper cells increase immunological activity. It is these T-helper cells that are attacked by the Human Immuno Deficiency Virus (HIV), the virus causing Acquired Immuno Deficiency Syndrome (AIDS). B cells produce antibodies.

Natural killer cells are involved in the fight against both viruses and tumors, Stress can affect natural killer cell cytotoxicity, which is of major importance in the defense against various infections and cancer. Reduced levels of natural, killer cell cytotoxicity have been found in people who are highly stressed, including students facing important examinations, bereaved persons, and those who are severely depressed. Studies reveal that immune functioning is better in individuals receiving social support. Also, changes in the immune system will have more effect on health among those whose immune systems are already weakened.

Figure 3.4 depicts this sequence comprising negative emotions, release of stress hormones which lead to the weakening of the immune system, thereby affecting mental and physical health. Psychological stress is accompanied by negative emotions and associated behaviors, including depression, hostility, anger and aggression. Negative emotional states are of particular concern to the study of the effects of stress on health. The incidence of psychological disorders, such as panic attacks and obsessive behavior increases with the build-up of long-term stress. Worries can reach such a level that they surface as a frightening, painful physical sensation, which can be mistaken for a heart attack.

People under prolonged stress are more prone to irrational fears, mood swings and phobias, and may experience fits of depression, anger and irritability. These negative emotions appear to be related to the function of the immune system. Our ability to interpret our world and to invest that interpretation with personal meaning and emotion have a powerful and direct effect on the body. Negative moods have been associated with poorer health outcomes. Feelings of hopelessness are related to the worsening of disease and increased risk of injury and death due to various causes.

Lifestyle :
Stress can lead, to unhealthy lifestyles or health-damaging behavior. Lifestyle is th,e overall pattern of decisions and behaviors that determine a person’s health and quality of life. Stressed individuals may be more likely to expose themselves to pathogens, which are agents causing physical illness. People who are stressed have poor nutritional habits, sleep less and are likely to engage in other health-risking behaviors like smoking and alcohol abuse. Such health-impairing behaviors develop gradually and are accompanied by pleasant experiences temporarily.

However, we tend to ignore their long-term damaging effects and underestimate the risk they pose to our lives. Studies have revealed that health-promoting behavior like a balanced diet, regular exercise, family support, etc. play an important role in good health. Adhering to a lifestyle that includes a balanced low-fat diet, regular exercise and continued activity along with positive thinking enhances health and longevity. The modem lifestyle of excesses in eating, drinking and the so called fast-paced good life has led to violation of basic principles of health in some of us, as to what we eat, think or do with our lives.

Question 5.
How to cope up with Stress?
Answer:
In recent years the conviction has grown that it is how we cope with stress and not the stress one experiences that influence our psychological well-being, social functioning and health. Coping is a dynamic situation-specific reaction to stress. It is a set of concrete responses to stressful situations or events that are intended to resolve the problem and reduce stress. The way we cope with stress often depends on rigid deep-seated beliefs, based on experience, e.g. when caught in a traffic jam we feel angry because we believe that the traffic ‘should’ move faster.

To manage stress we often need to reassess the way we think and learn coping strategies. People who cope poorly with stress have an impaired immune response and diminished activity of natural killer cells. Individuals show consistent individual differences in the coping strategies they use to handle stressful situations. These can include both overt and covert activities.

The three coping strategies given by Endler and Parker are:

Task-oriented Strategy :
This involves obtaining information about the stressful situation and about alternative courses of action and their probable outcome; it also involves deciding priorities and acting so as to deal directly with the stressful situation. For example, schedule my time better, or think about how I have solved similar problems.

Emotion-oriented Strategy:
This can involve efforts to maintain hope and to control one’s emotions; it can also involve venting feelings of anger and frustration, or deciding that nothing can be done to change things. For example, tell myself that it is not really happening to me, or worry about what I am going to do.

Avoidance-oriented Strategy:
This involves denying or minimizing the seriousness of the situation; it also involves conscious suppression of stressful thoughts and their replacement by self-protective thoughts. Examples of this are watching TV, phone up a friend, or try to be with other people. Lazarus and Folkman has conceptualized coping as a dynamic process rather than an individual trait. Coping refers to constantly changing cognitive and behavioral efforts to master, reduce or tolerate the internal or external demands that are created by the stressful transaction.

Coping serves to allow the individual to manage or alter a problem and regulate the emotional response to that problem. According to them coping responses can be divided into two types of responses, problem-focused and emotion-focused. Problem-focused -strategies attack the problem itself, with behaviors designed to gain information, to alter the event, and to alter belief and commitments. They increase the person’s awareness, level of knowledge, and range of behavioral and cognitive coping options. They can act to reduce the threat value of the event.

For example “I made a plan of action and followed it”. Emotion-focused strategies call for psychological changes designed primarily to limit the degree of emotional disruption caused by an event, with minimal effort to alter the event itself. For example “I did some things to let it out of my system”. While both problem-focused and emotion-focused coping are necessary when facing stressful situations, research suggests that people generally tend to use the former more often than the latter.

Stress Management Techniques:
Stress is a silent killer. It is estimated to play a significant role in physical illness and disease. Hypertension, heart disease, ulcers, diabetes and even cancer are linked to stress. Due to lifestyle changes stress is on the increase. Therefore, schools, other institutions, offices and communities are concerned about knowing techniques to manage stress. Some of these techniques are.

Relaxation Techniques :
It is an active skill that reduces symptoms of stress and decreases the incidence of illnesses such as high blood pressure and heart disease. Usually, relaxation starts from the lower part of the body and progresses up to the facial muscles in such a way that the whole body is relaxed. Deep breathing is used along with muscle relaxation to calm the mind and relax the body.

Meditation Procedures :
The yogic method of meditation consists of a sequence of learned techniques for refocusing of attention that brings about an altered state of consciousness. It involves such a thorough concentration that the meditator becomes unaware, of any outside stimulation and reaches a different state of consciousness.

Biofeedback :
It is a procedure to monitor and reduce the physiological aspects of stress by providing feedback about current physiological activity and is often accompanied by relaxation training. Biofeedback training involves three stages: developing an awareness of the particular physiological response, e.g. heart rate, learning ways of controlling that physiological response in quiet conditions; and transferring that control into the conditions of everyday life.

Creative Visualisation:
It is an effective technique for dealing with stress. Creative visualization is a subjective experience that uses imagery and imagination. Before visualizing one must set oneself a realistic goal, as it helps build confidence. It is easier to visualize if one’s mind is quiet, body relaxed and eyes are closed. This reduces the risk of interference from unbidden thoughts and provides the creative energy needed for turning an imagined scene into reality.

Cognitive Behavioural Techniques :
These techniques aim to inoculate people against stress. Stress inoculation training is one effective method developed by Meichenbaum. The essence of this approach is to replace negative and irrational thoughts with positive and rational ones.

There are three main phases in this: assessment, stress reduction techniques, and application and follow-through. Assessment involves discussing the nature of the problem and seeing it from the viewpoint of the person/client. Stress reduction involves learning the techniques of reducing stress such as relaxation and self-instruction.

Exercise :
Exercise can provide an active outlet for the physiological arousal experienced in response to stress. Regular exercise improves the efficiency of the heart, enhances the function of the lungs, maintains good circulation, lowers blood pressure, reduces fat in the blood and improves the body’s immune system. Swimming, walking, running, cycling, skipping, etc. help to reduce stress. One must practice these exercises at least four times a week for 30 minutes at a time. Each session must have a warm-up, exercise and cool-down phases.

Question 6.
What is Stress-Resistant Personality?
Answer:
Recent studies by Kobasa have shown that people with high levels of stress but low levels of illness share three characteristics, which are referred to as the personality traits of hardiness. It consists of ‘the three Cs i.e. commitment, control and challenge. Hardiness is a set of beliefs about oneself, the world, and how they interact. It takes shape as a Sense of personal commitment to what you are doing, a sense of control over your life and a feeling of challenge.

Stress-resistant personalities have control which is a sense of purpose and direction in life; commitment to work, family, hobbies and social life and challenge, that is, they see changes in life as normal and positive rather than as a threat. Everyone does not have these characteristics, many of us have to relearn specific life skills in areas such as rational thinking and assertiveness to equip ourselves better to cope with the demands of everyday life, etc.

Life Skills :
Life skills are abilities for adaptive and positive behavior that enable individuals to deal effectively with the demands and challenges of everyday life. Our ability to cope depends on how well we are prepared to deal with and-counterbalance everyday demands and keep equilibrium in our lives. These life skills can be learned and even improved upon. Assertiveness, time management, rational thinking, improving relationships, self-care and overcoming unhelpful habits such as perfectionism, and procrastination, etc. are some life skills that will help to meet the challenges of life.

Assertiveness :
Assertiveness is a behavior or skill that helps to communicate, clearly and confidently, our feelings, needs, wants and thoughts. It is the ability to say no to a request, to state an opinion without being self-conscious, or to express emotions such as love, anger, etc. openly. If you are assertive, you feel confident and have high self-esteem and a solid sense of your own identity.

Time Management:
The way you spend your time determines the quality of your life. Learning how to plan time and delegate can help to relieve the pressure. The major way to reduce time stress is to change one’s perception of time. The central principle of time management is to spend your time doing the things that you value, or that help you to achieve your goals. It depends on being realistic about what you know and that you must do it within a certain time period, knowing what you want to do and organizing your life to achieve a balance between the two.

Rational Thinking :
Many stress-related problems occur as a result of distorted thinking. The way you think and the way you feel are closely connected. When we are stressed, we have an inbuilt selective bias to attend to negative thoughts and images from the past, which affect our perception of the present and the future. Some of the principles of rational thinking are: challenging your distorted thinking and irrational beliefs, driving out potentially intrusive negative anxiety-provoking thoughts and making positive statements.

Improving Relationships:
The key to a sound lasting relationship is communication. This consists of three essential skills: listening to what the other person is saying, expressing how you feel and what you think and accepting the other person’s opinions and feelings, even if they are different from your own. It also requires us to avoid misplaced jealousy and sulking behavior.

Self-care :
If we keep ourselves healthy, fit and relaxed, we are better prepared physically and emotionally to tackle the stresses of everyday life. Our breathing patterns reflect our state of mind and emotions. When we are stressed or anxious, we tend towards rapid and shallow breathing from high in the chest, with frequent sighs. The most relaxed breathing is slow, stomach-centered breathing from the diaphragm, i.e. a dome-like muscle between the chest and the abdominal cavity. Environmental stresses like noise, pollution, space, light, color, etc. can all exert an influence on our mood. These have a noticeable effect on our ability to cope with stress and well-being.

Overcoming Unhelpful Habits:
Unhelpful habits such as perfectionism, avoidance, procrastination, etc. are strategies that help to cope in the short-term but which make one more vulnerable to stress. Perfectionists are persons who have to get everything just right. They have difficulty in varying standards according to factors such as time available, consequences of not being able to stop work, and the effort needed. They are more likely to feel tense and find it difficult to relax, are critical of self and others and may become inclined to avoid challenges.

Avoidance is to put the issue under the carpet and refuse to accept or face it. Procrastination means putting off what we know we need to do. We all are, guilty of saying “I will do it later”. People who procrastinate are deliberately avoiding confronting their fears of failure or rejection. Various factors have been identified which facilitate the development of positive health.

Health is a state of complete physical, mental, social and spiritual well-being and not merely the absence of disease or infirmity. Positive health comprises the following constructs: “a healthy body high quality of personal relationships; a sense of purpose in life; self-regard, mastery of life’s tasks and resilience to stress, trauma, and change”. Box 3.3 presents the relationship between resilience and health. Specifically, factors that act as stress buffers and facilitate positive health are diet, exercise, positive attitude, positive thinking and social support.

Diet:
A balanced diet can lift one’s mood, give more energy, feed muscles, improve circulation, prevent illness, strengthen the immune system and make one feel better to cope with stresses of life. The key to healthy living is to eat three main meals a day and eat a varied well-balanced diet. How much nutrition one needs depends on one’s activity level, genetic makeup, climate and health history. What people eat and how much do they weigh involve behavioral processes. Some people are able to maintain a healthy diet and weight while others become obese. When we are stressed, we seek ‘comfort foods that are high in fats, salt and sugar.

Exercise :
A large number of studies confirm a consistently positive relationship between physical fitness and health. Also, of all the measures an individual can take to improve health, exercise is the lifestyle change with the widest popular approval. Regular exercise plays an important role in managing weight and stress and is shown to have a positive effect on reducing tension, anxiety and depression.Physical exercises that are essential for good health are stretching exercises such as yogic asanas and aerobic exercises such as jogging, swimming, cycling, etc. Whereas stretching exercises have a calming effect, aerobic exercises increase the arousal level of the body. The health benefits of exercise work as a stress buffer. Studies suggest that fitness permits individuals to maintain general mental and physical well-being even in the face of negative life events.

Positive Attitude:
Positive health and well-being can be realized by having a positive attitude. Some of the factors leading to a positive attitude are: having a fairly accurate perception of reality; a sense of purpose in life and responsibility; acceptance and tolerance for different viewpoints of others and taking credit for success and accepting blame for failure. Finally, being open to new ideas and having a sense of humor with the ability to laugh at oneself help us to remain centered Mid see things in a proper perspective.

Positive Thinking:
The power of positive thinking has been increasingly recognized in reducing and coping with stress. Optimism, which is the inclination to expect favorable life outcomes, has been linked to psychological and physical well-being. People differ in the manner in which they cope. For example, optimists tend to assume that adversity can be handled successfully whereas pessimists anticipate disasters. Optimists use more problem-focused coping strategies, and seek advice and help from others. Pessimists ignore the problem or source of stress and use strategies such as giving up the goal with which stress is interfering or denying that stress exists.

Social Support:
Social support is defined as the existence and availability of people on whom we can rely upon, people who let us know that they care about, value and love us. Someone who believes that she/he belongs to a social network of communication and mutual obligation experiences social support. Perceived support, i.e. the quality of social support is positively related to health and well-being. In contrast, social network, i.e. the quantity of social support is unrelated to well-being because it is very time-consuming and demanding to maintain a large social network.

Studies have revealed that women exposed to life event stresses, who had a close friend, were less likely to be depressed and had lesser medical complications during pregnancy. Social support can help to provide protection against stress. People with high levels of social support from family and friends may experience less stress when they confront a stressful experience, and they may cope with it more successfully. Social support may be in the form of tangible support or assistance involving material aid, such as money, goods, services, etc.

For example, a child gives notes to her/his friend, since she/he was absent from school due to sickness. Family and friends also provide informational support about stressful events. For example, a student facing a stressful event such as a difficult board examination, if provided information by a friend who has faced a similar one, would not only be able to identify the exact procedures involved, but also it would facilitate in determining what resources and coping strategies could be useful to successfully pass the examination.

During times of stress, one may experience sadness, anxiety, and loss of self-esteem. Supportive friends and family provide emotional support by reassuring the individual that she/he is loved, valued, and cared for. Research has demonstrated that social support effectively reduces psychological distress such as depression or anxiety, during times of stress. There is growing evidence that social support is positively related to psychological well-being. Generally, social support leads to mental health benefits for both the giver and the receiver.

Question 7.
Effect of noise on Child health.
Answer:
Noise :
Children’s reading abilities, cognitive development, physiological indicators, and motivational tasks are affected by exposure to noise. The most common noises that children are exposed to are transportation (e.g. cars, airplanes), music and other people. Evans’ research reveals significant reading delays for children living near airports and exposed to airport noise. He and his colleagues found these delays in reading to occur alnoise levels far below those required to produce hearing damage or loss.

Chronic and acute noise exposure also affects cognitive development, particularly long-term memory, especially if the task is complex. Short-term memory appears to be less affected, but this is dependent upon volume of noise. One way that children adapt to chronic noise is by disregarding or ignoring auditory input. A consequence of this coping strategy is that children also tune out speech, which is a basic and required component of reading. As a result, not only are children’s reading abilities affected, but also their abilities at tasks that require speech perception.

Noise levels also indirectly influence children’s cognitive development via their effect on the adults and teachers who interact with children. Teachers in noisy schools are more fatigued, annoyed and less patient than teachers in quieter schools. Teachers in noisy schools also losC instruction time due to noise distractions and have a compromised teaching style. Children exposed to chronic loud noise also experience a rise in blood pressure, and stress hormones. And children as young as four are less motivated to perform on challenging language and pre-reading tasks under conditions of exposure to chronic noise.

Question 8.
Short notes :
Answer:
Crowding:
Research demonstrates that crowding has an effect on interpersonal behaviors, mental health, motivation, cognitive development and biological measures. Family size has not been found to be a critical factor in crowding. Rather, Evans identifies density, or number of people per room, as the crucial variable for measuring effects of crowding on children’s development. Regarding child development, Evans has found that 10-12-year-old children are more likely to withdraw in overcrowded situations. Children may engage in withdrawal behavior as a means of coping with an overstimulating environment.

Evans’ research also reveals that a highly concentrated number of children in an activity area results in more distractions and less constructive play among preschool-aged children. Overcrowding also influences parenting behaviors. Parents in crowded homes are less responsive to young children. Evidence of parental unresponsiveness begins early— before a child is one year old and occurs at all income levels. Overcrowding also strains parent-child Relationships. Parents in overcrowded homes are more likely to engage in punitive parenting, which in turn, affects the level of children’s distress.

Evans’ research shows that strained parent-child relationships negatively influence social, emotional and biological measures (e.g. elevated blood pressure) in 10- to 12-year-old children. Children’s mental health status may be affected by overcrowding. Elementary school-aged children who live in more crowded homes display higher levels of psychological distress and they also have higher levels of behavior difficulties in school.Evans has found that overcrowding produces psychological distress among 3rd and 4th-grade students as reported by both the children and their teachers. These effects are intensified if children reside in large, multifamily structures. Effects were also intensified among a group of 8- to 10-year-olds if the family home was chaotic.

Chronic overcrowding influences children’s motivation to perform tasks. Independent of household income, children aged 6-12 show declines in motivational behavior and also demonstrate a level of learned helplessness—a belief that they have no control over their situation and therefore do not attempt to change it—although they have the power to do so. But there are gender differences: Evans found the link between overcrowding and learned helplessness among 10-to- 12-year-olds to exist for girls, but not for boys.

Evans’ studies find several effects of overcrowding on both objective and subjective measures of children’s cognitive development. Elementary school children living in more crowded homes score lower on standardized reading tests and they see themselves as less scholastically competent than their classmates.  Parenting behaviors directly related to children’s cognitive and language development are also affected by density level.Evans found that parents in crowded homes speak less to their infants and rise fewer complicated words during the period from infancy up to age two and a half. Research demonstrates that the quality and sophistication of speech as well as the quantity of words spoken by parents to their children are significant factors in the amount and types of words children produce.

Biological measures implicate the effects of overcrowding on children’s physiology. In one study, Evans found gender differences in measures of blood pressure among 10-12- year-old children with males in higher residential crowding situations demonstrating elevations in blood pressure, but not females. However, higher overnight levels of the stress hormones epinephrine and norepinephrine were found in both 8- to 10-year-old male and female children living in high-density apartments. This finding was especially relevant when chaos and disorder was present in the family.

Housing and Quality of Neighborhood:
Housing quality and the neighborhoods in which houses are situated have also been investigated in relation to children’s socio-emotional development. For example, families living in high-rise housing, as opposed to single-family residences, have fewer relationships with neighbors, resulting in less social support. Studies on housing and the quality of neighborhoods have also examined the role of chaos in children’s environments finding an association between chaotic home environments and levels of psychological distress among middle school children.

Research has identified the physical characteristics of neighborhoods that significantly influence children’s development. These characteristics include residential instability, housing quality, noise, crowding, toxic exposure, quality of municipal services, retail services, recreational opportunities, including natural settings, street traffic, accessibility of transportation and the physical quality of both educational and health facilities. Perhaps not surprisingly, Evans’ research findings support the therapeutic effects of children’s exposure to natural settings.

Natural settings are preferred by children and allow them to exercise gross motor abilities as well as engage in social interactions. In addition, these settings also alleviate the adverse effects of children’s exposure to chronic stress. The research outlined above demonstrates both the direct and indirect effects of the physical environment on children’s development. Direct effects include cognitive, social, emotional and biological outcomes.Indirect effects include interactions with parents and teachers, which in turn, influence developmental outcomes such as learning and language development.

Although in several studies Evans demonstrates these effects for children at all income levels, low-income children experience excessive exposure to noise, overcrowding and unfavorable housing and neighborhood conditions.Exposure to these poor-quality physical conditions is linked to other psychological and social aspects of the environment, especially poverty. Using a building block analogy, low-income children have more blocks stacked one on top of the other than children of other income levels. Thus, children living in poverty experience multiple exposures, rather than a single exposure to risk.

What You Can Do to check the impact of the environment on human behavior?

Guard against additional, interior noise sources:
Individuals living in noisy environments often habituate or become accustomed to the noise level. Aim to reduce the existing noise instead of adding other sources of noise. Check the volume level on your child’s music devices (e g., iPod, Walkman; it is too loud if someone else can hear the music). If he listens to his favorite music too loudly, make proper volume adjustments. Also monitor the volume level on computers, televisions, and other electronic devices, keeping them as low as possible.

Engage your child:
Children ignore and tune out speech as a way of coping with environmental overstimulation. Take notice if your child is not paying attention or listening to your speech and if so, intervene. Take your child to a quiet outdoor nature spot or a quiet indoor location such as the local library) This is especially important during the preschool and early elementary school years (ages 3-6 years) when children are learning to read.

Tune in instead of tuning out:
Parents living under high noise exposure appear to withdraw, be less responsive and talk less to their children. The natural tendency is to disengage from speaking and reading to children so as not to compete with the noise. These coping strategies negatively affect children’s reading and cognitive abilities. Be alert to the occurrence of these behaviors and counter them by talking to your child, reading aloud to her, engaging her in discussions, and actively listening to what she has to say to you.

Modify your environment:
If your budget permits, consider purchasing extra noise attenuation devices for your child’s room for use during homework activities and sleeping. Earplugs are a low-cost alternative.

Consider your child’s school environment:
If you have a choice, send your child to a quiet, less chaotic school. This is particularly desirable if your home environment is also noisy. Be active in your community. The noisiest environmental conditions occur in low-income and ethnic minority communities. One way to counteract this is to be active and involved. Ask your representative why it is noisier, in these communities.

Seek information:
If a major source of noise in your community is road traffic, check with your local planning department. Note that traffic volume is closely aligned with traffic noise levels. The busiest streets are usually the noisiest.

Examination Anxiety:
Examination anxiety is a fairly common phenomenon that involves feelings of tension or uneasiness that occur before, during, or after an examination. Many people experience feelings of anxiety around, examinations and find it helpful in some ways, as it can be motivating and create the pressure that is needed to stay focused on one’s performance. Examination nerves, worry, or fear of failure are normal for even the most talented student. However, the stress of formal examination results in such high degrees of anxiety in some students that they are unable to perform at a level that matches the potential they have shown in less stressful classroom situations.

Examination stress has been characterized as “evaluative apprehension” or “evaluative stress” and produces debilitating behavioral, cognitive and physiological effects no different from those produced by any other stressor. High stress can interfere with the student’s preparation, concentration and performance. Examination stress can cause test anxiety which adversely affects test performance. Persons who are high in test anxiety tend to perceive evaluative situations as personally threatening; in test situations, they are often tense, apprehensive, nervous and emotionally aroused.Moreover, the negative self-centered cognitions which they experience distract their attention and interfere with concentration during examinations.

High-test anxious students respond to examination stress with intense emotional reactions, negative thoughts about themselves, feelings of inadequacy, helplessness and loss of status and esteem that impair their performance. Generally, the high-test anxious person instead of plunging into a task plunges inward, that is, either neglect or misinterprets informational cues that may be readily available to her/him, or experiences attentional blocks.While preparing for examinations, one must spend enough time for study, overviewing and weighing one’s strengths and weaknesses, discuss difficulties with teachers and classmates, plan a revision timetable, condensing notes, space out revision periods and most importantly on the examination day concentrate on staying palm.

Question 9.
What do you understand by the term ‘environment’? Explain the different perspectives to understand the human-environment relationship.
Answer:
‘Environment’ refers to all that is around us. Literally, it means everything that surrounds us including the physical, Social world and cultural environment. In general, it includes all the forces outside the human beings to which they respond in Some way. There is more than one way of looking at the human-environment relationship.
A psychologist named Stokols (1990) describes three approaches that may be adopted to describe the human-environment relationship.

• The minimalist perspective assumes that the physical environment has minimal or negligible influence on human behavior, health and well-being. The physical environment and human beings exist as parallel components.
• The instrumental perspective suggests that the physical environment exists mainly for use by human beings for their comfort and well-being. Most of the human influences on the environment reflect the instrumental perspective.
• The spiritual perspective refers to the view of the environment as. something to be respected and valued rather than exploited. It implies that human beings recognize the interdependent relationship between themselves and the environment, i.e. human beings will exist and will be happy only as long as the environment is kept healthy and natural.
  The traditional Indian view about the environment supports the spiritual perspective.

Question 10.
“Human beings affect and are affected by the environment”. Explain this statement with the help of examples.
Answer:
Human beings exert their influence on the natural environment for fulfilling their physical needs and other purposes. The human-environment relationship can be appreciated fully by understanding that the two influence each other and depend on each other for their survival and maintenance. Some aspects of the environment influence human perception.

• Environmental influences on perception :
  Some aspects of the environment influence human perception. For example, a tribal society of Africa lives in circular huts, that is, in houses without angular walls. They show less error in a geometric illusion (the Muller-Lyer illusion) than people from cities, who live in houses with angular walls.
• Environmental influences on emotions:
  The environment affects our emotional reactions as well. Watching nature iri any form, whether it is a quietly flowing river, a smiling flower, or a tranquil mountain top, provides a kind of joy that cannot be matched by any other experience. Natural disasters, such as floods, droughts, landslides, and quakes on the earth or under the ocean, can affect people’s emotions to such an extent that they experience deep depression and sorrow, a sense of complete helplessness and lack of control over their lives.
• Ecological influences on occupation, living style, and attitudes :
  The natural environment of a particular region determines whether people living in that region rely on agriculture (as in the plains), or on other occupations such as hunting and gathering (as in a forest, mountainous or desert regions), or on industries (as in areas that are not fertile enough for agriculture). In turn, occupation determines the lifestyle and attitudes of the residents of a particular geographical region.

Question 11.
What is noise? Discuss the effects of noise on human behavior.
Answer:
Any sound that is annoying or irritating and felt to be unpleasant is said to be noise. From common experience, it is known that noise, especially for long periods of time, is uncomfortable and puts people in an unpleasant mood.

Effects of noise on human behavior:

• When the task being performed is a simple mental task, such as the addition of numbers, noise does not affect overall performance, whether it is loud or soft.
  In such situations, people adapt, or ‘get used to noise.
• If the task being performed is very interesting, then, too, the presence of noise does not affect performance. This is because the nature of the task helps the individual to pay full attention to the task and ignore the noise. This may also be one kind of adaptation.
• When the noise comes at intervals, and in an unpredictable way, it is experienced as more disturbing than if the noise is continuously present.
• When the task being performed is difficult or requires full concentration, then intense, unpredictable and uncontrollable noise reduces the level of task performance.
• When tolerating or switching off the noise is within the control of the person, the number of errors in task performance decreases.
• In terms of emotional effects, noise above a certain level causes annoyance, and can also lead to sleep disturbance. These effects are also reduced if the noise is controllable, or is necessary as a part of the person’s occupation. However, continued exposure to uncontrollable and annoying noise can have harmful effects on mental health.

Question 12.
What are the salient features of crowding? Explain the major psychological consequences of crowding.
Answer:
Crowding to a feeling of discomfort because there are too many people or things around us, giving us the experience of physical restriction and sometimes the lack of privacy. Crowding is the person’s reaction to the presence of a large number of persons within a particular area or space. When this number goes beyond a certain level, it causes stress to individuals caught in that situation. In this sense, crowding is another example of an environmental stressor.

The experience of crowding has the following features :

• Feeling of discomfort,
• Loss or decrease in privacy,
• Negative view of the space around the person, and
• The feeling of loss of control over social interaction.

1. Crowding and high density may lead to abnormal behavior and aggression. This was shown many years ago in a study of rats. These animals were placed in an enclosure, initially in small numbers. As their population increased within this enclosed space, they started showing aggressive and unusual behavior, such as biting the tails of other rats. This aggressive behavior increased to such an extent that ultimately the animals died in large numbers, thus decreasing the population in the enclosure. Among human beings also, an increase in population has sometimes been found to be accompanied by an increase in violent crime.
2. Crowding leads to lowered performance on difficult tasks that involve cognitive processes and has adverse effects on memory and the emotional state. These negative effects are seen to a smaller extent in people who are used to crowded surroundings.
3. Children growing up in very crowded households show lower academic performance. They also show a weaker tendency to continue working on a task if they are unsuccessful at it, compared to children growing up in non-crowded households. They experience greater conflict with their parents and get less support from their family members.

Question 13.
Why is the concept of ‘personal space’ important for human beings? Justify your answer with the help of an example.
Answer:
Personal space or the comfortable physical space one generally likes to maintain around oneself, is affected by a high-density environment. In a crowded context, there is a restriction on personal space and this can also be a cause of negative reactions to crowding.

For example: In social situations, human beings like to maintain a certain physical distance from die person with whom they are interacting. This is called interpersonal al physical distance and is a part of a broader concept called personal space, i.e. the physical space we like to have all around us. One reason for the negative reactions to crowding, as described earlier, is the decrease in personal space.

Odisha State Board CHSE Odisha Class 11 Math Solutions Chapter 3 Relations And Functions Ex 3(b) Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

CHSE Odisha Class 11 Math Solutions Chapter 3 Relations And Functions Exercise 3(b)

Question 1.
Let A = {a, b, c }, |B| = {1, 2}
(a) Determine all the relations from A to B and determine the domain, range, and inverse of each relation.
(b) Determine all the relations from B to A.
(c) Is there any relationship that is both a relation from A to B and B to A? How many?
(d) Of all the relations from A to B, identify which relations are many ones, one-many, and one-one and represent this diagrammatically.
Solution:
(a) A = {a, b, c}, B = {1, 2}
∴ A × B = {(a, 1), (a, 2), (b, 1), (b, 2), (c, 1), (c, 2)}
∴ |A × B| = 6
∴ |P(A × B)| = 2⁶ = 64
∴ There are 64 relations from A to B as any subset of A × B. The domain of these relations is any subset of A. The inverse of these relations is any subset of B × A.
(b) There are 64 relations from B to A as any sub-set of B x A is a relation from B to A.
(c) Φ is the only relation that is from A to B and from B to A.
(d) Some many-one relations are {(a, 1), (b, 1), (c, 1), (b, 2) (c, 2)}, {(a, 2), (b, 2), (c, 2)}.

Question 2.
Are the following sets related?
(i) Φ from A to B.
(ii) A × B from A to B.
(iii) A × Φ from A to Φ.
(iv) Φ × B from Φ to B.
(v) Φ × Φ from Φ to Φ.
(vi) Φ × C from A to B.
(vii) Φ × Φ from A to B.
Determine the domain range and inverse of each of the relations mentioned above
Solution :
(i) Φ from A to B is a relation.
(ii) A × B from A to B is a relation.
(iii) A × Φ from A to Φ is a relation.
(iv) Φ × B from Φ to B is a relation.
(v) Φ × Φ from Φ to Φ is a relation.
(vi) Φ × C from A to B is a relation.
(vii) Φ × Φ from A to B is a relation.
∴ Domain of Φ i.e. D_Φ = Φ
Range of Φ i.e., R_Φ = Φ
Similarly, D_{A × B} = A, R_{A × B} = β
D_{A × Φ} = Φ, R_{A × Φ} = Φ
D _{Φ × B} = Φ = Φ, R _{Φ × B} = Φ
D _{Φ × Φ} = Φ, R _{Φ × C} = Φ
D _{Φ × C} = Φ, R _{Φ × C} = Φ
D _{Φ × Φ} = Φ, R _{Φ × Φ} = Φ
The inverse of the above relations is Φ, B × A, Φ × A, B × Φ, Φ × Φ, C ×  Φ, and Φ × Φ respectively.

Question 3.
Express the following relations on A to B in each case in tabular form :
(i) A = {n ∈ N : n ≤ 10}, B = N
f = {(x, y) ∈ A × B : y = x²}
Solution:
A = {n ∈ N : n ≤ 10}
= {1, 2, 3,…..10}, B = N
∴ B = {1, 2, 3}
∴ f ={(x, y) ∈ A × B : y = x²}
= {(1, 1), (2, 4), (3, 9)…..(10, 100)}

(ii) A = B = R
∴ f = {(x, y) : x² + y² = 1 and |x – y| = 1}
Solution:
A = B = R
∴ f = {(x, y) : x² + y² = 1 and |x – y| = 1}
={(0, 1) (1, 0), (-1, 0), (0, -1)}

(iii) (1, 2, 3, 4), B = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5}
f = {x, y) : 2 divides 3x+y}
Solution:
A = {1, 2, 3, 4}, B = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5}
∴ f = {(x, y) : 2 divides 3x+y}
={(1, 1), (1, 3), (1, 5), (2, 2), (2, 4), (3, 1), (3, 3), (3,5), (4, 2), (4, 4)}

Question 4.
A and B are non-empty sets such that |A| = m, |B| = n. How many relations can be defined from A to B ? (Remember that the number of relations is the number of subsets of (A × B).
Solution:
|A| = m, |B| = n
⇒ |A × B| = mn
A relation is a subset of A to B
∴ Number of relations from A to B
= Number of subsets of A × B
= 2^mn (∴ |A × B| = mn)

Question 5.
Give an example of a relation f such that
(i) dom f – rng f (ii) dom f ⊂ rng f
(iii) dom f ⊃ rng f
(iv) f ∪ f^-1 = Φ
(v) f = f^-1
(vi) f ∪ f^-1 ≠ Φ
Solution:
Let A = { 1, 2, 3} = B
(i) Let f = {(x, y) ∈ A × B : x = y}
∴ Dom f = {1, 2, 3} = Range f

(ii) Let f = {(1, 1), (1, 2), (2, 3)}
on A = (1, 2, 3}
∴ Dom f = {1, 2} ⊂ { 1, 2, 3} = Range f

(iii) Do yourself

(iv) Let f = Φ
∴ f^-1 = Φ = f ∪ f^-1 = Φ

(v) Let f = {(x, y) ∈ A × B; x² + y² = 1}, where A = B = {1, – 1, 0}
= {(1, 0), (0, 1), (-1, 0), (0, -1)}
f^-1 = {(0, 1) (1, 0), (0, -1), (-1, 0)}
=f

(vi) Let f = {(1, 3), (3, 1)} on A = { 1, 2, 3}
∴ f^-1 = {3, 1), (1, 3)},
so that f ∩ f^-1 = Φ.

Question 6.
Let R = {(a, a³) I a is a prime number less than 10}
Fine (i) R, (ii) dom R, (iii) rng R (iv) R^-1 (v) dom R^-1 (vi) rng R^-1
Solution:
R = {(a, a³)} a is a prime number less than 10}
(i) R = {(2, 8), (3, 27), (5, 125), (7, 343)}
(ii) dom R = {2, 3, 5, 7}
(iii) rng R = {8, 27, 125, 343}
(iv) R^-1 = {(8, 2), (27, 3), (125, 5), (343, 7)}
(v) Dom R^-1 = {8, 27, 125, 343} = rng R
(vi) rng R^-1 = {2, 3, 5, 7} = dom R

Question 7.
Let A = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6} and Let R be a relation on A defined by R = {(a, b)} a divides b
Find (i) R, (ii) dom R, (iii) rng R (iv) R^-1, (v) Dom R^-1 (vi) rng R^-1
Solution:
A = {1, 2, 3, 4, 6}
R on A is defined by
R = {(a, b) | a divides b}
(i) R = {(1, 1), (1, 2), (1, 3), (1, 4), (1, 6) (2, 2), (2, 4), (2, 6), (3, 3), (3, 6), (4, 4), (6, 6)}
(ii) dom R = {1,2, 3, 4, 6} = A
(iii) rng R = {1, 2, 3, 4, 6} = A
(iv) R^-1 = {(1, 1), (2, 1), (3, 1), (4, 1), (6, 1), (2, 2) (4, 2), (6, 2), (3, 3), (6, 3), (4, 4), (6, 6)}
(v) dom R^-1 = {1, 2, 3, 4, 6} = A
(vi) rng R^-1 = {l, 2, 3, 4, 6} = A

Odisha State Board Elements of Mathematics Class 11 Solutions CHSE Odisha Chapter 11 Straight Lines Ex 11(a) Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

CHSE Odisha Class 11 Math Solutions Chapter 11 Straight Lines Exercise 11(a)

Question 1.
Find the distance between the following pairs of points.
(i) (3, 4), (-2, 1);
Solution:
Distance between points (3, 4) and (-2, 1) is
\(\sqrt{(3+2)^2+(4-1)^2}=\sqrt{25+9}=\sqrt{34}\)

(ii) (-1, 0), (5, 3)
Solution:
The distance between the points (-1, 0) and (5, 3) is
\(\sqrt{(-1-5)^2+(0-3)^2}\)
= \(\sqrt{36+9}=\sqrt{45}=3 \sqrt{5}\)

Question 2.
If the distance between points (3, a) and (6, 1) is 5, find the value of a.
Solution:
Distance between the points. (3, a) and (6, 1) is
\(\sqrt{(3-6)^2+(a-1)^2}=\sqrt{9+(a-1)^2}\)
∴ \(\sqrt{9+(a-1)^2}=5\)
or, 9 + (a – 1)² = 25
or, (a – 1)² = 16
or, a – 1 = ± 4
a = 1 ± 4 = 5 or, – 3

Question 3.
Find the coordinate of the points which divides the line segment joining the points A (4, 6), B (-3, 1) in the ratio 2: 3 internally. Find also the coordinates of the point which divides \(\overline{\mathbf{A B}}\) in the same ratio externally.
Solution:

Question 4.
Find the coordinates of the mid-point of the following pairs of points.
(i) (-7, 3), (8, -4);
Solution:
Mid-point of the line segment joining the points (-7, 3) and (8, -4) are \(\left(\frac{-7+8}{2}, \frac{3-4}{2}\right)=\left(\frac{1}{2},-\frac{1}{2}\right)\)

(ii) (\(\frac{3}{4}\), -2), (\(\frac{-5}{2}\), 1)
Solution:
Mid-point of the line segment joining the points. (\(\frac{3}{4}\), -2) and (\(\frac{-5}{2}\), 1) is,
\(\left(\frac{\frac{3}{4}-\frac{5}{2}}{2}, \frac{-2+1}{2}\right)=\left(\frac{-7}{8}, \frac{-1}{2}\right)\)

Question 5.
Find the area of the triangle whose vertices are (1, 2), (3, 4) (\(\frac{1}{2}\), \(\frac{1}{4}\))
Solution:
Area of the triangle whose vertices are (1, 2), (3, 4) and (\(\frac{1}{2}\), \(\frac{1}{4}\)) is

Question 6.
If the area of the triangle with vertices (0, 0), (1, 0), (0, a) is 10 units, find the value of a.
Solution:
Area of the triangle with vertices (0, 0),(1,0), (0, a), is \(\frac{1}{2}\) × 1 × a = \(\frac{a}{2}\)
∴ \(\frac{a}{2}\) = 10 or a = 20

Question 7.
Find the value of a so that the points (1, 4), (2, 7), (3, a) are collinear.
Solution:
As points (1, 4), (2, 7), (3, a) are collinear, we have the area of the triangle with vertices (1, 4), (2, 7), and (3, a) is zero.
∴ \(\frac{1}{2}\) {1(7 – a) + 2(a – 4) + 3 (4 – 7)} = 0
or, 7 – a + 2a – 8 + 12 – 21 =0
⇒ a = 10

Question 8.
Find the slope of the lines whose inclinations are given.
(i) 30°
Solution:
The slope of the line whose inclination is 30°.
tan 30° = \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}\)

(ii) 45°
Solution:
Slope = tan 45° = +1

(iii) 60°
Solution:
Slope = tan 60° = √3

(iv) 135°
Solution:
Slope = tan 135° = – 1

Question 9.
Find the inclination of the lines whose slopes are given below.
(i) \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}\)
Solution:
The slope of the line is \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}\)
∴ tan θ = \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}\) or, θ = 30°
∴ The inclination of the line is 30°

(ii) 1
Solution:
Slope = 1 = tan 45°
∴ The inclination of the line is 45°.

(iii) √3
Solution:
Slope = √3 = tan 60°  ∴ θ = 60°
∴ Inclination = 60°

(iv) – 1
Solution:
Slope = – 1 = tan 135°
∴ Inclination = 135°

Question 10.
Find the angle between the pair of lines whose slopes are ;
(i) \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}\), 1
Solution:

(ii) √3, -1
Solution:

Question 11.
(a) Show that the points (0, -1), (-2, 3), (6, 7), and (8, 3) are vertices of a rectangle.
Solution:


∴ The opposite sides are equal and two consecutive sides are perpendicular. So it is a rectangle.

(b) Show that the points (1, 1), (-1, -1), and (-√3, √3) are the vertices of an equilateral triangle.
Solution:

Question 12.
Find the coordinates of the point P(x, y) which is equidistant from (0, 0), (32, 10), and (42, 0).
Solution:

Question 13.
If the points (x, y) are equidistant from the points (a + b, b – a) and (a – b, a + b), prove that bx = ay.

Question 14.
The coordinate of the vertices of a triangle are (α₁, β₁), (α₂, β₂), and (α₃, β₃). Prove that the coordinates of its centroid is \(\left(\frac{\alpha_1+\alpha_2+\alpha_3}{3}, \frac{\beta_1+\beta_2+\beta_3}{3}\right)\)
Solution:

Question 15.
Two vertices of a triangle are (0, -4) and  (6, 0). If the medians meet at the point (2, 0), find the coordinates of the third vertex.
Solution:

∴ \(\frac{6+x}{3}\) = 2, \(\frac{-4+y}{3}\) = 0
⇒ x = 0, y = 4
∴ The coordinates of the 3rd vertex are (0, 4).

Question 16.
If the point (0, 4) divides the line segment joining(-4, 10) and (2, 1) internally, find the point which divides it externally in these same ratios.
Solution:

Question 17.
Find the ratios in which the line segment joining (-2, -3) arid (5, 4) is divided by the coordinate axes and hence find the coordinates of these points.
Solution:

Question 18.
In a triangle, one of the vertices is at (2, 5) and the centroid of the triangle is at (-1, 1). Find the coordinates of the midpoint of the side opposite to the given angular point.
Solution:

Question 19.
Find the coordinates of the vertices of a triangle whose sides have midpoints at (2, 1), (-1, 3), and (-2, 5).
Solution:

∴ x₂ + x₃ – 4 or, x₂ – 4 – 3 = 1
∴ x₁ = – 4 – x₂ = -4 – 1 = -5
Similarly y₁ + y₂ + y₃ = 5 + 1 + 3 = 9
As y₁ + y₂ = 10
we have y₃ = 9 – 10 = – 1
Again y₁ + y₃ = 6
or, y₁ = 6 – y₃ = 6 + 1 = 7
and y₂ = 10 – y₁ = 10 – 7 = 3
∴ The coordinates of A, B, and C are (-5, 7), (1, 3), and (3, -1).

Question 20.
If the vertices of a triangle have their coordinates given by rational numbers, prove that the triangle cannot be equilateral.
Solution:
Let us choose the contradiction method. Let the triangle is equilateral if the co¬ ordinate of the vertices is rational numbers.
Let ABC be an equilateral triangle with vertices A (a, 0), B (a, 0), and C (b, c) where a, b, c are rational.

⇒ a² = b² + c² = \(\frac{a^2}{4}\) + c²
⇒ c² =  a² – \(\frac{a^2}{4}\) = \(\frac{3a^2}{4}\) ⇒ c = \(\frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}\) a     ….(2)
Now b = \(\frac{a}{2}\), c = \(\frac{\sqrt{3}}{2}\) a
If a is rational then b is rational but c is irrational, i.e., the coordinates of the vertices are not rational, which contradicts the assumption.
Hence assumption is wrong.
So the triangle cannot be equilateral if the coordinate of the vertices is rational numbers.

Question 21.
Prove that the area of any triangle is equal to four times the area of the triangle formed by joining the midpoints of its sides.
Solution:

∴ The area of triangle ABC is four times the area of triangle DEF. (Proved)

Question 22.
Find the condition that the point (x, y) may lie on the line joining (1, 2) and (5, -3).
Solution:

∴ As points A, B, and C are collinear, we have the area of the triangle ABC as 0.
∴ \(\frac{1}{2}\) {1(-3 – y) + 5(y – 2) + x(2 + 3)} = 0
or, – 3 – y + 5y – 10 + 5x = 0
or, 5x + 4y = 13

Question 23.
Show that the three distinct points (a², a), (b², b), and (c², c) can never be collinear.
Solution:
Area of the triangle with vertices (a², a), (b², b) , and (c², c) is
\(\frac{1}{2}\) {a²(b – c) + b²(c – a) c²(a – b)}
= (a – b)(b – c)(a – c)
which is never equal to zero except when a = b = c, hence the points are not collinear.

Question 24.
If A, B, and C are points (-1, 2), (3, 1), and (-2, -3) respectively, then show that the points which divide BC, CA, and AB in the ratios (1: 3), (4: 3) and (-9: 4) respectively are collinear.
Solution:
Let the points P, Q, and R divides \(\overline{\mathrm{BC}}\), \(\overline{\mathrm{CA}}\), in \(\overline{\mathrm{AB}}\) the ratio 1: 3, 4: 3 and -9: 4

Question 25.
Prove analytically :
(a) The line segment joining the midpoints of two sides of a triangle is parallel to the third and half of its length.

Solution:
Let the coordinates of the triangle ABC be (x₁, y₁), (x₂, y₂) and (x₃, y₃)
The points D and E are the midpoints of the sides \(\overline{\mathrm{AB}}\) and \(\overline{\mathrm{AC}}\)

(b) The altitudes of a triangle are concurrent.
Solution:

(c) The perpendicular bisectors of the sides of a triangle are concurrent.
Solution:

(d) An angle in a semicircle is a right angle.
Solution:

∴ The angle in a semicircle is a right angle. (Proved)

Odisha State Board Elements of Mathematics Class 11 CHSE Odisha Solutions Chapter 10 Sequences and Series Ex 10(a) Textbook Exercise Questions and Answers.

CHSE Odisha Class 11 Math Solutions Chapter 10 Sequences and Series Exercise 10(a)

Question 1.
Which of the following in a sequence?
(i) f(x) = [x], x ∈ R
(ii) f(x) = |x|, x ∈ R
(iii) f(x) = \(\sqrt[n]{\pi}\) ,n∈ N
Solution:
(iii) f(x) = \(\sqrt[n]{\pi}\) ,n∈ N is a sequence f(n) : N → X, X ⊂ R.

Question 2.
Determine if (t_n) is an arithmetic sequence if :
(i) t_n = an² + bn
Solution:
t_n = an² + bn
⇒ t_n+1 = a(n + 1)² + b(n – 1)
⇒ t_n+1 – t_n = a{(n + 1)² – n²} + b{n + 1 – n}
= a(2n + 1) + b
Which is not independent of n.
∴ (t_n) is not an A.P.

(ii) t_n = an + b
Solution:
t_n = an + b
⇒ t_n+1 = a(n + 1) + b
Now t_n+1 – t_n
= {a(n + 1) + b} – {an + b}
= a (constant)
∴ (t_n) is an arithmetic sequence.

(iii) t_n = an² + b
Solution:
t_n = an² + b
⇒ t_n+1 = a(n + 1)² + b
∴ t_n+1 – t_n = a[(n + 1)² – n²] + b – b
= a(2n + 1)
(does not independent of n)
∴ (t_n) is not an arithmetic sequence.

Question 3.
If a geometric series converges which of the following is true about its common ratio r?
(i) r > 1
(ii) -1 < r < 1
(iii) r > 0
Solution:
(ii) -1 < r < 1

Question 4.
If an arithmetic series ∑tn converges, which of the following is true about t_n?
(i) t_n < 1
(ii) |t_n| < 1
(iii) t_n = 0
(iv) t_n → 0
Solution:
(iii) t_n = 0

Question 5.
Which of the following is an arithmetic-geometric series?
(i) 1 + 3x + 7x² + 15x³+ ….
(ii) x + \(\frac{1}{2}\)x + \(\frac{1}{3}\)x² + ….
(iii) x + (1 + 2)x² + (1 + 2 + 3)x³ +…
(iv) x + 3x² + 5x³ + 7x⁴ + …
Solution:
(iv) x + 3x² + 5x³ + 7x⁴ + … is an arithmetic geometric series with a = 1, d = 2, r = x.

Question 6.
For an arithmetic sequence (t_n) t_p = q, t_q = p, (p ≠ q), find t_n.
Solution:
t_p = q ⇒ a + (p – 1)d = q    ……(1)
t_q = p ⇒ a + (q – 1)d = p    ……(2)
From (1) and (2) we have (p – q)d = q – p
⇒ d = (-1)
Putting d = (-1) in (1)
we have a = p + q – 1
∴ t_n = a + (n – 1)d
= (P + q – 1) + (n – 1) (-1)
= p + q – n

Question 7.
For an arithmetic series, ∑a_n S_p = q and S_q = p (p ≠ q) find S_p+q
Solution:
S_p = q and S_q = p

Question 8.
The sum of a geometric series is 3. The series of squares of its terms have a sum of 18. Find the series.
Solution:

Question 9.
The sum of a geometric series is 14, and the series of cubes of its terms have a sum of 392 find the series.
Solution:


∴ The series is \(\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} \frac{7}{2^{n-1}}\)

Question 10.
Find the sum as directed
(i) 1 + 2a + 3a² + 4a³ + …..(first n terms(a ≠ 1))
Solution:

(ii) 1 + (1 + x)y + (1 + x + x²)y² + …..(to infinity)
Solution:
Let S_∞ = 1 + (1 + x)y + (1x + x²)y² + …
⇒ S_n = 1 + (1 + 1 + x)y + (1 + x + x²)y² + ……+(1 + x + …. x^n-1)y^n-1

(iii) 1 + \(\frac{3}{5}\) + \(\frac{7}{25}\) + \(\frac{15}{125}\) + \(\frac{31}{625}\) + …..(to infinity)
Solution:

(iv) 1 + 4x + 8x² + 13x³ + 19x⁴ + …..(to infinity). Assuming that the series has a sum for |x| < 1.
Solution:

(v) 3.2 + 5.2² + 7.2³ + …..(first n terms)
Solution:
Sn = 3.2 + 5.22 + 7.3 + ….n terms = 2[3 + 5.2 + 7.22 + ….n terms]

Question 11.
Find the sum of the infinite series.
(i) \(\frac{1}{1 \cdot 2}+\frac{1}{2 \cdot 3}+\frac{1}{3 \cdot 4}+\ldots\)
Solution:

= 1 – \(\frac{1}{n+1}\)
∴ \(S_{\infty}=\lim _{n \rightarrow \infty} S_n=1\)

(ii) \(\frac{1}{1 \cdot 2 \cdot 3}+\frac{1}{2 \cdot 3 \cdot 4}+\frac{1}{3 \cdot 4 \cdot 5}+\ldots\)
Solution:
\(\frac{1}{1 \cdot 2 \cdot 3}+\frac{1}{2 \cdot 3 \cdot 4}+\frac{1}{3 \cdot 4 \cdot 5}+\ldots\)

(iii) \(\frac{1}{2 \cdot 5 \cdot 8}+\frac{1}{5 \cdot 8 \cdot 11}+\frac{1}{8 \cdot 11 \cdot 14}+\ldots\)
Solution:
Here t_n = \(\frac{1}{(3 n-1)(3 n+2)(3 n+5)}\)
The denominator of t_n is the product of 3 consecutive terms of A.P. Now multiplying and dividing by (3n + 5) – (3n – 1) we have
\(t_n=\frac{(3 n+5)-(3 n-1)}{6(3 n-1)(3 n+2)(3 n+5)}\)

(iv) \(\frac{3}{1^2 \cdot 2^2}+\frac{5}{2^2 \cdot 3^2}+\frac{7}{3^2 \cdot 4^2}+\ldots\) [Hint : take t_n = \(\frac{2 n+1}{n^2(n+1)^2}=\frac{(n+1)^2-n^2}{n^2(n+1)^2}\)]
Solution:

(v) \(\frac{1}{1 \cdot 5}+\frac{1}{3 \cdot 7}+\frac{1}{5 \cdot 9}+\ldots .\)
Solution:

Question 12.
Find S_n for the series.
(i) 1.2 + 2.3 + 3.4 + ….
Solution:

(ii) 1.2.3 + 2.3.4 + 3.4.5 + …
Solution:

(iii) 2.5.8 + 5.8.11 + 8.11.14 +…
Solution:

(iv) 1.2.3.4 + 2.3.4.5 + 3.4.5.6 + …
[Hint : t_n = (3n – 1) (3n + 2)(3n + 5)]
Solution:

(v) 1.5 + 2.6 + 3.7 + …
[Hint: t_n = n(n + 4) is not a product of two successive terms of an A.P. for the term following n should be n+1, not n+4. So the method of previous exercises is not applicable. Instead, write t_n = n² + 4n and find S_n = \(\sum_{k=1}^n k^2+4 \sum_{k=1}^n k\) applying formulae]
Solution:

(vi) 2.3 + 3.6 + 4.11 + …
[Hint : Take t_n = (n + 1) (n² + 2)]
Solution:

(vii) 1.3² + 2.5² + 3.7² + ….
Solution:

Question 13.
Find the sum of the first n terms of the series:
(i) 5 + 6 + 8 + 12 + 20 + …
Solution:

(ii) 4 + 5 + 8 + 13 + 20 + …
Solution:

Question 14.
(i) Find the sum of the product of 1,2,3….20 taken two at a time. [Hint: Required sum = \(\frac{1}{2}\left\{\left(\sum_{k=1}^{20} k\right)^2-\sum_{k=1}^{20} k^2\right\}\)]
Solution:
We know that
(x₁ + x₂ + x₃ + …. + x_n)²
= (x²₁ + xⁿ₂ + … + x²_n) + 2 (Sum of all possible Products taken two at a time)
∴ 2 (Sum of products of 1. 2, 3,…… 20 taken two at a time)
= (1 + 2 + 3 + … 20)² – (1² + 2² + … + 20²)
\(=\left(\frac{20 \times 21}{2}\right)^2-\frac{20(20+1)(40+1)}{6}\)
= (210)² – 70 × 41
= 44100 – 2870 = 41230
∴ The required sum = \(\frac{41230}{2}\) = 20615

(ii) Do the same for 1, 3, 5, 7,….19.
Solution:
Here the required sum

Question 15.
If a = 1 + x + x² + ….. and b = 1 + y + y² + ….|x| <  1 and |y| <  1, then prove that 1 – xy + x²y² + x³y³ + ….. =  \(\frac{a b}{a+b-1}\)
Solution:

Question 16.
If a, b, c are respectively the pth, qth, rth terms of an A.P., then prove that a(q – r) + b(r – p) + c(p – q) = 0
Solution:
Let the first term of an A.P. = A and the common difference = D.
According to the question
t_P = a, t_q = b, t_r = c
⇒ A + (p – q)D = a      …..(1)
A + (q – 1)D = b           …..(2)
A + (r – 1)D = c            …..(3)
L.H.S = a(q – r) + b (r – p) + c (p – q)
= (A + (p – 1)D) (q – r) + (A + (q – 1)D)
(r- p) + (A + (r – 1)D) (p – q)
= A (q – r + r – p + p – q) + D [(p – 1)
(q – r) + (q – 1) (r – p) + (r – 1) (p – q)]
= D (pq – pr + qr – pq + pr – qr) – D (q – r + r – p + p – q) = 0

Question 17.
If \(\frac{1}{a}, \frac{1}{b}, \frac{1}{c}\) are in A.P. and a + b + c ≠ 0, prove that \(\frac{\mathbf{b}+\mathbf{c}}{\mathbf{a}}, \frac{\mathbf{c}+\mathbf{a}}{\mathbf{b}}, \frac{\mathbf{a}+\mathbf{b}}{\mathbf{c}}\) are in A.P.
Solution:

Question 18.
If a², b², c² are in A.P. Prove that \(\frac{1}{b+c}, \frac{1}{c+a}, \frac{1}{a+b}\) are in A.P.
Solution:

Question 19.
If \(\frac{b+c}{a}, \frac{c+a}{b}, \frac{\mathbf{a}+\mathbf{b}}{c}\) are in A.P.,prove that \(\frac{\mathbf{1}}{\mathbf{a}}, \frac{\mathbf{1}}{\mathbf{b}}, \frac{\mathbf{1}}{\mathbf{c}}\) are inA.P.given a + b + c ≠ 0
Solution:

Question 20.
If (b – c)², (c – a)², (a – b)² are in A.P., prove that \(\frac{1}{b-c}, \frac{1}{c-a}, \frac{1}{a-b}\) are in A.P.
Solution:

Question 21.
If a, b, c are respectively the sum of p, q, r terms of an A.P., prove that \(\frac{a}{p}(q-r)+\frac{b}{q}(r-p)+\frac{c}{r}(p-q)\) = 0
Solution:

Question 22.
If a, b, c,d are in G.P., prove that (a² + b² + c²)(b² + c² + d²) = (ab + bc + cd)².
Solution:
Let a, b, c, and d are in G.P.
Let the common ratio = r
⇒ b = ar, c = ar², d = ar³
LHS = (a² + b² + c²) (b² + c² + d²)
= (a² + a²r² + a²r⁴) (a²r² + a²r⁴ + a²r⁶)
= a⁴r² (1 + r² + r⁴)²
= (a²r + a²r³ + a²r⁵)²
= (a.ar + ar.ar² + ar².ar³)²
= (ab + bc + cd)² = R.H.S. (proved)

 

Odisha State Board CHSE Odisha Class 11 Political Science Solutions Unit 4 Constitution at Work-I Long Answer Questions Part-2.

CHSE Odisha 11th Class Political Science Unit 4 Constitution at Work-I Long Answer Questions Part-2

Long Questions With Answers

Question 1.
Explain the functions of the election commission of India.
Answer:
The election commission of India is an independent body that conducts elections to the office of the President, Vice-President members of Parliament, and state legislatures, the functions of the commission can be enumerated below.

The Election/Commission revises electoral rolls before the every-general election. It exercises supervision and control over all matters pertaining to the election of the President, Vice-President, Members of Parliament, and State legislatures. It tenders advice to the President and Governors in matters of disqualification of members of parliament and state legislatures.

The commission gives recognition to political parties and allots election symbols. It makes appointments of election officials to enquire about disputes arising out of election arrangements. It issues notification of the election of schedules indicating the date and time of elections. The commission also regulates the campaigning of political parties through TV. and Radio.

It also requires the necessary states for the conduct of the poll. The commission has to determine the code of conduct of the political parties and candidates during elections. It has to decide about cases of rigging, booth capturing and. countermanding of polls, and also on repoll. The commission undertakes delimitation of constituencies every 10 years or so. The commission has to make all arrangements to conduct the peaceful poll.

Question 2.
Write an essay on the Independence of the Election Commission.
Answer:
Free and fair elections are indispensable for a democratic polity, The founding fathers were well aware of the situation and they tried their best to ensure the independence and integrity of the Election Commission.

Independence of the Election Commission:
The constitution has taken the following steps to ensure independence to the Election Commission.

The members of the Election Commission are appointed by the President as per rules made by the parliament. They hold office during the pleasure of the president. The president can’t remove them unless a resolution to that effect is passed in both houses of parliament by 2/3rds the majority of those present and voting and by a majority membership of each house.

They can only be removed only on grounds of proven misbehavior and in capacity. The members receive a salary as determined by Parliament from time to time and it is charged upon the consolidated fund of India, on which discussion takes place in the parliament During their tenure, their salary and conditions of service can’t be changed to their disadvantage.

The members of the Election Commission enjoy the status of a judge of the Supreme Court and after Retirement, they are not assigned any additional duty. The commission remains politically neutral and above all controversies maintains the dignity of the institution.

Question 3.
Mention the Electoral reforms introduced by the Election Commission of India.
Answer:
During the last sixty years, the history of elections in India indicates that the electoral process is not free from deficiencies. Analysts express doubt about the fairness and impartiality of the Election Commission. To overcome these defects there is a need for electoral reforms.

Reforms Introduced:
The government of India has already introduced certain electoral reforms to bring about the efficiency of the commission. The voting age has been reduced from 21 to 18 in order to encourage young voters. To ensure perfect arrangement for poll staff members now deputed much before by the Election Commission. To avoid the multiplicity of candidates in a constituency number of proposers and seconders has been increased and the amount of the security deposit has been enhanced 20 times.

Electronic voting machines have been used and photo identification cards have been issued to avoid false voting and tender voting and ensure quick counting of votes. If any candidate shows disrespect to the national flag, National Anthem, and to the constitution of India, he shall be disqualified from contesting polls for six years. No candidate can contest from two or more seats simultaneously.

The government prohibits persons from going with arms to polling booths. The sale of liquor during the last 48 hours of the election has been declared illegal. The poll day is declared a paid holiday to enable public servants to cast their votes. The time limit for bye-elections has been reduced to six months. A postal ballot system has been introduced to enable polling officers to cast their votes.

Further, there is a demand for holding simultaneous elections for Parliament and Assemblies. To keep the black money out of elections there is a need for state funding of elections. There is a need for quick disposal of election cases and rotation of reserved seats. To make the election free and fair election expenses must be audited properly.

Question 4.
Explain the powers and functions of the Union Parliament.
Answer:
The Union Legislature in India is called Parliament. It is bicameral in structure. The Upper Upper House is called the Council of States or Rajya Sabha and the Lower House being the popular House it performs most of the functions on behalf of the Parliament and dominates the Upper House.

Powers:
Parliament being the legislative wing, it is responsible for law-making. It also performs other vital functions.

Legislative:
The Union Parliament is a popular body that formulates the laws of the land. It is the Parliament that initiates and approves all legislative proposals. Without the knowledge of the Union Parliament, no law can be enacted.

Executive:
The Union Parliament performs certain executive functions. The ministers sit in the Parliament and remain responsible and answerable to the legislature for all their actions. The Lok Sabha controls the executive by putting various questions to the ministers. It is also the sole authority of the Lok Sabha. To pursue a no-confidence motion against the ministers. There is a responsible, executive in India.

Financial :
The Union Parliament in India enjoys absolute control over financial matters. No single pie will be spent without the knowledge of the Union Parliament. All sorts of financial appropriations are determined and approved by the legislature.

Constitutional :
No Constitution is static. With the development of civilization, and the change in the life of the people the Constitution needs to be
amended. In India, the Union Parliament possesses all powers with regard to the amendment of the Constitution.

Electoral:
The Union Parliament also possesses certain functions with regard to certain elections of the high officials. The Parliament participates in the election of the president and Vice president and another Parliamentary committee.

Judicial :
The Union legislature also possesses some sort of judicial power. The Lok Sabha acts as a judiciary to decide certain cases tike, like the impeachment of the Supreme Court.& High Court Judges, the President, the Vice-President and the no-confidence motion against the Council of Ministers are some of the illustrations of the judicial power of the union legislative

Administrative-Power :
The Union Parliament also possesses some administrative powers. The Parliament has control over the various administrative heads of various departments, The Lok Sabha possesses the power to question to the concerned minister for any administrative commission or commissions.

Miscellaneous Power :
The Union Parliament also enjoys certain miscellaneous powers which include controlling the emergency provisions and issuing ordinances by the President, of India.

Question 5.
Discuss the Legislative Procedure of the Union Parliament.
Answer:
In every constitutional setup, there is a legislature, whose primary responsibility is to formulate the two. There is a fixed procedure principle on the basis of which-the legislative procedure, is being carried out. Similarly, in India, there is a fixed procedure or principle on the basis of which the laws are made. There are two kinds of bills ordinary bill and a money bill. An ordinary bill may be introduced into either House of the Parliament but money bills can only be introduced into the Lok Sabha.

The Procedure of Legislation :
For the passing up of any bill, the legislature in India involves three stages of reading i.e. the first reading, the second reading, and the third reading.

Introduction of the bill:
For legislation, the first step is the introduction of the bill in the House for which a notice will be given one month. The date for the introduction of the bill is fixed by the Speaker or the Chairman of the House concerned and on the due date, the member is asked to present the bill If the majority of members of the House support the introduction of the bill is introduced and is published in the gazette.

First Reading:
After the introduction of the bill, the Chair of the House fixes, the date of its first reading. On the appointed day the member moves the bill. In this stage

• The title of the bill is read.
• The vote is taken

Second Reading:
After the committee has sent the report the bill may be referred for second reading on the fixed date. In the stage of second reading.

• The examination of the Select Committee may be taken into consideration.
• The member may move the bill which will be sent to Select Committee.
• Thirdly the member may move the bill for eliciting public opinion.

Select Committee Stage:
After the second reading, the bill is referred to a select committee. The committee examines the bill thoroughly. There is a detailed discussion of the bill
in this stage. The Select Committee may propose any changes in the bill on the basis of all kinds of information collected.

Report Stage:
After the bill is examined and discussed thoroughly, the Select Committee prepares its report. The suggestions recommended by the Select Committee is taken into account. If the majority of members arrived at a decision, the Chairman of the committee presents the report to the House. If the house agrees to consider the bill as reported by the Select Committee it enters into the second stage of the second reading when the bill is discussed clause by clause and the members are allowed to move their amendments. And the vote is taken.

Third Reading:
In this reading, the discussion is confined to either in support of the bill or rejection of the bill. If the bill is passed by the majority members of the present and voting the bill is passed by the legislature. And the bill is referred to the other House of Parliament. If the bill is passed by the other House then it is referred to the President for his assent. The President may give his assent or return it for reconsideration to the Parliament.

In case of Jhe disagreement of the other House with Regard to the bill, the President may summon a joint sitting of both the Houses of Parliament. If the bill is passed by the majority members in the joint sitting, it will presume that both the Houses of Parliament have passed the bill. After passing by both the Houses of Parliament have passed the bill. After passing by both the Houses of Parliament President gives his assent and the bill becomes an Act.

Question 6.
Analyze the organization and functions of the Lok Sabha.
Answer:
Indian Parliament is bicameral it Council States or Rajya Sabha and the Lower. House is known as the House of People or Lok Sabha, The House of the People-of the Lok Sabha is the direct representatives of the people Ordinarily there are 54 members of the Lok Sabha which consists of two categories of members, 545 members are elected directly by the people and two members are nominated by the President of India from among the Anglo- Indian community. The number of members to be elected to the House is determined on the basis of the ratio of the population of the states.

Term of Office:
The House of People is a temporary House that is ordinarily elected for a period of five years. But before the completion of the term the House may be dissolved and a fresh election may be, ordered. Similarly, the term of the House may also be extended up to a maximum of one year during the time of emergency.
The House meets twice in a year. There shall not be more than six months gap between each interval of the session.

Qualifications of the Members:
The Constitution of India provides tile following qualifications for the members of the House of the People. These are:

• He must be a citizen of India.
• He must have completed 25 years of age
• He must also possess other qualifications prescribed by-the Parliament from time to time.
• The President of India summons prorogues and dissolves the House of People. He also addresses the first session of the House.

Powers and functions of the House of People:
Generally, the Lower House in all Parliamentary forms of Government constitutes the elected representatives of the people. So the House of People in the context of the Indian Parliamentary form of Government occupies the highest position in the administration of the state. The House of People in the context-of-Indian Parliamentary form of Government is the highest authority where the conception of popular sovereignty is reflected. The House of People remains answerable to the people of India.  The various powers and functions of the House of People are discussed below.

Legislative Power:
The House of People or the Lok Sabha enjoys a very dominant position with regard to the legislative power. No bill would be an Act without the knowledge of the House of Parliament but money bills can only be introduced in the Lok Sabha. People Ordinary bills may be introduced in either. House of the Parliament but money bills can only be introduced in the Lok Sabha. But in the case of any other bills, they must be passed by Lok Sabha in order to become an Act.

Administrative Power:
In all types of Parliamentary forms of Government, the Lok Sabha is answerable to the legislature. So there is a responsible executive in all Parliamentary forms of Government. In India, the House of the People is the direct representative of the people, and the Council of ministers of the legislature remains answerable to Lok Sabha for all their actions. The Lok Sabha can control ministers who head various departments through various questions. If the council of ministers does not remain answerable for their actions the legislature may move a no-confidence motion against the ministers.

Financial Power:
The Lok Sabha possesses absolute control over public finance. No single pie can be expended without the sanction of the Lok Sabha. It is in the Lower House of Parliament the money bill can be introduced in regard to which Rajya Sabha possesses little or no option. The Rajya Sabha can not initiate any financial legislation and it is the financial supremacy of the Lok Sabha to grant finance for the state administration.

Constituent Power:
The union legislature possesses the power to amend the Constitution of India. Though with regard to the amendment of certain provisions of the Constitution the state government’s participation is required yet it is the Union Parliament that possesses more power for a constitutional amendment. The Parliament can initiate all those amendments for which the Lok Sabha plays a decisive role:

Electoral Power:
The Lok Sabha has certain electoral power. Lok Sabha participates in the election of the President of India, and Vice-President of India. Only elected members of the Lok Sabha alone possess the to participate in the election of President and Vice-President.

Judicial:
Lok Sabha also acts as a judiciary to decide certain cases like the impeachment of the President of India. The Vice-President, the Judges of the Supreme Court and High Court, etc. Lok Sabha alone can move and pass a no-confidence motion against the Council Ministers in the Parliament.

Question 7.
Discuss the role and functions of the Speaker of Lok Sabha.
Answer:
The Constitution provides that there shall be a Speaker for Lok Sabha who shall preside over the business of the House. The Speaker is the President of the House who is responsible to ensure the smooth functioning of the Lok Sabha.

Appointment of Speaker:
The Constitution provides that the Speaker should be elected from among the legislatures elected to Lok Sabha. The constitutional status is purely impartial so for which before entering into the office of Speaker he must vacate his membership to ensure impartiality. He may resign from his office for which at least a notice should be given to the House with 15 days in hand.

Functions of the Speaker:
The primary function of the Speaker is to ensure the smooth functioning of the Lok Sabha. It is the Speaker who happens to be responsible for all legislative procedures within Lok- Sabha. He controls the business of the 1 louse. It is the Speaker whose will and wishes prevail over the will and wishes of all other members. There are a lot of functions performed by the Speaker which is discussed below.

The Speaker is the chief authority within Lok Sabha who presides over all legislative proceedings within the Lok Sabha. He conducts the business of the House and every member of the House must address to the dignity of the Speaker in their speech. The Speaker protects the rights of the ruling as well as the opposition members, The Speaker must ensure that the opinions of the opposition members are adequately published.

Every member must be permitted by Speaker before telling anything. The Speaker administers various rules and regulations of the legislative proceeding in Lok Sabha and the ruling of the Speaker is final in this regard. It is the Speaker-who decides the nature and features of various bills introduced in Lok Sabha. Ordinarily, the Speaker does not enjoy the fight to vote but he can cast a vote in case there is a tie-in the vote.

Role and Position of Speaker:
In all Parliamentary forms of government, the Speaker or the Chair Person of the representative House Occupies a very dignitary position. Similarly, in the context of
Indian Parliamentary form of Government the Speaker of Lok Sabha occupies a very dignified position. Since more or less we have inherited the British pattern of office of Speaker where the Speaker does not belong to any political party only to ensure the impartiality of the procedure of the House.

It is the same position with regard to the constitutional status of the office, of Speaker. Though we have not observed the British pattern of practice yet, maximum steps have been taken to ensure the impartiality of the Speaker. In India, the Speaker may be a member of a political party but he ads as a nonparty man after entering into office. The Constitution of India and the convention have assigned dignity to a great extent during the tenure of his office.

So he does not take part in any party affairs during the lifetime of his office. Since he presides over the meetings of the House it is the responsibility of the Speaker to provide adequate opportunity to all members irrespective of party affiliation which will enhance the dignity and the status of the Speaker. The Speaker must not act on the basis of his personal ideology which will strike at the very impartial tradition of the office of the Speaker.

Question 8.
Discuss the composition and powers of the Rajya Sabha and examine its utility in the Indian constitutional setup.
(Or)
Examine the powers and utility of the Council of States in India.
Answer:
Rajya Sabha or Council of States is the second chamber of the Union Parliament. It gives representation to the states and Union Territories on the basis of population. It is a weaker chamber, in comparison to the Lower House, but it plays a vital role in the constitutional setup.

Composition:
The Council of States is the permanent chamber. Its maximum strength is 250-238  members representing the States and Union Territories rest of the 12 members are nominated by the President from persons having excellence either in Arts, Science, Literature, or Social Service. The members of the Rajya Sabha are elected indirectly by the members of respective states and Union Territories through, proportional representation and a single transferable vote system.

Any citizen of India above 30 years of age and possessing all other qualifications can become a member of the House. The term of each member is six years and one-third of them retire every two years. The Vice-President acts as the ex-officio chairman of the House.

Powers and Functions :
The Council of States performs the following functions:

Legislative Functions :
The Rajya Sabha shares equal legislative powers with the Lok Sabha. No ordinary bill can become an Act without its approval, in case of disagreement between the two House on an ordinary, bill, the President can summon a joint sitting and decide the fate of the bill.

Financial Functions:
The House remains subordinate to the Lok Sabha in matters of money bills. No money bill can be introduced into Rajya Sabha. When a bill after approval in the Lok Sabha is sent to the Upper House for approval within a period of 14 days. The House can’t amend the money bills. It merely records its affirmation and the bill is presumed to be passed.

Executive Functions:
The Rajya Sabha cannot exercise effective control over the union government. It can’t pass a no-confidence motion against the ministry nor it can compel the ministry to resign. The ministers remain collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha. It can only raise questions and introduce motions putting the Govt, into trouble.

Amendment of the Constitution:
The Council of States participates in the amendment of the constitution. It can initiate proposals of amendment and without its approval, no portion of the constitution can be amended.

Electoral Power:
The members of the Rajya Sabha do participate in the election of the President & Vice-President of India. They also elect the Deputy Chair Person of the House and Parliamentary committees.

Judicial Powers:
The House shares equal authority with the Lok Sabha in the impeachment of the President. It also approves proposals relating to the removal of Judges of the Supreme Court and High Court.

Special Powers and Utility:
Rajya Sabha is a weaker chamber but It is not powerless. It enjoys certain special powers like;

• Approval of emergency proclamations.
• Initiating proposals for the removal of Vice-President.
• Requesting Parliament under Art-249 to make law on items of state list in the national interest and
• Initiating a proposal for the increase or decrease of posts under the cadre of All India Services.

Utility:
Rajya Sabha is a permanent chamber and it renders useful service to Parliament when Lok Sabha is dissolved. It is a House of elderly statesmen and administrators who contribute their experience toward the promotion of national interests. It relieves the burden of Lok Sabha. It defends the interests of federal units. It represents the diverse interests of the nation.  It plays a vital role as a revisory chamber. It organizes public opinion on important issues interposing delay. Therefore it can’t be considered a superfluous chamber.

Question 9.
Discuss how the Union budget is passed in the Parliament of India.
Answer:
A budget is the annual financial statement of the estimated income and expenditure of a nation. Before, the end of financial year it is the responsibility of the Union Govt. to pass the budget. The Union Finance Ministry prepares the budget and after approval of the ministry, it is introduced into the Lok Sabha with the prior permission of the President.

The Annual Budget is divided into two parts,

• Railway Budget.
• General Budget.

The Railway Minister introduces the railway budget and after 2 to 3 days the Finance Minister presents the General Budget to the Lok Sabha.

Introduction of Budget:
The Finance Minister presents the budget in the last week of February on a fixed date. While introducing the budget, he. makes a budget speech outlining die financial plans and programs of the Govt, for the ensuing year.

Budget Reactions:
After the introduction, each member is given a copy of the budget to go through the details.

General Discussion:
After 3 to 4 days after the introduction, a general1 discussion takes place. The Govt, deferred’s fiscal policies against the criticism of the opposition.

Consideration by Standing Committees:
There are 17 standing committees to review add analyze the details of the general budget. These committees play an active role in the approval of the budget. The recommendation of these committees is put into discussion in the Lok Sabha.

Voting on Demand for Grants:
Just after the general discussion voting on Demand for Grants takes place. The departmental expenditure of different departments is discussed and then put to vote. The Speaker fixes the date and time of such discussion- for each department. If any of the demand is rejected in the House then Govt has to resign.

Passing of Appropriation Bill:
After voting, on Demand for Grants the Appropriation Bill is prepared to assemble the demands passed by the House along with the expenditure charged” upon the Consolidated Fund of India. This Appropriation Bill is presented to the Lok Sabha and it passes the same stages as any other money bill. With the passage of the Appropriation Bill, the demands of expenditure of different departments are sanctioned.

Passing of Finance Bill:
The Finance Bill contains all proposals for taxation and it is presented to the House after the enactment of the Appropriation Bill. It also goes through the same procedure as in the case of a money bill. The Rajya Sabha is given a period of 14 days to approve it. After the passage of the Finance Bill, it is put to the President for signature. It marks the approval of the budget.

Vote on Account:
If for any reason the budget can’t be passed by 31st March the Govt has to seek a Favourable vote from the Parliament to incur necessary expenditures. This adhoc permission is called Vote on Account. The entire budgetary process takes a period of 75 days.

Question 10.
Discuss the organization and functions of the Odisha Legislative Assembly.
Answer:
The State Legislature in Odisha is unicameral and the Lower House is called Legislative Assembly or Vidhan Sabha. It is a representative assembly whose members are elected directly by the citizen voters of the state.

Composition:
The Odisha Legislative Assembly is composed of 147 members elected directly by the citizens on the basis of the universal adult franchise. The Constitution provides that out of seats of the State Legislative Assembly. 34 have been reserved for ST and 22 for SC candidates.

Qualification of the Members:
There are certain qualifications of the members of the State Legislative Assembly, which are as follows:

• He must be a citizen of India.
• He must have completed at least 25 years of age.
• He must not have occupied any other office of profit either under the State Government or the Central Government.

Term:
The term of the Legislative Assembly is five years. But before the completion of the term the House may also be. dissolved by the Governor on account of the failure of the political machinery of the state. Again the term of the House may also be extended another year in the time of emergency.

Functions: The various, functions of the State Legislative Assembly are discussed below.

Legislative Functions:
Formulation of laws is the primary responsibility of the legislature and the legislative assembly is the lower representative House of the citizens exercises relatively greater power in the formulation of laws. No law would be there without the knowledge of the State Legislative Assembly. All the laws relating the finances should alone be introduced in the state Legislative Assembly.

With regard to non-financial matters, the state Legislative Assembly enjoys comparatively a comfortable position. The State Legislature is entitled to formulate laws on the State list concurrent list So the legislative assembly possesses a greater role in the enactment of the laws.

Executive Functions:
The State Legislative Assembly controls the ministry. The executive collectively remains responsible and answerable to the state legislature. The ministers are selected out of the legislature. The Legislative Assembly can put the question to the ministers for their actions and if the legislature loses its faith in the executive it may initiate a no-confidence motion against the Council of Ministers by which the Council of Ministers goes out of office.

Judicial Functions:
The state Legislative Assembly also performs certain judicial functions. Particularly it acts as a judge with regard to the consideration of no-confidence motions and impeachment motions.

Financial Functions:
The Legislative Assembly being the House of popular representatives exercise absolute power over the state treasury. No single paise can be spent without the knowledge of the State Legislative Assembly. The Assembly finalizes the budget, i.e, the annual income and expenditure statement of the revenue administration of the state.

It may pass, reduce, or reject the demands for grants made in the budget. Any legislative proposal for finance must be approved by the state. The State Legislative Assembly must acknowledge all the items of expenditure other than the expenditure raised from the Consolidated Fund of India.

Electoral Function:
The Legislative Assembly also performs certain electoral functions. It participates in the election of the Speaker of the House and elects the representatives to the Council of States. The members of the State Legislative Assembly are also the members of the electoral college which participate in the election of the President of India. So the Legislative Assembly participates in the election of the President of India.

Constituent Function:
Normally the State Legislative Assembly possesses no or little power with regard to the amendment of the Constitution of India. All policy initiatives arc initiated by the Union Parliament and approved by it. But the amendments related to the election of the President of India, High Courts the representation of the States in the Parliament, and Article-368 of the Constitution, all require the ratification of at least one-half of the State, Legislatures.

Question 11.
Discuss the Composition and Functions of the State Legislative Council.
Answer:
In those states where the Legislature is bi-cameral in nature, the Upper House is called the State Legislative council or the Vidhan Parishad the lower house is the Legislative Assembly or the Vidhan Sabha. The State Legislative Council is a permanent House. Unlike the State Legislative Assembly, the members of the State Legislative Council are not directly elected by the people.

Composition:
The members of the State Legislative Council are not directly elected by the people rather its members are elected variously. The Constitution provides that the members of the State Legislative Council should not exceed the l/3rd strength of the legislative assembly. So the maximum strength of the Legislative Council should hot exceed 160 and it must not be less than 40.

There are elected as well as nominated members of the State Legislative Council. There are the following kinds of members in the State Legislative Council what the Constitution provides. One-third of its members shall be elected by the members of various local bodies i.e., Municipalities, District Boards, and other Local Bodies. One-twelfth of its members shall be elected by university graduates of not less than three years standing.

One-twelfth of its members shall be elected by the teachers not less than the standard of secondary schools. One-third of its members shall be elected by the members of the Legislative Assembly. And finally, one-sixth of its members shall be nominated by the Governor from among the persons having knowledge in the field of literature, art, or any other specialized field.

Qualification of the Members:
The Constitution provides that the members of the State Legislative Council should possess the following qualifications. ,

• He must be a citizen of India.
• He must have completed 30 years of age.
• Thirdly, the members should not hold any office of profit either under the State Government or the Central Government. If he holds such an office he must vacate at the time of election.

Tenure:
Ordinarily, the members of the State Legislative Council are elected for a period of six years. But the State Legislative Council is a permanent House and it is not subject to any dissolution. One-third of its members retire in every two years.

Powers and Functions of the Legislative Council:
The legislative Assembly which is the popular House enjoys comparatively more power than the State Legislative Council. However, it would not be assumed that the State Legislative Council doesn’t possess any power.

The following are the various powers and functions of the State Legislative Council.

Legislative Functions:
The State Legislature consists of the Legislative Assembly, the Legislative Council, and the Governor. So the Legislative Council of each and every state, where there is a bicameral legislature, participates in the affairs of formulation of laws. All kinds of bills, except money bill, may be introduced into the State Legislative Council. Again all bills which are introduced and passed by the Legislative Assembly must be sent to the Legislative Council for its assent.

The Legislative Council may or may not give its assent or may return the bill for reconsideration of the bill. But after reconsideration, the council must give its assent. But in case of any bill is rejected by the council for the second time and one month has been completed it would be presumed that the bill has been passed by the Legislative Council.

Executive Functions:
The State Legislative Council also possesses some executive or administrative functions. Unlike the Legislative Assembly, the Legislative Council cannot pursue a no-confidence motion against the Council of Ministry but it can ask questions to the minister regarding the administration of the state. It can pass also resolutions concerning the administration of the state.

Financial Functions:
The State Legislative Council enjoys comparatively less financial power than the Legislative Assembly. The Constitution provides that no financial bill can be introduced in the Legislative Council. All sorts of money bills are first introduced in the State Legislative Assembly and it can be sent to the Council for its assent. The Legislative Council may suggest change but that may or may not be accepted by the legislative assembly. The council may delay the passing of money bills up to maximum 14 days.

From the above discussions, it has become clear that the State Legislative Council enjoys less power in comparison to the State Legislative Assembly: The State Legislative Council is not only the second chamber but also the secondary chamber of the state legislature. It can be termed as the House of elders and its function is to advise and suggestions to the younger who are, strong, active and efficient. The Legislative Assembly can make or unmake everything by taking into confidence the council.

The state Legislative Council is a chamber that has been there with a view to ensuring checks The significance of the State Legislative Assembly is that it is a body of professionals having technical knowledge which represents various functional interests. Its debates are marked by higher intensity, in-depth knowledge and broad political insight. Although it has it’s technical side yet, its hand had been tied with regard to powers in comparison to State Legislative Assembly.

Question 12.
Examine the relationship between the two Houses of the State Legislature.
(Or)
Discuss the relationship between the Legislative Assembly and the Legislative Council of State.
Answer:
The Constitution of India has provided for bicameralism at the state level, though there is bicameralism only in five states. The lower chamber is called the Legislative Assembly of Vidhan Sabha while the upper chamber is known as the Legislative Councilor Vidhan Parishad. The Assembly is the popular chamber that exercises supremacy over the upper chamber.

Organization:
The Assembly has a- membership which is three times that of the membership of the Legislative Council. The Assembly is the Lower House whose members are elected directly for a term of five years. The Legislature Council is a secondary chamber whose members are elected indirectly for a term of six years.

Functions:
Not only in the organization but also in powers and functions the Lower House enjoys a place of primacy.

As regards ordinary bills:
Ordinary bills can be introduced into either House of the. The legislature and unless passed in both of them cannot become an Act. An ordinary bill passed by the Assembly when submitted to the Legislative Council. The latter can reject or approve it within three months. If the period is over even without the approval of the council the bill is supposed to have been passed in the Upper House.

‘If returned it must be’ approved within one month, Thus the Upper House can delay an ordinary bill at best for four months. It cannot prevent any bill from passing in the Assembly. But, if a bill initiated in the upper chamber is opposed by the tower one then the future of the bill is killed.

As regards money bills:
No money bill can be introduced into the Legislative Council. Only when a money bill is passed in the Lower House is submitted to the upper one, the House is given a time of 14 days to give its opinion on the bill. If the period elapses then the bill is supposed to have been passed. The Council can not amend money bills or proposals of taxation.

Control over executive:
The Lower House of the legislature exercises controls over the state council of ministers. The ministers remain accountable to the Assembly and if necessary it can pass a vote of no-confidence and force the ministry to resign, But the Legislative Council has no such control over the executive. It cannot drive the ministers out.

Other Spheres:

• The Assembly participates in the election of the President of India, but the council does not.
• The Assembly can participate in constitutional amendments, but the council can’t.
• The debates and deliberations of the Lower House attract public attention, but no such attention is given to the discussions of the Lower House.
• Therefore, the Legislative Council is considered not only a second chamber but also a secondary one. It does not obstruct the Assembly in its business.

Odisha State Board CHSE Odisha Class 11 Political Science Solutions Unit 4 Constitution at Work-I Objective Questions and Answers.

CHSE Odisha 11th Class Political Science Unit 4 Constitution at Work-I Objective Questions

Multiple Choice Questions With Answers

Question 1.
How many members are there in the election commission of India?
(a) one
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) Five
Answer:
(c) Three

Question 2.
Which article of the constitutions of India deals with Election Commission?
(a) Art. 248
(b) Art. 268
(c) Art. 348
(d) Art. 324
Answer:
(d) Art. 324

Question 3.
How many members were there in the Election Commission of India where the Indian Constitution came into force?
(a) one
(b) two
(c) three
(d) four
Answer:
(a) one

Question 4.
In which year did membership of the election commission increase?
(a) 1977
(b) 1981
(c) 1985
(d) 1989
Answer:
(d) 1989

Question 5.
Who appoints the members of the Election commission?
(a) President of India
(b) Prime minister of India
(c) Parliament of India
(d) Council ministers
Answer:
(a) President of India

Question 6.
When the members of the election commission retire from service?
(a) At the age of 60 years
(b) At the age of 65 years
(c) At the age of 62 years
(d) At the age of 70 years
Answer:
(b) At the age of 65 years

Question 7.
Which type of representation is never seen in a democracy?
(a) Propositional Representation
(b) Universal suffrage
(c) Minority representation
(d) Communal representation
Answer:
(d) Communal representation

Question 8.
To which of the following offices the Election Commission does not conduct polls?
(a) President & Vice President
(b) Loksabha & Rajya Sabha
(c) Legislative Assembly Members
(d) Members of Municipality
Answer:
(d) Members of Municipality

Question 9.
From which year electronic voting. machine (EVM) was introduced in General Election?
(a) January 15, 1990
(b) March 15, 1989
(c) April 15, 1996
(d) February 15, 1998
Answer:
(b) March 15, 1989

Question 10.
When the campaigning for election ends?
(a) 24 hours before the poll
(b) 48 hours before the poll
(c) 24 hours before the end of the poll
(d) 48 hours before the end of the poll
Answer:
(d) 48 hours before the end of the poll

Question 11.
What percentage of vote does a candidate need to secure so that his security deposit will not be forfeited?
(a) One third
(b) One fourth
(c) One fifth
(d) One-sixth of the valid votes.
Answer:
(d) One-sixth of the valid votes.

Question 12.
Who among the following is a supporter of universal suffrage?
(a) J.S. Mill
(b) II.J. Laski
(c) Sir Henry Maine
(d) Blantschli
Ans.
(b) II.J. Laski

Question 13.
Electoral reforms have been introduced on the recommendation of which commission?
(a) Savalwal Committee
(b) Sindhi Committee
(c) Dinesh Goswamy Committee
(d) Virappa moilee Committee
Answer:
(c) Dinesh Goswamy Committee

Question 14.
On whose name the bills are introduced into the Parliament?
(a) President of India
(b) Prime Minister
(c) Speaker
(d) Departmental Minister
Ans.
(a) President of India

Question 15.
What is the tenure of Lok Sabha?
(a) five years
(b) four years
(c) six years
(d) none of these
Answer:
(a) five years

Question 16.
Who nominates the 12 members of Rajyasabha
(a) President of India
(b) Chairman of Rajya Sabha
(c) Members of Rajya Sabha
(d) Prime Minister
Answer:
(a) President of India

Question 17.
Who initiates money bill in the Lok Sabha?
(a) President of India
(b) Prime Minister
(c) Finance Minister of India
(d) Speaker of Lok Sabha
Answer:
(c) Finance Minister of India

Question 18.
How many seats are reserved for SC and ST in the Lok Sabha?
(a) 79 and 40
(b) 75 and 51
(c) 34 and 22
(d) 85 and 47
Answer:
(a) 79 and 40

Question 19.
What is the term of office of a Member of the Rajya Sabha?
(a) 5 years
(b) 6 years
(c) 4 years
(d) permanent
Answer:
(b) 6 years

Question 20.
Through which motion the President can be removed from office?
(a) No – confidence motion
(b) Censure motion
(c) Impeachment
(d) Exit motion
Answer:
(c) Impeachment

Question 21.
What is the minimum age qualification for membership of LokSabha?
(a) 25 years
(b) 30 years
(c) 35 years
(d) 21 years
Answer:
(a) 25 years

Question 22.
How many states of India have bicameral legislature?
(a) five
(b) six
(c) ten
(d) seven
Answer:
(a) five

Question 23.
Which one is not a function of the legislature?
(a) Enactment of Law
(b) Amendment of the Constitution
(c) Preparation of budget
(d) Ventilation of public grievances
Answer:
(c) Preparation of budget

Question 24.
How the Legislature controls the executive?
(a) By passing a no-confidence motion
(b) By putting questions to the ministers
(c) By initiation cut motion
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above

Question 25:
Which is the most powerful organ of Govt, in India?
(a) Executive
(b) Parliament
(c) Supreme Court
(d) Bureaucracy
Answer:
(b) Parliament

Question 26.
Which is the exclusive power of Rajya Sabha?
(a) To initiate money bills
(b) To initiate proposals for the removal of the President
(c) To initiate proposals for the removal of the Vice President
(d) To initiate proposals for the removal of the comptroller Auditor-General
Answer:
(c) To initiate proposals for the removal of the Vice President

Question 27.
On whose recommendation posts under All India Services can be increased or decreased?
(a) Lok Sabha
(b) Rajya Sabha
(c) Supreme Court
(d) Cabinet Sub-Committee
Answer:
(b) Rajya Sabha

Question 28.
What constitutes the Quorum of the LokSabha?
(a) l/5th of the total membership
(b) l/6th of the total membership
(c) l/10thof-total membership
(d) l/20th of the total membership
Answer:
(c) l/10thof-total membership

Question 29.
Who presides over the joint sitting of the Parliament?
(a) President of India
(b) Prime Minister of India
(c) Vice President
(d) Speaker of Lok Sabha
Answer:
(d) Speaker of Lok Sabha

Question 30.
What is the maximum strength of a Legislative Assembly?
(a) 485
(b) 450
(c) 500
(d) 600
Answer:
(c) 500

Question 31.
The Union Council of Ministers is responsible to
(a) Lok Sabha
(b) Rajya Sabha
(c) Union Parliament .
(d) President of India
Answer:
(a) Lok Sabha

Question 32.
Who prorogues the session of Parliament?
(a) Speaker of Lok Sabhas
(b) Prime Minister
(c) President
(d) Vice President
Answer:
(c) President

Question 33.
A money bill is introduced into?
(a) The Lok Sabha
(b) The Rajya Sabha
(c) Into either House of Parliament
(d) Union Cabinet
Answer:
(a) The Lok Sabha

Question 34.
Which House can initiate proposals of amendment?
(a) Lok Sabha
(b) Rajya Sabha
(c) Either Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha
(d) State Legislative Assembly
Answer:
(c) Either Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha

Question 35.
The Rajya Sabha is
(a) The Second Chamber of Parliament
(b) The Upper House of Parliament
(c) A Permanent Chamber
(d) All the above
Answer:
(d) All the above

Question 36.
Who acts as a link between the President and Union Parliament?
(a) Prime Minister
(b) Vice President
(c) Home Minister
(d) Speaker of Lok Sabha
Answer:
(d) Speaker of Lok Sabha

Question 37.
Who protects the privileges of members of Parliament?
(a) President
(b) Vice President
(c) Prime Minister
(d) Speaker
Answer:
(d) Speaker

Question 38.
Which is not a duty of the Speaker of Lok Sabha?
(a) To maintain discipline
(b) To interpret the rules of business of the House.
(c) To introduce bills
(d) To certify the money bills
Answer:
(c) To introduce bills

Question 39.
On whose recommendation the Governor dissolves the State Legislative Assembly?
(a) Prime Minister
(b) chief minister
(c) President
(d) State Council of Minister
Answer:
(c) President

Question 40.
On which items the State Legislature can make law?
(a) State List
(b) State List & Concurrent List
(c) Union List and State List
(d) State List and residuary matters
Answer:
(d) State List and residuary matters

Question 41.
How many S.C. and S.T. members are there in the Odisha Legislative Assembly?
(a) 22 and 34
(b) 34 and 22
(c) 32 and 24
(d) 24 and 32
Answer:
(a) 22 and 34

Question 42.
What is the strength of Odisha Vidhan Sabha?
(a) 155
(b) 165
(c) 149
(d) 147
Answer:
(d) 147

Question 43.
How many members represent Odisha in the Lok Sabha?
(a) Ten
(b) Twenty
(c) Twenty one
(d) Twenty-five
Answer:
(c) Twenty one

Question 44.
What is the term of the Legislative Assembly?
(a) five years
(b) six years
(c) one year
(d) four years
Answer:
(a) five years

Question 45.
Out of the 21 seats how many seats are reserved for SC and ST candidates representing Odisha in the Lok Sabha?
(a) 3 and 4
(b) 3 and 5
(c) 4 and 5
(d) 5 and 7
Answer:
(b) 3 and 5

Question 46.
When does the question hour start?
(a) 10 AM to 11 AM
(b) 11 AM to 12 Noon
(c) 12 Noon to 1 PM
(d) 4 PM to 5 PM
Answer:
(d) 4 PM to 5 PM

Question 47.
When the zero-hour starts?
(a) 9AMto 10 AM
(b) 10 AM to 11 AM
(c) 11 AM to 12 Noon
(d) 12 Noon to 1 PM
Answer:
(d) 12 Noon to 1 PM

Question 48.
Out of 147 members in Odisha Vidhan Sabha how many seats are reserved for SC and ST candidates?
(a) 23 and 27
(b) 21 and 25
(c) 23 and 34
(d) 27 and 39
Answer:
(c) 23 and 34

Question 49.
Who presides over the meeting of the Rajya Sabha?
(a) President of India
(b) Vice President
(c) Speaker
(d) Home Minister
Answer:
(b) Vice President

Question 50.
What is the maximum strength of Lok Sabha?
(a) 547
(b) 545
(c) 550
(d) 552
Answer:
(d) 552

Question 51.
When does the financial year start?
(a) January 1st
(b) March 1st
(c) April 1st
(d) June 1st
Answer:
(c) April 1st

Question 52.
Who certifies whether a bill is a money bill or not?
(a) President of India
(b) Speaker of Loksabha
(c) Finance Minister
(d) Prime Minister
Answer:
(b) Speaker of Loksabha

Question 53.
Who convinces the sessions of Parliament?
(a) President of India
(b) Prime Minister
(c) Speaker
(d) Secretary of Loksabha
Answer:
(a) President of India

Question 54.
In which part of the constitution there is mention of the election commission?
(a) Part-VIII
(b) Part – XI
(c) Part – XIV
(d) Part-XV
Answer:
(d) Part-XV

Question 55.
By which amendment Act the voting age of voters is reduced from 21 to 18 years?
(a) 59th
(b) 60th
(c) 61st
(d) 62nd
Answer:
(c) 61st

Answer the following questions in one word or digit

Question 1.
Who was the first Chief Election Commissioner of India?
Answer:
Sukumar Sen

Question 2.
Who is responsible for conducting a free and fair pool in India?
Answer:
Election Commission of India.

Question 3.
From which year EVMs are being used in Elections?
Answer:
14th March 1989

Question 4.
How many proposers and seconders sign the presidential nomination?
Answer:
50 and 50

Question 5.
For which posts direct election is held in India?
Answer:
Membership of Loksabha and Vidhansabha

Question 6.
For which posts indirect election is held?
Answer:
President, Vice-President’ & Rajya Sabha members.

Question 7.
From which date the voting age of voters is reduced from 21 to 18 years?
Answer:
21st March 1989.

Question 8.
What is the tenure of office of the members of the Election Commission?
Answer:
6 yrs or attaining 65 yrs which is earlier.

Question 9.
Which chamber of the legislature safeguards the interests of a federation?
Answer:
Upper Chamber

Question 10.
Which one is the primary organ of government?
Answer:
Legislature

Question 11.
The council Ministers in a parliamentary system remain answerable to which house of the legislature?
Answer:
Lower

Question 12.
From which word has the term Parliament has been derived?
Answer:
Latin word ‘Parle’

Question 13.
How many nominated members are there in the Rajya Sabha?
Answer:
12

Question 14.
How many members of Loksabha represent the Union Territories?
Answer:
13

Question 15.
Besides the Union List on which list can, the Parliament make law during normalcy?
Answer:
Concurrent List

Question 16.
By which power, the President can return an ordinary bill back to the Parliament for reconsideration?
Answer:
Suspensive Veto

Question 17.
Who gives the certificate to a money bill?
Answer:
Speaker

Question 18.
Who presides over the Rajya Sabha?
Answer:
Vice President

Question 19.
Who elects the members of the Rajya Sabha?
Answer:
Members of Vidhan Sabha

Question 20.
When was the first election to the Parliament in India held?
Answer:
1952

Question 21.
Who reads out the Oath of office and secrecy to the members of the Rajya Sabha?
Answer:
Chairman or Vice Chairman of the house

Question 22.
Which house of parliament can initiate proposals for the removal of the Vice President?
Answer:
Upper House

Question 23.
Which house of parliament initiates A confidence motion against the union council ministers
Answer:
LokSabha

Question 24:
For how many days can the Rajya Sabha detain a money bill?
Answer:
14 days.

Question 25.
Who acts is the leader of Lok Sabha?
Answer:
Prime Minister

Question 26.
Who acts as a link between the Parliament and President?
Answer:
Speaker

Question 27.
Who introduces the Annual Budget into the Lok Sabha?
Answer:
Finance Minister of India

Question 28.
For how many days the Rajya Sabha can delay an ordinary bill?
Answer:
Six Months

Question 29.
What is the hour just after the question hour is called?
Answer:
Zero hour

Question 30.
Who exercises casting vote in case of a tie?
Answer:
Speaker

Question 31.
Can there be a joint sitting for a constitutional amendment bill?
Answer:
No

Question 32.
Which constitutional authority can enhance the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court?
Answer:
Parliament

Question 33.
When the Lok Sabha is dissolved who approves the emergency proclamations?
Answer:
Rajya Sabha

Question 34.
Who Presides over the Lok Sabha during the absence of the Speaker?
Answer:
Deputy Speaker

Question 35.
What is the maximum limit of expenditure of a member of Lok Sabha during elections?
Answer:
25 lakhs

Question 36.
What is the maximum election expenditure limit of a member of Vidhan Sabha?
Answer:
15 lakhs

Question 37.
In which court of law the electoral disputes between the President and Vice President are settled?
Answer:
Supreme Court of India

Question 38.
In which court of law the electoral disputes of MPs and MLAs are settled?
Answer:
High Court

Question 39.
What is the amount of security deposit a presidential candidate must pledge?
Answer:
Rs. 15,000/

Question 40.
Who reads the oath of office of the member of parliament?
Answer:
President of India or his representative

Question 41.
What is the amount of the MP LAD fund?
Answer:
Rs.5 crores

Question 42.
What is the amount of the MLA LAD fund?
Answer:
One crore

Question 43.
How many members are there in the Rajya Sabha?
Answer:
233+12 = 245

Question 44.
When does the financial year start?
Answer:
April 1st

Question 45.
By which motion, the Union Council of ministry can be removed?
Answer:
No confidence motion.

Question 46.
Who casts the casting vote in case of a tie in the Loksabha?
Answer:
Speaker of Loksabha

Question 47.
What is the monthly salary of the Vice President?
Answer:
Rs. 1,25,000

Question 48.
What is the constitutional name of the budget?
Answer:
Annual Financial Statement

Fill in the blanks

1. Free and fair elections are indispensable for a ____ state.
Answer: Democracy.

2.The Indian constitution under Art._____ provides for an election commission.
Answer: Art. 324.

3. The membership of the election commission has increased to three from _____ general election.
Answer: Xth.

4. The tenure of office of the election commission is ____ years.
Answer: Six.

5. The members of the election commission retire at the age of ______ years.
Answer: 65.

6. The Chief Election Commissioner can be removed from office on the ground of _____.
Answer: Proved misbehavior and incapacity.

7._____ removes the members of the Election Commission?
Answer: President.

8. Seats have been reserved for the SC and STs in the Loksabha under Art. ______
Answer: Art. 330.

9. Under Art. _____ spats have been reserved for SC and ST candidates in the Vidhansabha.
Answer: Art. 332.

10. The president nominates two members from Anglo Indian Community to the Loksabha under Art._______
Answer: Art. 331.

11.______ Allots symbols to different political parties.
Answer: Election Commission.

12. Art. _____ provides for a joint sitting of the parliament.
Answer: Art. 108.

13. The Legislative Council can be created or abolished under Art. ______ of the constitution?
Answer: Art. 169.

14.Art._____ provides for consolidated fund of India.
Answer: Art. 266.

15. The constitution under Art. ______ provides for the emergency funds of India.
Answer: Art. 267.

16.______ sanctions fund out of the contingency fund of India.
Answer: President of India.

17. The parliament consists of the Loksabha. The Rajyasabha and the _____.
Answer: President of India.

18. Odisha sends ____ members to Rajyasabha.
Answer: 10.

19. The maximum strength, of Loksabha, is ____.
Answer: 552.

20. The maximum strength of the Rajya Sabha is _____.
Answer: 250.

21._____ members from Odisha represent the Parliament.
Answer: 31.

22. The members of Rajya Sabha are ____ elected.
Answer: Indirectly.

23. The minimum age of a member of Lok Sabha is _____ years.
Answer: 25 years.

24. A member of the Rajya Sabha must be above _____ years of age.
Answer: 30.

25. One-third members of the Rajya Sabha retire every ____ years
Answer: Two.

26. Rajya Sabha can detain an ordinary bill for not more than ______.
Answer: Six months.

27. Money bills are introduced into the ______.
Answer: Lok Sabha.

28.No Money Bill can be introduced into the Parliament without ______.
Answer: Prior permission of the President.

29.The Lok Sabha represents ___SC and ___ST candidates.
Answer: 79 & 40.

30. ______ is the Presiding Officer of the Lok Sabha.
Answer: Speaker.

31. The Lok Sabha is summoned for at least a ____ year.
Answer: Twice.

32. The ______ casts his vote in case of a tie.
Answer: Speaker.

33. So far National Emergency has been declared in India for _____ times.
Answer: Three.

34. The Lok Sabha can be dissolved by the _____ on the advice, of the-Prime Minister.
Answer: President.

35. The _____ can initiate proposals for the removal of the Vice-President.
Answer: Rajya Sabha.

36.No confidence motion is introduced only in the ______ house of parliament.
Answer: Lower.

37. Indian Parliament is ______.
Answer: Bicameral.

38._____ is the federal chamber of the Union Parliament.
Answer: Rajya Sabha.

39. The last National Emergency in India is declared on the ground of ______.
Answer: Internal disturbance.

40.______ is the final authority to decide on the disqualification of a member.
Answer: Speaker.

41. The President nominates ______ members from the Anglo-Indian Community to the Lok Sabha if the said community has not been adequately represented in the House.
Answer: Two.

42. The Indian President exercises only _____ veto power.
Answer: Suspensive.

43. The Quorum of the Lok Sabha is ______ of the total membership.
Answer: One-tenth.

44._____ was the only Prime Minister of India who never faced the Parliament.
Answer: Charan Singh.

45._____ members of the Rajya Sabha are elected.
Answer: 238.

46. The Union Territories represent ______ members to the Upper House.
Answer: Six.

47. Proposals of the constitutional amendment are initiated by _______ house of parliament.
Answer:
Either.

48. Under Art _____the Rajya Sabha can pass a resolution and empower the Parliament to create or abolish All India Services.
Answer: 249.

49. A legislative proposal before final approval is known as _______.
Answer: Bill.

50. All money bills are _______ bills.
Answer: Public.

51. The President of India can not withhold assent to a ______bill.
Answer: Money.

52. There is a bicameral legislature in ______ states of India.
Answer: Five.

53. The state legislature in Orissa is ______.
Answer: Unicameral.

54. The second chamber of the State Legislature in India is known as _____.
Answer: Vidhan Parishad.

55. The Presiding officer of the state legislative council is known as ______.
Answer: Chairman.

56. A member of the Legislative Council must be above years of age.
Answer: 30.

57. The legislative Council can delay an ordinary bill for a maximum period of ______.
Answer: Four months.

58. A member of the State Legislative Assembly must be not less than _____ years of age.
Answer: 25.

59. The Speaker of the Legislative Assembly determines the agenda in consultation with the ______.
Answer: Chief Minister.

60. The maximum strength of the Odisha Legislative Assembly is ______.
Answer:147.

61.Out of 147 members _____ seats have been reserved for the SC and ______seats for ST candidates.
Answer:23 and 34.

62. Provision for the creation of abolition of the Legislative Council has been mentioned under Art. ______ of the Constitution.
Answer:169.

63. The members of the State Legislative Council are ______ elected.
Answer: Indirectly.

64. The second chamber of the state legislature can retain money bills for ______ days.
Answer:14 days.

65._____ legislature is suitable for a small & poor country.
Answer: Unicameral.

66. The term of the Indian Parliament is ______.
Answer:5 years.

67. There are ______ Scheduled Caste and Scheduled Tribe members in the Lok Sabha from Odisha.
Answer:3 and 5.

68. There ____ SC and _____ ST members in the Lok Sabha.
Answer:79 and 40.

69. The Speaker of Lok sabha gets a monthly salary of _____ rupees.
Answer:55,000.

70. Odisha Vidhansabha is _____ in structure.
Answer: Unicameral.

71. The second chamber of the state legislature is called ______.
Answer: Vidhan Parishad

72. A _______ legislature is useful for a federal state.
Answer: Bicameral.

73. Under Art. ______ the Rajya Sabha can recommend the creation of posts for All India Services.
Answer:312.

74. The Legislative Council should not have less than _____ members.
Answer:40.

75. Money bills are introduced into the Lok Sabha as per Art. ______.
Answer:109 .

76. Railway budget is being introduced separately from the year_______.
Answer:1925.

77. Art. ______ provides for a vote on Account.
Answer:116.

78.Art._____ of the constitution deals with state legislature.
Answer:168.

79. The minimum age required for membership in Vidhansabha is _____.
Answer:25 yrs.

80. Universal franchise is extended under Art. ______.
Answer: Art. 326.

81. Anybody contesting for membership in Lok Sabha has to deposit _______ rupees as a security deposit.
Answer:10,000.

82. Anybody contesting for a seat in the Vidhan Sabha has to deposit Rs. _______ as security.
Answer:5000.

Odisha State Board CHSE Odisha Class 11 Biology Solutions Chapter 22 Chemical Coordination and Regulation Textbook Questions and Answers.

CHSE Odisha 11th Class Biology Chapter 22 Question Answer Chemical Coordination and Regulation

Chemical Coordination and Regulation Class 11 Questions and Answers CHSE Odisha

Multiple Choices Questions

Question 1.
Banting and Best (1921) established that:
(a) Deficiency of thyroxine causes hypothyroidism
(b) Oversecretion of cortisol causes Cushing’s syndrome
(c) Deficiency of insulin causes hyperglycemia
(d) Oversecretion of growth hormone causes gigantism
Answer:
(c) Deficiency of insulin causes hyperglycemia

Question 2.
Which one of the facts about hormones is correct?
(a) Hormones are proteins
(b) Hormones are released into the blood
(c) Hormones have no specific targets
(d) Hormones are secreted by exocrine glands
Answer:
(b) Hormones are released into the blood

Question 3.
Which one of the following is not true?
(a) Steroid hormones act through second messengers
(b) Glycoprotein hormones include TSH, FSH and LH
(c) Epinephrine and norepinephrine are catecholamines
(d) Sertoli cells secrete androgen binding protein
Answer:
(a) Steroid hormones act through second messengers

Question 4.
Which of the following statements about the hypothalamic releasing and release-inhibiting hormones is true?
(a) They are secreted into capillaries in the median eminence
(b) They are transported by portal veins to the anterior pituitary
(c) They stimulate the secretion of specific hormones from the anterior pituitary
(d) All of the above are true
Answer:
(d) All of the above are true

Question 5.
The hormone primarily responsible for increasing the basal metabolic rate and promoting the maturation of the brain is:
(a) Cortisol
(b) ACTH
(c) TSH
(d) Thyroxine
Answer:
(d) Thyroxine

Question 6.
Which of the following statements about adrenal cortex is true?
(a) It is not innervated by nerve fibers
(b) It secretes some androgens
(c) The zona glomerulosa secretes aldosterone
(d) The zona fasciculata is stimulated by ACTH
(e) All of these are true
Answer:
(b) It secretes some androgens

Question 7.
Which of the following statements about insulin is true?
(a) It is secreted by alpha cells of islet of Langerhans
(b) It is secreted in response to a rise in blood glucose concentration
(c) It stimulates the synthesis of glycogen and fat
(d) Both (a) and (b) are true
(e) Both (b) and (c) are true
Answer:
(e) Both (b) and (c) are true

Question 8.
Steroid hormones are secreted by
(a) Only Adrenal cortex
(b) Only Gonads
(c) Only Thyroid
(d) Both (a) and (b)
(e) Both (b) and (c)
Answer:
(d) Both (a) and (b)

Question 9.
The secretion of which of the following hormones will be augmented in a person with endemic goiter.
(a) TSH
(b) Thyroxine
(c) Triiodothyronine
(d) All of these
Answer:
(a) TSH

Question 10.
Which of these hormones uses cAMP as a second messenger?
(a) Testosterone
(b) Cortisol
(c) Insulin
(d) Epinephrine
Answer:
(c) Insulin

Question 11.
Which of these hormones may have a role in circadian rhythm.
(a) Estradiol
(b) Insulin
(b) ACTH
(d) Melatonin
Answer:
(d) Melatonin

Question 12.
Which one of the following about ACTH is true ?
(a) It stimulates the entire adrenal cortex
(b) It stimulates zona glomerulosa only
(c) It stimulates both zona fasciculata and reticularis
(d) It stimulates zona reticularis only
Answer:
(c) It stimulates both zona fasciculata and reticularis

Question 13.
Which one of the following statements is false?
(a) Corpus luteum secretes progesterone
(b) Progesterone maintains pregnancy
(c) FSH stimulates interstitial cells of Leydig
(d) Sertoli cells are somatic cells, secreting androgen binding protein
Answer:
(c) FSH stimulates interstitial cells of Leydig

Question 14.
Granulosa cells secrete:
(a) Cortisol
(b) Estradiol
(c) Testosterone
(d) Progesterone
Answer:
(b) Estradiol

Question 15.
Which of the following is correct?
(a) T₄ changes into T₃ in the target cell
(b) T₃ changes into T₄ in the target cell
(c) T₃ and T₄ act as such on target cell
(d) T₃ changes into T₄ and vice-versa in the target cells
Answer:
(a) T₄ changes into T₃ in the target cell

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Express the following statements in one word.

Question 1.
The study of glands secreting hormones and their functions.
Answer:
Endocrinology

Question 2.
The part of the brain that secretes the releasing and release-inhibiting hormones.
Answer:
Hypothalamus

Question 3.
The stalk that attaches the pituitary with the hypothalamus.
Answer:
Infundibulum

Question 4.
The part of the hypothalamus, where the primary capillary plexus is present.
Answer:
Median eminence

Question 5.
The division of the anterior pituitary that secretes the tropic hormones.
Answer:
Adenohypophysis

Question 6.
The hormone, which acts on the renal tubule and promotes the absorption of water.
Answer:
Vasopressin

Question 7.
The hormone that regulates the height before adolescence.
Answer:
Growth hormone

Question 8.
The hormone that promotes early stages of gametogenesis.
Answer:
Testosterone

Question 9.
The hormone that promotes the development of breasts.
Answer:
Estradiol

Question 10.
The hormone that acts on the smooth muscle of uterus and facilitates the birth of a baby.
Answer:
Oxytocin

Question 11.
The blood vessel that carries the releasing, release-inhibiting hormones from the hypothalamus to the anterior pituitary.
Answer:
Hypothalamoportal vessel

Question 12.
The iodinated glycoprotein present in the colloid of the thyroid.
Answer:
Thyroglobulin

Question 13.
Hypothyroidism in children with severe mental retardation.
Answer:
Cretinism

Question 14.
Hyperthyroidism, which is caused by auto-immune attack
Answer:
Graves disease

Question 15.
The hormone that stimulates the interstitial cells of the gonads.
Answer:
Luteinizing hormone

Question 16.
A synonym for adrenal gland.
Answer:
Triple F gland

Question 17.
The cortical steroid hormone that regulates mineral metabolism.
Answer:
Aldosterone

Question 18.
The pathological condition in which inadequate glucocorticoids and mineralocorticoid fail to negatively feedback the secretion of ACTH from the anterior pituitary.
Answer:
Cushing’s syndrome

Question 19.
The hormone that fluctuates in its concentration, when one flies different time zones.
Answer:
Melatonin

Question 20.
The formation of glucose from non-carbohydrates.
Answer:
Gluconeogenesis

Question 21.
Breakdown of glycogen into glucose.
Answer:
Glycogenolysis

Question 22.
The interstitial cells that secrete androgens.
Answer:
Leydigs cell

Question 23.
The graafian follicle turns into a progesterone secreting endocrine structure following ovulation.
Answer:
Corpus luteum

Question 24.
The phenotypic characters, which identify the sex of the individual.
Answer:
Secondary sexual characters

Question 25.
A collective name for adrenal medullary hormones.
Answer:
Catecholamines

Correct the sentences without changing the works underlined.

Question 1.
Thyroid stimulating hormone is an amine hormone.
Answer:
The hormone secreted by thyroid is amine hormone.

Question 2.
Posterior pituitary (neurohypophysis) originates from neural ectoderm.
Answer:
Anterior pituitary (adenohypophysis) originates from neural ectoderm.

Question 3.
Pars tuberalis secretes all the tropic hormones of the anterior pituitary.
Answer:
Pars distalis secretes all the tropic hormones of the anterior pituitary.

Question 4.
Pituitary is attached to the hypothalumus.
Answer:
Pituitary is attached to the hypothalumus.

Question 5.
Growth hormone induces hyperglycemia.
Answer:
Calcitonin and epineprine induces hyperglycemia.

Question 6.
Growth hormone excess in ah adult human causes gigantism.
Answer:
Growth hormone excess in an adult human causes acromegaly.

Question 7.
Prolactin induces milk ejection.
Answer:
Prolactin induces milk formation.

Question 8.
Adrenocorticotropic hormone acts on adrenal gland.
Answer:
Adrenocorticotropic hormone acts on adrenal cortex.

Question 9.
Deficiency of antidiuretic hormone causes diabetes mellitus.
Answer:
Deficiency of antidiuretic hormone causes diabetes insipidus.

Question 10.
Releasing inhibiting hormones are secreted from the posterior pituitary.
Answer:
Releasing inhibiting hormones are secreted from the anterior pituitary.

Question 11.
Calcitonin is secreted from the parathyroid gland.
Answer:
Calcitonin is secreted from the thyroid gland.

Question 12.
Alpha cells of islet of Langerhans secrete somatostatin.
Answer:
Delta cells of islet of Langerhans secrete somatostatin.

Question 13.
Adrenocorticotropic hormone acts on zona glomerulosa and promotes the secretion of aldosterone.
Answer:
Adrenocorticotropic hormone acts on zona fasciculata and zona reticularis of the adrenal cortex to secrete cortisol.

Question 14.
Cortisol and epinephrine are hyperglycemic by promoting gluconeogenesis and glycogenolysis, respectively.
Answer:
Cortisol and epinephrine are hyperglycemic by promoting gluconeogenesis and hepatic glycogenolysis, respectively.

Question 15.
Cells of the adrenal cortex are called chromaffin cells.
Answer:
Cell of the adrenal medulla are called chromaffin cells.

Question 16.
Day light induces the pineal gland to secrete less melatonin.
Answer:
Day light stimulus decreases the sympathetic stimulation of Pineal gland.

Question 17.
Sertoli cells secrete androgens.
Answer:
Interstitial cells secrete androgens.

Question 18.
Granulosa cells of the ovary secrete estrogens.
Answer:
Granulosa cells of the ovary secrete estrogens and inhibin.

Question 19.
Steroid hormones use the second messenger mechanism in their action on target cells.
Answer:
Protein hormones use the second messenger mechanism in their action on target cells.

Question 20.
Dwarfism is a consequence of prolactin deficiency before adolescence.
Answer:
Dwarfism is a consequence of growth hormone deficiency before adolescence.

Question 21.
Deficiency of dietary iodine causes thyrotoxicosis.
Answer:
Deficiency of dietary iodine causes endemic goiter.

Fill in the blanks

Question 1.
The active substance from the small intestine that stimulated the release of pancreatic juice was discovered by ……………. and ……………. in 1902.
Answer:
William M Bayliss, Earnest H starling

Question 2.
The word hormone was used by ……………. in 1905 for the active substance, secretin.
Answer:
Starling

Question 3.
Glycoprotein hormones include ……………. FSH and LH.
Answer:
TSH

Question 4.
Epinephrine and norepinephrine together constitute a group of hormones, known as ……………… .
Answer:
Catecholamines

Question 5.
All steroid hormones are derived from the parent compound, ……………. .
Answer:
Cholesterol

Question 6.
The role of 3,5 cAMP as a second messenger in the mechanism of hormone action was suggested by ……………. .
Answer:
Sutherland

Question 7.
Some hormones act through cell membrane receptors that stimulate adenylate cyclase activity and formation of ……………. .
Answer:
cAMP

Question 8.
The pituitary gland is attached to the floor of a part of fore brain, known as ……………. .
Answer:
hypothalamus

Question 9.
The pituitary is constituted by adenohypophysis and ……………. .
Answer:
neurohypophysis

Question 10.
The anterior pituitary is regulated by ……………. a part of the diencephalon.
Answer:
Hypothalamus

Question 11.
Adrenal medulla is constituted by cells that stain with chromates and hence are known as ……………. cells.
Answer:
Chromaffin cells

Question 12.
Posterior pituitary secretes two hormones, namely ……………. and ……………. .
Answer:
oxytocin, vasopressin

Question 13.
The group of hormones that binds to nuclear receptors is derived from the parent compound, ……………. .
Answer:
cholesterol

Question 14.
Tropic hormones are secreted from ……………. of the anterior pituitary.
Answer:
Pars distalis

Question 15.
The hormone, ……………. promotes breast development in female.
Answer:
estrogen

Question 16.
Oversecretion of growth hormone in adults causes an abnormality, known as ……………. .
Answer:
Acromegaly

Question 17.
ACTH is formed from a larger polypeptide, known as ……………. .
Answer:
Proopiomelanocortin

Question 18.
FSH stimulates the Sertoli cells to synthesise androgen binding protein and two hormones, namely inhibin and ……………. .
Answer:
activins

Question 19.
During development, the regression of mullerian ducts occur in the male by a hormone called antimullerian hormone. This hormone is secreted from the ……………. cells of the testis.
Answer:
Sertoli cells

Question 20.
The hormone ……………. is responsible for the ejection of milk from the breast of the lactating mother.
Answer:
Oxytocin

Question 21.
The growth promoting effects of growth hormone are mediated by ……………. polypeptides synthesised by the liver cells under its influence.
Answer:
IFG-I like

Question 22.
Delta cells of the pancreas synthesise ……………. which acts as growth hormone inhibiting hormone.
Answer:
Somatostatin

Question 23.
Parafollicular cells of the thyroid gland secrete a hormone, known as ……………. .
Answer:
Calcitonin

Question 24.
The iodinated glycoprotein present in the thyroid follicle is known as ……………. .
Answer:
Thyroglobulin

Question 25.
Interstitial cells of the testis are the targets of action of ……………. .
Answer:
FSH

Question 26.
Blood calcium level is monitored by hormones ……………. and ……………. .
Answer:
Calcitonin, parathyroid hormone

Question 27.
The releasing and inhibiting hormones of the hypothalamus act on the anterior pituitary via a blood vessel, known as ……………. .
Answer:
Hypophyseal portal vein

Question 28.
Alpha cells of .the pancreatic islets secrete a hormone, known as ……………. .
Answer:
glucagon

Question 29.
Over secretion of thyroid hormones causes an abnormality of the thyroid, known as ……………. .
Answer:
Hyper thyroidism

Question 30.
The enzyme ……………. catalyses the conversion of ATP into 3,5 cyclic AMP.
Answer:
adenylate cyclase

Question 31.
Estrogens are secreted by ……………. cells of the ovary.
Answer:
granulosa cells

Question 32.
Corpus luteum is an important source of a steroid hormone, ……………. .
Answer:
progesterone

Question 33.
Day night cycle is regulated by a hormone ……………. secreted from ……………. .
Answer:
melatonin, pineal gland

Question 34.
……………. has been designated as emergency hormone.
Answer:
Adrenaline

Question 35.
Inadequate secretion of both glucocorticoids and mineral ocorticoids from the adrenal cortex causes-a disease, known as ……………. .
Answer:
Addison’s disease

Question 36.
During stress, the immune system is suppressed by the hormone ……………. .
Answer:
Glucocorticoids

Question 37.
There is an insulin insufficiency in ……………. diabetes mellitus.
Answer:
Type I

Question 38.
Severe retardation of the nervous system in children due to a lack of thyroid hormones has been identified as ……………. .
Answer:
Cretinism

Question 39.
Excess release of ……………. can lead to water retention and consequently high blood pressure.
Answer:
ADH

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is the relationship between hypothalamus and anterior pituitary?
Answer:
Hypothalamus and pituitary are related through blood supply. Hypothalamus regulates the synthesis and secretion of pituitary hormones.

Question 2.
Pituitary is not a master gland. Is it correct?
Answer:
No, it is not correct.
It is the smallest endocrine gland, but serves very important role in the human endocrine system. It directly or indirectly controls almost all other endocrine glands of the body. It is also known as master gland.

Question 3.
How are insulin and glucagon related?
Answer:
Insulin and glucagon are secreted by the gland pancreas. Insulin is hypoglycemic while glucagon is antagonistic to insulin and thus is hyper glycemic.

Question 4.
Name the hormone secreted by the delta cells of the pancreatic islet. What is its function?
Answer:
The hormone secreted by the delta cells of pancreas is somatostatin. Function of somatostatin is to inhibit the secretion of insulin and glucagon.

Question 5.
Pancreas is a mixocrine gland. Explain
Answer:
It is a composite gland that acts as both exocrine and endocrine gland. Such glands are also called heterocrine gland.
Origin: It originates from the endoderm of the embryonic germ layers.
Location: It lies below the stomach, in the loop of duodenum.

Question 6.
Why are catecholamines termed as emergency hormones?
Answer:
Both hormones belong to the category of compounds known as catecholamines and are secreted in response to any kind of stress, danger and during emergency situations like increased respiratory rate, heartbeat, etc.
The CNS at the time of stress or danger stimulates the adrenal medulla to release both these hormones. These are also known as emergency hormones or hormones of fight or flight.

Question 7.
How does cortisol handle stress?
Answer:
Cortisol
These are the hormones, which regulate the metabolism of carbohydrates, proteins and fats. Cortisol is the main glucocorticoid found in our body.
1. Cortisol is involved in the maintenance of cardiovascular system and in proper functioning of kidney.
2. Cortisol produces anti-inflammatory reactions and also during stress conditions functions by suppression of immune response.

Question 8.
Explain diabetes insipidus.
Answer:
Diabetes insipidus is a condition caused by the deficiency of hormones vasopressin. In this disease, there is a loss of water by frequent urination of dilute urine.

Question 9.
What is the main cause of type 1 diabetes mellitus?
Answer:
Type 1. diabetes is known as juvenile onset diabetes and it appears in people below the age of 20. It is caused, when beta cells are progressively destroyed by autoimmune attack by killer T lymphocyte. The consequence is that there is insulin deficiency.

Long Answer Type Question

Question 1.
Give an account of the structure of human pituitary gland and describe the functions of hormones secreted from it.
Answer:
Pituitary Gland (Hypophysis):
It is the smallest endocrine gland, but serves very important role in the human endocrine system. It directly or indirectly controls almost all other endocrine glands of the body. It is also known as master gland.

Origin: It originates from the ectoderm of the embryonic germ layers.

Location and Structure:
It is reddish grey in colour and is roughly oval in shape. It is about a size of a pea seed. The pituitary gland is located in a small bony cavity of the brain called sella tursica.

Anatomy:
The pituitary gland has three major lobes, i.e., anterior, intermediate and posterior lobe.
It is anatomically divided into two major portions
(i) Adenohypophysis It is the glandular anterior portion of the pituitary gland. It further consists of two parts, i.e., pars distalis and pars intermedia. These two parts represent the anterior and intermediate lobes of pituitary.
(a) Pars Distalis It also called anterior pituitary. It produces different hormones.
These hormones are given below with their functions

• Growth Hormone (GH), stimulates the somatotroph cells of anterior lobe of pituitary gland to release its growth hormone or somatotrophin. It stimulates body growth, protein, fat and carbohydrate metabolism. It also promotes skeletal growth by acting on epiphysical cartilages of long bones of children and adolescents.

• Prolactin (PRL) The prolactin releasing hormone stimulates lactotroph cells of the anterior lobe of pituitary gland to secrete its prolactin. PRL regulates the growth of mammary glands and formation of milk in them.

• Thyroid Stimulating
Hormone (TSH) Thyroid releasing hormone stimulates thyrotroph cells of the anterior lobe of pituitary to secrete its thyroid Stimulating Hormone, i.e., TSH or thyrotrophin. This TSH stimulates the synthesis and secretion of thyroid hormones from the thyroid gland.

• Adrenocorticotrophic Hormone
(ACTH) This is secreted when Adrenocorticotrophin Releasing Hormone (ACRH) stimulates the corticotroph cells of anterior lobe of pituitary. This stimulates the synthesis and secretion of steroid hormones called glucocorticoids from the adrenal cortex.

• Gonadotrophin Hormone It is the gonadotroph cells of anterior lobe of the pituitary gland, which secrete, luteinising Hormone (LH) and Follicle Stimulating hormone (FSH). Both of these hormones stimulate the gonadal activity hence, called gonadotrophin.

• luteinising Hormone (LH) In males, it stimulates the synthesis and secretion of hormones called androgens from testis. ‘While, in females, it induces ovulation of fully mature follicles (Graafian follicles) and also helps in maintaining the corpus luteum formed from the remnants of the Graafian follicles after ovulation.

• Follicle Stimulating Hormone (FSH) In males, the FSH and androgens together regulate spermatogenesis. In females, this hormone stimulates the growth and development of ovarian follicles.

(b) Pars Intermedia or Intermediate Lobe This portion of adenohypophysis secretes only one hormone,

• Melanocyte Stimulating Hormone
(MSH) The melanocyte releasing hormone stimulates the intermediate lobe of pituitary gland to secrete its Melanocyte Stimulating Hormone. MSH acts on melanocytes (melanin containing cells) and regulates the pigmentation of the skin.

(ii) Neurohypophysis It is a collection of axonaf projections from the hypothalamus, which terminate behind the anterior pituitary gland. It is pars nervosa of the neurohypophysis that forms the posterior lobe of pituitary gland.

The posterior pituitary stores and releases two hormones given below
(a) Oxytocin It is a short peptide of nine amino acids, also known as pitocin. It acts on the smooth muscles of our body and stimulates a vigorous contraction of uterus at the time of child birth. It also plays role in ejection of milk from the mammary glands in females.

(b) Vasopressin It is a small peptide hormone, also known as Antidiuretic Hormone (ADH) or pitressin. This hormone acts mainly at the kidney, stimulating the reabsorption of water and electrolysis by the distal tubules.
Thereby reducing the loss of water through urine (diuresis).

Odisha State Board CHSE Odisha Class 11 Biology Solutions Chapter 21 Neural Control and Coordination Textbook Questions and Answers.

CHSE Odisha 11th Class Biology Chapter 21 Question Answer Neural Control and Coordination

Neural Control and Coordination Class 11 Questions and Answers CHSE Odisha

Very Short Answer Type Questions

Choose the correct option

Question 1.
The myelin sheath around a nerve fibres in the peripheral nervous system is form by
(a) Oligodendrocytes
(b) Microglial cells
(c) Schwann cells
(d) Astrocytes
Answer:
(c) Schwann cells

Question 2.
The somatic sensory neuron conducts nerve impulse
(a) From a somatic receptor to the central nervous system.
(b) From central nervous system to the skeletal muscle.
(c) From the central nervous system to the smooth muscle and or glands.
(d) From a visceral receptor to the central nervous system.
Answer:
(a) From a somatic receptor to the central nervous system.

Question 3.
The cerebrospinal fluid is present
(a) In the subdural space only
(b) In the subarachnoid space only
(d) Both (b) and (c)
(e) Both (a) and (b)
Answer:
(e) Both (a) and (b)

Question 4.
The brain stem consists of
(a) Diencephalon, midbrain and pons
(b) Diencephalon, midbrain and medulla oblongata
(c) Midbrain, cerebellum and medulla oblongata
(d) Midbrain, pons and medulla oblongata
Answer:
(d) Midbrain, pons and medulla oblongata

Question 5.
Emotional states are regulated by
(a) Corpora quadrigemina
(b) Limbic system
(c) Basal nuclei
(d) Corpus callosum
Answer:
(b) Limbic system

Question 6.
Hypothalamus is a part of
(a) Telencephalon
(b) Metencephalon
(c) Diencephalon
(d) Mesencephalon
Answer:
(c) Diencephalon

Question 7.
Memory is regulated by
(a) Hypothalamus
(b) Hippocampus only
(c) Amygdala only
(d) Both (b) and (c)
Answer:
(d) Both (b) and (c)

Question 8.
The superior colliculi of corpora quadrigemina are involved in
(a) Auditory reflexes
(b) Visual reflexes
(c) Beleasing pituitary hormones
(d) Relaying of cutaneous information
Answer:
(b) Visual reflexes

Question 9.
In most people, the right side of the hemisphere controls the movements of
(a) the right side of the body primarily
(b) the left side of the body primarily
(c) both the right and left sides of the body equally
(d) head and neck only
Answer:
(b) the left side of the body primarily

Question 10.
In control of emotion and motivation, the limbic system works together with:
(a) pons
(b) thalamus
(c) hypothalamus
(d) cerebellum
Answer:
(c) hypothalamus

Question 11.
Lateral geniculate nuclei relay
(a) Auditory information
(b) Olfactory information
(c) Visual information
(d) Gustatory information
Answer:
(c) Visual information

Question 12.
Temperature regulation of the body is done by
(a) thalamus
(b) cerebellum
(c) hypothalamus
(d) medulla oblongata
Answer:
(c) hypothalamus

Question 13.
Respiratory and cardiovascular function are controlled by
(a) medulla oblongata
(b) cerebellum
(c) diencephalon
(d) telencephalon
Answer:
(a) medulla oblongata

Question 14.
Autonomic nervous system consists of nerves with:
(a) One neuron with one synapse
(b) Two neuron with two synapse
(c) One neuron with two synapse
(d) Two neuron with one synapse
Answer:
(d) Two neuron with one synapse

Question 15.
Parasympathetic ganglia are located
(a) in a chain parallel to the spinal cord
(b) in the dorsal roots of the spinal nerves
(c) next to or within the organs innervated
(d) in the brain
Answer:
(c) next to or within the organs innervated

Question 16.
The neurotransmitter of preganglionic sympathetic fibres is
(a) Norepinephrine
(b) Epinephrine
(c) Acetylcholine
(d) Dopamine
Answer:
(c) Acetylcholine

Question 17.
Depolarisation is characterised by
(a) Influx of sodium ions
(b) Efflux of potassium ions
(c) Influx of potassium ions
(d) Efflux of sodium ions
Answer:
(a) Influx of sodium ions

Question 18.
Gustation is related to
(a) sense of smell
(b) sense of taste
(c) sense of vision
(d) sense of hearing
Answer:
(b) sense of taste

Question 19.
Balance and equilibrium of the body is maintained by
(a) Semicircular canals only
(b) Saccule only
(c) Utricle only
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

Question 20.
The retina consists of
(a) unipolar neurons
(b) bipolar neurons
(c) multipolsr neurons
(d) pseudounipolar neurons
Answer:
(b) bipolar neurons

Express the following in one word

Question 1.
The singular long process of a multipolar neuron.
Answer:
Axon

Question 2.
The functional junction between two neurons.
Answer:
Synapses

Question 3.
The nervous system constituted by cranial and spinal nerves.
Answer:
Peripheral nervous system

Question 4.
The cell that forms myelin sheaths around nerve fibres of the peripheral nervous system.
Answer:
Schwann cell

Question 5.
The neuron possessing one each of an axon and a dendron.
Answer:
Bipolar

Question 6.
The nerve fiber that carries neural motor nerves information from the central nervous system to the receptors.
Answer:
Efferent/motor nerves

Question 7.
A collective name for the connective tissue coverings of the brain and spinal cord.
Answer:
Meninges

Question 8.
The fluid that is present in the subarachnoid space, ventricles and central canal.
Answer:
Cerebrospinal fluid

Question 9.
Metencephalon and myelencephalon together constitute a part of the brain.
Answer:
Hindbrain

Question 10.
Midbrain, pons and medulla oblogata together constitute a part of the brain.
Answer:
Mid and hindbrain.

Question 11.
The fiber tract connecting the two cerebral hemispheres.
Answer:
Corpus callosum.

Question 12.
Corpus striatum is a perdominant part of the subcortical nuclei. Name the nuclei.
Answer:
Caudate and lentiform nuclei

Question 13.
The system and hypothalamus that regulate the emotional states of a person. Name the system.
Answer:
Limbic system

Question 14.
The vascular tissue that secretes the cerebrospinal fluid.
Answer:
Anterior choroid plexus and posterior choroid plexus.

Question 15.
The thalamic nuclei that relay visual information to the occipital lobe.
Answer:
Lateral geniculate nucleus

Question 16.
The inferior colliculi are the relay centres of a neural information. Name the neural information.
Answer:
auditory

Question 17.
The regulatory centres of the respiratory system and cardiovascular system lie in a part of the brain. Name it
Answer:
Medulla oblongata

Question 18.
Coordination of movements is executed by a part of the brain. Name it.
Answer:
Cerebellum

Question 19.
The communication between the third and fourth ventricles of the brain.
Answer:
Cerebral aqueduct

Question 20.
A fine connective tissue filament attached to th conus medullaris of the spinal cord.
Answer:
Filum terminale

Question 21.
The chemical substance that is secreted into th synaptic cleft by the presynaptic neuron.
Answer:
Acetylcholine (Neurotransmitters)

Question 22.
The Unconscious motor response to a sensory stimulus.
Answer:
Reflex arc.

Question 23.
The influx of sodium ions changes the polarity of distribution of electrical charges across the membrane of a nerve fiber. Name the process.
Answer:
Depolarisation

Question 24.
The conduction of nerve impulse along a myelinated nerve fiber.
Answer:
Saltatory conductions

Question 25.
Equilibrium or orientation with respect to gravity is controlled by an apparatus.
Answer:
Eustachian tube

Question 26.
The part of the membranous labyrinth connected with hearing.
Answer:
Organ of corti.

Question 27.
The tubular connection between the middle eai and pharynx.
Answer:
Eustachian tube

Question 28.
The part of the retinal that doesn’t contain any photoreceptor cell.
Answer:
Blind spot

Question 29.
The part of the retina, where an image is forme with highest resolution.
Answer:
fovea

Question 30.
Phtoreceptor cells of the retina that perceive colour.
Answer:
Cones

Question 31.
The fluid present in the membranous labyrinth.
Answer:
Perilymph

Question 32.
The fluid present in the bony labyrinth.
Answer:
Endolymph

Correct the sentences, if incorrect, without changing the words underlined

Question 1.
Somatic motor neurons conduct nerve impulse from the sensory receptors to the central nervous system.
Answer:
True

Question 2.
The central nervous system is constituted by the cranial and spinal nerves.
Answer:
The peripheral nervous system is constituted by the cranial and spinal nerves.

Question 3.
The autonomic motor neurons with their control centres constitute the somatic division of the peripheral nervous system.
Answer:
The autonomic motor neurons with their control centres constitute the autonomic nervous system.

Question 4.
The functional junction between a neuron and an effector cell is known as a synapse.
Answer:
True

Question 5.
In human, all synapses electrical.
Answer:
In human, all synapses are chemical.

Question 6.
The sequence of the menings from outer to inner is piameter, arachnoid mater and duramater.
Answer:
The sequence of the menings from outer to inner is duramater, arachnoid and piamater.

Question 7.
Cerebrospinal fluid is secreted by the meninges.
Answer:
Cerebrospinal fluid is secreted by anterior and posterior choroid plexus.

Question 8.
The functional junction between the two cerebral himispheres is known as corpus striatum.
Answer:
The functional junction between the two cerebral himispheres is known as corpus callosum.

Question 9.
Pineal gland arises from a part of the diencephalon, known as hypothalamus.
Answer:
Pineal gland arises from a part of the diencephalon, known as epithalaums.

Question 10.
The mass of cell bodies and axons running through the brain stem is known as corpus callosum.
Answer:
The mass of cell bodies and axons running through the brain stem is known as reticular formation.

Question 11.
Superior colliculi relay auditory information to the occipital lobe of the cerebrum.
Answer:
Superior colliculi relay visual information to the midbrain.

Question 12.
Medulla oblongata coordinates movement and equilibrium.
Answer:
Cerebellum coordinates movement and equilibrium.

Question 13.
Foramen of monro connects the third ventricle with the fourth ventricle.
Answer:
Cerebral aqueduct connects the third ventricle with the fourth ventricle.

Question 14.
In the spinal cord, the outer part is made by white matter, while the inner by gray matter.
Answer:
True

Question 15.
The gray matter consists of medullated nerve fibers.
Answer:
The gray matter consists of neural cell bodies and unmyelinated axons.

Question 16.
The somatic nervous system is constituted by nerves with two types of neurons and a synapse in a ganglion.
Answer:
Autonomic nervous system is constituted by nerves with two types of neurons and a synapse in a ganglion.

Question 17.
Acetylcholine is secreted as the neurotransmitter between pre and postganglionic fibers in both the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions.
Answer:
True

Question 18.
In somatic motor reflex, the motor transmission is executed by one each of preganglionic and postaganglionic nerous with a synapse in a sympathetic ganglion.
Answer:
In somatic motor reflex, a somatic neuron conducts the impulse along a single axon from the spinal cord to the neuromuscular junction of a skeletal muscle.

Question 19.
Efflux of sodium ions and influx of potassium ions during nerve impulse conduction have been characterised as repolarisation.
Answer:
True

Question 20.
The correct order of the ear ossicles from outer to inner is incus, malleus and stapes.
Answer:
The correct order of the ear ossicles from outer to inner is malleus, incus and stapes.

Question 21.
Stapes is in contact with a round window.
Answer:
Stapes is in contact with a oval window.

Fill in the blanks

Question 1.
The central nervous system is constituted by …………… and …………….. .
Answer:
brain and spinal cord

Question 2.
The structural and function unit of the nervous system is known as ………………… .
Answer:
neuron

Question 3.
The basophilic granular material present in the neuron cytoplsam is known as ………………… .
Answer:
Nissel body

Question 4.
The axons of some neurons are encapsulated by an insulating lipid material, known as ………………… .
Answer:
myelin sheath

Question 5.
The myelin sheaths around the nerve fibers in the central nervous system is formed by ………………… cells.
Answer:
schwann

Question 6.
The efferent motor neurons that conduct impulse from the central nervous system to the visceral effectors are known as ………………… .
Answer:
visceral effector neuron

Question 7.
The functional junction between two neurons is known as ………………… .
Answer:
synapse

Question 8.
The junction between a neuron and effector is known as ………………… .
Answer:
myoneural junction

Question 9.
The impulse transmission across a synapse is carried out by a chemical substance, known as a ………………… .
Answer:
acetylcholine

Question 10.
The middle mening of the brain is known as ………………… .
Answer:
arachnoid

Question 11.
The brain is covered by a delicate connective tissue layer called ………………… .
Answer:
piameter

Question 12.
The dense fibrous connective tissue layer that forms a lining of the cranium is known as ………………… .
Answer:
durameter

Question 13.
The subarachnoid space is filled with a fluid called ………………… .
Answer:
cerebrospinal fluid

Question 14.
The cerebrospinal fluid is secreted by ………………… .
Answer:
choroid plexus

Question 15.
The brain stem is constituted by midbrain, ………………… and medulla oblongata.
Answer:
pons

Question 16.
Two cerebral hemispheres are connected by a fibrous tract, known as ………………… .
Answer:
corpus callosum

Question 17.
The cerebrum surface is marked by the presence of elevations and depressions, known as …………….. and …………….. respectively.
Answer:
gyri and sulci

Question 18.
The mass of cell bodies and axons that run through the brain stem constitutes ………………… .
Answer:
reticular formation

Question 19.
Corpora striata are integral parts of the predominant subcortical nuclei called ………………… nuclei or ganglia.
Answer:
caudate

Question 20.
Lateral geniculate nucleus relays ……………… information to …………….. lobe of the cerebrum.
Answer:
visual and optic

Question 21.
Medial geniculate nucleus relay ………………. information to ……………… lobe of the cerebrum.
Answer:
auditory and temporal

Question 22.
Superior colliculi and inferior colliculi are concerned with …………….. and ……………. functions, respectively.
Answer:
vision and hearing

Question 23.
The degeneration in the caudate nucleus causes a dominant genetic disorder, known as ………………. .
Answer:
Huntington’s diseases

Question 24.
The respiratory centres are situated in …………….. and …………….. of the brain.
Answer:
medulla oblongate and pons

Question 25.
Coordination in speech and movement are controlled by ………………. of the brain.
Answer:
cerebellum

Question 26.
Two lateral ventricles communication with each other and with the third ventricle through ………………. .
Answer:
foramen of monro

Question 27.
The ventricular communication between the third and fourth ventricles is known as ……………… .
Answer:
cerebral aqueduct

Question 28.
There are ……………. pairs of cranial and …………….. pairs of spinal nerves in human.
Answer:
10,31

Question 29.
The bunch of spinal nerves at the posterior end to the spinal cord, resembling a horse tail is known as ………………… .
Answer:
cauda equina

Question 30.
An autonomic nerve consists of ……………. number of neurons and …………….. number of synapses.
Answer:
two and one

Question 31.
The nerve fibers of the afferent (sensory) division convey information from the receptors to the central nervous system. Such fibers are classed as ……………..neurons in respect of the number of processes.
Answer:
pseudounipolar

Question 32.
Two neurons of an autonomic nerve fiber are termed as ……………. and ……………. .
Answer:
preganglionic nerve fibre, postganglionic nerve

Question 33.
The autonomic nervous system consists of two divisions, namely …………….. and ……………. .
Answer:
sympathetic and para sympathetic

Question 34.
The conduction of a nerve impulse along a myelinated nerve fiber is known as ……………… conduction.
Answer:
saltatory

Question 35.
The vestibular apparatus is constituted by the utricle, the saccule and ……………… .
Answer:
semicircular canals

Question 36.
Changes in linear acceleration, i.e. in velocity are regulated by ………….. and ………….. While changes in angular velocity are regulated by ……………. .
Answer:
utricle and saccule; crista ampullaris

Question 37.
The spirally coiled structure attached to the membranous labyrinth, which serves as the organ of hearing is known as ………………… .
Answer:
cochlea

Question 38.
The sensory part of the cochlea is known as ………………… .
Answer:
organ of corti

Question 39.
The innermost layer of the eye ball that contains the sensory cells is known as ………………… .
Answer:
retina

Question 40.
The visual sensory cells are of two types, namely …………… and …………. .
Answer:
rods and cones

Short Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
What is the function of myelin sheath?
Answer:
The myelin sheath is a protective covering that surrounds fibres called axons. The main function of myelin is to protect and insulate these axons and enhance the transmission of electrical impulses.

Question 2.
Why are gray matter and white matter named so?
Answer:
The type of fat in myelin makes it look white, so myelin-dense white matter takes on a white colour as well. In contrast grey matter is mostly neuron cell bodies which provide it grey colour.

Question 3.
Is there any difference between an efferent neuron and motor neuron?
Answer:
There is no difference between efferent and motor neuron, as they both carry nerve impulses from cental nervous system to the effector organs.

Question 4.
What is the role of limbic system?
Answer:
Limbic system include amygadala, hippocampus, thalamus, hypothalamus, basal ganglia and cingulate gyrus.
The limbic system supports a variety of functions including emotion, behaviour, motivation, long-term memory and olfaction.

Question 5.
Which parts of the brain regulate memory?
Answer:
Forebrain regulates memory. It is divided into two regions telencephalon constituted by two cerebral hemispheres (cerebrum) and diencephalon.

Question 6.
What is a chemical synapse?
Answer:
In a chemical synapse, the plasma membranes of pre and post synaptic neurons are separated by a fluid-filled space called synaptic cleft. The terminal part of pre synaptic neuron has endings called terminal boutons. These endings store a chemical substance known as neurotransmitter in synaptic vesicle. These neurotransmitters bring about depolarisation.

Question 7.
Cerebrospinal fluid is being secreted continuously by the choroid plexus. How is this volume kept constant?
Answer:
The volume of cerebrospinal fluid is kept constant, as after its production, it is absorbed and drained into the venous blood by arachnoid villi.

Question 8.
What do you understand by cerebral lateralisation?
Answer:
Cerebral lateralised refer to the fact that the two halves of the human brain are not exactly alike. Each hemisphere has functional specialisation. For example left hemisphere is specialised for language and speech abilities.

Question 9.
How is the day night cycle regulated by melatonin?
Answer:
Melatonin is involved in regulation of day-night cycles. The duration of melatonin secretion each day is directly proportional to the length of night. It is because the melatonin synthesising enzyme is low during daylight and peaks during dark phase.

Question 10.
What is a spinal nerve? Where does it originate from?
Answer:
The spinal nerve tracts are divisible into two, ascending (conducting sensory impulses towards brain) and descending (conducting motor impulses from brain).

Question 11.
Describe a pseudounipolar neuron.
Answer:
Pseudo Unipolar neurons These neurons have cell body with one axon only. These are found usually in the embryonic stage.

Question 12.
What are preganglionic nerve fibers? These are characteristic feature of which section of the nervous system?
Answer:
The fibres extending from CNS to the ganglion are know as preganglionic nerve fibres, whereas those extending from ganglion to the effector organ are called postganglionic fibers. These are characteristic features of autonomic nervous system.

Question 13.
What is sympathetic trunk? Describe about what it is made up of.
Answer:
Sympathetic trunk refers to a paired bundle of nerve fibres that run from the base of the skull to coccyx. The trunk represents 3 ganglia in the cervical part (superior, middle, inferior), 11 ganglia in the thoracic part, 4 lumbar and 4 sacral ganglia.

Question 14.
What is a reflex arc?
Answer:
The entire process of response to a peripheral nervous stimulation, that occurs involuntarily, i.e., without conscious effort or thought, requires the involvement of a part of the central nervous system is called a reflex action. .
The nervous pathway taken by nerve impulses in* a reflex action is called reflex arc.

Question 15.
What is an action potential? How does it help in the conduction of nerve impulse?
Answer:
When a stimulus of adequate strength (threshold stimulus) is applied to a polarised membrane, the permeability of the membrane to Na⁺ ions is greatly increased at the point of stimulation (site A).
(i) This leads to a rapid influx of Na⁺ followed by the reversal of the polarity at that site, i.e., the outer surface of the membrane becomes negatively charged and the inner side becomes positively charged. The polarity of the membrane at the site A is thus, reversed and neuron at that point is said to be depolarised.
(ii) The electrical potential difference across the plasma membrane at the site A is called the action potential, (another name of nerve impulse).

Question 16.
What is synaptic transmission?
Answer:
A brief description of the mechanism of synaptic transmission is given below
(i) When an impulse (action potential) arrives at a presynaptic knob, calcium ions from the synaptic cleft enter the cytoplasm of the presynaptic knob.
(ii) The calcium ions cause the movement of the syfiaptic vesicles to the surface of the knob.
The synaptic vesicles are fused with the presynaptic plasma membrane and get ruptured (exocytosis) to discharge their contents (neurotransmitter) into the synaptic cleft.
(iii) The neurotransmitter of the synaptic cleft binds with specific protein receptor molecules, present on the postsynaptic membrane.
(iv) This binding action changes the membrane potential of the postsynaptic membrane, opening channels in the neurolemma and sodium ions to enter the cell. This causes the depolarisation and generation of action potential in the postsynaptic membrane. Thus, the ‘ impulse is transferred to the next neuron.
(v) The new potential developed may be either excitatory or inhibitory.

Question 17.
Are there different regions in the tongue for different tastes? Yes or No. Justify.
Answer:
No,
Tongue is the organ for the sense of taste or gustation. It possess various taste buds located on it. These taste buds are called chemoreceptors or gustatoreceptors. There are three types of papillae present on the tongue.
1. Filiform papillae
2. Fungiform papillae
3. Circumvallate papillae or vallate papillae
In humans, there are approx 10,000 taste buds present on the tongue with each about 60-80 flm in diameter consisting of gustatory cells and supporting cells.

Question 18.
What is vestibular apparatus? How does it help maintain balance and equilibrium with respect to gravity?
Answer:
(i) The inner ear also contains a complex system called vestibular apparatus (located above the cochlea). It is composed of three semicircular canals and the otolith organ consisting of the saccule and utricle.
(ii) Each semicircular canal lies in a different plane at right angles to each other. The membranous canals are suspended in the perilymph of the bony canals. The base of canals is swollen and is called ampulla, which contains a projecting ridge called crista ampullaris, which contains sensory hair cells.
(iii) The saccule and utricle contain a projecting ridge called macula. The crista and macula are the specific receptors of the vestibular apparatus responsible for the maintenance of balance of the body and posture.

Question 19.
What is the role of fovea centralis in the image formation by the eye.
Answer:
The fovea centralis is responsible for sharp central vision, which is necessary in humans for activities where visual – detail is required like reading and driving.

Differentiate between

Question 1.
Axon and Dendron
Answer:
Difference between Dendron and Axons are as follows

Dendron	Axon
These are short fibres which branch repeatedly and project out of the cell body and also contain Nissel’s granules.	The axon is a long branched fibre, which terminates as a bulb-like structure called synaptic knob. It possesses synaptic vesicles containing chemicals called neurotransmitters.
These fibres transmit impulses towards the cell body.	The axons transmit nerve impulses away from the cell body to a synapse.
Its branches terminate into bulb-like synaptic knobs.	Their branches do not have synaptic knobs.

Question 2.
Schwann cell and Oligodendrocyte
Answer:
Schwawnn cells and Oligodendrocytes

Schwawnn cells	Oligodendrocytes
Perform a similar function in the Peripheral Nervous System.	Main function is to insulate the axons, almost exclusively in the central nervous system in the higher vertebrates.
Can wrap around only one axon.	The multiple layers of warpping of oligodenrocytes around the axons forms the mylein sheath.
There are two types myelinating and non-myelinating	The ’feet’ of a single oligodendrocyte can extend its processes to 50 axons, wrapping approximately 1 μm of myelin sheath around each axon.

Question 3.
Somatic nervous system and Visceral nervous system
Answer:
Somatic nervous system and Visceral nervous system

Somatic nervous system	Visceral nervous system
Somatic neurons are responsible for interactions with the outside world and voluntary movements. This includes touch, feeling pain, ticklish, etc. They are a part of peripheral nervous system.	Visceral neuron are part of the autonomic nervous system. They control involuntary movements of internal organs. An example of this is your heart that beats involuntarily.

Question 4.
Bipolar and Multipolar neurons
Answer:
Bipolar and Multipolar neurons

Bipolar Neurons	Multipolar Neurons
1. Bipolar neurons have two processes separated by the cell body.	1. Multipolar neurons have more than two process; there is a single axon and multiple dendrites.
2. Carry impulses from skin receptors to spinal cord.	2. It carry impulses from CNS to skeletal muscles.

Question 5.
Afferent neurons and Efferent neurons
Answer:

Afferent neurons	Efferent neurons
Afferent neurons are responsible for receiving and transmitting messages to the central nervous system from all parts of the body.	Efferent neurons are responsible for receiving and transmitting the message from the central nervous system to all parts of the body.
Afferent neurons make up sensory nerves.	Efferent neurons make up motor nerves.
Afferent neurons have a single long dendrite and a short axon.	Efferent neurons have a single long axon and several dendrites.
Afferent neurons are located just outside the central nervous system.	Efferent neurons are located inside the central nervous system.

Question 6.
Chemical synapse and Electrical synapse
Answer:

Chemical Synapse	Electrical Synapse
In chemical synapse, signal chemical molecules are neurotransmitters.	In electrical synapse, signal transmission happens in the form of electrical signals without the use of molecules.
Signals are modified during the transmission.	Signals are not modified during the transmission.
Neurotransmitters are released by exocytosis and diffused in the synaptic cleft and then are bound to receptors.	Electric signals pass via gap junctions.
Space between the pre and post synaptic ends is larger.	Space between the pre and post synaptic ends is very small.
Signal transmission happens only into one direction.	Signal transmission can happen in both directions.
Signal transmission requires energy. So its an active process.	Signal transmission happens without utilizing energy. So, its a passive process.
Single transmission happens at a moderate speed.	Signal transmission is extremely fast.

Question 7.
Corpus callosum and Corpus striatum.
Answer:

Corpus callosum	Corpus striatum
It is an arched mass of white matter in the depths of the longitudinal fissure, made up of transverse fibres connecting the cerebral hemispheres.	It is a subcortical mass of grey matter and white matter in front of and lateral to the thalamus “in each cerebral” hemisphere.

Question 8.
Medullated and Non-medullated nerve fibers.
Answer:

Medullated Nerve	Non-medullated Nerve
The axon is surrounded by a layer of fatty proteinaceous materials called myelin sheath.	Myelin sheaths are absent.
The myelin sheath provides white colour to the nerve fibre.	It appears grey in colour due to absence of myelin sheath.
Presence of nodes of Ranvier.	Nodes of Ranvier are absent.
The conduction of nerve impulse is faster	The conduction of nerve impulse is slower.
They are found in brain and spinal chord.	These are found in sympathetic and para-sympathetic nerves.

Question 9.
Sympathetic system and Parasympathetic system.
Answer:

Sympathetic system	Parasympathetic system
It consists of axons of neurons arising from the thoracic and lumber region of the spinal cord. Hence, this system is referred to as thoraco-lumber outflow.	It consists of axons of neurons arising from the cranial and sacral region of the spinal cord. Hence, this system is also referred to as cranio-sacral outflow.
It consists of short preganglionic and long postganglionic nerve fibres.	It consists of long preganglionic and short postganglionic nerve fibres
Its preganglionic fibres emerge with spinal nerves only.	Its preganglionic fibres emerge with cranial as well as spinal nerves.
It is very near to the spinal cord.	It is present nearer to the visceral organs.
It prepares the body to meet the emergency condition.	It relaxes the activities of body by restoring normal activities after stress.
Postganglionic fibres are numerous and are mostly adrenergic.	Postganglionic fibres are fewer and are cholinergic.

Question 10.
Somatic motor reflex and Autonomic motor reflex.
Answer:

Autonomic reflex	Somatic reflex
An autonomic reflex is one that involves the response of an organ, such as the peristaltic contraction of the smooth muscle of the intestine, that is not controlled consciously.	Somatic reflexes involves a response that involves a skeletal muscle contraction in response to a stimuli. Sensory nerves send signals through an afferent pathway to the central nervous system for processing.
The autonomic reflex is associated with one branch of the peripheral nervous system that regulates the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous system.	A somatic reflex is a part of the other branch of the peripheral nervous system that controls skeletal muscle movements, including knee jerk reflex etc.

Question 11.
Depolarisation and Repoalarisation.
Answer:

Depolarisation	Repolarisation
It is the state in which the cell membrane change from positive to negative charged outside the cell and from negative to positive charge inside the cell.	It is the state in which the cell membrane change back its resting state, mean from negative to positive charge outside the cell and from positive to negative charge inside the cell.

Question 12.
Aqueous humor and vitreous humor.
Answer:

Aqueous humor	Vitreous humor
It occurs in aqueous chamber.	It occurs in vitreous chamber.
It is a watery fluid.	It is a jelly-like substance.
It is secreted by ciliary process.	It is apparently secreted by retina during the development of an eye.
It is continuously absorbed into the blood and replaced.	It is neither absorbed nor replaced.

Question 13.
Endolymph and Perilymph.
Answer:

Endolymph	Perilymph
In scala media.	In scala tympani and scala vestibuli
Extracellular fluid.	Ionic composition similar to CSF or plasma
Ionic composition similar to intracellular fluid. High K+, low Na+	Rich in Na+ and low in K+

Question 14.
Rod cells and Cone cells.
Answer:

Rods	Cones
The twilight vision is the function of rods.	The daylight vision and the colour vision are functions of cones.
The rods contain a purplish-red protein called the rhodopsin or visual purple, which contains a derivative of vitamin-A.	In the human eye, there are three types of cones which possess their own characteristic photopigments that respond to red, green and blue lights.

Long Answer Type Questions

Question 1.
Describe the structure of human brain and enumerate important function of each part of it.
Answer:
Brain:
The brain is the central information processing organ of our body and acts as the ‘command and control system of all body activities.

Diagram showing sagital section of the human brain

Brain controls the following activities
(i) The voluntary movements and balance of the body.
(ii) Functioning of vital involuntary organs, e.g., lungs, heart, kidneys, etc.
(iii) Thermoregulation, hunger and thirst.
(iv) Circardian (24 hrs) rhythms of our body.
(v) Activities of several endocrine glands and human behaviour.
(vi) It is also the site for processing of vision, hearing, speech, memory, intelligence, emotions and thoughts.

Location:
The brain is the anterior most part of the central neural system, which is located in the cranium (cranial cavity) of the skull.

Protective Coverings of the Brain:
It is covered by three membranes or meninges (cranial meninges)
(i) The outermost membrane, is duramater which is the tough fibrous membrane adhering close to the inner side of the skull.
(ii) The middle membrane, is very thin layer called arachnoid membrane (arachnoid mater).
(iii) The innermost membrane, the piamater is thin and very delicate, which is in contact with the brain tissue.

Knowledge Plus:
The human brain weighs from 1200-1400 g. Brain alone has about 2 billion neurons and trillions of interneuron connections.

Structure:
The human brain is divisible into three main parts
(i) Forebrain
(ii) Midbrain
(iii) Hindbrain
(i) Forebrain
The forebrain consists of
1. Olfactory lobes The anterior part of the brain is formed by a pair of short club-shaped structures, the olfactory lobes. These are concerned with the sense of smell.
2. Cerebrum It is the largest and most complex of all the parts of the human brain. A deep cleft divides the cerebrum longitudinally into two equal halves. These are termed as the left and right cerebral hemispheres. These hemispheres are connected by a large band of myelinated fibres the corpus callosum.

The outer cover of cerebral hemisphere is called cerebral cortex. The cerebral cortex is referred to as the grey matter due to its greyish appearance (as neuron cell bodies are concentrated here).

Lateral view of the brain showing the lobes of cerebral cortex, (a) Lateral view, (b) Drosal view.

The cerebral cortex is greatly folded. The upward folds, gyri, alternate with the downward grooves or sulci. Beneath the grey matter, there are millions of myelinated nerve fibers, which constitute the inner part of the cerebral hemisphere. The large concentration of medullated nerve fibres gives this tissue an opaque white appearance. Hence, it is called the white matter.

Lobes A very deep and a longitudinal fissure, separates the two cerebral hemispheres. Each cerebral hemisphere of the cerebrum is divided into four lobes, i.e., frontal, parietal, temporal and occipital lobes.
In each cerebral hemisphere, there are three types of functional areas
• Sensory areas It receives impulses from the receptors. Motor areas transmit impulses to the effectors.
• Association areas These are large regions that are neither clearly sensory nor motor in junction. They interpret the input, store the input and initiate a response in light of similar past experience. Thus, these areas are responsible for complex functions like memory, learning, • reasoning and other intersensory associations.

3. Diencephalon is the posterio-ventral part of the forebrain.
Its main parts are as follows
• Epithalamus is a thin membrane of non-nervous
tissue. It is the posterior segment of the diencephalon.
• The cerebrum wraps around a structure called thalamus, which is a major coordinating centre for sensory and motor signalling.
The hypothalamus, that lies at the base of thalamus contains a number of centres, which – control body temperature, urge for eating and drinking. It also contains several groups of neurosecretory cells, which secrete hormones called hypothalamic hormones.

The inner parts of cerebral hemispheres and a group of deeply associated structures like amygdala, hippocampus, etc., form a complex structure called limbic lobe or limbic system that is involved in the regulation of sexual behaviour, expression of emotional reactions, e.g., excitement, pleasure, rage and fear and motivation.

(ii) Midbrain
The midbrain is located between the thalamus hypothalamus of the forebrain and pons of the hindbrain. A canal called the cerebral aqueduct passes through the midbrain.
The dorsal portion of the midbrain mainly consists of two pairs (i.e., four) of rounded swellings (lobes) called corpora quadrigemina.

(iii) Hindbrain
The hindbrain consists of
(a) Cerebellum It is also called small brain and consists of three lobes, a central vermis and two lateral cerebellar hemispheres. The central core of each cerebellar hemisphere is formed by white matter and the arrangement of grey matter and white matter in the inner side have a characteristic tree like appearance called Arbor Vitae or tree of life.
(b) Pons Varolii It forms the floor of brain stem and serves as neuronal link between cerebral cortex and cerebellum. It consist of pontine nuclei, pneumotaxic area and apneustic area. Pontine nuclei are sites at which signals for voluntary movements are relayed into cerebellum. Both pneumotaxic and apneustic area control respiration.
(c) Medulla Oblongata It is the triangular part of brain whose roof is associated with overlying piamater to form the posterior choroid plexus. It contains cardiac centres (control rate and force heartbeat), vasomotor centres (control blood pressure by adjusting blood vessel diameter) and two respiratory centres (control rate and depth of breathing).

Ventricles of Brain:
The four cavities within brain are called cerebral ventricles.
These are given below
Cerebral ventricle and their location

Ventricle I, II and III are connected by foramen of monro, while ventricle III and IV are connected by cerebral aqueduct. Roof of ventricle IV contains a pair of lateral apertures foramina of luschka and a median aperture foramen of magendie.

The entire venticular system is lined the ependymal cells.

(a) Longitudinal frontal section of the brain and (b) Longitudinal sagittal section showing ventricles

Question 2.
Give an account of the mechanism of generation and propagation of a nerve impulse.
Or
Describe the mechanism of conduction of nerve impulse.
Answer:
Nerve impulse is a wave of bioelectric/electrochemical disturbance that passes along a neuron during conduction of an excitation.
Impulse conduction depends upon
(i) Permeability of axon membrane (axolemma).
(ii) Osmotic equilibrium (electrical equivalence) between the axoplasm and Extracellular Fluid (ECF) present outside the axon.
The generation of a nerve impulse is the temporary reversal of the resting potential in the neuron.

It occurs in following three steps
Resting Membrane Potential or Polarisation:
In a resting nerve fibre (a nerve fibre that is not conducting an impulse), the axoplasm (neuroplasm of axon) inside the axon contains high concentration of K and negatively charged proteins and low concentration of Na⁺.
(i) In contrast, the fluid outside axon contains a low concentration of K⁺ and a high concentration of Na⁺ and thus, forms a concentration gradient.
(ii) These ionic gradients across the resting membrane are maintained by the active transport of ions by the sodium-potassium pump, which transports 3Na⁺ outwards and 2K⁺ inwards (into the cell).
(iii) As a result, the outer surface of the axonal membrane possesses a positive charge, while its inner surface becomes negatively charged and therefore, is polarised.
(iv) The electrical potential difference across the resting plasma membrane is called as the resting potential. The state of the resting membrane is called polarised state.

Action Potential or Depolarisation:
When a stimulus of adequate strength (threshold stimulus) is applied to a polarised membrane, the permeability of the membrane to Na+ ions is greatly increased at the point of stimulation (site A).
1. This leads to a rapid influx of Na+ followed by the reversal of the polarity at that site, i.e., the outer surface of the membrane becomes negatively charged and the inner side becomes positively charged. The polarity of the membrane at the site A is thus, reversed and neuron at that point is said to be depolarised.

2. The electrical potential difference across the plasma membrane at the site A is called the action potential, (another name of nerve impulse).

3. At adjacent sites, e.g., site B, the membrane (axon) has positive charge (still polarised) on the outer surface and a negative charge on its inner surface.

4. The stimulated negatively charged point on the outside of the membrane sends out an electrical current to the positive point next to it. As a result, a current flows on the outer surface from site B to site A, while on the inner surface current flows from site A to site B.
This process (reversal) repeats itself over and over again and a nerve impulse is conducted throughout the length of the neuron.

Diagrammatic representation of impulse conduction through an axon

Repolarisation:
(i) The rise in the stimulus-induced permeability to, Na⁺ is extremely short lived. It is quickly followed by a rise in membrane permeability to K⁺.

(ii) Within a fraction of a second, Na⁺ influx stops andK⁺ outflow begins until the original resting state of ionic concentration is achieved. Thus, resting potential is restored at the site of excitation, which is called repolarisation of the membrane. This makes the fibre once more responsive to further stimulation.

(iii) In fact, until repolarisation occurs, neuron cannot conduct another impulse. The time taken for this restoration is called refractory period.

Reorientation:
Following repolarisation the membrane potential is restored at resting potential state, i.e. at 70 mV and the orientation of ions is also brought to normal. This is achieved by a process called reorientation. At the end of reorientation, normal polarity in respect of ionic distribution is reached.

Types of conduction:
Mechanism of conduction are different in myelinated and non-myelinated fiber. These are as follows
(a) Conduction along myelinated fiber
When an impulse travels along a myelinated neuron, depolarisation occurs only at the nodes of Ranvier. It leaps over the myelin sheath from one node to the next. This process, is called saltatory conduction.
This process accounts for the greater speed of an impulse travelling along a myelinated neuron than along a non-myelinated one. It is upto 50 times faster than the non-myelinated nerve fibre.

(b) Conduction along unmyelinated fiber
An action potential is generated is the membrane at the site of stimulation. The membrane undergoes depolarization by a rapid inflax of Na⁺ and then repolarization by an efflux of k⁺. Like this there is a wave of depolarization and repolarization in a forward direction in an electrifying speed.